CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

1. Which part of the microscope magnifies the image from 11. Which formula for calculated glomerular filtration rate
the high-power objective lens? includes BUN and serum albumin?
a. Eyepiece a. Inulin clearance
b. Low power objective b. Creatinine clearance
c. Condenser c. MDRD
d. Oil immersion objective d. Cocroft and gault
2. Which of the following substances is associated with 12. Which of the following is the reagent is used for
Melanuria? Amniotic fluid Foam Stability Test?
a. Sodium bicarbonate a. 40% isopropanol
b. Tyrosine b. Anhydrous ether
c. Phenyl pyruvic acid c. 95% ethanol
d. Homogentisic acid d. 70% ethyl alcohol
3. Which of the following functions are performed by the 13. Which blood vessel supplies blood to the kidney?
kidneys? a. Collecting ducts
a. Filtration, reabsorption and secretion b. Renal vein
b. Filtration and reabsorption c. Renal artery
c. Secretion and dehydration d. Glomerular tuft
d. Filtration and secretion 14. Copper sulfate was used to test sugar in urine. Which
4. CSF Tube labeled 2 will be sent to ___________. colors indicate glycosuria?
a. Chemistry a. Blue, green and yellow
b. Microbiology b. Green, yellow and orange
c. Hematology c. Orange and red
d. Serology d. Blue and green
5. Which of the following has been observed in urine as the 15. The substance which forms the moulds of urinary casts
MOST common sign of fecal contamination? are produced by the ______________ cells.
a. Enterobius ova a. Loop of Henle
b. Schistosoma haematobium b. Renal tubular
c. Trichomonas vaginalis c. Bladder
d. Entamoeba histolytica d. Transitional epithelial
6. Turbidity of alkaline urine upon standing is usually due to 16. What is the chemical component of calculi which is
a. Pus cells often produced by persons with Leukemia, Lymphoma
b. Urates and Polycythemia?
c. Albumin a. Uric acid
d. Phosphates b. Calcium oxalate
7. With regards to hazardous chemical, what warnings to alert c. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
on dangers are posted on the labels of chemicals? d. Cysteine
a. Hazardous, very hazardous, non-hazardous 17. First morning urine is the specimen of choice EXCEPT
b. Poisonous, corrosive, carcinogenic for _____________.
c. Toxic, non-toxic a. Routine Urinalysis
d. Normal, dangerous, very dangerous, deadly b. Urobilinogen
8. Which of the following is the criterion for polyuria? c. Urine Culture
a. The urine volume / 24 hours exceeds 3 Liters d. Pregnancy Test
b. The patient urinates more than 10 times/ 24 hours 18. Describe the appearance of a urine protein test done by
c. Urine consistently exceeds a total volume of 2,000 qualitative wet method graded as positive 1+?
mL/ 24 hours a. Turbidity with granulation but flocculation
d. The patient urinates more than 20 times in 24 hours b. Turbidity with flocculation
9. Which vitamin should NOT be taken prior to FOBT testing? c. Distinct turbidity with no granulation
a. Vitamin B12 d. Noticeable turbidity
b. Vitamin E 19. Which urine clarity described as few particulates, print
c. Vitamin D easily seen through newsprint?
d. Vitamin C a. Very cloudy
10. What is the normal value of leukocytes in synovial fluid? b. Clear
(per HPF) c. Hazy
a. 0-25 d. Cloudy
b. 0-10 20. The measurement of amniotic fluid bilirubin is by
c. Less than 1000 ______.
d. Less than 200 a. Jaffe reaction
b. Diazo reaction
 c. Spectrophotometric analysis d. Arthrocentesis
d. Schlesinger test 31. What condition has the peculiar output of odorless
21. The presence of more than 25 squamous epithelial cells urine?
and less than 25 neutrophils in sputum indicates that a. Ketosis
___________. b. Tubular necrosis
a. The patient has vital infection c. Diabetes
b. The patient has parasitism d. Nocturia
c. The patient has bacterial infection 32. Which bag is used for the disposal of biodegradable
d. The specimen is admixed with saliva materials?
22. What standard is used in calibrating the baseline of a a. Yellow
urinometer? b. Black
a. Glucose solution c. Green
b. Distilled water d. Red
c. Levulose 33. Which is a cause of transudative peritoneal fluid?
d. Saline solution a. Ruptured appendicitis
23. Which form of bilirubin is detectable in urine? b. Cancer of the colon
a. Conjugated c. Cirrhosis of the liver
b. Unconjugated d. Perforated intestines
c. Biliverdin 34. What term is used to describe the condition in which a
d. All forms person fails to produce urine?
24. While a patient is under treatment for the presence of a. Nephritis
renal stones, which of the following findings would be of b. Anuria
importance to the clinician? c. Nephrosis
a. Calcium oxalate d. Oliguria
b. Proteinuria 35. Which of the following is the most common form of
c. Microscopic hematuria calcium oxalate crystals seen microscopically?
d. pH a. Cold wedges
25. What part of a microscope is replaced to convert a bright b. Elongated hour glass
field to a dark field microscope? c. Octahedral envelopes
a. Polarizing filter d. Oval shaped
b. A split aperture 36. What important procedure is done after removal of
c. Iris diaphragm gloves?
d. Condenser a. Hand washing
26. Blondheim test is used for differentiating which chemicals b. Rubbing hands with 40% alcohol
found in urine? c. Rubbing hands with 70% alcohol
a. Ferritin and hemoglobin d. Apply any antiseptic
b. Glucose from other sugars 37. One of the following is a diluent for CSF WBC?
c. Myoglobin and hemoglobin a. 3% HAc
d. Hemosiderin and myoglobin b. HABA
27. What is the anticoagulant of choice for pleural fluid c. HCL
chemistry tests? d. 10% H2S04
a. Heparin 38. 2, 6-dichlorobenzene-diazonium-tetrafluoroborate is a
b. EDTA chemical embedded in the urine strip test for _______.
c. Potassium oxalate a. Hemoglobin
d. None b. Bilirubin
28. Which of the following organisms will produce a positive c. Leukocyte esterase
reaction of Nitrite in urine? d. Nitrite
a. Coliform 39. How much urine which should be placed in a
b. Koch’s bacilli urinometer to get an accurate reading?
c. All gram-negative bacilli a. 30 l
d. Staphylococci b. 50 ml
29. The type of microscope BEST to view casts is . c. 10 ml
a. Phase contrast d. 100 l
b. Dark field 40. Under which category will synovial fluid with a WBC
c. Polarizing count of 800/l fall?
d. Bright field a. Non-inflammatory
30. Pleural fluid extraction is referred to as . b. Hemorrhagic
a. Paracentesis c. Inflammatory
b. Thoracentesis d. Septic
c. Amniocentesis
41. In automated urinalysis Sysmex UF series, the DNA within c. Powdered EDTA
the cells is stained by ______________. d. Heparinized syringe
a. Oil red O 52. How is CSF preserved for Resorcinol test?
b. Phenanthridine a. Keep frozen
c. Alkaline phosphatase b. Store at room temperature
d. Carbocyanine c. Store in gray top tube
42. Specimens for Sperm count is kept at °C d. Keep in heparinized tube
a. -5 53. If you receive a urine sample which is improperly
b. 22 labeled, which is the appropriate corrective action?
c. 37 a. Reject the specimen, inform the station and ask
d. 0 for a new sample
43. What debilitating disease can be assessed by monitoring b. Call the ward, ask who collected and help out by
oligoclonal bands in CSF? putting a new label
a. TB Meningitis c. Call the ward, return the sample and ask them to
b. AIDS relabel
c. Neurosyphilis d. Send communication to the ward about their
d. Multiple myeloma mistake but continue offer solution
44. Which reagent is necessary for cytocentrifugation of CSF to 54. A urine sample has a specific gravity of 1.005, what is
increase the cell yield? the appropriate term for this condition?
a. LISS a. Oligosthenuria
b. 30% Albumin b. Hyposthenuria
c. 10% albumin c. Isosthenuria
d. NSS d. Hypersthenuria
45. Which of the following is an application of the usefulness 55. After a 12 round boxing game, the boxer’s urine was red
of Fecal Occult blood test? in color. Other than blood, what could cause such
a. Mass screening for colorectal cancer color?
b. Test for parasitism a. Urobilinogen
c. Test for orchitis b. Myoglobin
d. Test for pancreatitis c. Haptoglobin
46. POCT pregnancy test is . d. Bilirubin
a. Capable of detection at 1 IU/ml 56. What viscosity grade is appropriate if the semen is
b. An indirect test for the presence of a fetus described as “watery”?
c. Also be used as an indicator for hydatid mole a. 5
d. An accurate test to determine the presence of a fetus b. 0
47. A decrease in sperm motility and presence of clumping is c. 2
an indication of . d. 10
a. Male antisperm antibodies 57. A POSITIVE reaction in the strip test for bilirubin is
b. Low level of fructose color.
c. Female antisperm antibodies a. Pink to violet
d. Low volume of acid phosphatase b. Orange to brick red
48. Cleaning of hands in a Clinical Microscopy laboratory is c. Pale green to emerald green
done d. Beige to brown
a. Up to the elbow for 5 minutes 58. What causes the normal color of feces?
b. Up to the wrist for 15 seconds a. Pancreatic enzymes
c. For a minimum of 10 minutes b. Muscle fibers
d. In an upward position for 1 minute c. Urobilin
49. Which crystal is found in acid urine as single or double d. Cellulose
envelopes? 59. A freshly voided urine has strong ammoniacal scent.
a. Dihydrate calcium oxalate Which of the following is the MOST possible reason?
b. Uric acid a. Urinary tract infection
c. Monohydrate calcium oxalate b. Alkaptonuria
d. Cysteine c. Phenylketonuria
50. What is the color of normal gastric juice? d. Diabetic acidosis
a. Pale yellow and turbid 60. In manual, routine urinalysis, how are squamous
b. Clean and colorless epithelial cells reported?
c. Pale gray a. Average number /0 HPF
d. White and transparent b. Few, moderate, many, abundant / LPF
51. Synovial fluid for microscopic study should be collected in c. Few, moderate, many, abundant / HPF
a. Liquid EDTA d. Present / none seen
b. Red top tube and refrigerated
61. A semen sample arrives with an order for fructose. How is c. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
it preserved? d. Calcium oxalate
a. Put it in the refrigerator 71. What is the principle used in the protein test using
b. Freeze it urine strips?
c. Keep in a dry area at room temperature a. The error of indicator
d. Keep it at body temperature b. Enzymatic property of protein
62. Which sample of sputum/bronchial aspirate is MOST c. Combining capacity with the substrate
suitable for bacteriologic study? d. Reducing property of protein
a. NaCl induced sputum 72. Meningitis caused by Cryptococcus meningitis will have
b. Mouthwash induced secretion in CSF?
c. Naso-pharyngeal washes a. High protein
d. Broncho-alveolar lavage b. Increased lactate
63. Which describe how red cells from a dilute urine sample c. All of these
left unattended at room temperature for hours will look d. Increase WBC
microscopically? 73. While performing Benedict’s test, the reagent
a. Brownian movement accidentally spilled while boiling and splashed into your
b. Swollen, like faint halos eyes. What must you do?
c. Crenated a. Cry for help and ask someone to splash water
d. Isomorphic on your eyes
64. The term PYURIA refers to the . b. Wash eyes with mild vinegar
a. Urinary tract infection c. Flush the eyes with boric acid for 15 minutes
b. Inflammation of the glomeruli d. Close your eyes and tears will wash the liquid out
c. Abnormal presence of WBC in urine 74. Alkaline urine is produced if a diet rich in .
d. Presence of blood in the kidney a. Meat
65. What abnormality is associated with poor sperm motility b. Lipids
but the count is normal? c. Vegetables
a. Lack of seminal vesicle support medium d. Proteins and fats
b. Presence of male antisperm antibody 75. Which of the following is a significant value of AER?
c. Female antisperm antibodies a. 10-20 mg
d. Viability of the sperm cells b. 20 mg/24hr
66. A urine specimen using a refractometer, after being diluted c. 5-20 ug/min
1:5 had a reading of 1.009. what is the actual specific d. 20-200 μg/min
gravity? 76. What test is used to differentiate porphobilinogen,
a. 1.0045 urobilinogen and other related compounds?
b. 1.45 a. Nitroso-naphthol
c. 1.045 b. Watson-Schwartz
d. 1.014 c. Diazo
67. The presence of many eosinophils in urine is associated d. Guthrie
with what disease? 77. Parietal cells produce Hydrochloric acid in response to
a. Chronic glomerulonephritis a. Lipase
b. End stage renal disease b. Pepsin
c. Drug-induced interstitial nephritis c. Gastrin
d. Diabetes insipidus d. Amylase
68. What is the principle of the current pregnancy test kit? 78. Which chemical test for CSF is predictive of Multiple
a. Precipitation Sclerosis?
b. Immunologic a. MBP
c. Chemical b. Glutamine
d. Nephelometric c. D-dimer
69. Which of the following is a recommended precaution d. Lactate
about the use of dipsticks? 79. You are asked to do eosinophil count from urine
a. Urine kept in the refrigerator must be pre-warmed sediment. How many white cells do you need to count,
to room temperature before testing and at least how many eosinophils constitute a
b. Dip reagent strips in urine for exactly 5 seconds significant finding?
c. Expired strips can be used as long as there is no a. 500-5
discoloration of pads b. 200-10
d. Lay the reagent strips flat, face down and direct on c. 500-50
the workbench surface d. 100-10
70. Apatite is another name for __________.
a. Calcium phosphate
b. Calcium carbonate
80. Nigrosin-eosin stain will color live sperm cells _________ 90. Which of the following is the correct way to clean the lenses
against a purple background. of a microscope?
a. Red a. Lens paper
b. Bluish white b. Any of these
c. Dark green c. Cotton dipped in Xylene
d. Black d. Mild soap and water
81. Which of the following stones are caused by inherited 91. How are uric acid crystals differentiated from cysteine?
metabolic abnormality? a. Dissolve in Acetic Acid
a. Calcium oxalate b. Become hexagonal after adding HCL
b. Struvite c. Highly refringent under polarized light
c. Cysteine d. Form Maltese cross under phase contrast microscope
d. Calcium phosphate 92. Which urine test is used as screening test for liver disease?
82. What important precaution is done when collecting a. Creatinine
synovial fluid for glucose study? b. Cysteine
a. Use sodium fluoride tube c. Bilirubin
b. Keep at room temperature d. Hemoglobin
c. Collect anaerobically 93. What stain is used for nuclear material in automated
d. Use heparinized tube microscopy?
83. Which of the following is a clinically significant squamous a. Acridine orange
epithelial cell? b. Nigrosine
a. Urothelial cell c. Phenanthridine
b. Clue cell d. Carbocyanine
c. Caudate cell 94. Dark red brown color of amniotic fluid is indicative of .
d. Cuboidal cell a. Liver disease
84. Which of the following is an important characteristic b. Fetal death
finding in Nephrotic Syndrome? c. Hemolytic disease
a. Glucosuria d. Meconium
b. Hematuria 95. At what temperature range do proteins associated with
c. Bilirubinuria multiple myeloma coagulate in urine?
d. Proteinuria a. 60 to 100 C
85. What disorder produces in urine characteristics crystals b. 60 to 80 C
which look like rectangular plates with a notch in one c. 80 TO 90 C
corner? d. 40 to 60 C
a. Lipiduria 96. False positive of 5-HIAA can be caused by ingestion of
b. Hepatitis a. Brown rice
c. Multiple myeloma b. Banana
d. Gout c. Beef
86. What is the screening test used by DOTS centers for the d. Cassava
detection of Tuberculosis? 97. Which is the correct fasting preparation prior to collection
a. Gram stain of semen? (Number of days after the last coitus)
b. DSSM a. 7 to 10
c. Fluorescence technique b. 5 to 10
d. X-ray c. 2 to 7
87. An increase in the amount of peritoneal fluid is called d. 15 to 30
a. An exudate 98. Which of the following is associated with polyuria and low
b. An effusion specific gravity
c. Pleurisy a. Fanconi syndrome
d. A transudate b. Renal glycosuria
88. Which of the following will not be able to pass through c. Chronic cystitis
the glomeruli if the kidneys are healthy? d. Diabetes insipidus
a. Creatinine 99. Cholesterol crystals are seen microscopically as _ _ _ _ _
b. Sodium a. Rectangular plate with a notch in one or two
c. Albumin corners
d. Urea b. Yellow to orange rosettes
89. Why would the physician be interested in tail morphology c. Fine colorless to yellow needles
of sperm cells? d. Colorless, dimpled hexagonal plates
a. The tail is vital to the release of enzymes 100. The formation of a web-like pellicle in CSF after overnight
b. The tail is vital to the penetration of the ovum refrigeration is indicative of
c. Morphology of the tail affects the motility a. Cerebral malaria
d. The nucleus of the sperm is in the tail b. AIDS
 c. TB meningitis 111. Which is abnormal constituent of feces?
d. Neurosyphilis a. RBCs
101. What is the appropriate grade of viscosity of semen b. Bacteria
described as gel like c. Electrolytes
a. 10 d. Water
b. 5 112. What is the color of positive resorcinol test
c. 4 a. Black
d. 0 b. Blue
102. Which protein secreted by the kidney cells can be seen c. Green
microscopically in renal disease? d. Orange
a. None of these 113. Which biologic waste do not need to be disposed in
b. Tamm-Horsfall protein biohazard containers?
c. Bence jones protein a. Urine
d. Globulin b. Pleural samples
103. Which of the following are the designated fire hazard flash c. Stool and urine
points? d. Serum and plasma
a. 0 to 4 114. Which of the following is the best gauge of acute tubular
b. A to D necrosis of the kidney?
c. 0 to 10 a. Dysmorphic RBC
d. A, B, C b. >100/HPF Pus cells
104. The normal amount of lymphocyte in BAL? c. Dirty brown cast
a. 10 to 25% d. Hemoglobinuria
b. 1 to 15% 115. The most reliable test for the differentiation of transudative
c. 50 to 80% from exudative pleural fluid is
d. 100% a. WBC count
105. Which of the following crystals found in urine with PH 7 b. Fluid:serum Protein ratio
and below? c. RBC count
a. Amorphous phosphates, calcium carbonate, triple d. Differential count of tissue cell
phosphate 116. Oval fat bodies are product of:
b. Calcium oxalate, uric acid, and amorphous urates a. Cast
c. Uric acid, amorphous urates, calcium carbonate b. RTE
d. Ammonium biurates, amorphous urates, and uric acid c. Lipidemia
106. Which compound is elevated in congenital erythropoietic d. Bile pigments
porphyria? 117. Synovial fluid with WBC OF 150 is classified as
a. protoporphyrin a. Septic
b. amino levulinic acid b. Inflammatory
c. uroporphyrin c. Non-inflammatory
d. porphobilinogen d. Normal
107. What change in urine is an indicator of pre-eclampsia? 118. Which is best time collection for urine microscopic study of
a. 4+ glucose crystals?
b. Albuminuria a. First morning
c. Hematuria b. 2-hr post prandial
d. 4+ nitrite c. 1-hr after a heavy meal
108. Which of the following is correct about filtration? d. 24 hours
a. An absolute secretory type of filtration 119. How can bacteria be counted in automated slideless
b. A type of mechanical filtration urinalysis?
c. A chemical process of filtration a. colorimetric reaction
d. A discriminative type of filtration b. reflectance photometry
109. Which of the following are chemicals found in a normal c. use of small particle histogram
urine? d. indirectly through nitrite test
a. Urea, Creatinine, and Sugar 120. What peculiar odor does urine exude in the presence of
b. Urea, Creatinine, and Nitrate breakdown product of urea?
c. Ketones, Sugar, and Protein a. Fruity
d. Sodium, Nitrite, and Leukocyte Esterase b. Pungent
110. What other crystals will be seen in urine in liver disease c. Sweaty feet
besides bilirubin? d. Mousy
a. Cholesterol 121. Which among the following will appear as yellow stone
b. Leucine which is moderately hard in urine?
c. Sulfonamide a. Calcium oxalate
d. Calcium carbonate b. Calcium phosphate
 c. Uric acid 131. The home kit or point of care test kit used for pregnancy
d. Cysteine testing makes use of an antibody which his directed
122. Which inorganic substance has the highest concentration against ___________________
in urine? a. Beta subunit of the amino acid
a. Creatinine b. Gamma subunit of the glycolipid
b. Sodium c. Beta subunit of the glycolipid
c. Phosphates d. Alpha subunit of the mucoprotein
d. Urea 132. Ideally, when is quality control done in urinalysis section?
123. A breakdown product of serotonin which is eliminated a. once a week
through the urine is _________ b. once a month
a. 5-HIAA c. together with each specimen
b. Cystine d. at the beginning of the shift
c. Mucopolysaccharide 133. When is the collection, in number of weeks after gestation,
d. 17-ketosteroid of amniotic fluid for the early intervention for down
124. Which of the following statement is correct about syndrome?
sputum? a. 15 to 18 weeks
a. It is a normal body fluid b. 20 to 22 weeks
b. Its usual color is greenish c. 10 to 15 weeks
c. It is secreted by the trachea bronchial tree d. 20 to 42 weeks
d. A 24-hour collection is necessary to do an accurate 134. Pinky crystals are seen at the bottom of a urine container
test under HPO, you saw dark yellow granules. What are these?
125. What cell is present in normal CSF? a. Ammonium biurates
a. Plasma cell b. Urates
b. Lymphocyte c. Cysteine
c. Eosinophil d. Dicalcium phosphate
d. Neutrophil 135. Gradual change in one direction of the mean of a control
126. Differentiation of yeast cells, RBC, and fat globules in substance
urine sediment may be accomplished by all of these a. Shift
EXCEPT b. Trend
a. Increased refractility of oil globules c. Both B and C
b. Observations of buds in yeast cell d. Kurtosis
c. Lysis of yeast cells in acetic acid 136. Which statement about hemoglobin and myoglobin is true?
d. Use of supravital stain a. They are both heme containing proteins involved in
127. A freshly voided urine has strong pungent odor. Which of oxygen transport
the following is the most possible reason? b. Their presence is suspected when both the urine and
a. Renal failure the serum are color red
b. Bacteriuria c. Their presence in serum is associated with high
c. DM creatinine kinase values
d. Phenylketonuria d. They precipitate out of solution when the urine is 80%
128. The result of glucose in peritoneal fluid was lower than saturated with ammonium sulfate
that obtained from plasma. Which of the following is 137. A repeat semen analysis for fertility testing is reported as
correlated? follows:
a. Appendicitis Volume = 3.5ml
b. Pancreatitis Viscosity = normal
c. Diabetes insipidus pH = 7.5
d. Bacterial Peritonitis Sperm concentration = 6 million/ml
129. If synovial fluid forms a string 6cm long, it is considered Sperm motility= 30% - grade 1.0
as Morphology = <30 % normal forms
a. Low, abnormal What are the abnormal parameters?
b. Invalid test a. Volume, sperm concentration and morphology
c. Normal b. pH, sperm morphology and volume
d. High, abnormal c. morphology, sperm concentration and motility
130. Which of the following is/are principles applied in the d. all parameters are normal
mechanism of the slide less automated machine for 138. WBC count in peritoneal fluid found in bacterial peritonitis?
microscopy? a. >5 cells/l
a. Fluorescence b. >25 cells/l
b. Impedance and reflectance photometry c. >50 cells/l
c. Fluorescence, impedance and light scatter d. >500 cells/l
d. Light scatter
139. Low to absent seminal fluid fructose in semen corresponds b. The reagent strip result is falsely negative due to the
to a: urine’s pH of 8.0
a. Abnormal morphology c. A large amount of amorphous urates in the urine
b. Low motility caused the false positive SSA result
c. Low sperm concentration d. The time interval for reading the reagents strip was
d. Low WBC count exceeded, causing a false negative result
140. What is a nubecula? 149. Which of the following characterizes nephrotic syndrome?
a. An oily layer in urine 1. Proteinuria
b. A faint cloud in urine 2 . Edema
c. A dark spot in urine 3 . Hypoalbuminemia
d. A foamy urine 4. Hyperlipidemia
141. A flash point number 4 indicates: a. 1, 2 and 3
a. Burning below 100C b. 1 and 3
b. Burning above 200F c. 4 is correct
c. Burning below 73F d. All are correct
d. Burning below 100C 150. Increased amounts of uric acid crystals, particularly in fresh
142. Reading time for micral test reagent strip: urine, are associated with increased levels of purines and
a. 30 seconds nucleic acids and are seen in patients with:
b. 120 seconds a. Leukemia who are receiving chemotherapy
c. 45 seconds b. Lesch–nyhan syndrome
d. 60 seconds c. Gout
143. All of the following are safe to do when removing the d. AOTA
source of an electric shock EXCEPT:
a. Pulling the person away from the instrument using a
wood
b. Turning off the circuit breaker
c. Pulling the person away from the instrument
using a bare hand.
d. Unplugging the equipment
144. Failure to produce bubbles in the foam stability index
indicates:
a. Presence of lecithin
b. Decreased protein
c. Decreased lecithin
d. Increased bilirubin
145. Which of the following amniotic fluid values represents a
risk for respiratory distress syndrome?
a. L/S ratio of 2.5
b. Lamellar body count of 30,00/l
c. Absorbance level of 0.30 at 450 nm
d. Increased acetylcholinesterase activity
146. Photo oxidation of bilirubin imparts a yellow-green color
to the urine. Photo oxidation of large amounts of excreted
urobilinogen to urobilin also produces yellow foam when
shaken:
a. Only 1st statement is true
b. Only 2nd statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
147. Daily loss of protein in urine normally does not exceed;
a. 30mg
b. 50mg
c. 100mg
d. 150mg
148. A urine specimen is tested for protein by reagent strip
and by the SSA test. The reagents strip result is negative
and the SSA result is 2+. Which of the following
statements best explains this discrepancy?
a. A protein other than albumin is present in urine