CCC Magic

CC1 PRELIMS
1. The toxicity of tobacco smoking is due to the fact that this gaseous content of tobacco
smoke has 210x affinity for hemoglobin than any other:
ANSWER: Carbon Monoxide
2. Inaccurate procedures done can lead to the following EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Mismanagement of patients
3. Beer Lambert’s Law may only be applied in accurate quantitative analysis by light
absorption, if the following requisites are met EXCEPT
ANSWER: A chemical reaction occurs between the molecule of interest and
another solute
4. The shorter the wavelength, the ________the frequency.
ANSWER: Higher
5. Give the uses of these 2 IMMUNOCHEMISTRY types
ANSWER:
Immunocytochemical = used to enhance diagnostic accuracy in haematology and
oncology.
Immunohistochemical staining = used in the diagnosis of abnormal cells in
cancerous tumors
6. Principle of dry chemical analyzer:
ANSWER:
7. This is NOT a consequence of a Hemolysed sample:

ANSWER: Decrease potassium, Lactate dehydrogenase
8. Ascorbic Acid can produce the following interference EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Decreased transferases
9. The Avogadro's number.
ANSWER: 6.022x1023
10. Different metric units (2PTS EACH):
ANSWER:
0.02mg = _____ ng = 2 x 10 (+4)
20 fl = _____ dl = 2 x 10 (-16)
11. A system that can only use the instrument manufacturer’s reagents:
ANSWER: Close reagent system
12. To which methodology, do these principles/mechanisms belong?
ANSWER:
Scintillation counter = In this instrument, chemicals are used to convert their
energy into light energy.
Amperometry = It is the measurement of the electrical current at a single applied
potential.
Electrophoresis = It is the separation of charged compounds based on their
electrical charges.
13. To which methodology / instrument does this principle belong?
ANSWER:
Mass Spectrophotometry
14. The mass of an element or compound that will combine with or replace 1 mole of
hydrogen.
ANSWER: Equivalent weight
15. Each radionuclide has a unique half- life associated with it. Assuming an initial activity
of 100%, through how many half- life periods must a nuclide pass to bring its activity down
to less than 1%?
ANSWER: 7
16. The ion- selective electrode for this analyte, has the antibiotic Valinomycin
incorporated into its membrane.
ANSWER: K+
17. What is the molality of a solution if 100g of NaCl (MW = 58.5) were dissolved in 1000g
of distilled water?
ANSWER: 1.709 moles/1000g
18. Proper use of Thermometers EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Store a thermometer by hanging it in a horizontal position
19. Control Sera
ANSWER:
Assayed commercial control sera = use to check performance of new instruments
Unassayed commercial control sera = can be used for all routine analyses
20. This is now limited to analysis of metals such as lead in specialized toxicology
laboratories:
ANSWER: Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
21. How much serum do you need to make 250 mL of a 1:10 dilution of serum in saline?
ANSWER: 25ml
22. Core Components of Automated Chemistry Analyzer during Analytic Processing
EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Storage and Refrigeration
23. In Fluorometry this refers to the capability of organic chromophores to deactivate
flourescent molecules causing the test to yield a lower flouresence:
ANSWER: Quenching
24. This measures the light emitted by single atoms burned:
ANSWER: Atomic absorption photometer
25. In Typhoid Fever tittering of Antigen, how should the serial dilution be interpreted?
ANSWER: Severity of the disease will show turbidity towards the least
concentrated mixture
26. Calculate the molarity of a solution on NaCl (MW = 58.5) containing 117g/L of solution.
ANSWER: 2M
27. The equivalent weight of an acid solution:
ANSWER: The quantity of substance that contain one replaceable hydrogen.
28. It means the amount or quantity of solute per volume or in a given quantity of solution
/ solvent. *
ANSWER: Concentration of solution
29. In cleaning non-disposable labwares,
ANSWER: Rinse w/ reagent grade I water
30. Using the Elephant Formulary, convert the following to SI unit (2PTS EACH):
ANSWER:
31. This type of chromatography uses the so-called lock-and-key binding that is widely
present in biological systems:
ANSWER: Affinity chromatography
32. What is the IONIC STRENGTH of a solution of 1 M of KCL and 0.2 M of MgSO4?
ANSWER: 1.8
33. QUALITY ASSURANCE PROGRAM
ANSWER:
34. This step is NOT included in establishing the STANDARD CURVE:

ANSWER: Assay the standard solution together with the control serum
35. The method recommended by National Committee for Clinical Laboratory to calibrate
pipets:
ANSWER: Gravimetric method
36. In preparing 75% v/v ethanol, how much distilled WATER is needed to make a total
of 500mL solution?
ANSWER: 125ml
37. Which is in correct order of direction for the components of spectrophotometer:
ANSWER: Light bulb, diffraction grating, sample, photodetector
38. According to the BEER–LAMBERT–BOUGUER ‘S Law, the concentration of
substance is __________.
ANSWER: Inversely proportional to the log of the transmitted light, but directly
proportional to amount of light absorbed.
39. Describe this graph:
ANSWER:
ANSWER: High drift high noise

40. Biological experiments are particularly sensitive to alterations in chemical composition
of solutions for the following reasons, EXCEPT:
ANSWER: DNA migration in agarose gels can be altered by inexact calculation.
41. It refers to the weight (in grams) of one mole of a substance.
ANSWER: Gram Molecular weight
42. Match the direction of light in Nephelometry with particle size.
ANSWER:
Particles much larger than light = more intense but irregular in forward scattering
Particles smaller than light = symmetric light scatter
43. This procedure requires that a solution of 500mg K2Cr2O7 in 1L of 0.01N H2SO4
should give an Absorbance = 0.535 ± 2 at 350 nm, using the 0.01 N H2SO4 as blank:
ANSWER: Calibration of absorbance
44. This is used to correct non-specific absorbance of other substances in the sample:
ANSWER: Sample Blank
45. Given the following data: 11.7 14.4 12.1 12.7 12.0 13.5 12.0 16.0 15.0 14.5 13.8
ANSWER:
46. This increases the level of triglycerides:

ANSWER: Ethanol consumption
47. This test DON’T need fasting
ANSWER: Protein
48. Give the uses of the following Methodologies in instrumentation:
ANSWER:
Turbidimetry = It is the measurement of the reduction in light transmission caused
by particle formation.
Chemiluminescence = It involves the oxidation of an organic compound (luminal,
isoluminol, acridinium ester, or luciferin) by an oxidant.
Bioluminescence = It is based on energy exchange process when compounds
absorb electromagnetic radiation & become excited
49. What is the pH for a 0.05M solution of hydrochloric acid?
ANSWER: 1.3
50. Anticoagulant containing oxalates could inhibit the following enzymatic tests
EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Urease
51. Sum total of all activities done to ensure the desired target/ product is met
ANSWER: Quality Assurance Program
52. The most common expressions of concentration for solid/liquid:
ANSWER: % w/v
53. Penicillin G can cause a/an:
ANSWER: Increased Potassium
54. Current is ______ to the solution conductivity, which is in turn is _______ to its
impedance
ANSWER: Directly proportional; inversely proportional
55. How are the colligative properties of a solution affected as osmolality of a solution
goes higher?
ANSWER:
Boiling point and osmotic pressure = Increased
Freezing point = Decreased
56. In calibration of wavelength, use the following filter:
ANSWER: Didymium filter
57. What is the normality of a solution that contains 200g of NaCl per liter? (MW=58.5g)
ANSWER: 3.42 eq/L
58. To which methodology, do these principles/mechanisms belong?
ANSWER:
Refractometry = It is based on the ability of a substance to bend light.
Coulometry = It is an electrochemical titration in which the titrant is
electrochemically generated.
Conductometry = It is the measurement of electrical current between two
nonpolarized electrodes with a known potential.
59. This CANNOT be used to measure the speed of a centrifuge:
ANSWER: Stethoscope
60. PIPETTES
ANSWER:
CC1 LEC
1. Differentiate between Descriptive statistics and inferential statistics:

ANSWER: Descriptive statistics provides tools to describe a sample, while
Inferential statistics describes about the population.
2. If it’s not possible to maintain both high PRECISION & high accuracy, which of the
following should be followed:
ANSWER:
3. Most common type of error in the Clinical Laboratory:

ANSWER: Clerical error
4. Why do we use Westgard rules?
ANSWER: 1st & 2nd choices only (To help reduce costs while maintaining a high
level of quality. Decrease false rejection rate without compromising on the quality.)
5. In the following chart, what should the Medical Laboratory Scientist do?
ANSWER: Reject the run, investigate & repeat the tests
6. Factors affecting accuracy EXCEPT:

ANSWER: Variable cleanliness of optics
7. The difference between results of duplicate analysis ____ to the Med Tech’s
performance.
ANSWER: Is inversely proportional
8. In the Normal Distribution Curve ___% of every 100 normal patients would be
within this standard deviation of the mean:
ANSWER:
9. The following are measures of central tendency except:

ANSWER: Variance
10. When used with multiple rules, this can be used as a warning rule to trigger careful
inspection of control data:
ANSWER: 12S
11. Factors affecting precision EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Altered reagent
12. Identify the problem in the following Quality Control Charts & decide whether to
REJECT or ACCEPT the run:
ANSWER: A, B, and C = REJECT
13. Low error detection rate occurs in:

ANSWER: 13S
14. REPRODUCTIVITY
ANSWER:
15. REPEATABILITY
ANSWER:
16. In the t test, degrees of freedom mean:

ANSWER: Number of samples less one (?)
17. Sampling errors EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Wrong specimen
18. It is the graphical map for displaying control results
ANSWER: Levey-Jennings chart
19. A decision criterion for judging whether an analytical run is in or out of control
ANSWER: Control rule
20. In the formula for Regression analysis, y= ax + c, c means
ANSWER: The intercept point of the regression line and the y axis
21. The following statements are TRUE regarding Random Error except:
ANSWER: It affects accuracy of test system
22. The coefficient of variation (CV) is defined as:
ANSWER: The ratio of the standard deviation Ծ to the mean µ
23. Accuracy and Precision
ANSWER: A = High accuracy, High Precision
B = Low Accuracy, High Precision
C = High accuracy, Low Precision
24. Given the following data: 11.7 14.4 12.0 12.7 12.0 13.4 12.0 16.0 15.0 14.5
ANSWER:
± 1SD 1.52
CV (Coefficient of variation) 11.36%
Variance 2.08
Mid-point 13.85
Range 4.3
± 2SD 3.04
Mean 13.38
± 3SD 4.56
Midian 13.1
Mode 12
25. With 3 controls the false rejection rate is ____%?
ANSWER: 14%
26. To be acceptable, the value for coefficient of variation should be NOT MORE
THAN ____>
ANSWER: 11%
27. Systematic error can be due to the following EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Bubbles
28. ARRANGE IN ORDER, THE FOLLOWING STEPS TO DO WHEN ANALYSIS
GOES OUT OF CONTROL
ANSWER:
A – Briefly and quickly review the whole operational ingredients
B – If all is ok, repeat test to see if the value improves
C – If value is unacceptable when repeated, perform the test using a new bottle of
the control serum
D – If value does not improve, examine instrument
E – Use a new bottle of the standard
F – Change the reagent
G – Have some assayed, commercial control sera in stock, analyze 1 N and 1 abN
29. The classic manifestations of Diabetes mellitus include the following:
ANSWER: All of the above
30. Exogenous carbohydrates obtained from plant products, are commonly in the form of
_____.
ANSWER: Starch
31. This hormone pushes & store glucose into the tissues.
ANSWER: Insulin
32. This is the twin product of insulin.
ANSWER: C-peptide
33. Plasma glucose levels of ____ n adult is considered as hypoglycemia.
ANSWER: <45 mg/dL
34. It contributes to the bulk of the stool as it is formed in the colon.
ANSWER: Cellulose
35. Insulin secretion is stimulated by the following factors EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Epinephrine
36. This does NOT lead to Fasting hypoglycemia:
ANSWER: Exaggerated insulin release
37. It is also called the juvenile Onset Diabetes mellitus:
ANSWER: IDDM
38. T3 and T4 produces the following effects EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Leads to hypoglycemia
39. Which of statement is CORRECT concerning Cortisol?
ANSWER: Cortisol is produced by the adrenal cortex upon stimulation by adrenoco
hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland
40. This monosaccharide serves as the major entry point for all foodstuffs to the metabolic
pathways of the body.
ANSWER: Glucose
41. This is NOT included among the effects of insulin.
ANSWER: Promote glycogenolysis
42. A high level of C-peptide (>1.9 ng/mL) suggests (A) which is characterized by severe
(B)
ANSWER: A = Hyperinsulinism, B = Hypoglycemia
43. This is NOT included among the effects of Epinephrine.
ANSWER: Stimulate insulin secretion
44. The minimum recommended intake of carbohydrates survival per day is:
ANSWER: 130 grams
45. An important consequence of this condition is the accumulation of by-product
galactilol which contributes to cataract formation:
ANSWER: Galactosemia
46. Glucagon causes the following effects EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Glycolysis
47. The interconversion of hexoses in the liver includes the following processes:
ANSWER: First 2 choices only
48. When there are excess carbohydrates in the body, the excess is stored in the form
of:
ANSWER: Glycogen
49. In the Embden-Meyerhof pathway the following are the metabolic fates of glucose, in
the presence of Oxygen:
ANSWER: 1st and 3 choices only
50. Which is NOT a balanced breakfast?
ANSWER: 2 pc chicken drumstick, 1 serving of coleslaw, 1 glass of milk
51. Which does NOT refer to hypoglycemia in a first week old baby?
ANSWER: < 55 mg/dl in a 24 hours old infants
52. Glucose transporters rich in the cell membrane of muscle tissues.
ANSWER: GLUT-4
53. The most glucogenic among the amino acids.
ANSWER: Alanine
54. Fructose is absorbed from the lumen of the intestine principal
ANSWER: Passive diffusion
55. The levels of glucose in a fasting individual is maintained
ANSWER: 50-110 mg/dL
56. Effects of Insulin:
ANSWER: In the muscle and adipose tissue = INCREASE
Triglyceride synthesis = DECREASE
In the liver, production of glucose = DECREASE
Triggers the in the number of glucose transporters = INCREASE
In the muscle and the liver, insulin glycogenesis = INCREASE
In lipid metabolism, in blood fatty acid levels = DECREASE
57. Glucagon cause the following effects EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Glycolysis
58. Glucose and galactose are absorbed from the lumen of the intestine principally by an
active process involving:
ANSWER: Cotransport with sodium
59. During starvation, the following body processes occurs EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Glycogenesis
60. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding galactocemia?
ANSWER: Increased in galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
61. These hormones maintain the blood glucose level, EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
62. Galactose is converted by these two important enzymes:
ANSWER: First and third choices only
63. Lactose intolerance means:
ANSWER: Lactose cannot be broken down into galactose & glucose
64. The most common presentation of patients with Glycogen Storage Disease is ____.
ANSWER: Hepatomegaly
65. This group of methodology is more accurate.
ANSWER: Enzymatic methods
66. The dropping of blood glucose back to fasting level, 2hours after eating, is due to the
action of _____.
ANSWER: Insulin
67. This specimen has the lowest carbohydrate value:
ANSWER: Serum or plasma
68. Normally, the glucose values throughout the day is
ANSWER: 1st and 2nd choices only
69. Given a result of patient X: OGTT, 1st day = 145mg/dl; OGTT, 3rd day = 180mg/dl;
OGTT, 5th day = 168mg/dl. What is your clinical impression?
ANSWER: Impaired Glucose Tolerance
70. It is also called the adult Onset Diabetes mellitus:
ANSWER: NIDDM
71. A patient’s HbA1c was 8%. Conclusion:
ANSWER: The diabetic patient is not controlling his diet
72. These are included in the preparations for Oral glucose tolerance testing EXCEPT:
ANSWER: The patient not allowed to eat or drink nor drink water overnight
73. What certain pattern is observed?
ANSWER: Shift (?)

74. Definitions:
75. How much NaF should the Med Tech add to the 3ml blood if he wanted to preserve
it?
ANSWER: 6mg
76. Even if the patient is challenged with a 75-g carbohydrate load the increase may only
be within the range of _____.
ANSWER: 20-50 mg/dL
77. Around ___ hour/s after meal, blood glucose levels parallel the fasting results.
ANSWER: 2
78. Identify the deficient enzyme in the following Glycogen Storage Diseases:
ANSWER:
Type 2 (Pompe) = a-1-4-glucosidase
Type 1 (von Gierke) = Glucose=-6-phosphatase
Type 3 (Cori Forbes) = Debrancher
Type 5 & 6 (Mc Ardle & Hers) = Phosphorylase
Type 4 (Andersen) = Brancher
Type 7 (Tarui) = Phosphofructokinase
79. This method is considered the most specific non-enzymatic method for glucose.
ANSWER: Condensation with aromatic amines
80. There are 2 violations in this chart. The second violation in this control chart reflect
changes in
ANSWER: Systematic errors (?)

81. In Hexokinase method, the increase in absorbance due to the ____ in the second
reaction is measured directly at 340 nm
ANSWER: Production of NAD from NADH
82. The highest rise in blood glucose level after a meal is only
ANSWER: 10-15 mg/dL
83. What should have been the next step to do after analyzing that there is indeed a
violation the first time (Oct 31, 2001)?
ANSWER: Do not reject the value, monitor closely, and investigate the cause
84. What is the upper control limit in the chart below (+/- 2SD)?
ANSWER: 25.2
85. Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is indicated in cases of the following EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Galactose intolerance
86. This FBS levels taken on two occasions is suggestive of diabetes mellitus.
ANSWER: >126 mg/dL
87. The following are suggestive of diabetes mellitus EXCEPT
ANSWER: FBS of >5.0 mmol/L) (?)
88. A 6 months pregnant patient has the following result for the 3 hour OGTT: fasting
100mg/dl; 1 hour 220mg/dl; 2 hours 200mg/dl, 3 hours 135mg/dl. Conclusion:
ANSWER: Positive for Gestational Diabetes Mellitus
89. An out- patient was extracted at 6AM. Unfortunately, the Med Tech in charge has to
answer an emergency call in the Emergency Room, and has to leave the first patient’s
blood in the refrigerator with its temperature at 4oC. If the patient’s fasting blood sugar
yesterday was around 90mg/dl, how much do you expect it to be, if the Med Tech was
able to come back & perform the test at 9AM?
ANSWER: 84mg/dl
90. What is the expected product/color per method?
ANSWER:
Folin-wu = phosphomolybdenum blue complex
Condensation with aromatic amines = green colored N-glycosylamaine
Somogyi-nelson = arsenomolybdenum blue
Hagerdorn-Jensen method = yellow ferricyanide is reduced to a colorless
ferrocyanide
91. A patient was challenged with a 75g glucose concentrate. His initial FBS was
100mg/dl. Which is the most expected result for his Random Blood Sugar (RBS)?
ANSWER: 150mg/dl
92. HbA1C is NOT affected by the following;
ANSWER: Albumin level
93. By “fasting” for Glucose testing, it means no caloric intake for at least
ANSWER: 8 hours
94. A modification of the Folin-Wu technique, it is usually employed when testing for
sugars in urine:
ANSWER: Benedict
95. The renal threshold for glucose:
ANSWER: 180 mg/dL
96. This method of glucose determination produces a yellow to orange red product:
ANSWER: Neocuproine
97. The following statement is NOT true regarding Random blood sugar.
ANSWER: Normally, the glucose values throughout the day is 50-110 mg/dL
98. This is NOT part of GDM Screening Test.
ANSWER: Test for previously diagnosed Diabetes
99. A patient was subjected to an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test, and has the following
blood results: Fasting plasma glucose is 135mg/dL, 1 ½ hour level of 270mg/dl, and a 2-
hr glucose value of 110mg/dL. What is the condition of the patient? *
ANSWER: Diabetes mellitus
100. The larger the waistline the ____ is the lifespan.
ANSWER: Shorter
101. The safest dietary fat content:
ANSWER: Polyunsaturated
102. TOTAL Cholesterol = ______.
ANSWER: LDL-C + VLDL-C + HDL-C
103. Metabolic Syndrome or Syndrome X includes the following EXCEPT:
ANSWER: High HDL
104. Also called the good cholesterol.
ANSWER: High density lipoprotein
105. Moral lesson of Introductory illustration:
ANSWER: Vengeance belongs to divine
CC1 SEMI FINALS QUIZZES
1. Which specimen is the best to use for testing Lipids?
ANSWER: Serum
2. Selectively screening children, with at least one parent with high blood cholesterol,
should be started at what age?
ANSWER: 2
3. In the Abetalipoproteinemia, leading to Fat malabsorption, this Vitamin is not affected.
ANSWER: D
4. The ideal fasting for Lipid testing is for how long?
ANSWER: 12-14 hours
5. In Ultracentrifugation methods, the density gradient may be controlled by adding this
substance.
ANSWER: NaCl
6. Frozen samples cannot be used in this method of Lipid Measurement:
ANSWER: Ultracentrifugation
7. The following refer to the most popular method used to measure Urea EXCEPT:
ANSWER: It employs the Berthelot reaction
8. Desirable total blood cholesterol level:
ANSWER: < 200mg/ dL
9. A patient was extracted at 6:00AM for Lipid Profile, with the following results: TAG =
200mg/dL; Total Cholesterol = 220mg/dL; HDL cholesterol = 35mg/dL; Infranatant
cholesterol = 140mg/dL. If the process includes ultracentrifugation, compute for the
patient’s LDL & VLDL.
ANSWER: 175 mg/dL LDL, 215 mg/dL VLDL
10. Triglycerides Conversion from mg/dL to mmol/L, multiply result by:
ANSWER: 0.01129
11. Lipoprotein contents of Infranatant after Ultracentrifugation at various densities.
ANSWER:
1.006kg/L = LDL, HDL, protein
1.063 kg/L = HDL, proteins
12. Juan de la Cruz, 50y.o, came for a general check-up yesterday with the following
laboratory results: TG = 200mg/dl; Total Cholesterol = 200mg/dl; HDL = 80mg/dl; How
much are the patient’s LDL & VLDL by Fried Ewald computation?
ANSWER: LDL = 80mg; VLDL = 40mg/ dl
13. When the Jaffe reaction is employed as a kinetic assay to quantitate serum
creatinine, which of the following is used in the analysis?
ANSWER: The serum sample is used directly
14. Among the polyanion-divalent cations for HDL-C measurement, this is the only one
that agrees closely with those obtained using analytical or preparative
ultracentrifugation:
ANSWER: Heparin/ Mn++ precipitant
15. The following statements are true regarding Uric acid determination EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Using the enzyme catalase remains the most specific method
16. The following are correct regarding Lipid Measurements EXCEPT:
ANSWER: A decrease of 10% with triglyceride levels, with a sudden change in
patient’s position
17. In the Berthelot reaction, a blue-indophenol compound is formed that is proportional
to the quantity of urea in the specimen being analyzed. Falsely elevated urea values
will occur with this procedure when the reaction mixture is contaminated by
ANSWER: Ammonia
18. It is the principal source of renal ammoniagenesis.
ANSWER: Glutamine
19. The following statements are true about Non-protein Nitrogenous Substances
EXCEPT:
ANSWER: NPN concentration of whole blood is 50% greater than that of the
plasma
20. This is the standard & reference, non-enzymatic method used by Centers for
Disease Control for Cholesterol measurement:
ANSWER: __________________
21. Patient Maria, 40y.o, came for a general check-up yesterday with the following
laboratory results: BUN = 15mg/dl; Creatinine before heating = 1.0mg/dl; Creatinine
after heating = 2.0mg/dl. Evaluate his status as to his B/C ratio:
ANSWER: Postrenal azotemia
22. Expected Laboratory Results
ANSWER:
Kidney diseases = Low B/C ratio with low urea & higher creatinine
Stones clogging ureters = High B/C ratio with elevated creatinine
Renal artery severe atherosclerosis = High B/C with Normal Creatinine
23. Cause of Azotemia/Low Urea:
ANSWER:
Prerenal azotemia = Renal artery severe atherosclerosis
Postrenal azotemia = Stones clogging ureters
Liver Disease = Decreased Urea Production
24. In gel electrophoresis, match the cholesterol with the proteins they travel with:
ANSWER:
HDL = a-globulins
LDL = b-globulins
25. This colorimetric development for cholesterol assay produces red to reddish violet
cholestadienyl disulfonic acid.
ANSWER: Salkowski of zak reaction
26. To quantitate the creatine concentration in a urine specimen, it is necessary to treat
the urine in what manner?
ANSWER: Adjusting it to an acid pH and heating at 56oC
27. The lipoproteins are measured in terms of total lipoprotein mass using the following
which detects the concentration dependent changes in the refractive indices of the
lipoproteins:
ANSWER: Schlteren optics
28. An analyte that may be quantitated by first adsorbing it onto a strongly acidic cation-
exchanged resin and then eluting it off for participation in a colorimetric reaction:
ANSWER: Ammonia
29. This does NOT participate in the excretion of Urea:
ANSWER: Liver
30. Which enzymatic reactions has 4-P-benzoquinonemonoiminophenazone as its end-
product?
ANSWER: Nagele- trinder
31. In the Jaff reaction, the creatinine is treated with this solution to yield a bright orange-
red complex:
ANSWER: Alkaline picrate
32. Standing Plasma Test gives the following positive result for chylomicrons:
ANSWER: Creamy top layer
33. This step involves precipitation of free cholesterol to remove the errors due to non-
specific chromogen interference present in the sample.
ANSWER: Purification
34. Patient’s test for serum triglyceride this morning resulted to 220mg/dl. Later in the
afternoon, you remembered you didn’t remove the free glycerol. How much should have
been his result if only you did its removal?
ANSWER: 180-190 mg/dl
35. Ammonia is formed as a product of transamination and deamination of amino acids.
To maintain the acid-base balance, it is necessary that the blood ammonia levels be
kept within narrows limits. This is accomplished primarily by which of the following?
ANSWER: Excretion of ammonia in the bile
36. GOUT comprises a heterogenous group of disorders characterized by the following
EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Gallbladder stones
37. Mr. John Ford, 60y.o, came for a general check-up yesterday with the following
laboratory results: TG = 200mg/dl; Total Cholesterol = 200mg/dl; HDL = 80mg/dl; What
is his current risk for the development of coronary heart diseases?
ANSWER: Low
38. Which of the following statement can be associated with the enzymatic assay of
ammonia?
ANSWER: Reaction catalyzed by glutamate dehydrogenase
39. The creatinine clearance test is routinely used to assess the glomerular filtration
rate. Given the following information for an average size adult, calculate the creatinine
clearance. Urine creatinine-120 mg/plasma creatinine-1.2 mg/dL urine volume for 24
hours-1520 mL
ANSWER: 63.3 ml/min
40. The following can interfere with enzymatic measurements for blood cholesterol,
EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Free glycerol
41. An admitted patient undergoing dialysis has a Blood Urea Nitrogen of 80mg/dL How
would you expressed this in Urea mmol/L?
ANSWER: 28.56mmol/L
42. The tests on which of these Lipids may be done on a non-fasting specimen?
ANSWER: Total Cholesterol
43. The following statements refer to the interference by bilirubin in cholesterol
determination EXCEPT:
ANSWER: It is significant only at concentration exceeding 5mg/dL
44. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is an X-linked disorder due to the complete deficiency of
ANSWER: Hypoxanthine phosphoribosyltransferase
45. A balikbayan, 35y.o, came for a general check-up yesterday with the following
laboratory results: BUN = 15mg/dl; Creatinine before heating = 1.0mg/dl; Creatinine
after heating = 2.0mg/dl. How much is his serum Creatine value?
ANSWER: 1.4mg/dl
46. In determining the Lipid Profile, which procedure / computation is NOT acceptable:
ANSWER: Total-cholesterol = infranatant cholesterol - TAG
47. A patient’s blood has been standing for 2 hours, since the previous Med Tech on
duty has left it beside the centrifuge by negligence. The next technologist performed the
ammonia test which gives a result of 1.336 µg/mL. How much was its initial content and
its actual interpretation?
ANSWER: 1.3036 µg/mL, increased
48. Homogenous assays for LDL-C can provide clinically useful results when
triglycerides are
ANSWER: >200 mg/dL
49. In the ultraviolet procedure for quantitating uric acid, what does the reaction between
uric acid and uricase cause?
ANSWER: 1st and 3rd choices only
50. The main endpoint of Alkoxide trans-esterification is the production of this substance
from the liberation of glycerol:
ANSWER: Formaldehyde
51. In Electrophoresis, the negative electrode is called the ____, while the positive
electrode is called the _____.
ANSWER: Cathode; anode
52. Proteins, as a long polypeptide chain of amino acids, have the following isoelectrical
characteristics:
ANSWER: One arm at one end is positively charged, while the arm on the other
end is negatively charged
53. The size of meat in the daily diet, as big as the following, is sufficient to provide man
the protein requirement he needs for that day.
ANSWER: 1 big matchbox size
54. The following are classified as proteins:
ANSWER: All of the above
55. The Total Protein tested in the lab is a SUM of the following:
ANSWER: Albumin + globulin + fibrinogen
56. The following are TRUE regarding Resting one whole day every week EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Prolonged rest alters sleeping habits
CC1 FINALS QUIZZES
1. This term refers to the characteristic increase in reaction rate for every 10 ⁰C.
ANSWER: Q10 value
2. Describe the two important methods used to measure bilirubin by the diazotization
reaction, according to the working pH
ANSWER:
Jendrassik-Grof assay = Alkaline pH
Evelyn-Malloy method = Acid pH
3. It refers to the AST/ALT ratio.
ANSWER: De Ritis Ratio
4. This DOES NOT refer to Ehrlich’s diazo reagent:
ANSWER: It is made up of diazotized salicylic acid
4. Describe the Enzyme Inhibitors:
ANSWER:
Binds with enzyme at a place other than active site = Non-competitive
Binds with the enzyme-substrate complex = Uncompetitive
5. Causes of Physiological jaundice EXCEPT
ANSWER: Excessively high rate of red cell destruction
6. Differentiate the two bilirubin as to Van den Bergh Reaction:
ANSWER:
B1 = Removal of protein needed
B2 = Reacts directly
7. This transaminase is more specific in detecting liver diseases in non-alcoholic
asymptomatic patients.
ANSWER: ALT
8. Normal value for AST at 37 ⁰C.
ANSWER: 5-30 U/L
9. Interpret the findings below:
ANSWER: Persistent HBV infection with Absent HBsAg

10. Normal value for ALT at 37 ⁰C.
ANSWER: 6-37 U/L
11. The other names for the Transaminases:
ANSWER:
ALT = Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase
AST = Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase
12. Beyond this point, the reaction rate is no longer dependent on the substrate
concentration.
ANSWER: Zero order kinetics
reaction, according to the dissociating agent used.
ANSWER:
Evelyn-Malloy method = Methanol
Jendrassik-Grof assay = Caffeine and sodium benzoate
14. Describe the defects in the following Inherited Disorders of Bilirubin Metabolism?
ANSWER:
15. The normal concentration of bilirubin (mostly free type) in the blood is within the order
of ___.
ANSWER: 0.5-1.0 mg/dL
16. The degradation of hemoglobin to bilirubin follows this order:
ANSWER: hemoglobin - biliverdin - bilirubin diglucuronide - free bilirubin -
urobilinogen –stercobilin
17. Give the proper laboratory tests to assess the liver functions:
ANSWER:
18. This transaminase is very high in alcoholic or toxic liver disease& cardiovascular
disease.
ANSWER: AST
19. What serum Bilirubin findings are seen in the following Inherited Disorders of Bilirubin
Metabolism?
ANSWER:
reaction, according to the maximum absorption applied.
ANSWER:
Jendrassik-Grof assay = 600 nm
Evelyn-Malloy method = 560 nm
21. Differentiate the two bilirubin as to Conjugation:
ANSWER:
B2 = Conjugated Bilirubin
B1 = Free Bilirubin
reaction, according to the color of the expected product.
ANSWER:
Jendrassik-Grof assay = Blue
Evelyn-Malloy method = Red to reddish-purple
23. MECHANISMS FOR ABNORMAL SERUM ENZYME LEVELS
ANSWER:
24. It is needed as a cofactor of the transaminases, acting as a carrier of the amino group
from one acid to another.
ANSWER: Vit B6
25. It is the preferred method for AST/ALT assays.
ANSWER: Karmen or Walker
26. Classify the Type of Jaundice according to the underlying Causes:
ANSWER:
Pre-hepatic Jaundice – Post-hepatic Jaundice – Hepatic Jaundice – all 3
increased B1 & Total increased B2 & Total Bilirubins are increased
Bilirubin Bilirubin
➢ bilirubin conjugation ➢ impairment of the ➢ liver damage due to
is decreased (i.e., hepatic excretion as alcoholism
decreased activity of acquired disorders
UDP-glucuronyl ➢ Viral hepatitis
transferase ➢ impairment of the
hepatic excretion as
➢ excessive in familial
destruction of red (hereditary)
blood cells disorders
➢ hepatic uptake of ➢ obstruction of the

bilirubin may be extra-hepatic biliary
decreased as in tree
prolonged fasting &
intake of drugs
27. Give the recommended name/part of the enzyme referred to:
ANSWER:
Isoenzymes = Enzymes with similar enzymatic activities but differ in their chemical
structure and Origins
Prosthetic Group = When the coenzyme is tightly-bound to the apoenzyme
Zymogens = Enzymes, involved in digestion & produced as inactive precursors
Metalloenzyme = If the metal is tightly bound to the enzyme
Coenzyme = main participant during reaction with the substrate
28. Differentiate the two bilirubin as to Water Solubility:
ANSWER:
B2 = Soluble
B1 = Non-Soluble
29. It is a measure of the affinity of the enzyme with its substrate.
ANSWER: Km
30. Describe the functions of these group of enzymes:
ANSWER:
31. A 3rd part of this phosphatase in men comes from the prostate.
ANSWER: Acid Phosphatase
32. The testing of this enzyme needs plasma sample instead of serum.
ANSWER: Acid phosphatase
33. These enzymes are increased during pancreatitis:
ANSWER: 1st and 2nd choices only
34. Which of the following enzymes usually rises the earliest during Acute Myocardial
Infarction?
ANSWER: LDH1
35. A deficiency of this enzyme can lead to red cell hemolysis.
ANSWER: Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase
1/19/2021 CC2- TUES - WATER-RENAL FUNCTION TESTS-ELECTROLYTE-1 POST-LECTURE QUIZ
CC2- TUES - WATER-RENAL

FUNCTION TESTS-ELECTROLYTE-1
POST-LECTURE QUIZ
Total points 10/10
Email address *
ctrinidad49855@liceo.edu.ph
An increase in the level of this electrolyte can paralyze the heart. * 2/2
Calcium
Sodium
Chloride
Potassium
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSebCDobp5EUe-n0gDTeELKPX2lt_uexVC0v6tS8Tb4p4DFExg/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgBvuC_zcW… 1/3
The most accurate way of doing renal clearance testing is to use this 2/2
exogenous substance. *
creatinine
para-aminohippurate
inulin
insulin
Other:
This is in charge of the Osmotic pressure of the blood: * 2/2
Sodium
Chloride
Albumin
Urea
Daily obligatory water losses to be compensated: * 2/2
2000ml
1500ml
1000ml
500ml
In Overnight Water Department Testing, patients with ADH deficiency 2/2

would show: *
decreasing serum osmolality and increasing urine osmolality
increasing serum osmolality and urine osmolality
decreasing serum osmolality and urine osmolality
increasing serum osmolality and decreasing urine osmolality
This form was created inside of Liceo de Cagayan University.
Forms
1/26/2021 CC2- TUES: WATER- RENAL-ELECTROLYTES-1 LONG EXAM
CC2- TUES: WATER- RENAL-

ELECTROLYTES-1 LONG EXAM
Total points 54/70
The respondent's email address (ctrinidad49855@liceo.edu.ph) was recorded on

submission of this form.
Urine/Serum Osmol Ratio of patients with Chronic Renal Insufficiency. * 0/2
>1 mEq/L
<1.2mEq/L
<20mEq/L
>20mEq/L
The countercurrent ion of sodium is: * 0/2
Chloride
Magnesium
Potassium
Calcium
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Alcoholism will give the following effects EXCEPT: * 0/2
Hypokalemia
Hypochloremia
Hyponatremia
Hypernatremia
In preparing 75% v/v ethanol, how much distilled WATER is needed to 2/2
make a total of 500mL solution? *
375mL
125ml
462.5ml
37.5ml
In which computation do you use this formula? * 2/2
Fractional Sodium Excretion
Anion Gap
Creatinine Clearance Test
Serum osmolality
Sample of choice for Potassium determination: * 0/2
heparinized plasma
serum
oxalated plasma
citrated plasma
Reference Values: * Sakto mani ambot ni doc
7-14 10-18 110-130

1-3 Score
mmol/L mmol/L mmol/L
Anion Gap
without 0/2
potassium
Renal
threshold for 0/2
sodium
Urine/Serum
2/2
Osmol Ratio
Anion Gap
with 2/2
potassium
Due to intracellular and extracellular concentration difference of this 2/2

electrolyte, a hemolyzed serum specimen causes a false increase in: *
Chloride
Sodium
Iron
Potassium
PIPETTES *
To Deliver- To Deliver-
To Contain
Blow-out Non-Blow-out Score
Pipets
Pipets. Pipets
Volumetric
1/1
Pipets
Sahli
1/1
hemoglobin
What is the pH for a 0.05M solution of hydrochloric acid? * 1/1
1.3
1.0
0.3
This sample lowers sodium levels: * 0/2
citrated plasma
oxalated plasma
serum
heparinized plasma
A value of ___ of Delta osmolality suggests a poor prognosis for the 2/2
patient. *
>20mOsmol/kgH2O
>40mOsmol/kgH2O
<20mOsmol/kgH2O
<40mOsmol/kgH2O
How much serum do you need to make 250 mL of a 1:10 dilution of 0/2
serum in saline? *
25g
10ml
250ml
25ml
Other:
On which computation do you use this formula? * 2/2
Renal Failure Index
Serum osmolality
Anion Gap
Effect of high serum glucose to serum sodium concentration: * 2/2
Decreased sodium
No effect
Variable
Increased sodium
When do you use this formula? * 2/2
Serum osmolality
Anion Gap
Free water Clearance
In Typhoid Fever tittering of Antigen, how should the serial dilution be 1/1
interpreted? *
recovery from the disease will show turbidity in all tubes
severity of the disease will show turbidity towards the most concentrated
mixture
recovery from the disease will show turbidity only in the least concentrated
mixture
severity of the disease will show turbidity towards the least concentrated
mixture
A potassium determination revealed a result of 5.8mmol/L. However, 2/2

the Med Tech on duty noticed that the sample he used has some blood
clots at the bottom of the tube. Determine the patient’s actual
potassium level: *
hyperkalemia
most likely normal
cannot be determined
hypokalemia
Using the Elephant Formulary, convert the following to SI unit (2PTS EACH):
*
153.9 3.88
5.44mmol/L 90g/L 10.8mmol/L Score
g/L mmol/L
Glucose
1/1
98mg/dl
Protein
1/1
9g/dl
The electrolyte that greatly affects cardiac muscle activity is: * 2/2
Magnesium
Calcium
Potassium
Sodium
Albanese-Lein test involves combining sodium with ___. * 2/2
diamine dihyrochloride
naphthylamidase
acyl β naphthylamide
zinc uranyl acetate ethylene
> Functions of Electrolytes: *
Fe HCO3 Mg sodium Score
Activators in
enzyme 2/2
reactions
Buffering
2/2
functions
Maintenance
of osmotic
2/2
pressure and
hydration
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSdsV7Z7XTfELXMD_qK-GX7LEVE3Y5l2pmMjHe61yKhteBa32w/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgAL… 10/13
. Ion-selective electrodes, membrane composition: *
Silver
Glass Valinomycin Plastic Score
sulfide
Chloride 2/2
Sodium 2/2
Potassium 2/2
This statement is NOT TRUE regarding the measurement of chloride by 2/2

the Ion-selective Electrode method: *
it selectively admits all halogen ions
most common method employed in the United States
Bromide can cause interference
It is a coulometric-amperometric method
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When do you use this formula? * 2/2
Serum osmolality
Renal Failure Index
Inulin Clearance Test
Other:
Normal Values *
3.8-5.5 8.5 to
98 to 108 135-145 4.68-5.32
mmol/L 10.4 Score
mmol/L. mmol/L mg/dL
4. mg/dL
potassium 2/2
sodium 2/2
chloride 2/2
Which statement refers to the effect of acidosis on potassium : * 2/2
hydrogen ions tend to be secreted in preference to the potassium resulting in

hyperkalemia.

hypokalemia.
fewer hydrogen ions are available for excretion, thus potassium secretion is
favored
fewer hydrogen ions are available for excretion; as a result equal potassium
ion secretion
Forms
2/9/2021 CC2-TUES: BLOOD GASES LONG EXAM
CC2-TUES: BLOOD GASES LONG EXAM

Total points 62/80
Email address *
Control Sera *
unassayed assayed
homemade
commercial commercial Score
pooled sera
control sera control sera
10) use to check

performance of 1/1
new instruments
can be used for

all routine 1/1
analyses
An increased P50 means that the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen * 2/2
equals with CO2
goes higher
is not affected
lowers
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This CANNOT be used to measure the speed of a centrifuge: * 1/1
phototachometer
tachometer
stethoscope
stroboscope
The _____ structure in the form of ______ has a high affinity for oxygen, while 2/2
the ______ structure, in the form of ______ has a low affinity for oxygen. *
Relaxed; oxyhemoglobin; taut; deoxyhemoglobin
Relaxed; deoxyhemoglobin; taut; oxyhemoglobin
Taut; deoxyhemoglobin; relaxed; oxyhemoglobin
Taut; oxyhemoglobin; relaxed; deoxyhemoglobin
Evaluate the following parameters in the Arterial blood, as compared to Venous

blood: *
Higher Lower Score
Chloride 1/1
Bicarbonate 1/1
acidity 1/1
Anticoagulant containing oxalates could inhibit the following enzymatic tests 1/1
EXCEPT: *
acid phosphatase
urease
amylase
lactate dehydrogenase
This test DON’T need fasting * 0/1
Uric Acid
Lipid
Glucose
Protein
Phosphate
Other:
QUALITY ASSURANCE PROGRAM *
Internal Quality External Quality

Score
Control Assurance
Retrospective and
1/1
periodic
Concurrent &
1/1
continuous
Release of reliable
results on day to day 1/1
basis
Ensure inter-
laboratory 1/1
comparability
Independent agency 1/1
PIPETTES *
To Contain To Deliver-Blow- To Deliver-Non-

Score
Pipets out Pipets. Blow-out Pipets
Volumetric
1/1
Pipets
Sahli hemoglobin 1/1
Ostwald- Folin
1/1
Pipet
An increase in [HCO3-] of 10 mEq/L will result in _______ of approximately 0/1

0.15 pH units. *
increase
decrease
variability
Other:
Describe the compensatory responses to the following disorders of hydrogen

Ion homeostasis: *
reabsorption
excretion of
of hypoventilation hyperventilation Score
bicarbonates
bicarbonates
ambot gi unsa ni yot giawat sa
pH = >7.4; ubos
HCO3- =
<24mEq/L; 0/2
PCO2=
<35mmHg
pH = >7.4;
HCO3- =
>26mEq/L; 0/2
PCO2=
>45mmHg
pH = <7.4;
HCO3- =
<24mEq/L; 0/2
PCO2=
<35mmHg
pH = <7.4;
HCO3- =
>26mEq/L; 0/2
PCO2=
>45mmHg
Once the hemoglobin molecule has started binding with oxygen, its affinity 2/2
for the succeeding oxygen molecules increases. This is known as the ____. *
Cooperative effect
Bohr effect
Chloride shift effect
Allosteric effect
Normally the levels of bicarbonate and carbonic acid are maintained at a 2/2
ratio of ___. *
2:1
1:20
20:1
20:2
Ascorbic Acid can produce the following interference EXCEPT: * 1/1
decreased transferases
increased creatinine, both blood & urine
increased glucose, both blood & urine
Option 2
decreased bilirubin
A 1 mmHg change in PaCO2 above 40 mmHg could result in 0.008 _______ in 0/1
pH. *
increase
decrease
variability
Other:
In the peripheral tissues, ______diffuses out of the red blood cells, 2/2
accompanied by the exchange of _____ into the red blood cells. *
Hydrogen; carbonic acid
Chloride; carbonic acid
Bicarbonates; chloride
Carbonic acid; bicarbonates
Penicillin G can cause a/an: * 1/1
increased Potassium
increased Calcium
decreased Calcium
decreased Potassium
Sum total of all activities done to ensure the desired target/ product is met * 1/1
Quality Control
Quality Assessment
Quality Assurance Program
Quality System
The toxicity of tobacco smoking is due to the fact that this gaseous content 0/1
of tobacco smoke has 210x affinity for hemoglobin than any other: *
Carbon dioxide
Nitrogen
Carbon Monoxide
Hydrogen
H+ binds with hemoglobin as it releases oxygen into the tissues. This is called 2/2
the _____. *
Bohr effect
Allosteric effect
Cooperative effect
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This is the major product of the Luebering-Rapoport pathway which is 2/2

predominant in red blood cells. *
chloride
2,3 bis-phosphoglycerate
bicarbonates
carbamino compounds
P50 values refer to the following EXCEPT: * 0/2
the partial pressure at which hemoglobin is half-saturated with oxygen
the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
oxygen partial pressure in the lungs
the other oxygen molecule has been delivered to the tissues
This is NOT a consequence of a Hemolysed sample: * 1/1
Increase Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
Decrease potassium, Lactate dehydrogenase
Decrease Hemoglobin & Hematocrit
Hemoglobin interferes w/ colometric analysis
Given an arterial blood with pCO2 of 40mmHg and a total of CO2 of 2/2
30mmol/L. Determine the HCO3- concentration. *
24 mmol/L
28.8mmol/L
14.6 mmol/L
1.2mmol/L
As oxygen is delivered by the red blood cells to the tissues, the ______ 2/2
charged ______fits into a ______ charged crevice formed by the four chains of
the hemoglobin molecule. *
Negatively; carbonic anhydrase; positively
Positively; carbonic anhydrase; negatively
Positively; 2. 2,3-BPG; negatively
Negatively; 2. 2,3-BPG; positively
This procedure requires that a solution of 500mg K2Cr2O7 in 1L of 0.01N 1/1

H2SO4 should give an Absorbance = 0.535 ± 2 at 350 nm, using the 0.01 N
H2SO4 as blank: *
Calibration of wavelength
Check for stray light
Linearity check
Calibration of absorbance
The method recommended by National Committee for Clinical Laboratory to 1/1

calibrate pipets: *
gravimetric method
spectrophotometric methods
gravimetric / spectrophotometric comparison verification method
Diagnose these disorders of hydrogen Ion homeostasis: *
Metabolic Respiratory Respiratory Metabolic

Acidosis Alkalosis Acidosis Alkalosis Score
Compensated Compensated Compensated Compensated
pH = >7.4;
HCO3- =
<24mEq/L; 2/2
PCO2=
<35mmHg
pH = <7.4;
HCO3- =
>26mEq/L; 2/2
PCO2=
>45mmHg
pH = >7.4;
HCO3- =
>26mEq/L; 2/2
PCO2=
>45mmHg
pH = <7.4;
HCO3- =
<24mEq/L; 2/2
PCO2=
<35mmHg
_______ diffuses into red blood cells where it reacts with water to form 0/2
_______, which after catalysis, readily splits into hydrogen ions and _______. *
CO2; carbonic acid; bicarbonate
CO2; O2; bicarbonate
Bbicarbonate; CO2; carbonic acid
O2; carbonic acid; bicarbonate
The PaCO2 will _________ by about 1 mmHg for every 1 mEq/L reduction in 1/1
[HCO3-] below 24 mEq/L. *
increase
decrease
dissolve
The pO2 value in the peripheral tissues: * 2/2
75mmHg
100 mmHg
50 mmHg
40 mmHg
> Normal Ranges: *
80- 35- 24-

95-100% 7.35-7.45 Score
100mmHg 45mmHg 26mEq/L
O2 sat 2/2
HCO3- 2/2
pH 2/2
pO2 2/2
pCO2 2/2
In the presence of specifically the amino acid, ______, the dissociation & 0/2
excretion of hydrogen ions from dihydrogen phosphate in the kidney is
important , with a pKa of _______. *
Phenylalanine 6.8
Methionine; 6.1
Glutamine; 6.1
Lysine; 6.8
A patient just turned 22years old today. He asked you as his Attending 2/2
Physician how many liters of Free Pure Oxygen has he inhaled thus far: *
4,006,500L
4,416,500L
4, 641,500L
4,415, 600L
Forms
2/2/2021 CC2-TUES: BLOOD GASES POST-LECTURE QUIZ
CC2-TUES: BLOOD GASES POST-

LECTURE QUIZ
Total points 4/10
Email address *
These organs are involved in regulating the blood pH. * 0/2
Liver
Heart
Kidneys
Lungs
Last 2 organs only
All of the above
First 2 organs only
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Disorders of Hydrogen Ion Homeostasis are classified as_____: * 2/2
respiratory in nature = if the level of carbonic acid is primarily defective
2nd & 3rd choices only
All of the above
metabolic in nature = when the bicarbonate level is primarily defective
1st & 4th choices only
respiratory in nature = when the bicarbonate level is primarily defective
metabolic in nature = if the level of carbonic acid is primarily defective
The following can shift the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve 2/2

to the LEFT. *
Increased 2,3 bis-phosphoglycerate
hypercapnia (increased CO2)
alkalosis
when patient is febrile
Trace the fate of CO2 as a product of metabolism: 1. carbonic acid ···/2

dissociates into hydrogen ion and bicarbonate; 2. pressure of
carbon dioxide increases in the plasma; 3. shift of chloride into the
red blood cells; 4. CO2 reacts with water to form carbonic acid; 5.
some CO2 gas diffuses into the red blood cells; 6. diffusion of the
bicarbonate out of red cell; *
1-6-3-2-5-4
2-5-4-1-6-3
4-1-2-5-6-3
2-1-6-5-4-3
If the Allen Test performed on both hands reveal bilateral 0/2

inadequate collateral circulation, what is the next thing to do? *
Do extraction from brachial or femoral arteries
Resuscitate the patient
Cancel the ABG test
Do arterial cannulation
Forms
2/2/2021 CC2-TUES: ELECTROLYTE-2-MINERALS LONG EXAM:
CC2-TUES: ELECTROLYTE-2-
MINERALS LONG EXAM:
Total points 50/65
The respondent's email address (ctrinidad49855@liceo.edu.ph) was recorded

on submission of this form.
In the Dye-Lake method for Magnesium the product formed is 1/1

colored: *
yellow
blue violet
red
violet
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. Regulation of Calcium: *
Parathyroid Activated
Calcitonin Score
Hormone Vitamin D3
hydroxylation
in the liver and 1/1
kidney
cells of the
1/1
thyroid gland
parathyroid
1/1
glands
This measures the light emitted by single atoms burned: * 0/1
Spectrophotometer
Fluorometer
Atomic absorption photometer
Flame photometer
To which methodology, do these principles/mechanism belong? *
conductometry osmometry coulometry electrochemistry
It is based on the
ability of a
substance to
bend light.
It is an
electrochemical
titration in which
the titrant is
electrochemically
generated.
According to the BEER–LAMBERT–BOUGUER ‘S Law, the 0/1

concentration of substance is __________. *
inversely proportional to the amount of light absorbed, but directly

proportional to log of the transmitted light.
directly proportional to the log of the transmitted light and the amount
of light absorbed.
inversely proportional to the log of the transmitted light and the amount
of light absorbed.
inversely proportional to the log of the transmitted light, but directly

proportional to amount of light absorbed.
This type of chromatography uses the so-called lock-and-key 1/1

binding that is widely present in biological systems: *
Affinity chromatography
Partition (liquid-liquid) chromatography
Adsorption (liquid-solid) chromatography
Size-exclusion chromatography
Ion-exchange chromatography
This method provides an accurate measure of the time of the 0/1

current flow or, when properly calibrated, can give a direct read-
out of the chloride concentration. *
Zall color reaction
flame photometry
chloridometer or Cotlove titrator
Iontophoresis
Identify the reagent to be used: *
B) xanthine
A) Tween 80 C) peroxidase Score
oxidase
A 8) A wetting
agent used to
prevent 1/1
precipitation of
proteins.
B 9) In the
enzymatic
method to
measure 0/1
phosphates,
this converts
water to H2O2.
Normal Values *
3.8-5.5 98 to 108 8.5 to 10.4 4.68-5.32

Score
mmol/L 4 mmol/L mg/dL mg/dl
Ionized
1/1
calcium
potassium 1/1
serum
1/1
chloride
The shorter the wavelength, the ________the frequency. * 1/1
lower
closer
higher
farther
Which of the following matches is (are) correct? 1. Chloride- 1/1

Whitehorn titration; 2.Calcium-o-cresolphthalein comlexone;
3.Potassium-Lockhead and Purcell; 4.Sodium - Fiske-Subbarow *
1, 2 and 3
1 , 2 , 3 and 4
2 , 3 and 4
1 , 3 and 4
. In the Calgamite dye, the reagent used contains amphoteric 2/2

betaine detergent _______to shift the wavelength of the blank, a
_______to mask the effects of calcium, and _______to mask the
effects of iron. *
strontium chelate – triethanolamine - Empigen BB
Empigen BB - strontium chelate - triethanolamine
strontium chelate – Empigen BB - triethanolamine
triethanolamine - Empigen BB - strontium chelate
Functions of electrolytes & metals in the body *
helps
maintain
component a stabilizes the necessary in
of the component the normal the oxidative
enzyme of the nucleic insulin phosphorylation
glutathione thyroid acid response occurring in the
peroxidase hormones structure to a mitochondria
glucose
load
selenium
iodine
nickel
chromium
A 25 y.o female patient has the following test results: TIBC 275 2/2
µg/dL; serum iron 55 µg/dL. Interpret the % transferrin saturation
for her age & gender? *
increased
decreased
normal
To which methodology, do these principles/mechanism belong? *
scintillation f
amperometry densitometry electrophoresis
counter cyt
It is the
measurement
of the
electrical
current at a
single applied
potential.
In this
instrument,
chemicals
are used to
convert their
energy into
light energy.
bound to
wound
contained incorporated ceruloplasmin most
healing
in with ferritin necessary for abundant
and Sco
Vitamin and the cation in
sensory
B12 hemosiderin absorption of the body
perception
iron
zinc 1/
copper 1/
cobalt 1/
iron 1/
The Fiske-Subbarow method, involves conversion of the inorganic 0/2

phosphate in the sample into the ______blue by a reaction with ___
_____ and the reducing agent, _______(pictol). A protein-free
filtrate is prepared using ___ _____. *
ammonium molybdate - aminonaphthol sulfonic acid -

heteromolybdenum - trichloroacetic acid
aminonaphthol sulfonic acid - heteromolybdenum - ammonium

molybdate - trichloroacetic acid
heteromolybdenum - ammonium molybdate - aminonaphthol sulfonic

acid - trichloroacetic acid
aminonaphthol sulfonic acid - trichloroacetic acid - heteromolybdenum -

ammonium molybdate
Acute alcoholism leads to the following EXCEPT: * 1/1
hypermagnesemia
hypokalemia
hyponatremia
During metabolic acidosis, the following occurs EXCEPT: * 0/1
hyperchloremia
chloride shift
decreased bicarbonate
hypochloremia
This is NOT included in the measurement of chloride by the Ion- 0/1

selective Electrode method: *
the membrane is a composite of silver sulfide and silver chloride
addition of Bromide accelerates the process
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLScfgLihzCxxYzUbZOQ-knvbIQGupD8bYO13zeKCPyHgCGdAwg/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgAL… 10/18
It is the flow of energy through space at the speed of light: * 1/1
Wavelength of light
Frequency
Bioluminescence
Electromagnetic radiation
Vitamin D is necessary in the absorption of: * 1/1
Sodium and potassium
Phosphorus
Calcium
Protein
The O-cresolphthalein complexone method is a test for: * 1/1
Calcium
Chloride
Potassium
Phosphate
This form of iron is found in oxyhemoglobin and reduced 1/1

hemoglobin *
Ferrous iron
Ferric iron
Normal Ranges *
1.3 to
45 to
2.1 70-150
160
120-300 20-70 mEq/L or µg/dL
µg/dL Score
µg/dL µ/dL 0.65 to (10-23
(8.1-28.6
1.05 µmol/L)
µmol/L)
mmol/L
iron for
1/1
women
Infants’
1/1
copper
magnesium 1/1
Pregnant
women 1/1
copper
Core Components of Automated Chemistry Analyzer during 1/1

Analytic Processing EXCEPT: *
Detection, data processing and real-time monitoring
Mixing & Incubation
Sampling
Storage & Reefrigeration
Reagent Handling
essential for helps

involved in necessary in wound
lipid form the
the transfer the oxidative healing
metabolism, active
of energy phosphorylation and
and sites of
during occurring in the sensor
reproductive certain
metabolism mitochondria percepti
process enzymes
phosphates
molybdenum
manganese
magnesium
Current is ______ to the solution conductivity, which is in turn is 1/1

_______ to its impedance. *
inversely proportional; directly proportional
directly proportional; directly proportional
directly proportional; inversely proportional
inversely proportional; inversely proportional
This is now limited to analysis of metals such as lead in specialized 1/1

toxicology laboratories: *
Flame photometry
Spectrophotometry
Fluorometry
Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
This is used to correct non-specific absorbance of other 0/1

substances in the sample: *
Standard Solution
Control Solution
Sample Blank
Reagent Blank
Distilled Water
A 3y.o. patient’s test for serum copper has a result of 100µg/dL. 0/2
How much is his serum copper level in µmol/L? *
0.157 µmol/L
1.57 µmol/L
15.7 µmol/L
Reference Vakues * SAKTO MANI
600-
115 UI/RBC=220
700 125mL/min Score
mL/min – 550
ml/min
Para
aminohippurate 0/1
clearance
Inulin
Clearance for 0/1
Males
Inulin
Clearance for 1/1
Females
Precipitation of calcium as an insoluble compound in Clark-Collip 1/1

uses: *
Picrolonic acid
Nitric Acid
Chloranilic acid
Ammonium oxalate
Types of transducers most widely used in biosensor technology,

based on changes in: *
luminescent piezoelectric calorimetric fluorescent Score
heat 1/1
mass 1/1
Normal Values *
260 to
65 to 165
1 to 4 440 70-150
µg/dL
µg/dL µg/dL µg/dL
(11.6- 20-50% Score
(17-70 (46.5- (10-23
29.5
nmol/L) 78.8 µmol/L)
µmol/L)
µmol/L)
TIBC 1/1
Transferrin
1/1
saturation
plasma
1/1
zinc
iron for
1/1
men
nickel 1/1
Forms
1/26/2021 CC2-TUES: ELECTROLYTES-2-MINERALS POST-LECTURE QUIZ
CC2-TUES: ELECTROLYTES-2-
MINERALS POST-LECTURE QUIZ
Total points 10/10
Email address *
This specimen for Chloride testing is useful for Cystic FIbrosis Disorder. 2/2
*
sweat
blood
Urine
cerebrospinal fluid
Effects of Alcohol on electrolytes * 2/2
increases their blood levels
variable effects
decreases their blood levels
normalizes their blood levels
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSdcmbBo46oYQeF9G-pxKBZdLlsy5LKC4CQiCopSUnL3tQqrdg/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgDYEP… 1/3
A component of the thyroid hormone: * 2/2
iodide
selenium
cobalt
nickel
A deficiency of these ions could lead to the development of anemia: * 2/2
Iron
Copper
Cobalt
Zinc
Nickel
All except the 5th choice
All except the 3rd choice
All of the above
These 2 ions are regulated by the same hormones, and are their blood 2/2
levels are usually inversely proportional to each other *
iron & magnesium
sodium & potassium
zinc & copper
calcium & phosphorous
Forms
2/9/2021 CC2 TUES: SPECIAL CHEM TESTS-POST-LECTURE QUIZ
CC2 TUES: SPECIAL CHEM TESTS-POST-

LECTURE QUIZ
Total points 8/10
The respondent's email address (ctrinidad49855@liceo.edu.ph) was recorded on

submission of this form.
The higher the pH, the ____ is the protein migration. * 2/2
Slower
Variable
Faster
In electrophoresis procedure, where is the specimen applied? * 2/2
Cathode side
Anode side
Negative electrode
Positive electrode
1st & 3rd choices only
2nd & 4th choices only
Any of the above
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSd7ZMhsg0U7PAehP8xy1eIZT6_L0IvqZaDYPpu2VkFchNxqsA/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgCrXZPv14Y… 1/3
This is one of the clot degradation fragments: * 2/2
Microalbuminuria
NT-proBNP
Procalcitonin
D-dimer
This plotting is used for Enzyme Inhibitions: * 0/2
Lineweaver-Burk plot
Levey-Jennings chart
Double Reciprocal plot
All of the above
A positive result on this test signifies Bacterial infection: * 2/2
NT-proBNP
D-dimer
Procalcitonin
Microalbuminuria
Forms
3/9/2021 CC2 ENDOCRINE-1 POST LECTURE QUIZ
CC2 ENDOCRINE-1 POST LECTURE

QUIZ
Total points 6/10
Email address *
These 2 hormones are produced by the hypothalamus but secreted by 0/2

the posterior pituitary. *
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Arginine Vasopressin
Oxytocin
1st & 2nd choices only
All of the above
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Describe the following types of hormones: *
stimulate the ultimate

suppress promote the
the growth hormones
the secretion of
and activity responsible
secretion of anterior Score
of other for causing
another pituitary
endocrine physiologic
organ. hormones.
glands. processes
trophic
2/2
hormones
releasing
2/2
hormones
Effector
2/2
hormones
Where is the location of the receptors for Group ! hormones? * 0/2
intracellular receptors.
the extracellular side of the cell membrane
intranuclear receptors
All of the above
Other:
Forms
extracapsular prostate cancer
3/2/2021 CC2 TUES: TUMOR MARKERS-1 LONG EXAM
The paraneoplastic endocrine syndromes, which result from the 2/2

____hormonal production, are often the first indication of malignancy. *
moderate
low
excessive
To be acceptable, the value for coefficient of variation should be NOT 1/1

MORE THAN____> *
5%
15%
11%
8%
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSfub4hdixpMEwCQB9NP-fFnqPPeXWx4RR9Ze_aCVVzviqWtCA/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgDLIL4va… 2/16
18-19) If tumors of the endocrine glands are responsible for the production
of the elevated hormone, it is called (A) ____ production; if the increased
hormone level is secreted by tumors of other organs that normally do not
produce the hormone, it is called (B) ____ production. *
isolated eutopic iatrogenic ectopic Score
B 2/2
A 2/2
The coefficient of variation (CV) is defined as: * 1/1
the ratio of the standard deviation σ to the variance σ2.
the ratio of the standard deviation σ to the midian.
the ratio of the standard deviation µ to the mean σ.
the ratio of the standard deviation σ to the mean µ.
Elevations of the enzyme, ____ correlates well with osteoblastic activity. 2/2
*
creatine kinase
acid phosphatase
alkaline phosphatase
It is the graphical map for displaying control results * 1/1
James Westgard graph
FRR chart
Levey-Jennings chart
. Malignant neoplasia are classified as __(A) _ if they are of epithelial cell

origin, __(B) _ if they are of mesenchymal origin, __(C) __ if they are cancers
of the blood, and __(D) __ if they are of lymphoid origin. *
carcinoma lymphoma sarcoma leukemia Score
B 2/2
C 2/2
D 2/2
A 2/2
These receptors are assayed clinically to determine which breast cancer 0/2
patients may respond to endocrine therapy such as tamoxifen *
Estrogen Receptors
Androgen Receptors
Epidermal growth factor receptors
Progesterone Receptors
1st & last choices only
All of the above
This is not elevated in patients with medullary thyroid carcinoma, and 0/2
serves to help discriminate between this tumor and other hyperthyroid
diseases *
thyroglobulin
Histaminases
diamine oxidase
calcitonin
In adults, high blood levels of Alpha-Feto Protein are seen in the 2/2
following situations EXCEPT: *
Germ cell tumors
Melanoma
Metastatic cancer in liver
Hepatocellular CA
The difference between results of duplicate analysis _____ to the Med 1/1
Tech’s performance. *
has variable relationship
is not related
is directly proportional
is inversely proportional
AFP is a good marker for primary hepatoma because it is elevated in 2/2

approximately __of the cases. *
60-80%
70-90%
50-60%
100%
MARKERS DESCRIPTIONS / TUMOR USAGE *
tumors of
unoccupied
epithelial
in basement primary bone extracapsular
cell origin &
membrane and hepatic prostate Score
estimating
of malignant malignancies cancer
brain tumor
cells
size
Alkaline
2/2
Phosphatase
Creatine
2/2
Kinase
Laminin
2/2
receptor
Acid
Phosphatase
in 2/2
conjunction
with PSA
The brain fraction of Creatine Kinase, is normally not observed in serum 2/2
due to ____. *
its epithelial cell origin
its association with malignancy
the blood-brain barrier
A decision criterion for judging whether an analytical run is in or out of 0/1

control *
control limits
control value
control measurements
control rule
Tumors are produced when the following occurs on the DNA: * 2/2
DNA mutations
presence of oncogenes
absence of suppressor genes
1ST & 2ND choices only
All of the above
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSfub4hdixpMEwCQB9NP-fFnqPPeXWx4RR9Ze_aCVVzviqWtCA/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgDLIL4v… 10/16
With 3 controls the false rejection rate is ___% * 1/1
5%
10%
14%
7%
9%
This level of AFP could be a clue for Hepatoma. * 2/2
over 500 nanograms/liter
over 50 nanograms/milliliter
over 500 milligrams/milliliter
over 500 nanograms/milliliter
benign tumor of skeletal muscle
malignant tumor of liver
benign tumor of smooth muscle tissue
benign tumor of adipose tissue

Germ cell tumors are cancers originating from the following organs: * 2/2
colon & stomach
testes and ovaries
liver & bone
breast & lungs
This is elevated in patients with increased endogenous insulin 2/2

production, like beta cell pancreatic tumors. *
somatostatin
glucagon
Beta2-Microglobulin
C-peptide
Laminin receptor
It is the fetal form of the enzyme, Creatine Kinase * 2/2
CK BB
CK MM
CKMB
When used with multiple rule, this can be used as a warning rule to 1/1
trigger careful inspection of control data: *
R 4s
1 2s
2 2s
1 3s
Enzyme/s _____ _ may both be elevated in cases of cirrhosis. * 2/2
5’Nucleotidase (5’NT)
gamma glutamyltransferase
leucine amino peptidase
1st & 4th choices only
All of the above
ARRANGE IN ORDER, THE FOLLOWING STEPS TO DO WHEN ANALYSIS

GOES OUT OF CONTROL. *
A B C D E F G Score
Have some
assayed,
commercial
control sera 1/1
in stock,
analyze 1 N
and 1 abN
Briefly and
quickly
review the
1/1
whole
operational
ingredients
Change the
1/1
reagent
If value is
unacceptable
when
repeated,
perform the 1/1
test using a
new bottle of
the control
serum
Use a new
bottle of the 1/1
standard
If all is ok, 1/1

repeat test to
see if the
3/2/2021 CC2 TUES: TUMOR MARKERS-2 POST-LECTURE QUIZ
CC2 TUES: TUMOR MARKERS-2

POST-LECTURE QUIZ
Total points 10/10
Email address *
These are anti-cancer genes: * 2/2
repressor gene
suppressor genes
mutant gene
oncogenes
https://docs.google.com/forms/u/0/d/e/1FAIpQLSfHRqHZej27NLkQPXoMmOMovE4VQKfK7sVvtXpYlgCznfrITg/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgAWap-… 1/4
Patients negative on this blood group system will not also produce 2/2
positivity to CA!9-9: *
Kell
ABO
Lewis
Rhesus
A urinary free immunoglobulin light chains seen in cancers producing 2/2

high Immunoglobulins *
Uric acid crystals
Immunoglobulin A
Bence jones protein
Cancer cells have an abnormally high percentage of their cells that are in2/2
_____ phase *
G0
G1
G2
Option 3
These genes are currently under investigation as markers of genetic 2/2

susceptibility for breast cancer. *
BRCA1 gene
BRCA2 gene
WT1 gene
RB gene
3rd & 4th choices only
All of the above
Other:
Forms
3/9/2021 CC2: TUMOR MARKERS-2 LONG EXAM
CC2: TUMOR MARKERS-2 LONG

EXAM
Total points 60/75
Email address *
This is a mucin marker: * 2/2
CA 15-3
CA 19-9
CA72-4
Cyfra 21-1
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLScw4KhcewCNYzhjGEZpubMJd93-rnjltEmTjw0227ayMdNDZg/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgBRMhMSS… 1/15
Characteristics of oncogenes include the following EXCEPT: * 2/2
products antagonizes normal cellular apoptosis
down regulate cellular proliferation
activated by mutational events
promoting increased transcription of growth
__ of squamous cell carcinomas (head, neck, ling, esophagus) show 2/2

elevated levels of SCC antigen. *
65%
85%
58%
5.8%
Increased PSA density __(A)___ and increased PSA velocity __(B)___

correlate better with prostatic cancer than with prostatic hyperplasia. *
>0.15; >1.5; >7.05ng/ml/day >15.0; >70.5ng/ml/day >0.75ng/ml/day
Lewis-negative patients will not produce this marker: * 2/2
CA19-9
CEA
CA125
CA135
*TUMORS & MARKERS: *
marker of chronic continuous

breast Wilm’s
cellular myelogenous cellular Score
cancer tumor
proliferation leukemia proliferation
c-abl/bcr
2/2
gene
Loss of
BRCA1 or 2/2
BRCA2
Tissue
polypeptide 2/2
antigen
Loss of
2/2
WT1 gene
This method is considered the most specific non-enzymatic method for 1/1
glucose. *
Condensation with aromatic amines.
Somogyi-nelson
Condensation with phenols
Neocuproine
This/These is/are found in cell membranes of chemotherapy drug- 2/2

resistant cells. Cancer patients who are negative on this marker respond
significantly better to chemotherapy. *
P-Glycoprotein
Beta2-microglobulin
Collagenase
cathepsin D
Bence Jones protein are also present in patients with these cancers * 2/2
multiple myeloma
lymphoma
Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
1ST & 3RD choices only
All of the above
Found on the surface of all nucleated cells, it is used as a marker for 2/2
leukemias, lymphoma, and multiple Myeloma, but may also be elevated in
patients suffering from human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) *
Beta2-microglobulin
infection.
cathepsin D
CEA
Tissue polypeptide antigen
Identify the deficient enzyme in the following Glycogen Storage Diseases: *
Glucose-6- a-1-4-
horylase Phosphofructokinase Brancher Debrancher Sc
phosphatase glucosidase
Type 2
1/
(Pompe)
Type 4
1/
(Andersen)
Type 5 & 6
(Mc Ardle Phosphorylase 1/
& Hers)
Type I (von
1/
Gierke)
Type 7
1/
(Tarui)
Type 3
(Cori 1/
Forbes)
The major iron transport protein is: 2/2
ferritin
ceruloplasmin
transferrin
Bence Jones protein
There are 2 violations in this chart. The second violation in this control 0/2
chart reflect changes in: *
mean
systematic errors
accuracy
random errors
Characteristics of suppressor genes include the following EXCEPT: * 0/2
their presence allows continuous transcription of growth
but their loss promotes cell proliferation
their loss promotes metastasis
protein products down regulate cellular proliferation
This marker is elevated in alcoholism, inflammation of the bowel, cystic 2/2

fibrosis, and in heavy cigarette smokers. *
Lipid-associated Sialic acid
ferritin
CEA
AFP
Cancer cells may have an abnormally high percentage of their cells that ···/1
is in: *
S phase
sakto mani ambot nganong wrong
G2 phase
G1 phase
G0 phase
The level of glucose in a fasting individual is maintained within the range 0/2
of: *
50-110 mg/dL
6.2 -8.2 mmol/L
95-120 mg/dL
First & second choices only
Second & third choices only
all of the above
How much NaF should the Med Tech add to the 3ml blood if he wanted to2/2
preserve it? *
15mg
20mg
5mg
6mg
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLScw4KhcewCNYzhjGEZpubMJd93-rnjltEmTjw0227ayMdNDZg/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgBRMhMS… 10/15
Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is indicated in cases of the following 1/1
EXCEPT: *
galactose intolerance
unexplained glycosuria particularly in pregnancy,
the diagnosis of acromegaly.
unequivocal fasting or random blood glucose concentrations
TUMOR MARKERS *
continuous
breast ovarian
adenocarcinomas cellular Score
cancer carcinomas
proliferation
LD-5 &
Carcinoembryonic 0/2
antigen
p53 gene
2/2
mutation
CA15-3 2/2
A patient’s HbA1c was 8%. Conclusion: * 1/1
the diabetic patient is not controlling his diet
his diet has nothing to do with this test
patient’s Diabetes is well-controlled by his diet
Patient is having gestational diabetes
Match the following processes with the correct term: *
process proteins
amino
glycogen of are
acids
converted building triglyceride degraded
converted Score
to glycogen degradation to form
into
glucose: from amino
glucose
glucose acids
AMBOT UNSA NIII wala ko
process of
kabalo why wrong
building
glycogen 0/2
from
glucose
triglyceride
2/2
degradation
amino acids
converted 0/2
into glucose
glycogen
converted 0/2
to glucose:
proteins are
degraded to
2/2
form amino
acids
*TUMORS & MARKERS: *
continuous chronic
breast ovarian pancreatic
cellular myelogenous Score
cancer carcinomas cancer
proliferation leukemia
p53 gene
2/2
mutation
CA19-9 2/2
c-abl/bcr
2/2
gene
CA125 2/2
In Hexokinase method, the increase in absorbance due to the ____ in the 1/1
second reaction is measured directly at 340 nm. *
production of NAD from NADH
production of G6PD from G6P
production of NADP from ATP
production of NADH from NAD
Galactose is converted to glucose by these two important enzymes: * 2/2
galactokinase
galactase
galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
first & third choices only
second & third choices only
all of the above
Forms
2/15/2021 CC2-PRELIM
CC2-PRELIM
* Required
Email address *
Each radionuclide has a unique half- life associated with it. Assuming an 1 point
initial activity of 100%, through how many half- life periods must a nuclide
pass to bring its activity down to less than 1%? *
10
100
. Regulation of Calcium: * 3 points
Parathyroid Hormone Calcitonin Activated Vitamin D3
hydroxylation in the
liver and kidney
parathyroid glands
cells of the thyroid

gland
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSdxWxghnpss3vGAEPcawIfBfTKRRjWgtKYygwgDddqLM7MWTA/viewform?hr_submission=ChkImJfnsas… 1/47
A patient just turned 22years old today. He asked you as his Attending 1 point
Physician how many liters of Free Pure Oxygen has he inhaled thus far: *
4,006,500L
4,416,500L
4,415, 600L
4, 641,500L
• Of the 2 components of the immunoassay, the __ (A) __ is the most 3 points
important component of the system, because it determines the __ (B) _ or

ability to detect small amounts, and the __ (C) _ or the degree of
uniqueness of the procedure. *
antigen specificity antibody sensitivity
Given an arterial blood with pCO2 of 40mmHg and a total of CO2 of 1 point
30mmol/L. Determine the HCO3- concentration. *
1.2mmol/L
14.6 mmol/L
24 mmol/L
28.8mmol/L
Mr. C, admitted at Intensive Care Unit (ICU), presented the following 1 point
pathologic lectrophoresis pattern. This is usually associated with what

condition? *
Renal Disease
Acute Inflammatory Disease
Pulmonary Emphysema
Abdominal Ascitis
Interpret this Densitometric tracings of LD Isoenzymes. * 1 point
normal
viral hepatitis
liver disease
myocardial infarct
This method provides an accurate measure of the time of the current flow 1 point
or, when properly calibrated, can give a direct read-out of the chloride
concentration. *
Iontophoresis
flame photometry
Zall color reaction
chloridometer or Cotlove titrator
Effect of high serum glucose to serum sodium concentration: * 1 point
Variable
Decreased sodium
No effect
Increased sodium
A 25 y.o female patient has the following test results: TIBC 275 µg/dL; 2 points
serum iron 55 µg/dL. Interpret the % transferrin saturation for her age &
gender? *
increased
decreased
normal
Sample of choice for Potassium determination: * 1 point
heparinized plasma
serum
citrated plasma
oxalated plasma
As oxygen is delivered by the red blood cells to the tissues, the ______ 2 points
charged ______fits into a ______ charged crevice formed by the four

chains of the hemoglobin molecule. *
Positively; carbonic anhydrase; negatively
Positively; 2. 2,3-BPG; negatively
Negatively; carbonic anhydrase; positively
Negatively; 2. 2,3-BPG; positively
This is NOT included in the measurement of chloride by the Ion-selective 1 point
Electrode method: *
the membrane is a composite of silver sulfide and silver chloride
addition of Bromide accelerates the process
An increase in [HCO3-] of 10 mEq/L will result in _______ of approximately 1 point
0.15 pH units. *
variability
decrease
increase
Other:
Calculate the molarity of a solution on NaCl (MW = 58.5) containing 117g/L 1 point
of solution. *
0.2M
1.17M
2M
10.0M
Other:
What is the molality of a solution if 100g of NaCl (MW = 58.5) were 1 point
dissolved in 1000g of distilled water? *
5.85moles/1000g
1.709 moles/1000g
17.09moles/1000g
58.5moles/1000g
Control Sera * 2 points
unassayed
homemade pooled assayed commercial
commercial control
sera control sera
sera
can be used for all

routine analyses
use to check
performance of new
instruments
Albanese-Lein test involves combining sodium with ___. * 1 point
acyl β naphthylamide
zinc uranyl acetate ethylene
diamine dihyrochloride
naphthylamidase
• In the Lineweaver–Burk plot that signifies ___(A)____ inhibition, the 3 points
inhibitors have the same y-intercept as uninhibited enzyme but there are
different slopes and x-intercepts between the two data sets; ___(B)___
inhibition produces plots with the same x-intercept as uninhibited enzyme
but different slopes and y-intercepts;while the ___(C)____ inhibition
causes different intercepts on both the y- and x-axes but the same slope.
*
Non-
Competitive Proportional Uncompetitive Systematic
competitive
Ascorbic Acid can produce the following interference EXCEPT: * 1 point
decreased bilirubin
Option 2
increased glucose, both blood & urine
increased creatinine, both blood & urine
decreased transferases
• Electrophoresis is conducted by applying specimen at the origin, of a 2 points
_____(A)_____acetate or ______(B)____ electrophoresis plate. *
Agarose Fiber Cellulose
In which computation do you use this formula? * 1 point
Anion Gap
Serum osmolality
Creatinine Clearance Test
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSdxWxghnpss3vGAEPcawIfBfTKRRjWgtKYygwgDddqLM7MWTA/viewform?hr_submission=ChkImJfns… 10/47
Type of Inhibition? * 1 point
uncompetitive inhibition
non-competitive inhibition
competitive inhibition
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSdxWxghnpss3vGAEPcawIfBfTKRRjWgtKYygwgDddqLM7MWTA/viewform?hr_submission=ChkImJfnsa… 11/47
Functions of electrolytes & metals in the body * 4 points
helps
maintain the necessary in the
component of stabilizes
a component normal oxidative
the enzyme the nucleic
of the thyroid insulin phosphorylation
glutathione acid
hormones response to occurring in the
peroxidase structure
a glucose mitochondria
load
nickel
chromium
selenium
iodine
A 1 mmHg change in PaCO2 above 40 mmHg could result in 0.008 _______ 1 point
in pH. *
variability
decrease
increase
Other:
A patient, Mr. A, presented the following pathologic electrophoresis 1 point
pattern. Which would LEAST likely explain his serum protein result? *
decreased proteins in beta band
decreased albumin
decreased proteins in alpha band
decreased IgA
A value of ___ of Delta osmolality suggests a poor prognosis for the 1 point
patient. *
>40mOsmol/kgH2O
<20mOsmol/kgH2O
>20mOsmol/kgH2O
<40mOsmol/kgH2O
Identify the reagent to be used: * 2 points
A) Tween 80 B) xanthine oxidase C) peroxidase
A 8) A wetting agent
used to prevent
precipitation of
proteins.
B 9) In the enzymatic
method to measure
phosphates, this
converts water to
H2O2.
Once the hemoglobin molecule has started binding with oxygen, its affinity 1 point
for the succeeding oxygen molecules increases. This is known as the ____.
*
Cooperative effect
Bohr effect
Allosteric effect
PIPETTES * 1 point
To Deliver-Blow-out To Deliver-Non-Blow-
To Contain Pipets
Pipets. out Pipets
Sahli hemoglobin
This test DON’T need fasting * 1 point
Phosphate
Uric Acid
Lipid
Glucose
Protein
Other:
When do you use this formula? * 1 point
Serum osmolality
Renal Failure Index
Inulin Clearance Test
Other:
Due to intracellular and extracellular concentration difference of this 1 point
electrolyte, a hemolyzed serum specimen causes a false increase in: *
Sodium
Chloride
Potassium
Iron
The pO2 value in the peripheral tissues: * 1 point
50 mmHg
100 mmHg
75mmHg
40 mmHg
essential for
involved in necessary in the helps form
lipid wound
the transfer oxidative the active
metabolism, healing and
of energy phosphorylation sites of
and sensory
during occurring in the certain
reproductive perception
metabolism mitochondria enzymes
process
magnesium
phosphates
molybdenum
manganese
The electrolyte that greatly affects cardiac muscle activity is: * 1 point
Magnesium
Calcium
Potassium
Sodium
Normally the levels of bicarbonate and carbonic acid are maintained at a 1 point
ratio of ___. *
2:1
1:20
20:2
20:1
• Of the immunoassay labels, the ________ labels are compounds that have 1 point
the same atomic number but different weights than the parent nuclide. *
Enzyme
Radioisotope
Fluorescent
Chemiluminescent
Describe the compensatory responses to the following disorders of 3 points
hydrogen Ion homeostasis: *
reabsorption of excretion of
hypoventilation hyperventilation
bicarbonates bicarbonates
pH = <7.4;
HCO3- =
<24mEq/L;
PCO2=
<35mmHg
pH = >7.4;
HCO3- =
<24mEq/L;
PCO2=
<35mmHg
pH = >7.4;
HCO3- =
>26mEq/L;
PCO2=
>45mmHg
This constitute the extracellular fluid. * 1 point
interstitial fluid
plasma
water inside the cell
All of the above
Other:
The countercurrent ion of sodium is: * 1 point
Chloride
Magnesium
Calcium
Potassium
What is the pH for a 0.05M solution of hydrochloric acid? * 1 point
1.0
1.3
0.3
The O-cresolphthalein complexone method is a test for: * 1 point
Phosphate
Calcium
Chloride
Potassium
Acute alcoholism leads to the following EXCEPT: * 1 point
hypokalemia
hyponatremia
hypermagnesemia
The _____ structure in the form of ______ has a high affinity for oxygen, 2 points
while the ______ structure, in the form of ______ has a low affinity for
oxygen. *
Relaxed; deoxyhemoglobin; taut; oxyhemoglobin
Taut; deoxyhemoglobin; relaxed; oxyhemoglobin
Relaxed; oxyhemoglobin; taut; deoxyhemoglobin
Taut; oxyhemoglobin; relaxed; deoxyhemoglobin
What is the normality of a solution that contains 200g of NaCl per liter? 1 point
(MW=58.5g) *
3.42 eq/L
3.42 g/L
258 eq/L
5.58 N
Other:
This pathologic electrophoresis pattern was seen in Mrs. B’s serum. Give 1 point
your diagnosis. *
Multiple Myeloma
Chronic Inflammatory Disease
Nephrotic Syndrome
Cirrhosis
Ms. X’s protein electrophoresis showed the following result. Which would 1 point
best explain her finding? *
Increased hepatic synthesis of acute inflammatory phase reactant proteins
Beta-gamma bridging due to increased IgA
Immunoglobulin synthesis by antigen activated B Lymphocytes
Presence of a homogeneous immunoglobulin
The Avogadro's number. * 1 point
6.22x1023
6.022x1023
62.2x1023
Type of Inhibition? * 1 point
uncompetitive inhibition
non-competitive inhibition
Option 4
competitive inhibition
Using the Elephant Formulary, convert the following to SI unit: * 2 points
153.9 g/L 5.44mmol/L 90g/L 10.8mmol/L 3.88 mmol/L
Glucose
98mg/dl
Cholesterol
150mg/dl
Which organs are defective in this patient ? * 1 point
kidneys
bone marrow
lungs
liver
State the Clinical Uses of each of this Tests. * 9 points
used to
help indicate the
facilitates
detect, presence of helps to
used to the diagnostic of
diagnose, an distinguish detects t
evaluate diagnosis of Systemic
and abnormally bacterial presence
the age of patients Lupus
evaluate high level from non- inflammat
myocardial with related Erythematosus
the of fibrin bacterial in the bod
infarct autoimmune (SLE)
severity degradation infections.
diseases
of heart products
failure
D-dimer
anti-cyclic
ecitrullinated peptide
(anti-ccp) test
presence of
is’
‘nucleophagocytosis’
by Neutrophils on
peripheral smear
micral-test
C-reactive protein
(CRP) Test
Multicolour Flow
Cytometry Test
) Procalcitonin (PCT)
BNP or NT-proBNP
antinuclear
antibodies
In the presence of specifically the amino acid, ______, the dissociation & 1 point
excretion of hydrogen ions from dihydrogen phosphate in the kidney is
important , with a pKa of _______. *
Methionine; 6.1
Phenylalanine 6.8
Glutamine; 6.1
Lysine; 6.8
Reference Values: * 4 points
1-3 7-14 mmol/L 10-18 mmol/L 110-130 mmol/L
Renal threshold
for sodium
Urine/Serum
Osmol Ratio
Anion Gap with

potassium
Anion Gap
without
potassium
A potassium determination revealed a result of 5.8mmol/L. However, the 1 point
Med Tech on duty noticed that the sample he used has some blood clots at
the bottom of the tube. Determine the patient’s actual potassium level: *
most likely normal
cannot be determined
hyperkalemia
hypokalemia
Urine/Serum Osmol Ratio of patients with Chronic Renal Insufficiency. * 1 point
>1 mEq/L
>20mEq/L
<1.2mEq/L
<20mEq/L
A 3y.o. patient’s test for serum copper has a result of 100µg/dL. How much 2 points
is his serum copper level in µmol/L? *
0.157 µmol/L
1.57 µmol/L
15.7 µmol/L
Type of Correlation between two methods? * 1 point
weak negative
strong negative
strong positive
zero
The Fiske-Subbarow method, involves conversion of the inorganic 2 points
phosphate in the sample into the ______blue by a reaction with ___ _____
and the reducing agent, _______(pictol). A protein-free filtrate is prepared
using ___ _____. *
heteromolybdenum - ammonium molybdate - aminonaphthol sulfonic acid -

trichloroacetic acid
aminonaphthol sulfonic acid - heteromolybdenum - ammonium molybdate -

ammonium molybdate - aminonaphthol sulfonic acid - heteromolybdenum -

aminonaphthol sulfonic acid - trichloroacetic acid - heteromolybdenum - ammonium

molybdate
Diagnose these disorders of hydrogen Ion homeostasis: * 3 points
Metabolic Respiratory Respiratory Metabolic

Acidosis Alkalosis Acidosis Alkalosis
Compensated Compensated Compensated Compensated
pH = <7.4;
HCO3- =
>26mEq/L;
PCO2=
>45mmHg
pH = >7.4;
HCO3- =
>26mEq/L;
PCO2=
>45mmHg
pH = <7.4;
HCO3- =
<24mEq/L;
PCO2=
<35mmHg
. Ion-selective electrodes, membrane composition: * 3 points
Glass Valinomycin Plastic Silver sulfide
Sodium
Potassium
Chloride
> Normal Ranges: * 3 points
95-100% 80-100mmHg 35-45mmHg 24-26mEq/L 7.35-7.45
pH
pCO2
HCO3-
Normal Values * 3 points
3.8-5.5 mmol/L 98 to 108 8.5 to 10.4

4.68-5.32 mg/dl
4 mmol/L mg/dL
serum chloride
potassium
Ionized calcium
In the Dye-Lake method for Magnesium the product formed is colored: * 1 point
red
violet
blue violet
yellow
In Typhoid Fever tittering of Antigen, how should the serial dilution be 1 point
interpreted? *
severity of the disease will show turbidity towards the most concentrated mixture
severity of the disease will show turbidity towards the least concentrated mixture
recovery from the disease will show turbidity in all tubes
recovery from the disease will show turbidity only in the least concentrated mixture
Which statement refers to the effect of acidosis on potassium : * 1 point
fewer hydrogen ions are available for excretion; as a result equal potassium ion
secretion

hyperkalemia.

hypokalemia.
fewer hydrogen ions are available for excretion, thus potassium secretion is favored
P50 values refer to the following EXCEPT: * 1 point
the partial pressure at which hemoglobin is half-saturated with oxygen
oxygen partial pressure in the lungs
the other oxygen molecule has been delivered to the tissues
the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
Match the direction of light in Nephelometry with particle size. * 2 points
more intense but scattering

symmetric light
irregular in forward concentration in
scatter
scattering forward direction
particles much larger

than light
particles smaller than

light
During metabolic acidosis, the following occurs EXCEPT: * 1 point
chloride shift
hyperchloremia
hypochloremia
decreased bicarbonate
This sample lowers sodium levels: * 1 point
oxalated plasma
citrated plasma
heparinized plasma
serum
In order of increasing mobility of the migration patterns of Alkaline 1 point
Electrophoresis, which is the fastest? *
Hb Bart
HbH
HbS
Hb F
Hb A2
An increased P50 means that the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen * 1 point
lowers
is not affected
goes higher
equals with CO2
The toxicity of tobacco smoking is due to the fact that this gaseous 1 point
content of tobacco smoke has 210x affinity for hemoglobin than any other:
*
Nitrogen
Carbon Monoxide
Carbon dioxide
Hydrogen
How much serum do you need to make 250 mL of a 1:10 dilution of serum 1 point
in saline? *
25g
250ml
25ml
10ml
Other:
• __(A) __ relates to how closely a single measurement agrees with the 2 points
true value, whereas __(B)_ _ relates to how an average of a series of

measurements agrees with the true value. *
bias specificity inaccuracy sensitivity
Anticoagulant containing oxalates could inhibit the following enzymatic 1 point
tests EXCEPT: *
urease
amylase
acid phosphatase
Interpret this Densitometric tracings of LD Isoenzymes * 1 point
liver disease
viral hepatitis
myocardial infarct
normal
• Depending on the charge of the molecule ____(A)___ particle migrate 2 points
more to the anode, while the ___(B)___particle migrate more to the

cathode. *
Negative Positive Neutral
bound to
wound incorporated most
ceruloplasmin
contained in healing and with ferritin abundant
necessary for
Vitamin B12 sensory and cation in the
the absorption
perception hemosiderin body
of iron
zinc
cobalt
copper
If one cup is 250ml, how many cups of water should one have to at least 1 point
drink daily to compensate the obligatory water losses in a day? *
12
15
Other:
On which computation do you use this formula? * 1 point
Serum osmolality
Anion Gap
Renal Failure Index
• Normally, the LD isoenzyme 2 comprises ____________ % of the total. * 1 point
17 - 27 %
35 – 52 %
29 - 42 %
16 - 32 %
A peripheral smear was requested on this Patient. Which finding would 1 point
confirm the diagnosis? *
Fragmented red cells secondary to hemolysis
Toxic granulation of Neutrophils secondary to acute infection
Lymphocytosis in response to chronic inflammation
Increased Rouleaux formation due to elevated plasma viscosity
This statement is NOT TRUE regarding the measurement of chloride by the 1 point
Ion-selective Electrode method: *
It is a coulometric-amperometric method
Bromide can cause interference
Evaluate the following parameters in the Arterial blood, as compared to 2 points
Venous blood: *
Higher Lower
Bicarbonate
acidity
Type of Correlation between two methods? * 1 point
strong positive
weak negative
strong negative
zero
Given the following data: 11.7 14.4 12.1 12.7 12.0 13.5 12.0 16.0 15.0 14.5 13.8 3 points
13.4 13.85 12.0 4.3 13.5 1.9 1.4
Variance
Standard
Deviation
Which of the following matches is (are) correct? 1. Chloride-Whitehorn 1 point
titration; 2.Calcium-o-cresolphthalein comlexone; 3.Potassium-Lockhead

and Purcell; 4.Sodium - Fiske-Subbarow *
2 , 3 and 4
1 , 3 and 4
1, 2 and 3
1 , 2 , 3 and 4
The PaCO2 will _________ by about 1 mmHg for every 1 mEq/L reduction in 1 point
[HCO3-] below 24 mEq/L. *
decrease
increase
dissolve
In order of increasing mobility of the migration patterns of Acid 1 point
Electrophoresis, which is the slowest? *
HbH
HbS
Hb A2
Hb Bart
Hb F
Type of bias? * 1 point
proportional bias
systematic bias
constant bias
Different metric units: * 2 points
2 x 10(+9) 2 x 10 (-18) 2 x 10 (+4) 2 x 10 (+12) 2 x 10 (-16)
0.02mg = ___
ng
20 fl = _____
dl
Precipitation of calcium as an insoluble compound in Clark-Collip uses: * 1 point
Picrolonic acid
Chloranilic acid
Ammonium oxalate
Nitric Acid
Penicillin G can cause a/an: * 1 point
increased Potassium
increased Calcium
decreased Potassium
decreased Calcium
This increases the level of triglycerides: * 1 point
Exercise
Fasting
Ethanol consumption
Tobacco smoking
In the Calgamite dye, the reagent used contains amphoteric betaine 2 points
detergent _______to shift the wavelength of the blank, a _______to mask

the effects of calcium, and _______to mask the effects of iron. *
strontium chelate – Empigen BB - triethanolamine
Empigen BB - strontium chelate - triethanolamine
strontium chelate – triethanolamine - Empigen BB
triethanolamine - Empigen BB - strontium chelate
This form of iron is found in oxyhemoglobin and reduced hemoglobin * 1 point
Ferric iron
Ferrous iron
In preparing 75% v/v ethanol, how much distilled WATER is needed to make 1 point
a total of 500mL solution? *
37.5ml
125ml
462.5ml
375mL
In the peripheral tissues, ______diffuses out of the red blood cells, 2 points
accompanied by the exchange of _____ into the red blood cells. *
Hydrogen; carbonic acid
Carbonic acid; bicarbonates
Bicarbonates; chloride
Chloride; carbonic acid
What is causing the bridging of beta & gamma band in this patient? * 1 point
increased IgM
increased IgA
increased CRP
increased IgG
Which protein is the cause for the changes of alpha-1 band of this patient? 1 point
alpha1-antitrypsin
ceruloplasmin
thyroid-binding globulin
transcortin
QUALITY ASSURANCE PROGRAM * 3 points
Internal Quality Control External Quality Assurance
Ensure inter-laboratory
comparability
Concurrent & continuous
Release of reliable results on

day to day basis
_______ diffuses into red blood cells where it reacts with water to form 2 points
_______, which after catalysis, readily splits into hydrogen ions and _______.
*
Bbicarbonate; CO2; carbonic acid
O2; carbonic acid; bicarbonate
CO2; carbonic acid; bicarbonate
CO2; O2; bicarbonate
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•ENDOCRINOLOGY
INTRODUCTION
•In endocrinology, we study the ENDOCRINE SYSTEM which consists of ductless glands, the
chemical regulators or hormones they produce and their interactions.
• Hormones are likened to messengers or signals that cause changes in physiologic and chemical
processes involved in the maintenance of body equilibrium or homeostasis.
•The endocrine systems effects are slow to initiate, and prolonged in their response, lasting for hours
to weeks.
•Hormones regulate various human functions, including Metabolism, growth and development, tissue
function, and mood.
* Hormones may be classified as Endocrine hormones.
* These are the classic hormones which are characteristically secreted into the bloodstream and reach
target organs which are distant from the source of the hormone.
•Paracrine hormones.
These hormones reach their target within the same site by diffusing through interstitial fluid. Examples:
cytokines produced by cells of the immune system.
* Autocrine hormones.
These hormones act back on the cells which act as the source of the hormones to modulate their
secretion or the intracellular processes involved. Example: prolactin (PRL) produced by the anterior
pituitary gland.
•Neurocrine hormones.
These hormones are produced by neurons. Oftentimes, they are referred to as neurohormones.
Examples of these are the neurotransmitters acetylcholine and dopamine.
► Other examples are antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin produced by the supraoptic and
paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus.
• Classification of Hormones
On the basis of function, hormones may be classified into:
1) Releasing hormones.
Hormones found in the hypothalamus promote the secretion of anterior pituitary hormones.
2) Inhibiting hormones.
Hormones from the hypothalamus or the gastro intestinal tract suppress the secretion of another
organ.
3) Trophic hormones.
They stimulate the growth and activity of other endocrine glands.
For example, TSH from the anterior pituitary gland causes hypertrophy of the thyroid
gland.
4) Effector hormones.
These are secreted by all endocrine glands other than the anterior pituitary gland and the
hypothalamus. They are the ultimate hormones responsible for causing physiologic processes.
z
•HORMONE PRODUCTION
•Many hormones are produced as parent or precursor molecules. Polypeptide hormones are
synthesized first as a pre-prohormone.
•A pre-prohormone contains a leader sequence of amino acids called a signal sequence.
*The signal sequence is cleaved from the pre-prohormone after insertion into the endoplasmic
reticulum.
•Within the secretory vesicle, the resulting product called a prohormone is then enzymatically cleaved
to a smaller active hormone molecule.
• The secretory vesicle can migrate to the cell membrane, fuse and release its hormones, or remain in
the cytoplasm of the cell as a storage vesicle.
• The storage vesicle provides the body with immediate access to the hormone in time of increased
demand.
•A very illustrative example of a hormone with this fate is the hormone insulin.
•It is synthesized in the B-cells of the pancreas as a pre-proinsulin which is then processed to form the
pro-insulin.
• Pro-insulin is then cleaved by proteases to form the C-peptide and the active insulin hormone.
MECHANISM OF HORMONE ACTION

• The following are prerequisites for a chemical function in physiological regulation:
► Target cells must have specific receptors that combine with the regulatory molecule (i.e., the
hormone).
► Combination of receptor with the ligand (i.e., the hormone) must cause specific sequence of
changes in target cells.
► There must be a mechanism to quickly turn off the action of the regulator (e.g., feedback
inhibition).
GROUP II HORMONES.
For polypeptides, glycoproteins, and catecholamines, their target receptors are located on the
extracellular side of the cell membrane since they cannot cross it to enter the
cell.
•This is very much understandable since these molecules are hydrophilic.
•Before a physiologic change is effected, the hormone must first bind with the extracellular receptor.
•Signal transduction which is the conversion of this binding phenomenon into a sequence of chemical
reaction in the target cell, then occurs.
•Signal transduction is frequently done by a system of intramembrane proteins called G proteins (with
several subunits e.g., a, b, and y subunits) and an enzyme (adenyl cyclase) attached to the
intracellular side of the plasma membrane.
GROUP I HORMONES.
•In contrast to Group II hormones, steroids and thyroid hormones can diffuse through the cell
membrane and enter the cell.
•Inside the cell they interact with their intracellular receptors.
•Depending on the hormone, these receptors may be located in the cytoplasm or in the nucleus.
•For steroids, they bind with an intracytoplasmic receptoro
•The hormone-receptor complex produced then migrates to the DNA in the nucleus of the cell at
specific nucleotide sequences.
•Zinc participates by binding with the DNA binding site rich in cysteine residues to optimize the
interaction between the hormone-receptor complex and the DNA.
•Synthesis of mRNA and proteins is then initiated.
•The model for Group I hormone action:
• HORMONE SECRETION AND REGULATION

•Before a hormone is synthesized and/or secreted, proper signals must be received by the endocrine
gland.
•Among the types of signals that cause hormone secretion are:
 Neural signals.
These signals stimulate the cerebral cortex or neutral centers by thoughts, emotions, stress, or
circadian/periodic rhythms.
Many of the hormones released by the hypothalamus and adrenal medulla are regulated this way.
> Change in plasma concentration of certain ions or compounds.
PTH is released in situations where the level of calcium is low.
On the other hand, if plasma glucose level is high, insulin secretion is stimulated.
 Tropic hormones.
As mentioned earlier, release of certain tropic hormones stimulate their target organs to secrete
effector hormones.
ACTH, for example, stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol while TSH stimulates the thyroid
gland to secrete T3 and T4.
 Variation in blood osmolality.
The secretion of ADH is very responsive to an increase plasma osmolality.
 Presence of foods.
The release of hormones in the gastro-intestinal tract is stimulated by the presence of foods in situ.
I. Regulation by the central nervous system.

Apart from these signals, the secretion of hormones may be regulated at other levels.
The central nervous system releases neurotransmitters e.g., acetylcholine, dopamine, serotonin, and
GABA (y-amino butyric acid).
For example, feelings of fear and anxiety can stimulate the sympathetic nervous system.
As a consequence the adrenal medulla releases epinephrine.
This could explain how anxiety or stress can disturb the regularity of the menstrual cycle.
II. Regulation by the hypothalamus.

The hypothalamus releases hormones that regulate the secretions of the anterior pituitary gland.
III. Feedback systems.

Another mechanism of hormone regulation is the so-called feedback system which operates among
hypothalamic, pituitary and target endocrine glands.
• The two basic types are the negative and positive feedback systems.
 Negative Feedback.
In this mechanism, the final hormone produced regulates its own secretion by inhibiting the secretion
of one or more of the precursor hormones.
The feedback system is concentration-dependent, i.e., if the end product is in high concentration in the
plasma, it will inhibit the cascade; if low, inhibition is removed.
> Examples of axis that operate in this manner are:
oHypothalamo-pituitary-thyroid axis
oHypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal cortex axis
o Hypothalamo-pituitary-gonadal axis
 Positive Feedback
In this mechanism, the final hormone produced in a cascade enhances or induces the initial hormone
and causes its own production to be increased.
An example of this is the simulation of the gonadotropin production during mid-menstrual cycle by the
increased levels of estrogen-17-B.
Figure 15-5. Schema of hormonal regulation by positive (right) and negative (left) feedback (+;
stimulation by long-feedback loops; -, inhibition by long-feedback loops; , short-feedback loop).
HYPOTHALAMIC, PITUITARY AND PINEAL ENDOCRINOLOGY
 Hypothalamus
A number of glands that signal each other in sequence is usually referred to as an axis, for
example, the hypothalamic-pituitary adrenal axis.
• The hypothalamus is located in the third ventricle and is directly above the pituitary.
•The pituitary is anatomically connected with the hypothalamus by the infundibulum, or
pituitary stalk.
•The hypothalamus contains neurosecretory cells that produce stimulating, releasing, and
inhibiting neuropeptides or hormones.
• It is primarily concern with modifying the secretion of hormones from the anterior pituitary.
* The hypothalamus controls body temperature, hunger, thirst, [1] fatigue, sleep, and circadian
cycles.
•The hypothalamic hormones are enumerated as follows:
1. Corticotrophin-releasing hormone(CRH)
which stimulates the release of ACTH and other hormones
e.g: beta-lipotropins and B-endorphins.
2. Thyrotropin -releasing hormones (TRH)

which stimulates the release of TSH.
3. Gonadotropin-releasing hormones (GnRH)

which stimulates the release of FSH and LH.
4. Prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF)

which decreases the level of prolactin. This factor has been found out to be Dopamine.
5. Prolactin-releasing factor (PRF)
which stimulates the release of Thyrotropin and Prolactin.
6. Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

which increases the level of growth hormone. It is also known as Somatocrinin.
7. Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH)

which decreases the level of growth hormone. It is also known as Somatostatin.
8. Melanocyte-inhibiting factor (MIF)
which decreases the level of melanocyte stimulating hormone.
9. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

which is also known as Arginine Vasopressin.
+ it increases the reabsorption of water from the glomerular filter and urine
promotes vasoconstriction
10. Oxytocin
which stimulates uterine muscle contraction and milk ejection reflex.
The Pituitary, Hypothalamus, & Pineal Glands
PINEAL GLAND
The pineal gland is located on the posterior wall of the third ventricle of the Cerebrum, at the
base of the brain.
•Its exact function remains unknown.
•It produces melatonin which is responsible for inhibiting the activities of gonadotropins in
lower vertebrates.
Among the physiologic and pharmacologic functions of this hormone in humans are as follows:
1. Regulation of circadian rhythms axis.
- Decreased level of melatonin during the day.
2. Inhibition of the pituitary-gonadal axis.
- Decreased level of melatonin is needed for the maturation of gonads.
- Increased melatonin delays onset of puberty.
3. Treatment of jet lag.
4. Treatment of insomnia.
- Elderly people usually have insomnia because they have low levels of melatonin. Melatonin
pills can stimulate sleep.
5. Anti-oxidant activity.
•Melatonin is an amine derived from the amino acid tryptophan.
Serotonin is also a byproduct of melatonin metabolism.
•It acts as a neurotransmitter.
•Its 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) is excreted in the urine and can be assayed using urine
as sample.
• Serotonin is rich in platelets and gastrointestinal tract.
4/8/2021 CC2 THURS: ENDOCRINE 2-3 LONG EXAM
CC2 THURS: ENDOCRINE 2-3 LONG

EXAM
Total points 80/80
Email address *
smasorong07717@liceo.edu.ph
This colorimetric development for cholesterol assay produces red to reddish 2/2
violet cholestadienyl disulfonic acid. *
Leibermann-burchardt (LB) reaction
Baculo-David (NADH consumption method)
Salkowski of zak reaction
Nagele- trinder reaction
It is also called thyroxine. * 2/2
3,3’5’-triiodothyronine
3,5,3’5’-tetraiodothyronine
3,5,3’-triiodothyronine
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSdOWOiFJHp9PpSijXIDPYlGlkcKk-3sy10luKRus0Pxe97gGg/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgAPu40Tln82… 1/14
The uptake of iodide from the plasma can be inhibited by the following anions 2/2
through competitive inhibition EXCEPT: *
perchlorate (CIO4-)
thiocyanate (SCN-)
tyrosine
increased iodide levels
Increased TBP is seen in the following EXCEPT: * 2/2
kidney disease
pregnancy
hepatitis.
use of oral contraceptives
This statement DOES NOT refer to the Murphy-Pattee method: * 2/2
It measures the hormonal iodide.
It is a Competitive Protein-Binding (CPB) Assay.
TBG added w/ radioactive
Precipitation of proteins with alcohol to liberate the T4.
This step involves precipitation of free cholesterol to remove the errors due to 2/2
non specific chromogen interference present in the sample. *
Saponification
Purification
Color development
Extraction
Adrenal cortex three different zones *
androgens or
glucocorticoids mineralocorticoids Score
sex hormones
zona fasciculata 2/2
zona reticularis 2/2
zona
2/2
glomerulosa
A patient was extracted at 6:00AM for Lipid Profile, with the following results: 2/2
TAG = 200mg/dL; Total Cholesterol = 220mg/dL; HDL cholesterol = 35mg/dL;
Infranatant cholesterol = 140mg/dL. If the process includes
ultracentrifugation, compute for the patient’s LDL & VLDL. *
80mg/dL LDL, 15mg/dL VLDL
Among the polyanion-divalent cations for HDL-C measurement, this is the 2/2
only one that agrees closely with those obtained using analytical or
preparative ultracentrifugation: *
Dextran sulfate –Mg
Sodium phosphotungstate-Mg
Heparin/ Mn++ precipitant
Heparin-Ca
The following can interfere with enzymatic measurements for blood 2/2
cholesterol, EXCEPT: *
plant sterols in the circulation of patients with ß sitosterolemia.
icteric specimen
free glycerol
high doses of ascorbic acid
A product of thyroid hormone metabolism which can act as a thyroid 2/2

hormone inhibitor: *
T3 has no affinity for this transport protein: * 2/2
TBPA
TBA
TBG
Patient’s test for serum triglyceride this morning resulted to 220mg/dl. Later in 2/2
the afternoon, you remembered you didn’t remove the free glycerol. How
much should have been his result if only you did its removal? *
180-190 mg/dl
200-210mg/dl
105-110 mg/dl
80-90 mg/dl
The main endpoint of Alkoxide trans-esterification is the production of this 2/2

substance from the liberation of glycerol: *
H2O2
Formaldehyde
NADH
lipoproteins
Triglycerides Conversion from mg/dL to mmol/L, multiply result by: * 2/2
0.01129
0.02586
38.7.
88.6
. Juan de la Cruz, 50y.o, came for a general check-up yesterday with the 2/2
following laboratory results: TG = 200mg/dl; Total Cholesterol = 200mg/dl;
HDL = 80mg/dl; How much are the patient’s LDL & VLDL by Friedewald
computation? *
LDL = 80mg; VLDL = 40mg/dl
LDL = 30.8mg; VLDL = 89.2mg/dl
This is the standard & reference, non-enzymatic method used by Centers for
Disease Control for Cholesterol measurement: *
Schoenheimer- Sperry
Carr-Drekter method
Abell-kendall method
Zlatkis-Zak-Boyle
Glucocorticoids are otherwise referred to as: * 2/2
cortisol
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
17-ketogenic steroids
17-hydroxycorticosteroids
___ % of the thyroid hormones in the plasma are bound. * 2/2
97%
99.9%
75%
25%
The American Thyroid Association refers to this parameter as the thyroid 2/2
hormone- binding ratio : *
RIA of total T3
RT3U ratio
FT4 Index
% Uptake of labeled T3
. Mr John Ford, 60y.o, came for a general check-up yesterday with the 2/2
HDL = 80mg/dl; What is his current risk for the development of coronary heart
diseases? *
low
High
variable
no relation
Organs in the body that produce steroid hormones EXCEPT: * 2/2
placenta
adrenal glands
pituitary gland
gonads
Channels formed in the ADH-stimulated renal tubules for reabsorbing water: * 2/2
aquaporin
secretory vesicles
Na+ K+ pump
receptors
Serum total T3 (T3) has a high discriminant value in the reflection of following 2/2
EXCEPT: *
T4 conversion to T3
the Kinetic rate reaction of T4
binding affinity of the thyroid-binding proteins
alteration in serum concentration of unbound active hormone
In the Overnight Water Department Test water is withheld from the patient for 2/2
___ hours. *
10
12
This compound binds to receptors on the cartilage and bone cells to stimulate 2/2
DNA synthesis and cell growth. *
Somatomedin A
Somatomedin B
Somatomedin C
About ___ of the metabolites of steroids returns to the blood and are excreted 2/2
through the urine. *
30%
90%
80%
70%
Antibodies & their descriptions: *
used to
directed
monitor a variety of
against directed
patient with 7S γ- Score
antigen in the against CA-2
thyroid globulins
cytoplasm
cancer
Colloid
2/2
antibodies.
Thyroid
stimulating 2/2
immunoglobulins
Thyroglobulin
2/2
antibodies
Microsomal
2/2
antibodies
Give the steps in the Synthesis of Thyroid Hormones by arranging the

following in order: *
A B C D Score
Incorporation of
iodine with the
2/2
tyrosine
residues
Uptake of
iodide from the 2/2
plasma
Coupling &
2/2
Release
Oxidation of
iodide (I-) to 2/2
iodine (I2)
Glycoprotein hormones include the following EXCEPT: * 2/2
GRH
LH
TSH
FSH
Thyrotropin releasing hormone has been shown to induce increase in the 2/2
levels of. *
Prolactin
Thyroid stimulating hormone
corticotrophin
All of the above
It is considered the reference method for measuring steroids. * 2/2
high performance liquid chromatography
enzyme-multiplied immunologic technique
gas chromatography-mass spectroscopy
fluorescence polarization immunoassay
This involves the removal of cytologic samples from thyroid masses to screen 2/2
for possible malignancy. *
T3 Suppression Test
Resin T3 Uptake (RT3U) Test
Thyroid Scan
Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy
Forms
4/20/2021 CC2 THURS: ENDOCRINE-4 LONG EXAM
CC2 THURS: ENDOCRINE-4 LONG EXAM

Total points 73/85
Email address *
. Patient Maria, 40y.o, came for a general check-up yesterday with the 2/2
following laboratory results: BUN = 15mg/dl; Creatinine before heating =
1.0mg/dl; Creatinine after heating = 2.0mg/dl. Evaluate his status as to his B/C
ratio: *
Postrenal azotemia
normal kidney function
Renal azotemia
Prerenal azotemia
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSdwIFhjM8LZTu7n5YNuQcALT0PWHpsnJNUMBEMbEkTK_XCH5A/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgC_kB… 1/15
Describe these Aminoacidurias according to the Enzyme / Gene Defect: *
SLC3A1
homogentis
SLC6A19 argininosuccinate & flavoprotein
citrin 1,2-
gene synthetase SLC7A9 dehydrogenase
dioxygenas
mutation
Type I
citrullinemia
Hartnup
disease
Glutaric
acidemia
type 2
Alkaptonuria
This is NOT among the stressful stimuli for the release of cortisol: * 2/2
hemorrhage
pyrogens
hyperglycemia
surgical trauma
Decreased levels of cortisol stimulate the breakdown of __ thereby 2/2

decreasing the epinephrine levels. *
Catechol-O-methyltransferase
Phenylethanolamine –N—methyl transferase
L- Monoamine oxidase
Homovanillic acid
An admitted patient undergoing dialysis has a Blood Urea Nitrogen of 1/1

80mg/dL How would you expressed this in Urea mmol/L? *
71.4mmol/L
2.8 – 7.1mmol/L
28.56mmol/L
35.7mmol/L
In establishing a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome, obtain blood between * 2/2
9:00PM & dawn
9:00AM & midday
7:00PM & midnight
9:00PM & 12:00AM
Metanephrines refer to the metabolites formed from norepinephrine and 2/2

epinephrine using the enzyme: *
Homovanillic acid
Adrenal Medullary Insufficiency is characterized by the symptoms of ____ and 2/2

a ______ level of urinary free cortisol. *
Hyperglycemia; increased
Hyperglycemia; decreased
Hypoglycemia; increased
Hypoglycemia; decreased
To correct for interfering nucleic acids, the protein concentration may be 1/1
calculated using this formula: *
Protein(mg/mL) = (15.5 x A280) – (0. 67 x A260)
Protein(mg/mL) = (0.76 x A280) – (1.55 x A260)
. The following refer to the most popular method used to measure Urea 1/1
EXCEPT: *
It uses the coupled enzymatic reaction
It quantitates the NH4+ produced from the indirect procedure mediated by Urease
It employs the Berthelot reaction
It uses the spectrophotometer
Clinical Application of Hormonal Tests: *
assessment
men congenital
of ovarian
Infertility evaluation adrenal
egg reserve;
testing; of anovulatory hyperplasia
Polycystic S
low menopausal cycles (CAH);
Ovary
sperm state premature
Syndrome
count puberty
(PCOS).
B 48) anti-mullerian
hormone (AMH)
E 49) follicle-stimulating
hormone (FSH)
C 50) estradiol
A 47)
dehydroepiandrosterone
sulfate (DHEA-S)
Foods that can increase catecholamine levels EXCEPT: * 2/2
pineapple
citrus fruits
coffee
chocolates
The tests for these substances in the urine are useful in the diagnosis of 2/2
neuroblastoma EXCEPT: *
Norepinephrine
Vanillyl Mnadelic Acid
Dopamine
Homovanillic acid
Describe these Aminoacidurias according to the Amino Acid/ Protein Affected: *
reabsorption
proteins-
urea of positively tyrosine &
fats tyrosine methionine
cycle charged phenylalanine
metabolism
amino acids
Homocystinuria
Cystinuria
Type II
citrullinemia
Glutaric
acidemia type 2
Alkaptonuria
This is Not included in the effects of catecholamines: * 2/2
pupil dilatation
increasing blood pressure
hyperglycemia
lipogenesis
An Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) value within this range signifies optimal 2/2
fertility: *
67.9- 79.6 pmol/l
21.98-40.03pmol/l
40.04-67.9pmol/l
Addison’s Disease is characterized by _____ aldosterone, _____ plasma 2/2

cortisol, _____ urine free cortisol, and _____ 17-OHCS. *
Decreased; Decreased; Decreased; Decreased
Increased; Decreased; Increased; Decreased
Decreased; Increased; Increased; Decreased
Increased; Increased; Increased; Increased
The major androgen produced by the testis is highest at about _____ and 2/2
lowest at about _____. In the circulation. about 98% of this is bound to _____. *
7:00AM; 8:00PM; sex-hormone-binding globulin
8:00PM;7:00AM; transcortin
8:00PM;7:00AM; sex-hormone-binding globulin
7:00AM; 8:00PM; transcortin
Describe these Aminoacidurias according to the Signs & Symptoms of the

disease: *
homogentisic cystine
pellagra-like hypoglycemia
acid (black crystals in Score
dermatosis & sweaty
urine) urine
Cystinuria 1/1
Alkaptonuria 1/1
Glutaric
acidemia type 1/1
2
Normally, after the metyrapone challenge, the plasma cortisol is ______, the 2/2
11-deoxyprecursors are _____, the total 17-OHCS excretion is _____, and the
urine cortisol is _____. *
Decreased; Increased; Decreased; Increased
Increased; Decreased; Decreased; Increased
The creatinine clearance test is routinely used to assess the glomerular 0/2
filtration rate. Given the following information for an average size adult,
calculate the creatinine clearance. Urine creatinine-120 mg/dLPlasma
creatinine-1.2 mg/dLUrine volume for 24 hours-1520 mL *
105.6 mL/min
94.7 mL/min
63.3 ml/min
10.6 mL/min
• In females, the (structure) (A)_____ produces PREDOMINANTLY progesterone,

while the (B) ______ produces estrogen. The (C)____ however, does not produce
any hormone anymore. *
CORPUS corpus LEYDIG

FOLLICLE ovum Score
ALBICANS luteum CELLS
B 2/2
A 2/2
C 2/2
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSdwIFhjM8LZTu7n5YNuQcALT0PWHpsnJNUMBEMbEkTK_XCH5A/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgC_k… 10/15
Match the expected Laboratory results: *
BASELINE:
BASELINE: BASELINE:
BASELINE: Increased ACTH,
Decreased ACTH, Increased both
Increased Decreased
Increased Cortisol; ACTH & Cortisol;
CRH, Cortisol; AFTER
AFTER AFTER
Increased DEXAMETHASONE
DEXAMETHASONE DEXAMETHASONE
ACTH, CHALLENGE =
CHALLENGE = still CHALLENGE=
Increased decreased ACTH,
decreased ACTH & decreased both
Cortisol but still decreased
increased Cortisol ACTH & Cortisol
Cortisol
Primary
Hypercortisolism
Secondary
Hypersortisolism
Tertiary
Hypoercortisolism
Primary
Hypocortisolism
ACTH producing
Lung Tumor
Secondary
Hypocortisolism
The following refer to Kjeldahl digestion procedure EXCEPT: * 1/1
It liberates the nitrogen content
Oxidation involves a strong sulfuric acid
It uses a catalyst like copper sulfate
It is an oxidation process by heating at 70 0C
In the Berthelot reaction, a blue-indophenol compound is formed that is 1/1

proportional to the quantity of urea in the specimen being analyzed. Falsely
elevated urea values will occur with this procedure when the reaction mixture
is contaminated by *
Glucose
Bacteria
Ammonia
Protein
It is a hormone that stimulates the secretion and inhibits the absorption of 2/2
sodium, chloride, potassium, and water within the small intestine and
increases bowel motility. *
Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
secretin
Relaxin
Atrial natriuretic peptide
Cholecystokinin
Catecholamines include the following hormones EXCEPT: * 2/2
norepinephrine
epinephrine
dopamine
methamphetamine
The principal end-product of dopamine metabolism is __. * 2/2
Homovanillic acid
Stains for proteins: *
detect peptides
glycoproteins lipoproteins Score
and amino acids
Sudan black 1/1
Coomassie
1/1
brilliant blue
Period Acid
1/1
Schiff
Proteins absorb UV light due to the presence of the following EXCEPT: * 1/1
phenylalanine
threonine
tryptophan
tyrosine.
This is NOT among the effects of Glucocorticoids: * 2/2
analgesic
immunosuppressive
hyperglycemic
antiinflammatory
Dexamethasone, being a synthetic ACTH analog, does not only act like the 2/2
latter’s _____ feedback, but also has similar functions to ACTH. Thus, in
hypoadrenalism, if the defect is in the adrenal cortex there will be _____ in
plasma or urine cortisol, while if the defect is in the hypothalamus or pituitary
gland, there will be _____ plasma and urine cortisol. *
Negative; no change; decrease
Positive; no change; increase
Negative; no change; increase
Negative; variable; increase
Forms
4/20/2021 CC2 THURS: ENDOCRINE-4 POST-LECTURE QUIZ
CC2 THURS: ENDOCRINE-4 POST-

LECTURE QUIZ
Total points 10/10
Email address *
In Primary Hypocortisolism, which Lab results would you expect? * 2/2
High ACTH, low cortisol
Low ACTH, High cortisol
High ACTH, High cortisol
Low ACTH, Low cortisol
In tertiary Hypercortisolism, which organ is defective? * 2/2
Adrenal Cortex
Hypothalamus
Anterior pituitary
Adrenal Medulla
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSeF3w30fEGZze0Ae58tIKsop-vsAZkQ1BlW_bT9QTVEaxnzcw/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgAjz2Hk8ULk… 1/3
This test is used to assess ovarian egg reserve. * 2/2
progesterone
estrogen
anti-Mullerian Hormone
Determination of ______levels is important to demonstrate anovulatory cycles. 2/2

*
Follicle stimulating hormone
Estrogen
Progesterone
Luteinizing Hormone
The sampling for this/these test(s) requires that the blood must be cooled on 2/2
ice during transport and processed immediately. *
bilirubun
blood gases
potassium
catecholamines
all of the above
Forms
4/20/2021 CC2 THURS TOXICOLOGY POST-LECTURE QUIZ
CC2 THURS TOXICOLOGY POST-

LECTURE QUIZ
Total points 10/10
Email address *
The most common poison encountered in industrial exposure. * 2/2
Lead
Mercury
Carbon Monoxide
Alcohol
The intensity of the color produced and the serum drug concentration, in 2/2
enzyme-multiplied immunologic technique (EMIT), have ____ relationship. *
direct
opposite
indirect
variable
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSeMDFlcQWYd85ZUGTehvD6E-RJxQKguiGmzS8NV9V1tBu6m2A/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgByJxD6… 1/3
This ROUTE FOR drug ADMINISTRATION has the fastest effect. * 2/2
subcutaneously
intravenously
intramuscular
oral
For oral drugs, most consistent results are obtained if the sample is taken 2/2
during ______. *
trough period
pre-dose period
peak period
All of the above
It is the most common toxic substances involved in medico-legal case. * 2/2
Arsenic
Ethanol
Lead
Mercury
Forms
CC2 THURS: ENDOCRINE 2-3 LONG

EXAM
Total points 80/80
Email address *
This colorimetric development for cholesterol assay produces red to reddish 2/2
violet cholestadienyl disulfonic acid. *
It is also called thyroxine. * 2/2
The uptake of iodide from the plasma can be inhibited by the following anions 2/2
through competitive inhibition EXCEPT: *
perchlorate (CIO4-)
thiocyanate (SCN-)
tyrosine
Increased TBP is seen in the following EXCEPT: * 2/2
kidney disease
pregnancy
hepatitis.
This statement DOES NOT refer to the Murphy-Pattee method: * 2/2
This step involves precipitation of free cholesterol to remove the errors due to 2/2
non specific chromogen interference present in the sample. *
Saponification
Purification
Color development
Extraction
Adrenal cortex three different zones *
androgens or
glucocorticoids mineralocorticoids Score
sex hormones
zona fasciculata 2/2
zona reticularis 2/2
zona
2/2
glomerulosa
A patient was extracted at 6:00AM for Lipid Profile, with the following results: 2/2
TAG = 200mg/dL; Total Cholesterol = 220mg/dL; HDL cholesterol = 35mg/dL;
Infranatant cholesterol = 140mg/dL. If the process includes
Among the polyanion-divalent cations for HDL-C measurement, this is the 2/2
only one that agrees closely with those obtained using analytical or
Heparin-Ca
The following can interfere with enzymatic measurements for blood 2/2
icteric specimen
free glycerol
A product of thyroid hormone metabolism which can act as a thyroid 2/2

T3 has no affinity for this transport protein: * 2/2
TBPA
TBA
TBG
Patient’s test for serum triglyceride this morning resulted to 220mg/dl. Later in 2/2
the afternoon, you remembered you didn’t remove the free glycerol. How
much should have been his result if only you did its removal? *
180-190 mg/dl
200-210mg/dl
105-110 mg/dl
80-90 mg/dl
The main endpoint of Alkoxide trans-esterification is the production of this 2/2

substance from the liberation of glycerol: *
H2O2
Formaldehyde
NADH
lipoproteins
Triglycerides Conversion from mg/dL to mmol/L, multiply result by: * 2/2
0.01129
0.02586
38.7.
88.6
. Juan de la Cruz, 50y.o, came for a general check-up yesterday with the 2/2
HDL = 80mg/dl; How much are the patient’s LDL & VLDL by Friedewald
computation? *
This is the standard & reference, non-enzymatic method used by Centers for
Disease Control for Cholesterol measurement: *
Carr-Drekter method
Zlatkis-Zak-Boyle
Glucocorticoids are otherwise referred to as: * 2/2
cortisol
___ % of the thyroid hormones in the plasma are bound. * 2/2
97%
99.9%
75%
25%
The American Thyroid Association refers to this parameter as the thyroid 2/2
hormone- binding ratio : *
RIA of total T3
RT3U ratio
FT4 Index
Mr John Ford, 60y.o, came for a general check-up yesterday with the 2/2
HDL = 80mg/dl; What is his current risk for the development of coronary heart
diseases? *
low
High
variable
no relation
Organs in the body that produce steroid hormones EXCEPT: * 2/2
placenta
adrenal glands
pituitary gland
gonads
Channels formed in the ADH-stimulated renal tubules for reabsorbing water: * 2/2
aquaporin
secretory vesicles
Na+ K+ pump
receptors
Serum total T3 (T3) has a high discriminant value in the reflection of following 2/2
EXCEPT: *
T4 conversion to T3
In the Overnight Water Department Test water is withheld from the patient for 2/2
___ hours. *
10
12
This compound binds to receptors on the cartilage and bone cells to stimulate 2/2
DNA synthesis and cell growth. *
Somatomedin A
Somatomedin B
Somatomedin C
About ___ of the metabolites of steroids returns to the blood and are excreted 2/2
through the urine. *
30%
90%
80%
70%
Antibodies & their descriptions: *
used to
directed
monitor a variety of
against directed
patient with 7S γ- Score
antigen in the against CA-2
thyroid globulins
cytoplasm
cancer
Colloid
2/2
antibodies.
Thyroid
stimulating 2/2
immunoglobulins
Thyroglobulin
2/2
antibodies
Microsomal
2/2
antibodies
Give the steps in the Synthesis of Thyroid Hormones by arranging the

following in order: *
A B C D Score
Incorporation of
iodine with the
2/2
tyrosine
residues
Uptake of
iodide from the 2/2
plasma
Coupling &
2/2
Release
Oxidation of
iodide (I-) to 2/2
iodine (I2)
Glycoprotein hormones include the following EXCEPT: * 2/2
GRH
LH
TSH
FSH
Thyrotropin releasing hormone has been shown to induce increase in the 2/2
levels of. *
Prolactin
corticotrophin
All of the above
It is considered the reference method for measuring steroids. * 2/2
This involves the removal of cytologic samples from thyroid masses to screen 2/2
for possible malignancy. *
T3 Suppression Test
Thyroid Scan
Forms
CC2 THURS: ENDOCRINE-4 LONG EXAM

Total points 73/85
Email address *
. Patient Maria, 40y.o, came for a general check-up yesterday with the 2/2
1.0mg/dl; Creatinine after heating = 2.0mg/dl. Evaluate his status as to his B/C
ratio: *
Postrenal azotemia
Renal azotemia
Prerenal azotemia
Describe these Aminoacidurias according to the Enzyme / Gene Defect: *
SLC3A1
homogentis
citrin 1,2-
dioxygenas
mutation
Type I
citrullinemia
Hartnup
disease
Glutaric
acidemia
type 2
Alkaptonuria
This is NOT among the stressful stimuli for the release of cortisol: * 2/2
hemorrhage
pyrogens
hyperglycemia
surgical trauma
Decreased levels of cortisol stimulate the breakdown of __ thereby 2/2

Homovanillic acid
An admitted patient undergoing dialysis has a Blood Urea Nitrogen of 1/1

71.4mmol/L
2.8 – 7.1mmol/L
28.56mmol/L
35.7mmol/L
In establishing a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome, obtain blood between * 2/2
9:00PM & dawn
9:00AM & midday
7:00PM & midnight
9:00PM & 12:00AM
Metanephrines refer to the metabolites formed from norepinephrine and 2/2

epinephrine using the enzyme: *
Homovanillic acid
Adrenal Medullary Insufficiency is characterized by the symptoms of ____ and 2/2

a ______ level of urinary free cortisol. *
To correct for interfering nucleic acids, the protein concentration may be 1/1
calculated using this formula: *
. The following refer to the most popular method used to measure Urea 1/1
EXCEPT: *
Clinical Application of Hormonal Tests: *
assessment
men congenital
of ovarian
egg reserve;
Polycystic S
Ovary
Syndrome
count puberty
(PCOS).
B 48) anti-mullerian
hormone (AMH)
E 49) follicle-stimulating
hormone (FSH)
C 50) estradiol
A 47)
sulfate (DHEA-S)
Foods that can increase catecholamine levels EXCEPT: * 2/2
pineapple
citrus fruits
coffee
chocolates
The tests for these substances in the urine are useful in the diagnosis of 2/2
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Homovanillic acid
Describe these Aminoacidurias according to the Amino Acid/ Protein Affected: *
reabsorption
proteins-
fats tyrosine methionine
metabolism
amino acids
Homocystinuria
Cystinuria
Type II
citrullinemia
Glutaric
acidemia type 2
Alkaptonuria
This is Not included in the effects of catecholamines: * 2/2
pupil dilatation
hyperglycemia
lipogenesis
An Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) value within this range signifies optimal 2/2
fertility: *
67.9- 79.6 pmol/l
21.98-40.03pmol/l
40.04-67.9pmol/l
Addison’s Disease is characterized by _____ aldosterone, _____ plasma 2/2

The major androgen produced by the testis is highest at about _____ and 2/2
lowest at about _____. In the circulation. about 98% of this is bound to _____. *
Describe these Aminoacidurias according to the Signs & Symptoms of the

disease: *
pellagra-like hypoglycemia
acid (black crystals in Score
dermatosis & sweaty
urine) urine
Cystinuria 1/1
Alkaptonuria 1/1
Glutaric
acidemia type 1/1
2
Normally, after the metyrapone challenge, the plasma cortisol is ______, the 2/2
11-deoxyprecursors are _____, the total 17-OHCS excretion is _____, and the
urine cortisol is _____. *
The creatinine clearance test is routinely used to assess the glomerular 0/2
105.6 mL/min
94.7 mL/min
63.3 ml/min
10.6 mL/min
• In females, the (structure) (A)_____ produces PREDOMINANTLY progesterone,

while the (B) ______ produces estrogen. The (C)____ however, does not produce
any hormone anymore. *

FOLLICLE ovum Score
B 2/2
A 2/2
C 2/2
Match the expected Laboratory results: *
BASELINE:
BASELINE: BASELINE:
BASELINE: Increased ACTH,
Increased Decreased
CRH, Cortisol; AFTER
AFTER AFTER
Increased DEXAMETHASONE
ACTH, CHALLENGE =
Increased decreased ACTH,
Cortisol but still decreased
Cortisol
Primary
Hypercortisolism
Secondary
Hypersortisolism
Tertiary
Hypoercortisolism
Primary
Hypocortisolism
ACTH producing
Lung Tumor
Secondary
Hypocortisolism
The following refer to Kjeldahl digestion procedure EXCEPT: * 1/1
In the Berthelot reaction, a blue-indophenol compound is formed that is 1/1

proportional to the quantity of urea in the specimen being analyzed. Falsely
elevated urea values will occur with this procedure when the reaction mixture
is contaminated by *
Glucose
Bacteria
Ammonia
Protein
It is a hormone that stimulates the secretion and inhibits the absorption of 2/2
sodium, chloride, potassium, and water within the small intestine and
secretin
Relaxin
Cholecystokinin
Catecholamines include the following hormones EXCEPT: * 2/2
norepinephrine
epinephrine
dopamine
methamphetamine
The principal end-product of dopamine metabolism is __. * 2/2
Homovanillic acid
Stains for proteins: *
detect peptides
glycoproteins lipoproteins Score
and amino acids
Sudan black 1/1
Coomassie
1/1
brilliant blue
Period Acid
1/1
Schiff
Proteins absorb UV light due to the presence of the following EXCEPT: * 1/1
phenylalanine
threonine
tryptophan
tyrosine.
This is NOT among the effects of Glucocorticoids: * 2/2
analgesic
immunosuppressive
hyperglycemic
antiinflammatory
Dexamethasone, being a synthetic ACTH analog, does not only act like the 2/2
latter’s _____ feedback, but also has similar functions to ACTH. Thus, in
hypoadrenalism, if the defect is in the adrenal cortex there will be _____ in
plasma or urine cortisol, while if the defect is in the hypothalamus or pituitary
gland, there will be _____ plasma and urine cortisol. *
Forms
CC2 THURS: ENDOCRINE-4 POST-

LECTURE QUIZ
Total points 10/10
Email address *
In Primary Hypocortisolism, which Lab results would you expect? * 2/2
High ACTH, low cortisol
Low ACTH, High cortisol
High ACTH, High cortisol
Low ACTH, Low cortisol
In tertiary Hypercortisolism, which organ is defective? * 2/2
Adrenal Cortex
Hypothalamus
Anterior pituitary
Adrenal Medulla
This test is used to assess ovarian egg reserve. * 2/2
progesterone
estrogen
anti-Mullerian Hormone
Determination of ______levels is important to demonstrate anovulatory cycles. 2/2

*
Follicle stimulating hormone
Estrogen
Progesterone
Luteinizing Hormone
The sampling for this/these test(s) requires that the blood must be cooled on 2/2
ice during transport and processed immediately. *
bilirubun
blood gases
potassium
catecholamines
all of the above
Forms
CC2 THURS TOXICOLOGY POST-

LECTURE QUIZ
Total points 10/10
Email address *
The most common poison encountered in industrial exposure. * 2/2
Lead
Mercury
Carbon Monoxide
Alcohol
The intensity of the color produced and the serum drug concentration, in 2/2
enzyme-multiplied immunologic technique (EMIT), have ____ relationship. *
direct
opposite
indirect
variable
This ROUTE FOR drug ADMINISTRATION has the fastest effect. * 2/2
subcutaneously
intravenously
intramuscular
oral
For oral drugs, most consistent results are obtained if the sample is taken 2/2
during ______. *
trough period
pre-dose period
peak period
All of the above
It is the most common toxic substances involved in medico-legal case. * 2/2
Arsenic
Ethanol
Lead
Mercury
Forms
4/21/2021 CC2 SEMI-FINALEXAMS
CC2 SEMI-FINALEXAMS
Your email address will be recorded when you submit this form.
N~h? Switch account
* Required
An admitted patient undergoing dialysis has a Blood Urea Nitrogen of 1 point

2.8 – 7.1mmol/L
35.7mmol/L
71.4mmol/L
28.56mmol/L
This is Not included in the effects of catecholamines: * 1 point
hyperglycemia
lipogenesis
pupil dilatation
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Describe these Aminoacidurias according to the EFFECTS on the 3 points

patient: *
pellagra-like hypoglycemia &
acid (black crystals in
dermatosis sweaty
urine) urine
Alkaptonuria
Glutaric
acidemia type 2
Cystinuria
This is the most conclusive method of confirming the presence of drugs 1 point
in the urine. *
. _____ values are collected during the period of maximal absorption 2 points
of the drug, while _____ values are monitored by collecting blood just
before the administration of a dose. *
trough; peak
elimination; aborption
peak; trough
aborption; elimination
To correct for interfering nucleic acids, the protein concentration may 1 point
be calculated using this formula: *
The principal end-product of dopamine metabolism is __. * 1 point
Homovanillic acid
A patient’s blood has the following results: Total protein= 3.3g/dL; 2 points
Albumin= 1.1g/dL Compute for his A:G ratio: *
1:2
1.3
2:1
3:1.
In anion-exchange chromatography, the order of elution is usually: * 1 point
albumin, α1-globulins, α2-globulins, and β-globulins.
α1-globulins α2-globulins,, β-globulins, and albumin.
α2-globulins, albumin, β-globulins, and α1-globulins.
β-globulins, α2-globulins, α1-globulins, and albumin.
The order of elution in Cation-exchange chromatography * 1 point
β-globulins, α2-globulins, α1-globulins, and albumin.
α1-globulins α2-globulins,, β-globulins, and albumin.
albumin, α1-globulins, α2-globulins, and β-globulins
α2-globulins, albumin, β-globulins, and α1-globulins.
The following refer to Kjeldahl digestion procedure EXCEPT: * 1 point
Addison’s Disease is characterized by _____ aldosterone, _____ plasma 2 points

. The following refer to the most popular method used to measure Urea 1 point
EXCEPT: *
This refers to the equilibration of drug with body tissue and plasma 1 point
proteins. *
bioavailability
biotransformation
distribution
Absorption
An example of Visible spectrophotometry is the ______, where the 2 points

sample is allowed to react with an acid solution of _____, precipitating
the serum protein. *
Trinder reaction; Fe(NO3)3
Reinsch Test; Fe(NO3)3
Reinsch Test; HgCI2
Trinder reaction; HgCI2
Describe each type of method/reaction (Choices may be used more 5 points
than once): *
Coomassie Lowry Folin-

Nesslerization Berthelot
Brilliant Protein Ciocalteau
reaction reaction
Blue Dye Assay Method
In this reaction, the

ammonia liberated by
digestion is allowed to
react with alkaline
hypochlorite to form
indophenol blue solution.
The catalyst used is
sodium nitroprusside.
This is used to detect

peptides and amino
acids after paper
chromatography.
This method of protein

determination is based
on the ability of
phosphotungstomolybdic
acid to oxidize the
phenolic structures of
the amino acids tyrosine,
phenylalanine,
tryptophan and histidine.
This involves reaction of

the liberated ammonium
ions with double iodide
of potassium and
mercury to form
dimercuric ammonium
iodide which is a yellow
to orange brown product.
This involves the

development of a violet
color from the reaction
of ninhydrin (tri-
ketohydrindine hydrate)
and primary amines.
Metabolism of drugs in the liver. * 1 point
absorption
bioavailability
distribution
biotransformation
Salting-out process of globulins means: * 1 point
oxidation with copper sulfate
precipitation with 22-26% sodium sulfate
precipitation in Rochelle salt environment
floatation method by ultracentrifugation
The ratio of the therapeutic level to the toxic level. * 1 point
LD50
margin of toxicity
therapeutic index
ED50
About ___ of the metabolites of steroids returns to the blood and are 1 point
excreted through the urine. *
70%
90%
80%
30%
To correct for interfering nucleic acids, the protein concentration may 1 point
be calculated using this formula: *
Glycoprotein hormones include the following EXCEPT: * 1 point
LH
GRH
TSH
FSH
Triglycerides Conversion from mg/dL to mmol/L, multiply result by: * 1 point
38.7.
0.02586
88.6
0.01129
Deficiency of this protein leads to Wilson’s disease (Hepatolenticular 1 point
Degeneration) *
prealbumin
Gc-globulin
α1-acid glycoprotein
Ceruloplasmin
This is NOT among the effects of Glucocorticoids: * 1 point
antiinflammatory
hyperglycemic
analgesic
immunosuppressive
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Organs in the body that produce steroid hormones EXCEPT: * 1 point
gonads
adrenal glands
placenta
pituitary gland
The _______ is attained usually after about 4-5 times the half-life of 2 points
the drug, and is independent of the _____. *
Peaks; site of absorption
Troughs; route of administration
Elimination; renal function
Steady-state; dosage
The major androgen produced by the testis is highest at about _____ 2 points
and lowest at about _____. In the circulation. about 98% of this is bound
to _____. *
Stains for proteins: * 3 points
detect peptides and

glycoproteins lipoproteins
amino acids
Sudan black
Period Acid Schiff
Coomassie brilliant
blue
This compound binds to receptors on the cartilage and bone cells to 1 point
stimulate DNA synthesis and cell growth. *
Somatomedin B
Somatomedin A
Somatomedin C
This involves the removal of cytologic samples from thyroid masses to 1 point
screen for possible malignancy. *
Thyroid Scan
T3 Suppression Test
A product of thyroid hormone metabolism which can act as a thyroid 1 point

This is the standard & reference, non-enzymatic method used by 1 point

Centers for Disease Control for Cholesterol measurement: *
Zlatkis-Zak-Boyle
Carr-Drekter method
For a refractometer to obtain accurate levels of protein, its 1 point

concentrations in the sample should be: *
not more than 2.5 g/dL.
between 2- 2.5 g/dL
greater than 2.5 g/dL
greater than 25 g/dL
Juan de la Cruz, 50y.o, came for a general check-up yesterday with 1 point
the following laboratory results: TG = 200mg/dl; Total Cholesterol =
200mg/dl; HDL = 80mg/dl; How much are the patient’s LDL & VLDL by
Friedewald computation? *
Dexamethasone, being a synthetic ACTH analog, does not only act like 2 points
the latter’s _____ feedback, but also has similar functions to ACTH.
Thus, in hypoadrenalism, if the defect is in the adrenal cortex there will
be _____ in plasma or urine cortisol, while if the defect is in the
hypothalamus or pituitary gland, there will be _____ plasma and urine
cortisol. *
*The toxicology laboratory establishes a diagnosis of poisoning, 2 points

assesses the ______ in the blood, and suggests for the ______to
counteract the drug. *
therapeutic effect; antidotes
level of intoxication ; antidotes
therapeutic effect; anticoagulants
level of intoxication; anticoagulants
___ % of the thyroid hormones in the plasma are bound. * 1 point
99.9%
75%
97%
25%
At levels ________, Digoxin becomes toxic. * 1 point
>1 ng/mL
>0.2 ng/mL
>2 ng/mL
>2 mg/mL
Decreased levels of cortisol stimulate the breakdown of __ thereby 1 point

Homovanillic acid
The American Thyroid Association refers to this parameter as the 1 point

thyroid hormone- binding ratio : *
FT4 Index
RT3U ratio
RIA of total T3
Mr John Ford, 60y.o, came for a general check-up yesterday with the 1 point
following laboratory results: TG = 200mg/dl; Total Cholesterol =
200mg/dl; HDL = 80mg/dl; What is his current risk for the development
of coronary heart diseases? *
variable
no relation
low
High
The _____ _ is the most accurate method for lead determination, 2 points
while the ______may be used for lithium determination. *
UV Spectrophotometry; Flame Emission Photometry
Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry; Flame Emission Photometry
Flame Emission Photometry; Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry
Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry; Visible spectrophotometry
Adrenal Medullary Insufficiency is characterized by the symptoms of 1 point

____ and a ______ level of urinary free cortisol. *
The creatinine clearance test is routinely used to assess the glomerular 1 point
105.6 mL/min
94.7 mL/min
63.3 ml/min
10.6 mL/min
It is the dose of the drug required to kill 50% of the animal population. 1 point
ED50
LD50
therapeutic index
margin of toxicity
Clear selection
Match the expected Laboratory results: * 6 points
BASELINE:
BASELINE: BASELINE:
BASELINE: Increased ACT
Increased Decreased
CRH, Cortisol; AFTE
AFTER AFTER
Increased DEXAMETHASO
ACTH, CHALLENGE
Increased decreased ACT
Cortisol but still decrea
Cortisol
ACTH producing
Lung Tumor
Secondary
Hypocortisolism
Tertiary
Hypoercortisolism
Primary
Hypercortisolism
Secondary
Hypersortisolism
Primary
Hypocortisolism
The Biuret reagent contains the following EXCEPT: * 1 point
copper sulfate for the biuret formation
potassium hydroxide to keep the copper ions in the cupric state
sodium hydroxide to provide alkalinity
Rochelle salt environment
UV Spectrophotometry is used in the determination of ______, while 4 points
Visible spectrophotometry is used to determine ______. The FORMER

has a peak absorbance at 320nm at pH _______, and at 220 nm at pH
______ . *
Salicylates; barbiturates; 13.0; 10.3
Barbiturates; salicylates; 13; 10.3
Salicylates; barbiturates; 10.3; 13.0;
Barbiturates; salicylates; 10.3;13.0
An Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) value within this range signifies 1 point
optimal fertility: *
21.98-40.03pmol/l
40.04-67.9pmol/l
67.9- 79.6 pmol/l
Clinical toxicology deals with the ______ effects of drugs or toxicity, 2 points
while _____ involves measurement of serum concentration of drugs,

which predicts the compliance of the patient. *
adverse ; therapeutic drug monitoring
therapeutic; therapeutic drug monitoring
adverse ; therapeutic index
therapeutic; therapeutic index
Clinical Application of Hormonal Tests: * 4 points
assessment
men congenital
of ovarian
egg reserve;
Polycystic
Ovary
Syndrome
count puberty
(PCOS).
sulfate (DHEA-S)
anti-mullerian hormone
(AMH)
estradiol
follicle-stimulating
hormone (FSH)
This statement DOES NOT refer to the Murphy-Pattee method: * 1 point
The following can interfere with enzymatic measurements for blood 1 point
free glycerol
icteric specimen
The free drug concentration is measured by separating it from the 1 point
protein through: *
sedimentation
centrifugation
ultrafiltration
floatation
A patient was extracted at 6:00AM for Lipid Profile, with the following 1 point
results: TAG = 200mg/dL; Total Cholesterol = 220mg/dL; HDL cholesterol
= 35mg/dL; Infranatant cholesterol = 140mg/dL. If the process includes
This colorimetric development for cholesterol assay produces red to 1 point

reddish violet cholestadienyl disulfonic acid. *
Proteins absorb UV light due to the presence of the following EXCEPT: * 1 point
phenylalanine
tryptophan
tyrosine.
threonine
The__________ the half life of a drug the better. * 1 point
similar
higher
lower
normal
Testing for toxins from environmental or occupational exposure include 1 point

the following EXCEPT: illicit or banned drugs *
organic solvent
heavy metals
illicit or banned drugs
pesticides
Proteins absorb UV light due to the presence of the following EXCEPT: * 1 point
phenylalanine
threonine
tyrosine.
tryptophan
In the Berthelot reaction, a blue-indophenol compound is formed that is 1 point

proportional to the quantity of urea in the specimen being analyzed.
Falsely elevated urea values will occur with this procedure when the
reaction mixture is contaminated by *
Glucose
Bacteria
Ammonia
Protein
This is NOT among the stressful stimuli for the release of cortisol: * 1 point
hemorrhage
pyrogens
hyperglycemia
surgical trauma
It is the dose of a drug required to produce a specified effect in 50% of 1 point

the population. *
LD50
margin of toxicity
therapeutic index
ED50
The following refer to Kjeldahl digestion procedure EXCEPT: * 1 point
It refers to the extent at which the drug reaches its site of action. * 1 point
distribution
absorption
bioavailability
biotransformation
Digoxin therapeutic level is about ____. * 1 point
1-2 ng/dL
1-2 ng/mL
1-2 mg/mL
0.1-2 ng/mL
Principles of general methods for drug analysis. * 8 points
A) B) C) D) E) F) H) FP
G) FPIA
Positive, Positive, Negative, Negative, Negative, Positive, Posit
Negative
Ames ELISA ELISA EMIT Ames EMIT Resu
46)A 46) Sample

Sample
+ anti-drug
anti-drug + +
ug-drug-
substrate
bstrate
→ →
complex
mplex
anti-drug-
ti-drug-
ugdrug + drug-
+ drug-
substrate
bstrate
complex.
mplex.
Addition
ddition of of
e the enzyme
enzyme β- β-
galactosidase
lactosidase
results
sults in the
in the
breakdown
eakdown of of
e the drug-
drug-
substrate
bstrate
complex
mplex to to
rm form
a a
fluorescent
orescent
compound.
mpound.
H 52)
52) Anti-Anti-
ugdrug + Serum
+ Serum
+ drug-
drug-
fluorescein
orescein
→ →
complex
mplex
eefree drug-
drug-
fluorescein
orescein
complex
mplex
C 47)
47) Solid-
Solid-
phase
ase anti-anti-
ugdrug + serum
+ serum
+ drug-
drug-
enzyme
zyme
complex
mplex + +
→ →
substrate
bstrate
color
lor change.
change.
49)E 49) Sample

Sample
+ anti-drug
anti-drug + +
ug-drug-
substrate
bstrate
→ →
complex
mplex
anti-drug-
ti-drug-
ugdrug
– –
substrate.
bstrate.
Addition
ddition of of
e the enzyme
enzyme β- β-
galactosidase
lactosidase
→
fluorescence
orescence
is decreased
decreased
or absent..
absent..
B 51)
51) Solid-
Solid-
phase-anti-
ase-anti-
ugdrug + serum
+ serum
+ drug-
drug-
enzyme
zyme
complex
mplex + +
→ →
substrate
bstrate
no color
color
change.
ange.
48)F 48)
SerumSerum+ +
anti-drug
ti-drug + +
drug-enzyme
ug-enzyme
complex
mplex → →
anti-drug-
ti-drug-
ugdrug + free
+ free
drug-enzyme
ug-enzyme
complex.
mplex. AddAdd
substrate,
bstrate,
erethere
will will
be abe a
color
lor change.
change.
45)D 45) Serum

Serum
+ anti-drug
anti-drug + +
drug-enzyme
ug-enzyme
→ →
complex
mplex
anti-drug-
ti-drug-
drug-enzyme.
ug-enzyme.
ddAdd
bstrate,
substrate,
ere will will
there be be
color
no color
ange.
change.
50) Anti-Anti-
G 50)
ugdrug
+ Serum
+ Serum
drug-
+ drug-
orescein
fluorescein
mplex
complex→ →
ti-drug-
anti-drug-
ug-drug-
orescein
fluorescein
mplex.
complex.
adiate withwith
Irradiate
larized
polarized
ht, & there
light, & there
ll will
be an
be an
creased
increased
larization.
polarization.
Thyrotropin releasing hormone has been shown to induce increase in 1 point
the levels of. *
Prolactin
corticotrophin
All of the above
Normally, after the metyrapone challenge, the plasma cortisol is ______, 2 points
the 11-deoxyprecursors are _____, the total 17-OHCS excretion is _____,
and the urine cortisol is _____. *
It is also called thyroxine. * 1 point
Between Fe(NO3)3 & the HgCI2, it is the ______ ions that react with 2 points
the phenolic group to form a _____ complex which is read at 540 nm. *
(Hg++); violet
(Fe+++); violet
(Fe+++); reddish
(Hg++); reddish
It is a measure of the toxicity of the drug. * 1 point
ED50
LD50
therapeutic index
margin of toxicity
Products of Metabolizm in the liver by Alcohol Dehydrogenase: * 4 points
gycol-aldehyde,
formaldehyde acetaldehyde glycolic acid,
acetone
and formic acid and acetic acid and glyoxylic
acid
Isopropanol
Methanol
Ethylene glycol
Ethanol
T3 has no affinity for this transport protein: * 1 point
TBG
TBPA
TBA
The tests for these substances in the urine are useful in the diagnosis of 1 point
Homovanillic acid
Dopamine
Norepinephrine
It is considered the reference method for measuring steroids. * 1 point
A____ level of free haptoglobin suggests hemoglobinuria or hemolysis: * 1 point
increase in urine
increase in serum
decrease in serum
decrease in urine
Describe these Aminoacidurias according to the Enzyme / Gene 4 points
Defect: *
SLC3A1
homoge
citrin 1,2
dioxyge
mutation
Alkaptonuria
Glutaric
acidemia
type 2
Type I
citrullinemia
Hartnup
disease
Describe these Aminoacidurias according to the Amino Acid/ Protein 5 points

Affected: *
reabsorption
proteins-
fats tyrosine methionin
metabolism
amino acids
Homocystinuria
Type II
citrullinemia
Alkaptonuria
Glutaric
acidemia type 2
Cystinuria
Catecholamines include the following hormones EXCEPT: * 1 point
methamphetamine
dopamine
norepinephrine
epinephrine
Stains for proteins: * 3 points
detect peptides and

glycoproteins lipoproteins
amino acids
Period Acid Schiff
Coomassie brilliant
blue
Sudan black
Low therapeutic index means: * 1 point
The therapeutic level is high while the toxic level is low.
The margin between the therapeutic and toxic levels is small.
The margin between the therapeutic and toxic levels is large.
The therapeutic level is low while the toxic level is high.
This step involves precipitation of free cholesterol to remove the errors 1 point
due to non specific chromogen interference present in the sample. *
Saponification
Purification
Color development
Extraction
Glucocorticoids are otherwise referred to as: * 1 point
cortisol
Foods that can increase catecholamine levels EXCEPT: * 1 point
pineapple
chocolates
coffee
citrus fruits
Protein Electrophoresis: * 5 points
migrates migrates
It migrates travels with migrates in
between the with
as an α1- the β- the α2-
β and y feathery
globulin globulins region
fractions trailing edge
Fibrinogen
Haptoglobin
Gc-globulin
β-lipoprotein
Complement
This refers to the rate at which the drug leaves its site of administration. 1 point
distribution
absorption
biotransformation
bioavailability
Reversal in the A/G ratio may be seen in the following conditions 1 point
EXCEPT: *
infectious diseases
lactose intolerance
liver diseases
multiple myeloma
When the transferrin level is high, it refers to the following EXCEPT: * 1 point
decrease in iron levels
iron saturation is high
there is iron deficiency
increased iron binding capacity
Serum total T3 (T3) has a high discriminant value in the reflection of 1 point
following EXCEPT: *
T4 conversion to T3
Among the polyanion-divalent cations for HDL-C measurement, this is 1 point

the only one that agrees closely with those obtained using analytical or
Heparin-Ca
It is a hormone that stimulates the secretion and inhibits the absorption 1 point
of sodium, chloride, potassium, and water within the small intestine and
secretin
Cholecystokinin
Relaxin
The main endpoint of Alkoxide trans-esterification is the production of 1 point

this substance from the liberation of glycerol: *
Formaldehyde
NADH
lipoproteins
H2O2
Patient’s test for serum triglyceride this morning resulted to 220mg/dl. 1 point
Later in the afternoon, you remembered you didn’t remove the free
glycerol. How much should have been his result if only you did its
removal? *
80-90 mg/dl
200-210mg/dl
180-190 mg/dl
105-110 mg/dl
A presumptive way of diagnosing ______ poisoning is by detecting 3 points
the presence of calcium oxalate crystals in urine of patients; for ______

poisoning, it is by detecting an increased serum osmolality, while
______ intoxication is diagnosed by the presence of hyperosmolality
without glycosuria. *
Isopropanol; 1,2 ethane-diol; Methanol;
1,2 ethane-diol; Methanol; Isopropanol
Ethanol; 1,2 ethane-diol; Methanol;
Methanol; 1,2 ethane-diol; Ethanol
Give the steps in the Synthesis of Thyroid Hormones by arranging 4 points

the following in order: *
A B C D
Uptake of iodide
from the plasma
Incorporation of
iodine with the
tyrosine residues
Coupling &
Release
Oxidation of
iodide (I-) to
iodine (I2)
Describe these Aminoacidurias according to the Signs & Symptoms of 3 points

the disease: *
pellagra-like hypoglycemia &
acid (black crystals in
dermatosis sweaty
urine) urine
Cystinuria
Glutaric
acidemia type 2
Alkaptonuria
The uptake of iodide from the plasma can be inhibited by the following 1 point
anions through competitive inhibition EXCEPT: *
tyrosine
thiocyanate (SCN-)
perchlorate (CIO4-)
In the Overnight Water Department Test water is withheld from the 1 point
patient for ___ hours. *
12
10
In Conway Microdiffusion, Ethanol is allowed to react with _______ to 3 points

form ______, while in Alcohol Dehydrogenase Method, the ethanol
reacts with _____. *
potassium dichromate and sulfuric acid; chromium (111) sulfate (green) ;

nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
chromium (111) sulfate (green) ; nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD);

potassium dichromate and sulfuric acid
potassium dichromate and NADH; nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD);

chromium (111) sulfate (green)
acetaldehyde and NADH; chromium (111) sulfate (green); nicotinamide adenine

dinucleotide (NAD)
• In females, the (structure) (A)_____ produces PREDOMINANTLY 3 points

progesterone, while the (B) ______ produces estrogen. The (C)____
however, does not produce any hormone anymore. *

FOLLICLE ovum
In establishing a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome, obtain blood between 1 point
9:00PM & dawn
9:00PM & 12:00AM
7:00PM & midnight
9:00AM & midday
Increased TBP is seen in the following EXCEPT: * 1 point
pregnancy
hepatitis.
kidney disease
Describe these Aminoacidurias according to the Enzyme Defect: * 5 points
SLC3A1
homoge
citrin 1,2
dioxyge
mutation
Cystinuria
Glutaric
acidemia
type 2
Hartnup
disease
Alkaptonuria
Type I
citrullinemia
Metanephrines refer to the metabolites formed from norepinephrine 1 point
and epinephrine using the enzyme: *
Homovanillic acid
Adrenal cortex three different zones * 3 points
androgens or sex
glucocorticoids mineralocorticoids
hormones
zona reticularis
zona fasciculata
zona glomerulosa
Antibodies & their descriptions: * 4 points
used to
directed against
monitor patient directed a variety of 7S
antigen in the
with thyroid against CA-2 γ-globulins
cytoplasm
cancer
Colloid
antibodies.
Microsomal
antibodies
Thyroid
stimulating
immunoglobulins
Thyroglobulin
antibodies
The purpose of therapeutic drug monitoring is to ensure that blood 1 point
levels ___ the therapeutic range. *
be below
stay within
be above
stay out of
Channels formed in the ADH-stimulated renal tubules for reabsorbing 1 point

water: *
aquaporin
secretory vesicles
Na+ K+ pump
receptors
Patient Maria, 40y.o, came for a general check-up yesterday with the 1 point

1.0mg/dl; Creatinine after heating = 2.0mg/dl. Evaluate his status as to
his B/C ratio: *
Renal azotemia
Prerenal azotemia
Postrenal azotemia
Page 1 of 1
Submit
This form was created inside of Liceo de Cagayan University. Report Abuse
Forms
4/27/2021 CC2 TUES THERAPEUTIC-DRUG TEST-2 POST-LECTURE QUIZ
CC2 TUES THERAPEUTIC-DRUG TEST-2

POST-LECTURE QUIZ
Total points 12/12
Email address *
Its toxic effect is due to its 210x affinity for hemoglobin: * 2/2
Cyanide
Arsenic
Mercury
Carbon monoxide
It is a chronic, relapsing brain disease with compulsive drug seeking 2/2

despite harmful consequences: *
Drug dependence
Drug Abuse
Drug tolerance
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSdmQCABOieVH6p4qL-2-3O-wRnru5w3OOjSNQLxj59GWcefkA/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgDXXm-tCk… 1/3
Lead has this organ as its reservoir: * 2/2
Kidney
Heart
Bone
Brain
The role of methylene blue in poisoning: * 2/2
Serves as dye for affected tissue
Serves as antidote against poisoning
Serves as buffer in blood testing
Which of the following statements is correct? * 2/2
Soul continues to live when the body tissues die
Soul means breath of life
Soul returns to the Creator when the body tissues die
Soul may enter into another body when original body tissues die
1st & last choices only
All of the above
This alcohol is more lethal than ethanol: 2/2
Ethylene glycol
Methanol
Isopropanol
Forms
5/11/2021 CC2 TUES: CLINICAL TOXICOLOGY -4 POST-LECTURE QUIZ
CC2 TUES: CLINICAL TOXICOLOGY -4

POST-LECTURE QUIZ
Total points 10/10
Email *
This drug can cause constricted pupils: * 2/2
Morphine
Coccaine
Heroin
Marijuana
The most commonly abused substance: * 2/2
marijuana
caffeine
nicotine
alcohol
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSda8dBj4h7qXMwbhZgNuYK_Rnnya94blb5mK8-A_m06nuyaZQ/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgDwpvNCr… 1/3
This/ these are the most precise & use as confirmation test for identifying 2/2
and quantifying drugs or their metabolites. *
Gas Chromatography
Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay
Mass Spectrometry
Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique
All of the above
A drug-positive urine specimen will generate a colored line on the testing 2/2
strip.. *
FALSE
TRUE
It is the most commonly used sample for testing drugs. * 2/2
blood
hair
urine
sweat
saliva
Forms
5/4/2021 CLINICAL TOXICOLOGY- 3 POST-LECTURE QUIZ
CLINICAL TOXICOLOGY- 3 POST-

LECTURE QUIZ
Total points 10/12
Email *
State the general effects of the following drugs: *
temporarily visual & reduce

pain
elevate perception anxiety & Score
reliever
wakefulness disturbances excitement
Sedatives 2/2
Stimulants 2/2
Hallucinogens 2/2
narcotics 2/2
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSdAyMgpMfXYenNFqG6fJEHFvwog8Zf78BjKUCRuFhOGJfJbgw/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgA3WlatAS… 1/2
5/4/2021 CLINICAL TOXICOLOGY- 3 POST-LECTURE QUIZ
Most commonly abused drug/chemical. * 2/2
shabu
marijuana
alcohol
caffeine
> Complete the following statement: "The Creator shall bring every work ···/2
into _________ (ONE WORD ALL CAPITAL), with every secret thing,
whether it be good, or whether it be evil." *
JUDGEMENT
Forms
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSdAyMgpMfXYenNFqG6fJEHFvwog8Zf78BjKUCRuFhOGJfJbgw/viewscore?viewscore=AE0zAgA3WlatAS… 2/2
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY II
Drug Testing Exam-
Part I. Choose the nearest answer:

⮚ (1) B.) mainstream smoke is the actual person that puff the butt of cigarette, while (2) C.) sidestream
smoke is the one who is involuntarily exposed to tobacco smoke. On the other hand, (3) A. active smoker
is that which is filtered into the mouth & lungs, while the (4) D.) passive smoker is that which passes
directly unfiltered into the air.
A) active smoker
B) mainstream smoke
C) sidestream smoke
D) passive smoker
⮚ The number of minutes you spend puffing a cigarette is the number of minutes your life will be (5 A)
shortened; One pack a day equals (6) D) two cups of cancer-causing chemicals.
A) shortened B) 1 cup C) lengthened D) two cups
⮚ Detoxification / Rehabilitation facilities may also use a controlled taper and/or medications like (7) B)
methadone for (8) C) heroin addiction to alleviate withdrawal symptoms and cravings.
A) methotrexate B) methadone C) heroin D) morphine
⮚ Drug addiction is a dangerous and often (9) D) fatal condition. It can be virtually impossible for an
addicted individual to break the cycle of (10) A) compulsive drug use without assistance.
A) compulsive B) rational C) treatable D) fatal
Part II. Which DOES NOT belong to the group?
11) Street names of Ecstacy:
A) XTC B) cubes C) Adams D) Herbals
12)Street names of Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD):
A) Joint B)Lucy on the sky C) brain eaters D) wedding bells
13)Street names of Marijuana:
A) Mary Jane B) Brownies C) Flower D) wack
14)Street names of Heroin:
A) kabayo B) pampapogi C) pulbos D) kengkoy
15)Street names of Barbiturates:
A) schoolboy B) lily C) yellow jackets D) blue heavens
16)Street names of amphetamines:
A) Lid Poppers B) Hearts C) Eye opener D) coke
17)Street names of Coccaine:
A) snow B) paradise C) white girl D) nose candy
18)Street names of Shabu:
A) Dope B)Siopao C) Ubas D) Ice
[5mins 15secs]
19)Stimulants include:
A) Caffeine B) Coccaine C) Shabu D) Alcohol
20)Hallucinogens include:
A) Ecstacy B) LSD C) Codeine D) Marijuana
21) Narcotics include:
A) Caffeine B) Codeine C) Heroin D) Morphine
22) Personal reasons for taking drugs:
A) peer pressure B) self-medication C) low self esteem D) attention deficit disorder
23) Roles of family to prevent drug abuse:
A) parents with vices C) encouragement
B) setting fine examples D) hypocritical morality
24) The most acceptable Roles of the church to prevent drug abuse:
A) bible studies C) youth freedom on decision-making
B) individuals given importance in church D) youth involved in church activities
25) Toxic substances acquired during cigarette smoking:
A) Arsenic B) Formaldehyde C) Mescaline D) Nitrosamines

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CC1 PRELIMS

7. This is NOT a consequence of a Hemolysed sample:

34. This step is NOT included in establishing the STANDARD CURVE:

ANSWER: High drift high noise

46. This increases the level of triglycerides:

1. Differentiate between Descriptive statistics and inferential statistics:

3. Most common type of error in the Clinical Laboratory:

6. Factors affecting accuracy EXCEPT:

9. The following are measures of central tendency except:

13. Low error detection rate occurs in:

16. In the t test, degrees of freedom mean:

ANSWER: Shift (?)

ANSWER: Systematic errors (?)

ANSWER: Persistent HBV infection with Absent HBsAg

➢ hepatic uptake of ➢ obstruction of the

CC2- TUES - WATER-RENAL

This is in charge of the Osmotic pressure of the blood: * 2/2

Daily obligatory water losses to be compensated: * 2/2

In Overnight Water Department Testing, patients with ADH deficiency 2/2

decreasing serum osmolality and increasing urine osmolality

increasing serum osmolality and urine osmolality

decreasing serum osmolality and urine osmolality

increasing serum osmolality and decreasing urine osmolality

This form was created inside of Liceo de Cagayan University.

CC2- TUES: WATER- RENAL-

The respondent's email address (ctrinidad49855@liceo.edu.ph) was recorded on

Urine/Serum Osmol Ratio of patients with Chronic Renal Insufficiency. * 0/2

The countercurrent ion of sodium is: * 0/2

Alcoholism will give the following effects EXCEPT: * 0/2

In which computation do you use this formula? * 2/2

Fractional Sodium Excretion

Creatinine Clearance Test

Sample of choice for Potassium determination: * 0/2

Reference Values: * Sakto mani ambot ni doc

7-14 10-18 110-130

Due to intracellular and extracellular concentration difference of this 2/2

What is the pH for a 0.05M solution of hydrochloric acid? * 1/1

This sample lowers sodium levels: * 0/2

On which computation do you use this formula? * 2/2

Renal Failure Index

Fractional Sodium Excretion

Effect of high serum glucose to serum sodium concentration: * 2/2

When do you use this formula? * 2/2

Fractional Sodium Excretion

Free water Clearance

recovery from the disease will show turbidity in all tubes

A potassium determination revealed a result of 5.8mmol/L. However, 2/2

most likely normal

Albanese-Lein test involves combining sodium with ___. * 2/2

zinc uranyl acetate ethylene

> Functions of Electrolytes: *

Fe HCO3 Mg sodium Score

. Ion-selective electrodes, membrane composition: *

This statement is NOT TRUE regarding the measurement of chloride by 2/2

it selectively admits all halogen ions

most common method employed in the United States

Bromide can cause interference

When do you use this formula? * 2/2

Fractional Sodium Excretion

Renal Failure Index

Inulin Clearance Test

Which statement refers to the effect of acidosis on potassium : * 2/2

hydrogen ions tend to be secreted in preference to the potassium resulting in