MARCH 2024 RECALLS

MOLBIO
1. Which of the following is correct? 6. What test is employed in the
A. Northern Blot: DNA differentiation of the Enterobacteriacae
B. Southern Blot: DNA family.
C. Northern Blot: RNA a. IMViC
D. Souther Blot: RNA b. Indole
c. Glucose Fermentation
2. Correct base pairs: A;T G;C d. Capsule

MICROBIOLOGY/PARASITOLOGY 7. What is the Pre-Analytical part of

1. All of the following are spiral-shaped, Microbiology Testing?
EXCEPT: a. Standardization of Parasite naming
A.Clostridium botulinum b. Something about slides
B.Helicobacter pylori c. Proper storage of reagents and stains
C.Treponema pallidum d. Identify Patient
D.Vibrio cholerae
8. Best time to collect E. Vermicularis
2. The presence of residual chlorine in ova.
drinking water means: a. Morning
A. Sufficient amount of chlorine was b. Afternoon
added initially to the water c. Night
B. Water is unsafe for drinking d. Midday
C. Additional treatment is required to
remove chlorine 9. How Parasitism is expressed when
D. Water is contaminated with coliform malaria parasite is quantitated against
RBC.
3. Acquired through ingestion/inhalation: a. Parasite/ul of Blood
E. vermicularis b. Ratio
c. Average
4. Recall: MIRACIDIUM d. Mean

10. Which type of organism isolated if

growth in MAC is pink?
a. Non-lactose fermenter
b. Microaerophile
c. Lactose fermenter
d. Obligate aerobe

11. Method that uses heat to facilitate

5. How to validate the result of AST? better staining of bacterial cell walls
A. Parallel testing with a new method a. Gram stain
B. Parallel testing with another personnel b. Kinyoun
C. Testing with a reference reagent c. Zeihl neelsen
D. Testing with a reference organism
d. Acid fast stain non-glucose fermenter

12. Specimen is obtained from an 18. Babes-Ernst granules are the

intravascular catheter. Gram stain metachromatic granules produced by:
showed gram positive bacteria. Which of a. M. tuberculosis
the following is the most probable cause? b. Y. pestis
a. S. aureus c. C. diptheriae
b. e. coli d. E. aerogenes
c. P. aeruginosa
d. K. pneumoniae 19. Mc. Farland standard is equivalent to:
a. 0.5 x 10^8 CFU/ml
13. Uses coagulase test, EXCEPT: b. 1.5 x 10^9 CFU/ml
a. Salmonella c. 0.5 x 10^9 CFU/ml
b. S. aureus d. 1.5 x 10^9 CFU/ml
c. Shigella
d. S. pyogenes 20. What is the characteristic odor of
Proteus?
14. In a MacConkey Agar, what is the a. Grape-like/Corn tortilla-like odor
color of the lactose fermenting colonies? b. Bleach like odor
a. Colorless c. Fruity odor resembling apples or
b. White strawberries
c. Red d. Burnt chocolate odor
d. Pink
21. What is the most sensitive test for
15. Westgard rule considered as Chlamydia?
Mandatory rule. a. NAAT
A. 12s b. Cell culture
B. 41s c. EIA
C. 22s d. Microscopy
D. 13s
22. Happens during microorganism
16. All of the following are spiral-shaped, resistance EXCEPT:
EXCEPT: a. ag-ab complex
a. Clostridium botulinum b. penetration of membrane protein
b. Helicobacter pylori c. reduced antimicrobial therapy
c. Treponema pallidum d. by passing the membrane protein
d. Vibrio cholerae
23. Best in monitoring malaria
17. Actinomyces are: a. Microscopy
a. Gram positive bacilli, branching, non- b. NAAT
Gram negative
spore forming bacilli, facultative anaerobe
c. Serology
b. Gram positive bacilli, acid-fast
c. Gram negative bacilli, oxidase 24. Nitrogen source: kulang yung tanong
negative, glucose-fermenting a. Yeast extract
d. Gram negative bacilli, oxidase positive, b. Peptone
c. Beef extract D. Formaldehyde
d. Meat extract5
6.In Expanded Newborn Screening,
25. The ff. are parasite:infective stage which of the following is NOT
EXCEPT: INCLUDED?
a. Strongyloides stercoralis: Rhabditiform a. CAH
larva b. G6PD deficiency
b. Ascaris lumbricoides : Embryonated c. Congenital hypothyroidism
egg d. Neonatal diabetes
c. Ancylostoma duodenale : Filariform
larva 7. Filing for the MTLE opens 3 MONTHS
d. Trichuris trichuria : Embryonated egg before the board exam starts

HISTOPATHOLOGY 8. Reference laboratory for HIV testing

1. Where should Acknowledgement be a. EAMC
placed in a research paper? b. NKTI
A. Before title page c. San Lazaro Hospital/SACCL
B. After title page d. RITM
C. Table of contents
D. End of the paper 9. Caused by friction against a rough
surface:
2. Outer region of an organ: SEROSA a. Laceration
b. Hematoma
3. Which of the following components of c. Contusion
the Papanicolau stain stains nothing? d. Abrasion
a. Hematoxylin
b. OG-6 10. Transition between dehydration and
c. Eosin Azure infiltration of embedding medium:
d. Bismarck Brown Y a. Clearing
b. Impregnation
4. Perls' Prussian blue reaction for Ferric c. Rehydration
Iron: d. Dehydration

1% aqueous potassium ferrocyanide
2% aqueous hydrochloric acid
5. What does Z-score represent?
Measures how many standard deviations
above or below the mean a data point is
5. All of the following are components of
Bouin's solution, EXCEPT:
A. Ethanol
B. Glacial Acetic Acid
C. Saturated Picric Acid
11. Key factors for quality of embedding: EXCEPT
a. Thickness of Tissue
b. Duration of fixation
c. Orientation of tissue
d. Composition of embedding medium
12. The following are violation of RA
5527, EXCEPT:
a. Refusal to display COR inside the
laboratory
b. Release of fraudulent result
c. Using expired or invalid COR
d. Refusal to identify gender identity 3. The following amino acids are
composition of creatine EXCEPT:
13. All of the following are composition of A. glycine
bouin’s fluid EXCEPT: B. methionine
a. ethanol C. arginine
b. saturated picric acid D. cysteine
c. formalin/formaldehyde
d. glacial acetic acid 4. Relating a measurement result to a
stated reference through an unbroken
14. Best way to communicate patient chain of calibrations: TRACEABILITY
result to provider?
a. Writing 5. How to report liver enzymes in SI unit?
b. Telephone a. IU/L
c. Verbal b. g/Dl
d. Electronic c. mmol/L
d. mmol/L
15. Formaldehyde fixation temperature.
a. 28C 6. Which is not a function of the thyroid
b. 32C gland?
c. Ambient temperature a. Protein Synthesis
d. Room temperature b. Development of fetal tx
c. Waste excretion
16. Physical preservation of tissue d. Regulation of Metabolism
EXCEPT:
a. Heat 7. Which is not true about unconjugated
b. freeze drying bilirubin.
c. vapor a. Also known as direct bilirubin
d. microwave b. Water insoluble
c. Indirect bilirubin
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
8. Specimen for drug analysis EXCEPT:
1. Female born with XX chromosomes
a. Blood
develops ambiguous genitalia or genitals
b. Urine
that appear male. What is this condition?
A. Klinefelter syndrome c. Semen
B. Turner syndrome d. Oral Secretions
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
D. Down syndrome 9. Which is preferred for Blood Glucose
Determination.
2. All conditions may be associated with a. Serum
type 3c diabetes mellitus, except b. Plasma
A. Pancreatitis c. EDTA
B. Pancreatic Cancer d. Whole Blood
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Autoimmune disease 10. Glycogenolysis happens in these
following organs EXCEPT:
a. Liver POC Testing
b. Bone c. Non-laboratory personnel are not
c. Kidney allowed to perform POCT
d. Stomach d. Train non-laboratory personnel

11. How many minutes does a sample 17. What hormone is secreted when
needs to stand before centrifugation? there is an increase level of glucose.
a. 60 minutes a. Glucose
b. 30 minutes b. Catecholamine
c. 20 minutes c. Insulin
d. 45 minutes
18. Considered as a liver function test,
12. What is the most common substance EXCEPT:
abused? a. AST
a. Cannabinoids b. ALT
b. Ecstasy c. Amylase
c. Shabu d. Alkaline Phosphate
d. Alcohol
19. 4dl to Liter
13. Goal of POCT, EXCEPT: a. 4
a. Monitor drug effectiveness b. 0.04
b. Reduce adherent to treatment c. 0.4
c. Modify lifestyle d. 40
d. Screen
20. What formula is this. Na⁺ + K⁺ – (Cl⁻ +
14. Scientist has a test with consistent HCO₃⁻)
results while using the same methods/ a. Anion Gap
sample/environment/etc. This is an b. Osmolal Gap
example of: c. CO2
a. Sensitivity d. O2
b. Specificity
c. Replicability 21. Female born with XX chromosomes
d. Reproducibility develops ambiguous genitalia or genitals
that appear male. What is this condition?
15. What will you use to neutralize a. Klinefelter's Syndrome
alkaline spill? b. Turner's Syndrome
a. Ethanol c. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
b. Methanol d. Down syndrome
c. KOH
d. NAOH 22. which of the following is INCORRECT
regarding steam sterilization?
16. Which strategy is performed when a. Dry heat
POCT-QA issues arises. b. 15 psi
a. Refrain from using POCT Device c. Wet heat
b. Allow only the doctor to perform d. 121 degC
 d. Contagious and noncontagious
23. Cysteine is a product of metabolism
of the following amino acids, except: 30. Laboratory equipment hazard
a. Arginine EXCEPT:
b. Glycine a. mechanical
c. Methionine b. chemical vapors
c. sharp
24. What organ produces vasopressin? d. electric
a. Hypothalamus
b. Posterior Pituitary 31. Gastric enzyme proteolysis:
c. Anterior Pituitary a. Gastrin
d. Adrenal cortex b. Amylase
c. Lipase
25. Which of the following is the best d. Trypsin
marker for risk in diabetic nephropathy? 32. Functional plasma enzyme:
a. Glucose a. LD
b. Creatinine b. CK
c. Microalbuminuria c. ALP
d. BUN d. Clotting factors

26. Which lipoprotein migrates farthest 33. Which is not an administrative

from the anode during electrophoresis? control?
a. Chylomicron a. Fume hood
b. VLDL
c. LDL 34. Causes excess cortisol:
d. HDL a. Cushing syndrome
b. Addison’s disease
27. What is the purpose of caffeine in the c. Cohn’s syndrome
Jendrassik – Grof Method? d. Acromegaly

-
a. Solubilized unconjugated bilirubin
b. Solubilized conjugated bilirubin
ACCELERATOR ISBB
c. Precipitate unconjugated bilirubin 1. Cryoprecipitate AHF contains all of the
d. Precipitate conjugated bilirubin following, EXCEPT:
A. Red Blood Cells
28. One or two values exceeding the qc B. Fibrinogen
parameters not included in counting: C. vWF
a. Trend D. Fibronectin
b. Shift
c. Outlier 2. Phenotype of D negative
d. Drift a. (+/+)
b. (-)
c. (+)
29. Duration of the disease:
d. (-/-)
a. Mild and Severe
b. Benign and Malignant
3. Sda can be neutralized by?
c. Acute and Chronic
A. hydatid cyst fluid 10. ABO discrepancies between forward
B. plasma or reverse blood typing with weak
C. human breast milk reacting or missing antibodies.
D. urine a. Patient with antibody to the weak
Antigen
4. The ability of a single cytokine to alter b. Patient is very young or very old
the expression of several genes is called c. Patient with subgroup of Group
A. Autocrine stimulation d. d. Patient with acquired B
B. Endocrine phenomenon
C. Pleiotropy
D. Redundancy 11. Lectin Dolichus biflorus expresses
___
5. Which minor blood group system can antigen.
cause HDN? a. A1
A. Vel b. P
B. Gerbich c. K
D. Gregory d. I
E. Holley
12. The following are correct for storage
6. Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion and transport of blood components
reaction EXCEPT: EXCEPT:
A. Hemolytic a. Blood must not be hemolyzed
B. PTP b. Blood must be stored at -20C
C. TA-GVHD c. Blood must in a hygienic environment
D. Hemosiderosis d. Blood must be protected from
breakdown products of glycerol
7. Rh group: NONGLYCOSYLATED
PROTEINS 13. An IF test with antibodies to detect
CD3 will detect which cell?
8. Improvement methodology referring to a. Circulating T cells
non-value added activities considered as b. T helper lymphocytes only
waste. c. T. Suppressor lymphocytes only
a. Scrum d. NK cells
b. Agile
c. Lean 14. How is the patient who is RH negative
d. Waterfall in a RBC written.
a. (+/-)
9. Possible mother-fetus incompatibility if b. (-/-)
father is Rh +, mother is Rh - . They have c. (+)
their first child without undergoing d. (-)
treatment.
a. 0% 15. Red cell immune antibody:
b. less than 50% a. IgG
c. 50% b. IgA
d. 100% c. IgD
d. IgE
16. CD8+ cell is also known as: 4. A reduction in thrombin generation in
a. helper patients with Scott syndrome results
b. Cytotoxic from: (Rodaks)
c. Killer A. Defective granule secretion
d. Null B. Altered platelet aggregation
C. Altered expression of phospholipids
17. Which type of hypersensitivity on the platelet membrane
reaction involves immune complexes? D. Deficiency of vitamin K-dependent
a. Type 1 clotting factors
b. Type 2
c. Type 3 5. Fibrinogen/Fibrin fragments EXCEPT:
d. Type 4 Fragment Z

18. The red cell phenotype of an 6. “C” in VCS Hematology Coulter

individual in routine forward and reverse Technology: CONDUCTIVITY
grouping with the genotypes hh, AB
a. O 7. Differentiation among RBCs, yeast,
b. AB and oil droplets may be accomplished by
c. A all of the following except:
d. B A. Observation of budding in yeast cells
B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
19. FFP is used to treat the following, C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
EXCEPT: D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid
a. DIC
b. Liver disease 8. Which of the following is represented
c. Vitamin K Def9 by the first peak in this picture?
d. Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic a. Lymphocytes
Purpura b. Neutrophils
c. Monocytes
HEMATOLOGY d. Eosinophils
1. Most common acquired platelet
dysfunction:
A. HUS
B. DIC
C. Drug-induced
D. Heparin-induced

2. Which of the following activates

fibrinolysis?
A. Plasmin
B. PAI-1 9. Venipuncture sites EXCEPT: PALMAR
C. TAFI SURFACE OF THE HAND
D. Tissue plasminogen activator
10. What is the average diameter of
3. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia: M4 RBCs? (Turgeon)
a. 6 um c. Increase7
b. 5 um d. Decrease
c. 8.2 um
d. 7.2 um 17. The mononuclear cells seen in WBC
Histogram include:
11. Inflamed tissue; What contributes to a. Platelet
show signs of inflammation: b. Erythrocytes
PROSTAGLANDIN c. Blast
d. Leukocytes
12. Monocytes are often mistaken as:
a. Lymphocytes 18. Which of the following is the MAJOR
b. WBCs post-analytical error?
c. RTE a. Patient’s critical result
d. RBCs b. Sample transport
c. Sample quality
13. A blood sample with high titer d. Patient’s specific diagnosis
agglutinins was tested in room
temperature with an electron particle 19. In protime effect if tube is NOT filled: with blood
scanner(?). What indices/count would a. No effect
be erroneous. b. Normal
a. MCHC and WBC c. Shortened
b. MCV and Hgb d. Prolonged *IF QNS ANG PAGKAUNDERSTOOD
c. MCHC and MCV
d. WBC and RBC 20. What is the morphology of the
echinocyte?
14. Which is a characteristic of anemia of a. small, round, rbc
renal disease. b. scooped out part of an rbc
a. Severe hypochromatosis with c. short, scallop or spike like
microcytosis d. fragmented rbcs
b. Normocytic, hypochromic
c. Presence of burr cells in the pbs 21. Part of flow cytometry EXCEPT:
d. Normocytic, normochromic a. digital
b. optical
15. Disadvantage of automated c. fluidics
hematology analyzer, EXCEPT: d. electronics
a.
b. multiple test in one parameter 22. A hemoglobin molecule is composed
c. clumped platelets are counted as one of:
d. comments on RBC morphology can’t a. One heme molecule and four globin
be determined chains
b. Ferrous iron, protoporphyrin IX, and a
16. Insufficient centrifuge how it affects globin chain
hematocrit? c. Protoporphyrin IX and four globin
a. False increase chains
b. False decrease
d. Four heme molecules and four globin c. Light source behind analyst
chains d. Light source in front of analyst

23. Identify the abnormal RBC shown in 4. More representative measure of renal
the picture below. concentrating ability
a. Teardrop cell a. SG
b. Burr cell b. Osmolality
c. Drepanocyte c. Ph
d. Acanthocyte d. Protein

5. Each kidney contains approximately

how many nephrons?
a. 0.5 – 1 million
b. 1 – 1.5 million
c. 1.6 – 1.8 million
d. 1 – 2 million

6. Correct way of adding reagents

together
a. Mix water and acid at the same time
24. What is the average liter of blood in b. Do not mix acid and water
humans: c. Add water to acid
a. 6L d. Add acid to water
b. 5L
c. 7L 7. Used for GFR EXCEPT:
d. 8L a. BUN
b. BUA
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY c. Serum creatinine
d. eGFR
1. Maltese cross
A. Cholesterol 8. Ketones is seen in urine due to:
B. Starch a. incomplete fat metabolism
C. b. fatty acid consumption
D. c. high carbohydrate diet
d. low carbohydrate diet
2. High protein intake causes _________
urine: 9. Which differentiates CSF Protein from
a. Alkaline Serum Protein:
b. Acidic a. Absence of fibrinogen
c. Concentrated b. Presence of fibrinogen
d. Diluted c. Presence of IgG
d. Presence of Ceruloplasmin
3. Correct evaluation of urine turbidity
a. Against a white background 10. Amniotic Fluid is a specimen of
b. Against a black background choice EXCEPT:
a. Test for Neural Tube Defect d. Excessive carbohydrate
b. Test for Fetal Lung Maturity
c. Test for Fetal Lung Distress 18. What urine specimen used to
d. Test for Fetal Liver quantitate
sediments
11. What is the best preservative for a. MSCC
urine? b. First morning
a. Formalin c. Timed
b. Boric Acid d. Midday
c. Toluidine
d. Thymol 19. The integrity of urine specimen is
important because:
12. All are factors affecting the formation a. accurate assessment
of urinary crystals, EXCEPT: b. monitor disease progress
a. pH c. monitor treat effectivity
b. Solute concentration
c. temperature 20. How much diluent is needed to make
d. Protein Concentration a 1/2 dilution if the solute is 1.5 (g?)
a. 0.5
13. What stain is used for hemosiderin? b. 1.2
a. Guiac Stain c. 1.5
b. Sternheimer Malbin d. 0.05
c. Perl Prussian Blue
21. Not a shape of transitional epithelial
14. Which results need to be rerun? cells.
a. pH 5, urate crystals a. Caudate
b. Ketones b. Convoluted
c. glucose c. Spherical
d. WBC cast, pH 8 d. Polyhedral

15. Other term for mucin clot test:

a. Ropes
b. Strings

16. Urine for chemistry shaken well for

what analysis?
a. Red and White Blood Cell
b. Ph and SG
c. Ketones and Glucose
d. Bilirubin and Urobilinogen

17. Black tarry stool is indicative of:

a. Excessive fats
b. Lower GIT blessing
c. Upper GIT bleeding