CLASS: LT & XII NEET DPT-36 (XI SYLLABUS) DATE:21.2.

2024

CHEMISTRY:GROUP 15-18 P-BLOCK-II

1. The most stable oxidation states of nitrogen are
(a) -3, +3 and +5 (b) -3, 0 and -1 (c) -3, +3 and 0 (d) -3, +3 and -5
2. Among the following, the element that does not show allotropy is
(a) N (b) P (c) As (d) Bi
3. Which of the following halides of nitrogen is stable?
(a) NF3 (b) NCl3 (c) NBr3 (d) NI3
4. N2 is commercially prepared by
(a) fractional distillation of liquefied air
(b) heating sodium nitrite
(c) heating sodium azide
(d) heating a mixture of ammonium chloride sodium nitrite
5. Which of the following properties is not compatible with nitrogen?
(a) Hydrogen bonding (b) Catenation (c) Supporter of life (d) Low boiling point
6. Which of the following forms strong p - p bonding
(a) P4 (b) As4 (c) N2 (d) Sb4
7. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is a mixed anhydride of two acids?
(a) N2 O3 (b) N2 O4 (c) N2 O5 (d) NO2
8. Platinum reacts with aqua regia to produce chloroplatinic acid represented by the formula
(a) H4 [PtCl6 ] (b) H [PtCl4 ] (c) H2 [PtCl6 ] (d) H2 [PtCl4 ]
9. White phosphorus is more reactive than N2 because
(a) electronegativity of phosphorus is low
(b) ionization energy of phosphorus is low
(c) P—P bond is weaker than N  N bond
(d) P—P bond is polymeric
10. Group 16 elements (except polonium) are called chalcogens because
(a) these elements, particularly sulphur and oxygen, are present in many metallic ores
mainly as oxides and sulphides
(b) a large number of acids contain these elements, particularly sulphur and oxygen
(c) these elements mainly form anions
(d) these elements exist in different allotropic forms
11. Which of the following statements is correct for sulphur?
(a) In sulphur, stronger p-p overlap takes place because the size of the d orbitals is
similar to that of the p orbitals.
(b) The size of the atom and the size of the 3d orbitals decrease from S to Cl because on
crossing a period in the periodic table, the nuclear charge is increased and s and p
electrons shield the nuclear charge incompletely
(c) Due to stronger p-d overlap, only a few sulphur compounds polymerize.
(d) All of these
12. Which of the following ions does not have an S—S linkage?

a) b) c) d)
13. Which of the following elements can have both positive and negative oxidation states?
(a) Fluorine (b) Iodine (c) Lithium (d) Helium
14. Which one among the following is the most powerful oxidizing agent?
(a) Cl2 (b) Br2 (c) F2 (d) I2
15. Which of the following are not correctly matched?
(a) A halogen which is a liquid at room temperature  bromine
(b) The most electronegative element  fluorine
(c) The strongest oxidizing halogen  iodine
(d) The most reactive halogen  fluorine
16. The halogen which has zero standard enthalpy of formation is
(a) Cl2 (g) (b) Br2 (g) (c) Br2 (l) (d) F2 (s)
17. For breathing, deep-sea divers use a mixture of
(a) O2 and H2 (b) O2 and N2 (c) O2 and He (d) O2 and Ar
18. The correct order of increasing b.p. is:
a) N H 3 < P H 3< As H 3 < Sb H 3 b) P H 3 < N H 3< As H 3 < Sb H 3
c) P H 3 < As H 3 < Sb H 3 < N H 3 d) P H 3 < As H 3 < N H 3 < Sb H 3
19. Decreasing order of dipole moment of hydrides of 15th group is:
a) N H 3 > P H 3> As H 3 > Sb H 3> Bi H 3 b) As H 3> Bi H 3> N H 3 > Sb H 3 > P H 3
c) Bi H 3 >Sb H 3 > As H 3 > P H 3 > N H 3 d) P H 3 > As H 3 > N H 3 > Sb H 3> Bi H 3
20. The lewis acid character and hence the ease of hydrolysis of MC l3 in 15th group is
decreasing as:
a) NC l 3> PC l3 > AsC l 3 > SbC l3 > BiC l 3 b) PC l3 > NC l3 > AsC l 3 > SbC l 3 > BiC l 3
c) AsC l 3 > NC l3 > PC l 3 > SbC l3 > BiC l 3 d) BiC l 3 > SbC l 3> AsC l3 > PC l 3 > NC l 3

21. Stability of hydrides of 15th group is increasing order is:

a) N H 3 < P H 3< As H 3 < Sb H 3< Bi H 3 b) P H 3 < As H 3 < N H 3 < Sb H 3< Bi H 3
c) Bi H 3 <Sb H 3 < As H 3 < P H 3 < N H 3 d) Bi H 3 <Sb H 3 < N H 3 < As H 3 < P H 3
22. Basicities of H 3 P O3 and H 3 B O3 are respectively
a) 3, 3 b) 2, 1 c) 1, 2 d) 1, 1
23. In P O3−¿¿
4 , the bond order of P−O bond and formal charge on O-atom are respectively
a) 0.25, −¿0.25 b) 0.50 ,−0.50 c) 1.25 ,−0.75 d) 0.75 ,−1.25
24 . Oxygen is always divalent whereas sulphur can form 2, 4 and 6 bonds. This is because:
a) oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur
b) sulphur contains d-orbital’s where as oxygen does not
c) sulphur has large atomic radius than oxygen
d) sulphur is more electronegative than oxygen
25. The incorrect statement among the following is:
a) C 60 is an allotrope of carbon
b) O3 is an allotropic from of oxygen
c) S8 is only allotropic form of sulphur
d) red phosphorus is more stable in air than white phosphorus
26. In which of the following arrangements, the given sequence is not strictly according to
the property indicated against it?
a) HF < HCl< HBr < HI ; increasing acidic strength
b) H 2 O< H 2 S< H 2 Se < H 2 Te; increasing p K a values
c) N H 3 < P H 3< As H 3 < Sb H 3; increasing acidic character
d) C O2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < Pb O2; increasing oxidising property
27. Roasting of sulphides give the gas ‘X’ as a by product. This is a colourless gas with
choking smell of burning sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a
result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic, acts as reducing agent and the acid has
never been isolated. The gas ‘X’ is:
a) C O2 b) S O3 c) H 2 S d) S O2
28. The correct order of bond angle (smallest first) in H 2 S , N H 3 , B F3 and Si H 4 is:
a) H 2 S <Si H 4 < N H 3 < B F 3 b) N H 3 < H 2 S< Si H 4 < B F 3
c) H 2 S < N H 3< Si H 4 < B F 3 d) H 2 S < N H 3< B F 3< Si H 4
29. Which of the following contains two S-atoms bonded to each other?
a) H 2 S 2 O2 b) H 2 S 2 O4 c) H 2 S 2 O6 d) All of these
30. Select the incorrect statement:
a) S O2 gas has oxidising as well as reducing behaviour
b) O3 causes tailing of Hg
c) KI(s) reacts with conc. H 2 S O 4 to produce HI
d) O3 oxidises KI to I 2 in acidic medium
31. S O2 reacts with C l 2 in the presence of sunlight to form:
a) sulphuryl chloride b) sulphonyl chloride c) sulphur dioxide d) none of
these
32. Which of the following oxides is expected to exhibit paramagnetic behaviour?
a) C O2 b) S O2 c) Cl O2 d) SiO2
33. The correct order of acid strength is:
a) HClO< HClO2 < HCl O3 < HCl O4 b) HCl O4 < HClO < HCl O2< HCl O3
c) HCl O2< HClO3 < HCl O4 < HClO d) HCl O4 < HCl O3 < HCl O2< HClO
34. Which of the following is not according to the priority stated against it?
a) F 2>C l 2> B r 2 > I 2 ; bond dissociation energy b) F 2>C l 2> B r 2 > I 2 ; oxidising power
c) HI > HBr > HCl> HF ; acidic property in water
d) F 2>C l2> B r 2 > I 2 ; electronegativity
35. The correct order of acidic strength is:
a) C l 2 O7> S O2 > P 4 O10 b) N a2 O> MgO> A l 2 O3
c) K 2 O> CaO> MgO d) C O2 > N 2 O5> S O3
36. The best oxidising oxoacid of chlorine is:
a) HOCl b) HCl O2 c) HCl O3 d) HCl O4
37. Gas ‘A’ bleaches the colour of a flower by oxidation and ‘B’ by reduction. The gases A
and B respectively are:
a) S O2 , C l 2 b) C l 2 , S O2 c) N H 3 , S O2 d) C l 2 , N H 3
38. Which reaction is not feasible?
a) 2 KI + B r 2 → 2 KBr + I 2 b) 2 KBr+ I 2 → 2 KI + B r 2
c) 2 KBr+C l 2 →2 KCl+ B r 2 d) 2 H 2 O+2 F2 → 4 HF +O2
39. Which produces are expected from the disproportionation of hypochlorous acid?
a) HCl O3 and C l 2 O b) HCl O2 and HCl O4 c) HCl and C l 2 O d) HCl and HCl O3
40. Which is the best behaviour of B r 2 in the reaction given below?
H 2 O+ B r 2 → HOBr + HBr
a) Proton acceptor only b) Both oxidising and reducing
c) Oxidising only d) Reducing only

41. The most abundant noble gas in starts and in air are respectively:
a) Rn, Xe b) He, Kr c) Ar, He d) He, Ar
42. The heat of vaporisation, polarisation and solubility in water of noble gases are in the
order:
a) He< Ne< Ar < Kr < Xe b) Xe < Kr< Ar < Ne< He c)
He< Ne< Ar < Xe< Kr d) He< Ne=Ar < Kr= Xe
43. Which of the following has maximum number of lone pairs at the central atom and which
one the maximum number of π -bonds, respectively?
I. Xe O3 II. Xe O 4 III. Xe O2 F2 IV. Xe F 2
a) IV, II b) II, I c) I, IV d) IV, III
44. Number of lone pairs of electrons on Xe atoms in Xe F 2 , Xe F 4 and Xe F 6 molecules are
respectively:
a) 3, 2, 1 b) 4, 3, 2 c) 2, 3, 1 d) 3, 2, 0
45. Thermally most stable compound is :
a) HOClO3 b) HOClO2 c) HOCl d) HOClO
ZOOLOGY:LT REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
46. Consider the following statements:
a. In India, family planning program was initiated in 1982.
b. Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) program is an improved version
of family planning programs.
Select the correct option
A) (a) is true, (b) is false B) Both (a) and (b) are false
C) (a) is false, (b) is true D) Both (a) and (b) are true
47. In what way awareness can be created among people about reproduction related aspects?
a. Through audio-visual and print media advertisements.
b. Creating fear among adolescents about sexual practices..
c. Introduction of sex education at school.
Select the most appropriate option
A) (a), (b) and (c) are correct B) (b) and (c) are correct
C) (a) and (b) are correct D) (a) and (c) are correct

48. While providing sex education to adolescents at school, which attribute would be least
significant?
A) Safe and hygienic sexual practices
B) Information about postnatal care of mother and child.
C) Information about STDs and AIDS.
D) Discouraging children from believing in myths related to sexual practices
49. Assertion: Amniocentesis helps to detect foetal disorders during early pregnancy.
Reason: Jaundice can be prevented in foetus by amniocentesis
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
50. The trend of world’s population growth from the year 2000 to 2011 is [Pg-59,E] A)
Increasing B) Decreasing C) Stable D) Fluctuating
51. Match the following columns

Column I (Year) Column II

(World
population)
A 2011 1 2000 million
B 1900 2 7.2 billion
C 2000 3 6 billion

A B C A B C
A) 3 2 1 B) 1 3 2
C) 2 1 3 D) 3 1 2
52. According to the 2011 census report, the population growth rate of India was
A) More than five percent B) Less than one percent
C) Less than two percent D) More than six percent
53. Marriageable age of males and female in India is
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 21 years and 18 years, respectively
D) 18 years and 21 years, respectively
54. An ideal contraceptive should have all the listed characteristics, except
A) User friendly B) Reversible
C) Easily available D) Decrease sex drive
55. Consider the following statements
(a) Natural method of contraception is a traditional method to prevent
pregnancy.
 (b) The basic principle of natural method of contraception is to avoid the contact
between ovum and sperms
Select the correct option.
A) a is true, b is false B) a is false, b is true
C) Both a and b are true D) Both a and b are false
56. In periodic abstinence method
A) Female has to take contraceptive pills periodically
B) Couple should avoid coitus periodically
C) Couple should avoid coitus for few months or years
D) female do not ovulate for few months.
57. During which period of a typical menstrual cycle of 28 days, coitus should be avoided to
prevent conception naturally?
A) 0–5 days, i.e., during menstrual flow
B) 5–8 days after menstrual flow
C) 11–16 days after menstrual flow
D) 23–26 days after menstrual flow
58. How does coitus interruptus method is practiced by couples?
A) By avoiding coitus at the time of ovulation
B) By avoiding insemination just before ejaculation.
C) By ejaculation semen in the condoms
D) By avoiding the insertion of penis into the vagina

59. Match the following columns

Column I (Natural methods Column II (Characteristics

of contraception
a Coitus interruptus 1 Avoid intercourse during ovulation
b Lactational amenorrhea 2 Avoid insemination into vagina
 c Periodic abstinence 3 Ovum is not available for fertilisation
Select the correct option.
a b c a b c
(A) 3 1 2 (B) 1 3 2
(C) 3 2 1 (D) 2 3 1
60. The barrier method of contraception
(a) can be used by males only
(b) prevents physical meeting of sperm and ovum
(c) are used at the time of coitus
Select the most appropriate option.
A) (a) and (c) are correct B) (a), (b), (c) are correct
C) (b) and (c) are correct D) Only (b) is correct
61. Use of condoms can help to prevent
A) AIDS and other STDs B) Spermatogenesis
C) Coitus D) All of these
62. Select the correct statement regarding intra uterine devices (IUDs).
A) They are used by females at the time of copulation.
B) IUDs are inserted in the uterus by doctors.
C) IUDs are not reliable contraceptives.
D) All IUDs release hormones which suppress sperm motility.
63. Match the following columns

Column I Column II
a LNG 20 1 Hormone-releasing IUD
b Lippes loop 2 Copper releasing IUD
c Multiload 375 3 Non medicated IUD
Select the correct option.
a b c a b c
A) 2 1 3 B) 2 3 1
C) 1 2 3 D) 1 3 2
64. All the listed IUDs release copper ions except
A) LNG 20 B) Cu 7 C) Cu T D) Multiload 375
65. What is significance of copper ions in contraception?
 A) They delay ovulation in females.
B) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
C) They increase the level of prolactin so as to suppress the activity of LH and FSH.
D) They decrease the libido and sexual desire of female.
66. Select the hormone-releasing Intra- Uterine Devices.
A) Multiload 375, Progestasert B) Progestasert, LNG-20
C) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375 D) Vaults, LNG-20
67. Which of the following is a correct statement?
A) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
B) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
C) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
D) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus
68. Select the incorrect statement regarding ‘Saheli’.
A) It was developed by CDRI, Lucknow, India.
B) It contains high amount of progesterone and estrogen.
C) It is taken once in a week.
D) It has least side effects and high contraceptive value.
69. Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?
A) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills
B) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
C) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods
D) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
70. Which of the following statement is incorrect
A) Vasectomy is the sterilisation procedure in males.
B) Sterilisation method blocks the transport of gametes to prevent conception.
C) In tubectomy, fallopian tubes are removed from female body completely.
D) After tubectomy, menstrual cycle is not disrupted in females.
71. Among the listed options, contraception is achieved through
A) Tubectomy B) Ovariectomy C) Hysterectomy D) Castration
72. Assertion: After vasectomy, sperms are not found in the semen or ejaculate.
Reason: Vas deferens is cut and tied in vasectomy
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
 B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
73. Medical termination of pregnancy is
A) Carried out by tubectomy in females
B) Induced abortion
C) Inability to conceive due to certain problem
D) Menopause stage in females
74. Government of India legalised MTP in the year
A) 1988 B) 1978 C) 1985 D) 1971
75. To reduce the incidences of illegal abortions, recent MTP (Amendment) Act in India was
enacted in
A) 2009 B) 2011 C) 2017 D) 2019
76. MTP is considered safe upto
A) 12 weeks B) 24 weeks C) 26 weeks D) 28 weeks
77. Assertion: MTP helps to get rid of unwanted pregnancies due to unprotected intercourse.
Reason: MTPs are considered safe up to 28 weeks of pregnancy.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
78. Sexually transmitted diseases are alternatively known as
A) Contagious diseases B) Venereal diseases
C) Viral diseases D) Degenerative diseases

79. RTI stands for

A) Rubella-Typhoid Infection B) Rotavirus-Trichomoniasis Infection C)
Reproductive Tract Infection D) Rotavirus
80. Among the given options, which set represents sexually transmitted infections (STI) only?
A) Gonorrhea, Chlamydiasis, Trichomoniasis
B) Syphilis, Giardiasis, Genital warts
 C) Taeniasis Genital herpes, Leishmaniasis
D) Hepatitis B, Malaria, Gonorrhea
81. Consider the following statements.
(a) AIDS and Hepatitis B are STIs which are caused by virus.
(b) Gonorrhoea and syphilis are caused by bacteria.
Select the correct option.
A) a is true, b is false B) a is false, b is true
C) Both a and b are false D) Both a and b are true
82. A pregnant lady was suffering from a STI and various tests confirmed that her baby has
also contracted the disease. The pregnant lady must be suffering from
A) Genital herpes B) Trichomoniasis C) Chlamydiasis D) Hepatitis B
83. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?
A) Syphillis B) Genital herpes C) Chlamydiasis D) Gonorrhoea
84. The incidences of STDs are more frequent
A) In age group of 15–24 years B) Before the beginning of puberty age C) In a
menopausing woman D) In elder generation
85. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases in Column-I with their causative agent
in Column II and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
a Gonorrhea 1 HIV
b Syphilis 2 Neisseria
c Genital Warts 3 Treponema
d AIDS 4 Human papilloma – virus

Select the correct option.

a b c d a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1 B) 2 3 4 1
C) 3 4 1 2 D) 4 2 3 1
86. What measures can be taken to prevent STDs among population?
A) Use condom during coitus
B) Avoid sex with multiple partners
C) Do not share needles and syringes
D) All of these
87. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do not specially affect reproductive
organs?
 A) Chlamydiasis and AIDS B) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
C) Syphilis and Genital herpes D) AIDS and Hepatitis B
88. IVF stands for
A) In vitro fertilisation B) In vivo fertilisation
C) Inter–vaginal fertilisation D) Intra vaginal fusion
89. Where does fertilisation occur in case of IVF?
A) Within the fallopian tube B) In uterus
C) Outside the body D) Inside vagina
90. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The
full form of this technique is
A) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
B) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
C) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
D) Gamete internal fertilisation and transfer