* NLE * NCLEX * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY*PSYCHOMETRICIAN* DENTISTRY *PHARMACY *MED TECH

Pre-Board Examination 2
Test II - Microbiology-Parasitology
Prepared by: Prof. Desiree Joy B. Arquero, RMT
March 2023 Medical Technology Licensure Examination Review

1. Which of the following statements signifies a correct way to 8. Delay of processing stool specimens in the clinical laboratory
maintain the centrifuge? should be prevented because, __________.
A. Clean and calibrate rpm every after 5 months A. The number of bacteria present in the stool may
B. Clean the interior components with 75% v/v increase significantly, which leads to a false positive
bleach, water, and soap result for bacteria.
C. Check for unusual vibrations quarterly B. The trophozoite that may be present in the stool
D. Check temperature everyday easily disintegrates.
C. The cyst of a specific parasite is easily destroyed
2. Which of the following is a liver fluke? and/or develops abruptly to trophozoite.
A. Fasciola gigantica D. All are correct.
B. Chlonorchis sinensis
C. Paragonimus westermani 9. Identify: An artifact resembling and misinterpreted as
D. Schistosoma japonicum nematode larvae.
A. Pollen grains
3. True of A. cantonensis: B. Vegetable oil
1. Pork muscle roundworm C. Cooking oil
2. The female organism has a barber’s pole-like uterus D. Hair
3. Has the capacity to infect the brain
4. Shows coin lesions in x-ray images 10. Plasmodium malariae:
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 1. The parasitized RBC appears larger than normal
B. 1 and 4 2. The merozoites have daisy or rosette arrangement
C. 2 and 3 3. Quartan malaria
D. 1, 3, and 4 4. RBC stippling: Ziemann’s dot
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
4. All but one correctly characterizes S. haematobium: B. 2, 3, and 4
A. It is commonly named as Oriental Blood Fluke C. 3 and 4
B. It has a terminal spine D. 1 and 3
C. It can be found in urine sample
D. No correct response 11. A patient is said to be suffering from keratitis, in order to
confirm the cause of the inflammation on his eyes, the
5. Identify: requesting physician decided to request for parasite inoculation
One of the Schistosome species, that resembles S. and identification. Under the microscope, the parasite cyst
haematobium, but is inoculated in the stool. appears to be double-walled. Identify the parasite present.
A. S. japonicum A. Naegleria fowleri
B. S. mansoni B. Balamuthia
C. S. mekongi C. Acanthamoeba
D. S. intercalatum D. Dientamoeba fragilis

6. When using swab for the inoculation of Neisseria gonorrhea 12. Entero test is a vital test for the diagnosis of Giardia
culture from the genitals, which of the following types of swabs lamblia, one of the intestinal flagellates and the causative
must be utilized for proper specimen collection? agent of the Gay Bowel Syndrome. Notably, 4 hours is allotted
A. Wood shaft for the test. What specimen must be utilized for the said test?
B. Cotton swab A. Stool
C. Dacron and Rayon B. Duodenal aspirate
D. Any of the above C. Blood
D. Urine
7. Which of the following stains for fecalysis is correctly
matched to its purpose? 13. Blood culture is an essential test procedure done in
A. Modified trichrome: used to identify Isospora bacteriology. In order for the medical technologist to properly
species collect a blood specimen, what disinfecting technique must be
B. Gomori’s trichrome: used to identify applied?
Cryptosporidium species A. Alcohol-Iodine-Alcohol
C. Iron hematoxylin: used to identify amoebae and B. Iodine-Alcohol-Iodine
flagella C. Alcohol only, using Iodine is optional
D. No correct response D. Alcohol-Alcohol-Iodine

TEST 2: MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY, Inc.
1|P ag e
14. Which of the following parasites is significantly reported beta hemolysis. Further tests to confirm the identity of the
when found to be present in a specimen tested in the microorganisms’ growth were performed. Result are as follows:
laboratory? Catalase: Negative
A. E. coli Coagulase: Negative
B. D. fragilis Taxo A: Resistant
C. E. hartmanni PYRase: Negative
D. E. dispar Hippurate: Purple color
Bile esculin: Negative
15. A food prepared is on the top of the table. The cat in the A. Staphylococcus aureus
house jumps off on the table and accidentally waves its tail on B. Streptococcus pyogenes
the plated food. You noticed that the cat just had defecated. C. Streptococcus agalactiae
What parasite might be transmitted? D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A. Babesia
B. Toxoplasma gondii 25. All but one falsely describes Staphylococcus epidermidis:
C. Cat-scratch parasite A. Growth is inhibited in mannitol salt agar (MSA)
D. Balantidium coli B. Catalase and coagulase positive
C. White pinhead, non-hemolytic colonies
16. The parasite Cyclospora cayetanensis is known for its D. No correct response
characteristic property of auto-fluorescing. What color is being
produced? 26. Acid fast staining is routinely used to identify
A. Bright red-orange Mycobacterium species. Two methods are basically used.
B. Bright blue-green Considering the Ziehl-Neelsen method, which of the following
C. Bright yellowish-green is utilized as the mordant?
D. Bright yellow-orange A. Tergitol
B. Iodine
17. All but one causes Loeffler’s syndrome: C. Alum
A. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Heat
B. Necator americanus 27. Autoclaving is one of the most effective sterilizing
C. Trichuris trichiura techniques in the microbiology laboratory, that is able to
D. Strongyloides stercoralis eradicate even spored microorganisms. What specific biological
indicator is used to test and assure its effectiveness?
18. True of Enterobius vermicularis: A. Bacillus subtilis var Globujii
A. Has a Chinese letter morphology in adult form. B. Bacillus subtilis var Niger
B. Its esophagus is lined by stichocytes. C. Bacillus pumitus
C. Its D-shaped egg contains fully developed larva. D. Bacillus stearotermophilus
D. All are correct.
28. Identify the organism by considering the following:
19. A specimen is collected through perianal swab, it was Catalase: Positive
noted that the patient is suffering from intense itchiness, Slide coagulase: Positive
insomnia, and restlessness. What parasite is expected to be Tube coagulase: Negative
identified from the specimen submitted? PYRase: Positive
A. E. vermicularis A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. T. canis B. Staphylococcus intermedius
C. A. caninum C. Staphylococcus hyicus
D. D. immitis D. Staphylococcus lugdunensis

20. All but one trematode is hermaphroditic: 29. Wound swab was collected from a patient; it was plated on
A. H. heterophyes BAP and after 18 hours of incubation, it showed beta-hemolytic
B. P. westermani colonies. In Gram staining, Gram positive cocci were seen. The
C. E. ilocanum medical technologist performed the following tests to identify
D. S. japonicum the organism:
21. Specific part of the tapeworm, that is responsible mainly Catalase: Negative
for its inoculation in the organs of the host: SXT: Resistant
A. Neck PYRase: Positive
B. Strobila CAMP: No arrowhead colony
C. Scolex BE: Negative
D. Hooks A. Group A
B. Group B
22. Identify: C. Group C
Double-pored tapeworm, cucumber shape. D. Group D (Non-enterococcus)
A. D. immitis E. Enterococcus
B. D. caninum
C. E. ilocanum 30. Which of the following organisms is asaccharolytic?
D. H. heterophyes A. Neisseria secca
B. Neisseria meningitidis
23. An alcoholic individual is predisposed to many diseases and C. Neisseria catarrhalis
complications, but will most likely eradicate which of the D. Neisseria gonorrhea
following parasite?
A. Taenia solium 31. FALSE of Thioglycollate:
B. Taenia saginata A. Obligate anaerobe: Bottom
C. Diphyllobothrium latum B. Obligate aerobe: Top
D. No correct response C. Aerotolerant facultative anaerobe: Light growth
throughout the tube
24. A culture on blood agar plate shows white colonies with D. Facultative anaerobe: Growth throughout the tube,

TEST 2: MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY, Inc.
2|P ag e
 but denser at the top A. Alcohol-Iodine-Alcohol
B. Iodine ONLY
32. All but one correctly characterizes Enterobactericiae: C. Alcohol ONLY
A. Ferments glucose D. Wash with soap and water
B. Oxidase positive
C. Reduce nitrate to nitrite 42. Campylobacter and Helicobacter are notable for their
D. No correct response special requirement of oxygen in order for them to grow; these
33. A patient is suspected to have a hemorrhagic uremic microorganisms are considered to be microaerophilic. In order
syndrome. It was suspected that the cause of the dysentery is to establish special environment for their growth, what
Shigella. Growth in MacConkey agar shows pinkish colonies. distinctive requirements are needed?
But colorless colonies grew in Sorbitol MacConkey Agar A. 0% O2, 15% CO2, 85% N2
(SMAC). What was the definite cause? B. 0% O2, 15% CO2, 90% N2
A. E. coli O6 C. 5% O2, 10% CO2, 85% N2
B. E. coli O124 D. 5% O2, 5% CO2, 90% N2
C. E. coli O111
D. E. coli 0157:H7 43. Bordetella pertussis is a capsulated, nonmotile
microorganism, that causes whooping cough. At what stage of
34. Identify: the disease does a recurring cough is evident?
Resembles Salmonella, but is LDC negative A. Cattarhal
A. Citrobacter diversus B. Paroxysmal
B. Citrobacter freundii C. Convalescence
C. Citrobacter amalonaticus D. Recovery period
D. Shewanella
44. Which of the following diseases is not caused by
35. Identify what is being described: Spirochetes?
A bioterrorism agent A. Yaws
Motile at 22 degrees Celsius but non motile at 35 degrees B. Relapsing fever
Celsius C. Undulant fever
Grows in Cefsulodin Irgasan Novobiocin agar D. Lyme disease
A. Samonella 45. The HACEK group of bacteria is known and indicated to
B. Klebsiella cause Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis. Which of the following
C. Yersinia members of the HACEK group has the characteristic twitching
D. Enterobacter motility?
36. This is an asacharrolytic, Gram negative organism which A. Haemophilus aprophilus
when infecting wounds, produces blue pus. This is also an B. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
organism, that characteristically grows at 42 degrees Celsius C. Cardiobacterium hominis
with distinctive tortilla odor. D. Kingella kingae
A. B. cepacia
B. B. pyocyaneus 46. Which of the following tests could be utilized to effectively
C. B. mallei differentiate the microorganism Bacillus anthracis from Bacillus
D. B. pseudomallei cereus?
A. Catalase
37. Haemophilus spp causing venereal disease: B. Nagler test
A. H. infuenzae C. Hemolysis
B. H. ducreyi D. All are correct
C. H. parainfluenzae
D. H. aprophilus 47. Identify:
Gram positive bacilli
38. A Gram-negative bacterium, that gives rise to soft chancre Has a double zone of hemolysis
on the genitals. Nonmotile
A. H. infuenzae Lactose: Positive
B. H. ducreyi Glucose: Positive
C. H. parainfluenzae A. B. anthracis
D. H. aprophilus B. C. perfringens
C. E. rhusiopathae
39. A 15-year-old female patient is suffering from food D. C. tetani
poisoning after eating an unopened and sliced bacon which
was prepared in the school canteen. Which of the following 48. A Gram-positive bacillus that is identified specifically
bacteria most likely contaminated the food? through its morphological characteristics.
A. S. aureus A. C. diphtheriae
B. B. cereus B. M. tuberculosis
C. C. botulinum C. S. pyogenes
D. Lactobacillus D. C. tetani

40. Why is it necessary to test two samples tested weeks

apart?
A. For parallel testing 49. Identify:
B. To allow antibody sensitization Gram positive
C. To check the effectivity of antibiotics prescribed Chinese letter, picket fence, palisading appearance
D. All are correct A. A. lumbricoides
B. C. diphtheriae
41. Proper disinfection technique must be observed and C. Corynebacterium
performed to avoid releasing of false results. In terms of fungal D. L. monocytogenes
samples, what method must be done?

TEST 2: MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY, Inc.
3|P ag e
50. In order to diagnose MTB, decontamination and digestion albicans?
procedures are done. Which of the following is used as a 1. Chlamydospore
digesting agent? 2. Blastospore
A. 2-4 % NaOH 3. Pseudohyphae
B. 30% H2O2 A. 1 only
C. NALC B. 1 and 2
D. NaCl C. 2 and 3
51. Runyon Classification of Mycobacterium: D. 1, 2, and 3
Produces no pigment when exposed to light, but is pigmented
in the dark. 60. Calcoflour white is a colorless dye that binds with which of
A. Photochromogen the following structures?
B. Scotochromogen A. Cell wall containing mycolic acid
C. Rapid chromogen B. Chitin
D. Non-photochromogen C. Peptidoglycan layer
D. Metachromatic granules
52. “H” in ToRCHeS: 61. Shigella are commonly known as inert bacteria as the
A. Hepatitis organisms always give negative result in the different
B. Hepatitis and Herpes biochemical tests. In the grouping of organisms, agglutination
C. Herpes and Hookworm by Group C antisera indicates that the specie is:
D. Hepatitis, Herpes, and Hookworm A. S. dysenteriae
B. S. boydii
53. Which of the following is utilized to preserve the cysts of C. S. flexneri
the parasite? D. S. sonnei
A. 5% formalin
B. 10% formalin 62. The infectious agent of chancroid:
C. 37% formalin A. H. aegypticus
D. 40% formalin B. H. haemolyticus
C. H. ducreyi
54. Chlamydia trachomatis has the capacity to cause: D. H. influenzae
1. Parrot fever
2. Lymphogranuloma venereum 63. Nasopharyngeal swabs are recommended for the detection
3. Taiwan acute respiratory syndrome of carriers such as:
4. Reiter’s syndrome 1. H. influenzae
A. 1, 3, and 4 2. Neisseria
B. 2, 3, and 4 3. B. pertussis
C. 1 and 3 4. Listeria
D. 2 and 4 A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
55. True of Legionella: C. 1, 2, and 3
1. Stains with Dieterle silver stain D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
2. It can be acquired from air conditioning units
3. Clinically, the medium used for its growth is BCYE 64. Which among the following statements correctly describes
4. Urine is used for antigen detection an agar?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 A. It has a lower melting rate compared to gelatin
B. 1, 3, and 4 B. It can be used in a broth medium
C. 1, 2, and 3 C. It is only used for growing of bacteria
D. 1 only D. It contains moisture for the growth of organisms

56. Hepatitis B virus and Human Immunodeficiency virus can 65. All of the following microorganisms are causative agents of
be transmitted through direct inoculation via needle stick sexually transmitted infections, except:
injury. What factor is considered to be responsible enough for A. Treponema pallidum var pallidum
the transmission of the disease? B. Chlamydia trachomatis
A. Antibody level in the serum C. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Depth of the injury and duration D. Neisseria gonorrheae
C. Concentration of the pathogen in the blood
D. All are correct 66. Natural defense mechanism of the urinary tract:
1. Presence of Lactobacillus acidophilus
57. Identify: 2. Menstrual cycle of a female
Weak acid fast: Positive 3. Mucosal surface of the bladder
Aerial hyphae 4. Presence of normal flora such as S. saprophyticus
Water agar: Positive growth A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
A. Candida B. 1, 2, and 3
B. Streptomyces C. 2 and 4
C. Aspergillus D. 1 and 3
D. Sporothrix
67. An infection of the blood caused by the continuous
multiplication of bacteria is known as _______.
58. All but one describes Mycoplasma: A. Bacteremia
A. Gram positive microorganism B. Septicemia
B. Pleomorphic microorganism C. Both A and B
C. Penicillin resistant D. Toxemia
D. No correct response
68. What is the specific strain of Staphylococcus utilized for
59. Which of the following is/are produced by Candida coagglutination reaction?

TEST 2: MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY, Inc.
4|P ag e
 A. Cowar I A. M. tuberculosis
B. Rhyme I B. M. bovis
C. Rhino I C. M. leprae
D. Pyro I D. M. xenopsi

69. What is the method of choice for the recovery of anaerobic 78. Pseudomonas aeruginosa characteristically grows at 42
bacteria from a deep abscess to assure the proper inoculation degrees Celsius. Thus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is considered
of bacteria? to be ____________.
A. Cotton fiber swab of the abscess area A. Thermophilic
B. Snip of the surface tissue B. Psychrophilic
C. Needle aspirate after surface decontamination C. Mesophilic
D. Swab of the scalpel used for debridement D. Hyperthermic

70. After the satisfactory performance of daily disk diffusion 79. A medical technologist performed phlebotomy; suddenly,
susceptibility quality control is documented, the frequency of she accidentally pricked her finger with the used needle. What
quality control can be reduced to _____. would be the immediate action she must do?
A. Twice a week A. Wash the pricked site in a running water.
B. Every week B. Test immediately with HBsAg and HIV.
C. Every other week C. Report to the supervisor and safety officer
D. Every month D. Apply prophylaxis

71. The samples for direct sputum smear microscopy are 80. In blood culture, what is/are the purpose/s of 0.025%-
optimally collected: 0.030% SPS anticoagulant?
A. In the evening on 2 consecutive days 1. Prevents phagocytosis
B. In 24-hour period 2. Prevents the activation of complement
C. In 72-hour period 3. Neutralizes the bactericidal effect of human serum
D. In the morning on 2 consecutive days A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
72. The Mycobacterium that produce pigment only after C. 2 and 3
exposure to light is being classified as _______. D. 1, 2, and 3
A. Photochromogen
B. Scotochromogen 81. All but one urine specimen type can be utilized for urine
C. Rapid chromogen culture:
D. Non-photochromogen A. Midstream clean catch
B. 24-hour urine specimen
73. Facultative parasites are those parasites that are capable C. Suprapubic urine specimen
to have parasitic and free-living existence. Which of the D. Catheterized specimen
following parasites is/are classified as such?
1. N. fowleri 82. Different types of specimens arrived in the laboratory with
2. N. americanus the following sequence:
3. S. stercoralis Sputum – Blood – Urine – Blood – CSF – ETA
4. A. duodenale Which of the specimens should the medical technologist
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 subject for culture first?
B. 1 and 3 A. ETA
C. 2 and 4 B. Urine
D. 1, 3, and 4 C. CSF
D. The order of the specimen arrived
74. Formation of bolus: Ascaris lumbricoides
Visceral larva migrans: ______ 83. What are the indicators present in CIN agar?
A. N. americanus A. Neutral red and Phenol red
B. A. caninum B. Neutral red and Crystal violet
C. A. cantonensis C. Neutral red and Methylene blue
D. T. canis D. Neutral red and Eosin
75. When using preservatives, what is the appropriate ratio of
fixative to stool? 84. Specimen: CSF or Blood
A. one part fixative to one part stool Procedure: Instillation of 24 hours broth culture into the
B. two parts fixative to one part stool conjunctival sac of rabbit
C. two parts fixative to three parts stool Result: Purulent conjunctivitis within 24-36 hours
D. three parts fixative to one part stool
What test is being described above?
76. All of the following statements pertain for the proper A. Anton test
collection of sputum specimen to be subjected for B. Ascoli test
microbiological studies, except: C. Schick’s test
A. Consideration of the Bartlett’s classification D. Culture
B. Sputum cannot be directly examined via wet
preparations 85. What automation in microbiology is used for sensitivity?
C. Microscopic examination of the sediment can A. PCR
include wet preparations and permanent stains B. Auto-Blood culture
D. Saliva must not be mixed with the sputum C. Vitek
specimen D. No correct response

77. Identify: 86. Identify:

Niacin: Positive Grows in 5% blood agar plate and even in chocolate agar plate
Nitrate reduction: Positive showing non-hemoytic colonies.

TEST 2: MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY, Inc.
5|P ag e
No growth in Mac. Assembly
Has a musty or earthy odor. D. Adsorption – Uncoating – Penetration – Eclipse –
A. Francisella Assembly
B. Escherichia
C. Moraxella 96. Which of the following is an odd?
D. Pasteurella A. Parvovirus
B. Paramyxovirus
C. Papovavirus
D. No correct response
87. All but one is a capsulated bacterium:
A. S. pneumoniae 97. A clear medium for Mycobacterium:
B. S. agalactiae A. Middlebrook 6H10
C. B. anthracis B. Middlebrook 6H11
D. C. tetani C. Middlebrook 7H10
D. All are correct
88. Determine what is being defined:
Minor antigenic changes as a result of mutation in pathogen 98. A milk formula is considered as Grade A if the bacterial
strains and facilitate the pathogen to avoid host immune count is _____ when raw, and not to exceed ______ bacteria
responses. per mL once pasteurized.
A. Antigenic shift A. 75, 000; 5, 000
B. Antigenic drift B. 75, 000; 10, 000
C. Epidemic C. 75, 000; 15, 000
D. Pandemic D. 75, 000; 20, 000

89. When decontaminating blood spill using hypochlorite 99. Which of the following specimens can be utilized for the
solution, what is the optimum time required to kill the Hepatitis detection of microfilaria?
B virus? A. Capillary, venous, and arterial blood
A. 2 minutes B. Capillary and venous blood
B. 5 minutes C. Venous and arterial blood
C. 10 minutes D. Capillary and arterial blood
D. 15 minutes
100. Bacteria that complicate cystic fibrosis

90. All of the following are signs of a disease, except: A. B. mallei

A. Pain B. B. pseudomallei
B. Redness C. B. putida
C. Swelling D. B. cepacia
D. Redness

91. The patient had the disease temporarily for a few days:
A. Acute
B. Chronic
C. Prodromal
D. Convalescence

92. What is the relationship of MIC to that of the zone of

inhibition?
A. No relationship
B. Direct
C. Indirect
D. No association

93. What is the standard inoculum size used in test tube

dilution, a method used in sensitivity testing?
A. 1x104 CFU/mL
B. 1.5x108 CFU/mL
C. 5x105 CFU/mL
D. No correct response

94. A requirement for its growth is an olive oil incorporated in

SDA:
A. Piedra hortae
B. Trichosporon beigelli
C. Trichophyton rubrum
D. Malassezia furfur

95. Viral replication:

A. Assembly – Eclipse – Uncoating – Penetration –
Adsorption
B. Assembly – Uncoating – Eclipse – Penetration –
Adsorption
C. Adsorption – Penetration – Uncoating – Eclipse –

TEST 2: MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY, Inc.
6|P ag e