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PGI MCQ Questions June 12 2002

Recollected Medical questions from MD/MS entrance exams.
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1. ALL is predisposed to by e. Upper GI endoscopy
a. Blooms syndrome 7. A female presenting with history of
b. Fanconi’s syndrome rash and polyarthritis. It is associated
c. Ataxic telengectasia with
d. Turners syndrome a. Antinuclear antibody
e. Diamond blackfan syndrome b. RA factor is positive
2. Klinefelters syndrome is associated c. Bad obstetric history
with d. Increased PTT
a. XXY e. HLA B 27
b. Male phenotype 8. All of the following are blood buffers
c. Infertility except
d. Azoospermia a. Phosphates
e. Bar body absent b. Plasma proteins
3. True about testicular feminization c. Bicarbonates
is/are d. Oxygen
a. Testes present e. Heamoglobin
b. Female phenotype 9. Supine hypotension is seen in
c. XY a. Obesity
d. Secondary amennorhea b. Ascites
e. Uterus present c. Abdominal tumors
d. Pregnancy
4. The activity of the following enzymes e. Bradycardia
is decreased in starvation
a. Acy carnitine tranferase
b. Lipoprotien lipase 10. Lipid lowering drugs act on
c. Citrate cleavage enzyme a. HMG coA synthetase
d. Fatty acid synthase b. HMG coA reductase
e. Phosphoglucomutase c. Mevalonate kinase
5. Regarding laryngomalacia true is/are d. Lipase
a. Most common cause of stridor e. Acyl coA transferase
in newborn 11. Sterilizing agents include
b. Sigma shaped epiglottis a. Cyclohexidene
c. Inspiratory stridor b. Ethelyne oxide
d. Most require surgery c. Diethyl ether
e. Stridor worsens on lying in d. Gallamine
prone position 12. A patient presenting with a fasting
6. When acute appendicitis is suspected it blood sugar of 180 and post prandial
can be confirmed by sugar of 260. The management in his
a. Clinical examination case include
b. Ultrasound a. Glibenclamide
c. CT scan b. Diet therapy + exercise
d. TLC and DLC

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c. Diet therapy + exercise + d. Insulin
metphormin e. Thyroxine
d. Insulin 20. Hemithorax opacity with contralateral
e. Chlorpropamide shift of mediastinum is
13. IgE is secreted by a. Massive pleural effusion
a. Mast cells b. Consolidation
b. Eosinophils c. Collapse of lung
c. Plasma cells d. Large mass
d. Basophils e. Pneumothorax
e. Neutrophils 21. Substrate level phosphorylation is seen
14. Classical complement pathway is in association with
activated by a. Succinate dehydrgenase
a. IgG b. Alpha ketogluterate
b. IgA dehydrogenase
c. IgM c. Succinate thiokinase
d. IgE d. Malanate dehydrogenase
e. IgD e. Cis-aconitase
15. 3rd nerve palsy is caused by 22. Alkylating agents include
a. Posterior communicating artery a. Doxorubicin
aneurysm b. Chlorambucil
b. Mid brain infarct c. Vincristine
c. Lateral medullary lesions d. Nitrogen mustard
d. Pons infarct e. Busulphan
e. Cerebellar tumors
16. Bilateral enlarged kidneys are seen in 23. Submucous glands are present in
a. Chronic glomerulonephritis a. Oesophagus
b. Pyelonephritis b. Doudenum
c. Benign nephrosclerosis c. Stomach
d. Polycystic kidneys d. Ascending colon
e. Amylodosis e. Ileum
17. Trophic ulcers are caused by 24. True regarding Pendreds syndrome is
a. Leprosy a. Consistently associated with
b. Deep vien thrombosis deafness
c. Burgers disease b. Hypothyroidism
d. Secondary syphilis c. Mutation in the connexion
18. Burgers disease is associated with coding region
a. Smoking d. Mutation in chromosome 21
b. Poor nutrition causing reecptor defect
c. Alcoholic 25. True about carotid body tumor is
d. Prolonged standing a. Non chromaffin paraganglioma
e. Superficial thrombophlebitis b. Good prognosis
19. Hormones secreted by adrenal medulla c. Rarely metastasize
are d. Is similar to mixed parotid
a. Glucagon tumor
b. Epinephrine 26. Burkits lymphoma is associated with
c. Cortisol a. B cell lymphoma

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6-14 translocation a. Deep vein thrombosis
b. Can present with abdominal b. Superficial venous thrombosis
mass c. AV fistula
c. Raditherapy is used in d. Prolonged standing
treatment e. Hypertension
27. Hepatic infarcts are seen in
a. Preeclampsia 34. Superficial perineal muscles include
b. Chronic venous congestion a. Superficial transverse peroneii
c. Budd chiarri syndrome b. Bulbospongiosis
d. Sepsis c. Ischiocavernosis
e. Extrahepatic biliary atresia d. Iliococcygeous
28. Anti psychotics used in treatment of e. Pubococcygeous
shizophrenia are 35. The visual pathway consists of all of
a. Halopredol the following except
b. Chlorpromozine a. Optic tract
c. Immipramine b. Geniculocalcerine fissure
d. Olanzapine c. Lateral geniculate body
e. Resperidone d. Inferior colliculous
e. Pretectal region
29. Interventricular septum is developed 36. Plantar flexion is brought about by
from which of the following muscles
a. Conus septum a. Plantaris
b. Endocardial cushion defect b. Flexor hallucis longus
c. Left horn of sinus venosus c. Tibialis anterior
d. Ostium septum d. Peroneus brevis
e. Truncus septum e. Soleus
30. Physiological changes in pregnancy are 37. Adductors of the vocal cords include
a. Insulin level is increased a. Posterior cricoaretenoids
b. There is increased BMR b. Cricothyroid
c. Hypothyroidism c. Anterior cricoaretenoids
d. Growth hormone levels are d. Aretenoepiglottis
decreased e. Transverse cricoaretenoids
31. High hepatic extraction ration is seen 38. Branches of anterior internal iliac
a. Propranolol arteries include
b. Lidocaine a. Posterior gluteal
c. Diazepam b. Uterine
d. Phenytoin c. Obturator
e. Theophylline d. Pudendal
32. The amino acid which is associated e. Iliolumbar
with atherosclerosis 39. In a CT scan cut section at the level of
a. Arginine the celiac trunk, which of the following
b. Homocysteine structures can be identified
c. Cysteine a. Pancreas
d. Tryptophan b. Gall bladder
e. Alanine c. Inferior vena cava
33. Varicose viens are seen in d. Duodenum

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e. Portal vien c. Heamoglobin is not excerted in
40. In oculomotor nerve palsy, which of the glomerulus as it is a large
the following causes can be implicated molecule
a. Posterior communicating artery d. Glucose is reabsorbed in the
aneurysm DCT
b. Tolosa Hunt syndrome e. Amino acids are reabsorbed in
c. Midbrain infarct the collecting ducts
d. Pons Infarct 45. The histopathological features of
e. Lateral medullary lesions Shock include
41. Branches of the basilar artery include a. Acute tubular necrosis
a. Posterior inferior cerebral b. Lung infarcts
artery c. Depletion of lipids in adrenal
b. Posterior cerebral artery medulla
c. Middle cerebral artery d. Periportal hepatic necrosis
d. Posterior communicating artery e. Depletion of lymphocytes
e. Anterior cerebral artery 46. In a patient which of the following
42. Regarding acid secretion in the would cause rhabdomyolisis and
stomach myoglobulinuria
a. Increased gastrin secretion a. Hyperpyrexia
increases secretion b. Viper snake venom
b. Secretin decreases secretion c. Multiple hornet stings
c. Fractional test meal is the best d. Prolonged coma
screening index e. Anemia
d. H2 receptor blockers block acid 47. In the body bilirubin is obtained from
secretion a. Heamoglobin
e. Total acid secretion reflects on b. Myoglobin
the functional parietal cell mass c. Muscle
43. In a patient with transplanted heart d. Cholestrol
which of the following are reasons for e. Amino acids
increased cardiac output in him during 48. All of the following are required for fat
exercise digestion except
a. Reinnevation of the heart by the a. Bile pigment
vagus b. Gastric lipase
b. Intrinsic mechanisms c. Colipase
c. Increased epinephrine released d. Bile salts
from medulla e. Pancreatic lipase
d. Bainbridge reflex 49. Causes of sterile pyuria without urinary
e. Due to Starlings effect tract infection include
a. Cortical tubercular abcess
44. Regarding the renal excretion b. Pyelonephritis
a. Sodium reabsorption occurs in c. Fungal infection
the DCT d. Gonococcal infection
b. Pottassium is both excreted and e. Urolithiasis
reabsorbed in the tubules 50. Criteria for diagnosis of multiple
myeloma include

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a. Plasma cells in bone marrow c. Heinz bodies
greater then 30% d. Howell jolly bodies
b. Bence jones proteins e. Clot rings
c. Lytic bone lesions
d. Decreased beta 2 57. Motor neuropathy is caused by
microglobulins a. Dapsone
e. Rouleux formation in the blood b. Cisplatin
51. In a patient with acute arsenic c. Arsenic
poisoning which of the following d. Lead
strictures would show accumulation of e. Hypothyroidism
arsenic 58. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is caused by
a. Liver a. Supracondylar #
b. Bone marrow b. Lateral condyle #
c. Skin c. Olecranon #
d. Kidney d. Distal radioulnar dislocation
e. Brain e. Medial condylar #
52. Both hepatic and renal failures can be 59. Hb A2 is increased in
caused by which of the following a. Alpha thallessemia
a. Paracetamol toxicity b. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Carbon tetrachloride c. Beta thallessemia
c. Arsenic d. Sickle cell trait
d. Copper sulphate e. Megaloblastic anemia
e. Silver nitrate 60. Metaphysical lesions seen commonly
53. Chronic arsenic poisoning causes are
a. Pure sensory neuropathy a. Metaphyseal fractures
b. Pure Motor neuropathy b. Osteomyelitis
c. Mixed motor and sensory c. Osteosarcoma
neuropathy d. Ewings sarcoma
d. Painful neuropathy e. Osteoclastoma
e. Hyperkeratosis 61. True regarding salmonella
54. Widmarks formula is used for gastroenteritis include
estimation of a. Mainly diagnosed by serology
a. Cocaine b. Blood and mucous are present
b. Arsenic in stools
c. Alcohol c. Caused via animal products
d. Carbon monoxide d. Symptoms appear between 8 -
e. Lead 48 hours
55. McNaughtens rule is applicable in e. The features are mainly due to
a. Calculating length of fetus exotoxin released
b. In estimating stature 62. True regarding E-Coli is/are
c. In insanity a. The LT labile toxin in ETEC
d. In dactylography acts via cAMP
e. To detect metals b. In those types causing urinary
56. Not seen in Wrights stain is infections the organism attaches
a. Reticulocytes by pili antigen
b. Basophilic stippling

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c. The ST stable toxin of ETEC is c. Processed peptide
responsible for causation of d. CD8
HUS e. Delta region
d. The EIEC invasiveness is under
plasmid control 68. Apart from B cells, T cells there is a
e. In EPEC the toxin helps in distinct third type of lymphocytes.
invasion of the organism They are
63. The sputum examination under district a. MHC cells
TB control programme is done when b. NK cells
the patient presents with which of the c. Macrophages
following d. Neutrophils
a. Cough for 1-2 weeks e. Eosinophils
b. Cough for 3-4 weeks 69. All of the following are antigen
c. Heamoptysis presenting cells except
d. Chest pain a. T cells
e. Intermittent fever b. B cells
64. In cryptoccocal infection the organism c. Fibroblasts
can be readily demonstrated by d. Dendritic cells
a. Albert’s stain e. Langerhans cells
b. India ink stain 70. All of the following are true regarding
c. Giemsa stain H pylori except
d. Grams stain a. Gram negative bacilli
e. Zeil Niehlson stain b. Strongly associated with
65. Regarding HSV 2 infection which of Duodenal ulcer
the following are correct c. Associated with lymphoma
a. Primary infection is usually d. C14 urea breath test is used in
wide spread the diagnosis
b. Recurrent attacks occur due to e. It should be eradicated in all
latent infection cases when ever detected
c. Encephalitis is commonly 71. Breast cancer is seen more commonly
caused by it in women who
d. Newborn acquires the infection a. Consume non vegetarian food
via the birth canal or at the time b. Have early menopause
of labor c. Smoke
i. Treatment is by d. Have multiple sex partners
acyclovir e. Who did not breast feed their
66. IgE is secreted by babies
a. Mast cells 72. Predisposing factors in colonic cancer
b. Eosinophils is/are
c. Basophils a. Animal fat consumption
d. Plasma cells b. Familial adenomatous
e. Neutrophils polyposis
67. The T helper cell subtype attach to c. Ulcerative colitis
which of the following sites d. Crohns disease
a. MHC I cells e. Tuberculosis
b. MHC II cells

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73. Abdominoperineal resection is b. Pruritus is the 1st symptom
preferred in colorectal cancer based on c. Maximum during the third
which of the following trimester
a. Age of patient d. Raised liver transaminases
b. Distance from anal verge 80. Purpuric rashes are seen in
c. Fixity of tumor a. Dengue
d. Hepatic metastasis b. Borrelia
e. Extent of tumor c. Secondary syphilis
74. Predisposing factors for skin cancer are d. Measles
a. Lichen planus e. Typhoid
b. Leukoplakia 81. The most sensitive structure in a cell
c. Bowens disease for radiotherapy is
d. Psoriasis a. Cell membrane
e. Behcets disease b. Mitochondria membrane
75. True regarding ankylosing spondylitis c. DNA
is d. Plasma membrane
a. More common in men e. Cell enzymes
b. Associated with HLA B 27 82. In spectroscopy nucleotides absorb at
c. Associated with B8 260 nm wavelength. This absorption is
d. Affects only small joints due to
76. Squamous cell carcinoma in bladder is a. Purines and pyrimidines
predisposed to by b. Deoxyribose
a. Urolithiasis c. Ribose
b. Shistosomiasis d. Histones
c. Persistent urachus e. Phosphates
d. Polyp 83. Regarding oncogenesis
e. Smoking a. Topoisomerase II causes break
77. Restrictive Fragment Length in both strands
Polymorphism is used in the diagnosis b. P53 is the most common
of oncogene mutation causing
a. Thallessemia cancer in humans
b. Sickle cell trait c. At G2-M phase there is loss of
c. Gilbert’s syndrome inhibitors controlling cell cycle
d. Phenylketonuria d. Decrease in telomerase activity
e. Von Gierke’s disease causes antitumor effect
78. True regarding Gilberts syndrome 84. The investigation of choice in acute
is/are cholecystitis is
a. Unconjugated a. Ultrasound
hyperbilirubinemia b. HIDA scan
b. Increased liver transaminases c. CT scan
c. Bleeding tendencies d. Oral cholestogram
d. Autoantibodies are present e. MRI

79. Regarding cholestasis of pregnancy 85. All can cause hyperglycemia except
which of the following is/are true a. Growth hormone
a. Deep jaundice is present b. Cortisol

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c. Epinephrine c. Decreased fibrinogen
d. Glucagon degradation products
e. Insulin d. Normal platelet count
86. Primary hyperparathyroidism is caused e. Decreased fibrinogen
by 93. True regarding postmenopausal
a. Parathyroid hyperplasia osteoporosis is/are
b. Parathyroid adenoma a. Decreased Vitamin D
c. MEN syndrome b. Decreased calcium
d. Thyrotoxicosis c. Normal serum chemistries
e. Chronic renal failure d. Decreased Vitamin C
87. Hyperphosphatemia with hypocalcemia e. Ammenorrhea
is seen in 94. Varicose veins are seen in
a. CRF a. Deep vein thrombosis
b. Pseudohypoparathyroidsim b. Superficial venous thrombosis
c. Tumor lysis syndrome c. AV fistula
d. Vitamin D intoxication d. Prolonged standing
e. Sarcoidosis e. Hypertension
88. Raised calcium and phosphate is seen 95. Trendlenburgs test is positive in
in a. Saphenofemoral incompetence
a. Chronic renal failure b. Perforator incompetence above
b. Vitamin D intoxication knee
c. Hyperparathyroidism c. Deep vein incompetence
d. Pseudohypoparathyroidism d. Perforator incompetence below
e. Sarcoidosis knee
89. Hypokalemia is associated with e. Superficial thrombophlebitis
a. Furesemide 96. True regarding A-V fistula is/are
b. Cortisol a. Leads to cardiac failure
c. Metabolic acidosis b. Local gigantism
d. Amiloride c. Causes ulcers
e. Addison’s disease d. Causes excess bleeding on
90. VIPOMA is associated with injury
a. Watery diarrhea e. Closes spontaneously
b. Hypochlorhydria 97. The causes of dilated cardiomyopathy
c. Hyperchlorhydria are
d. Hyperkalemia a. Viral myocarditis
e. Hypokalemia b. Amylodosis
91. Universal finding in Asthma is c. Alcohol
a. Hypoxia d. Lofflers endocarditis
b. Hypercarbia e. Post partum cardiomyopathy
c. Hypoxemia
d. Respiratory acidosis
e. Metabolic acidosis 98. In comparison between restrictive
92. Which of the following are seen in DIC cardiomyopathy and constrictive
a. Increased PT pericarditis they are differentiated as in
b. Increased BT constrictive pericarditis

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a. The diastolic pressures are b.Vasoconstriction
equalized c.Sweating
b. There is mild pericardial d.Predispose to albinism
effusion e.Increase phenylketonuria
c. The pulmonary artery pressure 103. The amino acid which is
is lesser then 50 mmHg associated with atherosclerosis
d. Presence of right heart failure a. Arginine
e. Associated with septal b. Homocysteine
hypertrophy c. Cysteine
99. True regarding inverted papilloma is d. Tryptophan
a. Common in children e. Alanine
b. Arises from the lateral wall 104. Hyperbaric oxygen is used in
c. Always benign which of the following
d. Can be premalignant a. Carbon monoxide poisoning
e. Causes obstruction in nose b. ARDS
100. Which of the following are true c. Anaerobic infection
about carcinoma larynx d. Septicemia
a. The glottic carcinoma is the e. Pneumonia
MC 105. Predisposing factors for gastric
b. Supraglottic has the best cancer include
prognosis a. Atrophic gastritis
c. Lymphatic spread is most b. Hyperplastic polyp
common in the subglottic type c. Adenomatous polyp
d. T1 tumor involving the glottis d. Achlorhydria
is best treated with radiotherapy e. Animal fat consumption
only 106. Which of the following are seen
e. Lymphatic spread is most in apoptosis
common in supraglottic type a. Membrane blebs
101. A 14 year old boy presented b. Inflammation
with epistaxis and a swelling in the c. Nuclear fragmentation
cheek. Which of the following is true d. Spindle formation
regarding his condition e. Cell swelling
a. Diagnosis is nasopharyngeal 107. True regarding recurrent
angiofibroma thrombophlebitis (migratory
b. Contrast CT is used to see the thrombophlebitis) is
extent 108. Which of the following
c. Has high propensity to spread investigations would U do for a case of
to lymphnodes strangulated hernia
d. It arises from the roof of the a. Xray abdomen
nasopharynx b. Ultrasound abdomen
e. Surgery is treatment of choice c. Aspiration of the contents of
the sac
102. Metabolites of tryptophan can d. Correction of volume for
give rise to which of the following hypovolemia
symptoms e. Prepare the OT for urgent
a. Hypotension surgery

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109. True regarding carcinoma gall a. Lesser Bronchoconstriction
bladder is b. No adverse effect on lipid
a. Squamous cell carcinoma is the profile
most common type c. Less glucose intolerance
b. Presents with jaundice d. Can be used in Raynauds
c. Good prognosis disease
d. Gall stones predispose e. Lesser AV block
e. 65% survival after surgey 116. Arteriolar dilators used in the
110. Genetic abnormalities in the treatment of congestive heart failure
fetus can be diagnosed by include
a. Maternal serum a. Hydralizine
b. Maternal urine b. Nifedipine
c. Amniotic fluid c. Prazosin
d. Choroinic villi d. Enalapril
e. Fetal blood e. Nitrates
111. Membranous 117. Diseases caused by EBV
glomerulonephritis is associated with include
a. Renal vein thrombosis a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Hodgkins disease b. Burkitts lymphoma
c. Subepithelial dense deposits c. Kaposi’s sarcoma
d. Heamturia d. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
e. Acute nephritis e. Herpangina
112. Sensorineural deafness is seen 118. High hepatic extraction ration is
in seen
a. Alports syndrome a. Propranolol
b. Pierre Robins syndrome b. Lidocaine
c. Pendreds syndrome c. Diazepam
d. Treacher Collins syndrome d. Phenytoin
e. Gauchers syndrome e. Theophylline
113. Heamoptysis is seen in 119. The drugs which increase level
a. Mitral stenosis of theophilline include
b. Bronchogenic carcinoma a. Ciprofloxacin
c. Bronchiectasis b. Barbiturates
d. Pneumonia c. Cimetidine
e. Empyema d. Allopurinol
114. Morphine can be administered e. Phenytoin
as 120. Antipsychotics with lesser
a. Inhalation extrapyramidal side effects include
b. Rectal a. Clozapine
c. Subcutaneous b. Respiridone
d. IV c. Thioridazine
e. Intramuscular d. Chlorpromazine
e. Haloperidol
115. Properties making
cardioselective beta blockers desirable
are

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121. Which of the following is true 127. True regarding bromocriptine
a. Imipramine is used in the a. Natural derivative
treatment of Endogenous b. Synthetic derivative
depression c. Also has alpha blocking
b. Diazepam has lesser sedative property
propensity as compared to d. Decreases GI motility
barbiturates e. Acts on both D1 and D2
c. Fluvaxamine is associated with 128. A lady with 16 weeks
weight gain pregnancy presents with acute
d. Thioridazine causes lesser appendicitis. Management includes
extrapyramidal side effects a. Conservative treatment
122. Drugs used in the treatment of b. Do early surgery
Schizophrenia include c. Appendecectomy with
a. Chlorpromazine termination of pregnancy
b. Haloperidol d. Appendecectomy following
c. Olanzapine child birth after 3rd trimester
d. Imipramine e. Medical treatment with surgery
e. Resperidone on recurrence
123. Shizophrenia has which of the 129. A lady with 4 months
following features in common with ammenorhea presents with pain
depression abdomen, constipation, and vomiting.
a. Formal thought disorder What will be done in her management
b. Social withdrawal a. X ray abdomen
c. Poor personal care b. USG
d. Decreased interest in sex c. CT scan
e. Inappropriate behavior d. Complete obstetrical evaluation
124. Suicidal tendencies are seen in 130. True regarding hirshsprungs
a. Shizophrenia disease is/are
b. Post traumatic stress disorder a. Seen in infants and children
c. Depression only
d. OCD b. Absence of auerbachs plexus in
e. Anxiety disorder the involved segment
125. Features seen in Obsessions and c. The involved segment is the
compulsions is/are dilated colon
a. Repetetiveness d. Bleeding per rectum is a
b. Irresistiblility presenting feature
c. Unpleasant e. Surgery is used in the treatment
d. Social withdrawal 131. True about achalasia cardia
e. Poor personal care is/are
126. Pleural fibrosis is caused by a. Dysphagia is a presenting
a. Phenytoin feature
b. Methysegide b. Absence of auerbachs plexus is
c. Amiodarone the cause
d. Ergotamine c. Eosophagectomy is used in
e. Ranitidine treatment

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d. Barium swallow shows b.Constant region
irregular filling defect in the c.Variable region
lower esophagus d.Hypervariable region
e. Motility improving agents are e.Idiotype region
used in treatment 138. ANCA is associated with
a. Wegeners granulomatosis
132. Bone marrow transplantation is b. Churg struas disease
indicated in c. Microscopic Polyangitis
a. Osteopetrosis d. Takayasu’s arteritis
b. Heamophilia e. SLE
c. Mucopolysacharidosis 139. Find the correct match among
d. Ineffective erythropoeisis the following
e. Diamond Blackfan syndrome a. ANCA -
133. Pancytopenia is seen in Takayasu’s arteritis
a. Aplastic anemia b. Antihistone antibodies - SLE
b. Megaloblastic anemia in the newborn
c. Myelofibrosis c. Naproxone -
d. Myelodysplastic syndrome Pseudoporphyria
e. Diamond Blackfan syndrome d. Antimitochondrial antibody-
134. Massive splenomegaly is PBC
associated with 140. Peripheral pulmonic stenosis is
a. Gauchers associated with all except
b. Chronic kala azar a. Sub aortic stenosis
c. CML b. Takayasu’s arteritis
d. Myelodysplastic syndrome c. William’s syndrome
e. Splenic infarcts d. Coarctation of aorta
135. Intravenous gammaglobulins e. Rubella
are used in 141. Wide split S2 is seen in
a. Myasthenia Gravis a. Endocardial cushion defect
b. Multiple myeloma b. Ebstien anomaly
c. ITP c. Transposition of great vessels
d. Takayasu’s arteritis d. Anomalous origin of
e. HUS pulmonary artery
136. Perurethral catheterization is e. Truncus arteriosis
indicated in which of the following 142. True about Hepatocellular
conditions carcinoma is/are
a. Prostatic carcinoma a. Most commonly associated
b. Urethral trauma with HBV/HCV
c. Urethral stricture b. Cirrhosis is usually
d. Before taking the patient in for predisposing
appendecectomy c. Fibrolamellar variety is not
e. Post op retention associated with cirrhosis
d. Less propensity of vascular
137. The antigen binding region on invasion
the antibody is/are e. Alcoholic cirrhosis does not
a. Hinge region predispose to cancer

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143. Immunoflourence test in skin is b. Posterior cruciate ligament
positive in c. Medial semilunar cartilage
a. Scabies d. Lateral semilunar cartilage
b. Lichen planus e. Popliteal bursa
c. Pemphigus vulgaris 150. In anterior cruciate ligament
d. Erythema Multiforme tear which of the following tests are
e. Atopic dermatitis positive
144. Mucous lesions are seen in a. Lachmans Test
a. Secondary syphilis b. Mcmurray’s test
b. Dermatitis herpetiformis c. Pivot test
c. Psoriasis d. Anterior drawers test
d. Pemphigus 151. The bone density is increased in
e. Porphyria all of the following except
145. Loosers zones are seen a. Avascular necrosis of bone
a. Osteoporosis b. Uric acid deposition in the bone
b. Hyperparathyrodism c. Fracture and collapse of
c. Osteomalacia cancellous bone
d. Multiple myeloma d. Periosteal reaction
e. Pagets e. Flourosis
146. Osteoarthritis commonly 152. Regarding brucella all of the
involves following are true except
a. Proximal interphalengeal joint a. Man to man transmission
b. Distal interphalyngeal joint b. It is a zoonosis
c. 1st carpophalegeal joint c. Blood culture is used for
d. Wrist joint diagnosis
e. Distal radioulnar joint d. Brucella miletensis is the
147. Early morning stiffness is seen commonest cause
in e. Transmitted through animal
a. Osteoarthritis products
b. Ankylosing spondylitis 153. Disease transmitted by
c. Rheumatoid arthritis arboviral include
d. SLE associated arthritis a. Yellow fever
e. Psoriasis b. Japanese encephalitis
148. Fracture of talus without c. Trench fever
displacement in X ray would give rise d. Epidemic typhus
to e. Dengue
a. Avascular necrosis of Body of 154. Diseases transmitted by louse
talus include
b. Avascular necrosis of neck of a. Epidemic typhus
talus b. Endemic typhus
c. Osteoarthritis of ankle c. Trench fever
d. Osteonecrosis of head of talus d. Rocky mountain fever
e. Scrub typhus
149. McMurray’s test is positive in 155. True regarding point source
damage to epidemic include
a. Anterior cruciate ligament a. Rapid rise

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b. Rapid fall d. Slit lamp microscopy
c. Secondary peaks do not occur e. Examination with aplain mirror
d. Slow rise at a distance of 1 m
e. Slow fall 161. Refractive power of the eye can
156. In patients with substance abuse be changed by
for maintenance drugs used is/are a. Radial keratotomy
a. Naltrexone b. Keratomileusis
b. Naloxone c. Intraocular lens
c. Disulfiram d. LASIK
d. Clonidine e. Photocoagulation
e. Lithium 162. In angle closure glaucoma,
157. Ondansetron acts by treatment given to the fellow is
a. Acts directly on the CTZ a. Pilocarpine eye drops
b. 5 HT3 antagonist b. Atropine eye drops
c. Acts on D1, D2 receptors c. Laser iridotomy
d. Inhibits vomiting center d. Trabeculoplasty
e. Increases GIT motility e. Physostigmine eye drops
158. True about gout is 163. Parenchymatous xerosis of the
a. Occurs due to accumulation of conjuctiva is caused by
urea crystals in the joints a. Trachoma
b. Can be precipitated by b. Vitamin A deficiency
pyrazinamide c. Vernal catarrh
c. Birefringent crystals are present d. Phlyctenular conjuctivitis
in the joints e. Alkali burns
d. Occurs more in females 164. Charcots joint is caused by all
e. Due to decreased excretion of of the following except
uric acid a. Arnold chiarri malformation
159. Diabetes Mellitus can lead to b. Syrngomyelia
the following complications c. Secondary syphilis
a. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Leprosy
b. Rubeosis Iridis e. Hydrocephalus
c. Primary retinal detachment 165. Short stature is seen in
d. 3,4th and 6th nerve palsy a. Maternal deprivation syndrome
e. Hypermetropia b. Hypothyroidism
c. Bulimia
d. Paternal smoking
e. IUGR

166. True regarding acute

osteomyelitis in child is/are
a. Diagnosis is by Xray after 8-10
160. Posterior subcapsular cataract is days of onset of infection
diagnosed by b. Diagnosis must be suspected on
a. Direct ophthalmoscopy all cases of subcutaneous
b. Indirect ophthalmoscopy cellulites
c. Distant direct opthalmoscopy

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c. There is diffuse tenderness at 172. True about amoebic colitis
the site is/are
d. Treatment should be for at least a. Commonly caused by
4 weeks entameoba histolytica
e. Salmonella is the most common b. Cyst found in soil contains 8
cause nuclei
167. True about mycobacterium c. Flask shaped ulcers are found
tuberculosis is/are d. Most common site is the
a. Can produce visible colonies in ceacum
a weeks time on LJ media e. Is premalignant
b. Decolorized with 20% 173. Premalignant lesions of skin
suphuric acid include
c. Facultative aerobes a. Leukoplakia
d. It is niacin positive b. Bowens disease
168. Anterior scalloping of the c. Pagets disease of nipple
vertebrae is seen in d. Psoriasis
a. Aortic aneurysm e. Pemphigus
b. Tuberculosis 174. In the diagnosis of filariasis the
c. Renal tumors blood sample collected for
d. Sarcoidosis identification of microfilaria is stored
169. Regarding aqueous humor in/as
which of the following is correct a. Citrated blood
a. It is secreted 2-3 ml/min b. EDTA
b. It is secreted by ciliary c. Oxalated blood
processes d. Heparinized blood
c. It has less protein then plasma e. Defibrinogenated blood
d. It has less vitamin C then 175. Secondary messengers include
plasma a. cAMP
e. Provides nutrition b. IP3
170. Which of the following drugs is c. DAG
associated with least causation of d. cGMP
raised intraocular tension e. ADP
a. Hydrocortizone 176. Increased severity of mitral
b. Prednisolone stenosis is demonstrated by
c. Fluvamethezone a. Loud S1
d. Triamcinolone b. Increased S2-OS gap
e. Rexamethasone c. Prolonged diastolic murmur
d. S3
171. Which of the following are e. S4
associated with increased risk of 177. Left sided pleural effusion is
colorectal cancer seen
a. Increased intake of animal fat a. Pancreatitis
b. Aspirin intake b. Rheumatoid lung
c. Enteric colitis c. Hypoproteinosis
d. Amoebic colitis d. CHF
e. Ulcerative colitis

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e. Pulmonary artery obstruction a. Mumps -RA
due to emboli 27/3
178. True about Quinsy is/are b. Rubella -Jeryl
a. Penicillin is used in treatment lynn strain
b. Abcess is located within the c. Measles -
capsule Edmonston Zagreb strain
c. Occurs bilaterally d. BCG -
d. Immediate tonsillectomy is Danish 1331 strain
advised e. Polio -
e. Patient presents with toxic shwartz strain
features and drooling of saliva 185. Regarding Hypoxemia, it is
179. Transudative pleural effusion is seen in
seen a. Hypoventilation
a. Renal artery stenosis b. Decreased FiO2
b. Nephrotic syndrome c. Myasthenia gravis
c. SLE d. Pulmonary emboli
d. Rheumatoid arthritis e. Diazepam over dose
180. Live attenuated vaccines are 186. SSPE is associated with
a. Sabin vaccine a. Mumps
b. BCG b. Measles
c. Varicella c. Rubella
d. H.Infleunza d. Typhoid
e. HBV e. Diphtheria
181. HIV infection is associated with 187. In a patient with CRF which of
a. Glandular like fever illness the following drugs are to be given
b. Generalized lymphadenopathy with caution
c. Gonococcal septicemia a. Spirinolactone
d. Sinus disease b. Amlodipine
e. Presenile dementia c. Amiloride
182. Volume of air taken in and d. Pottasium binding resins
given out during normal respiration is e. Furesemide
referred to as 188. Acute pancreatitis is caused by
a. Inspiratory reserve volume a. Gall stones
b. Tidal volume b. Alcohol intake
c. Expiratory reserve volume c. Starvation
d. Vital capacity d. Hyperparathyroid phenomenon
e. Inspiratory capacity e. Thyrotoxicosis
183. True regarding idiopathic
pulmonary fibrosis is 189. A patient was started on
a. Decreased FEV1 antihypertensive treatment develops
b. Decreased FEV/FVC renal insufficiency, the drug/drugs
c. Decreased DLco implicated are
d. Decreased residual volume a. Beta blocker
e. Decreased TLC b. Alpha blocker
184. Choose the correct match c. Calcium channel blocker
d. AT1 antagonist

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e. Enalapril b. Formed after a single meiotic
190. Woods lamp is used in the division
diagnosis of c. Maximum in number during the
a. Tinea capatis 5th month fetus
b. Tinea versicolor d. It is in prophase arrest
c. Pityriasis rosea e. Also known as blastocyst
d. Psoriasis 196. Ovary develops from
e. Lichen planus a. Mullerian duct
191. 13 –cis retinoic acid is used in b. Genital ridge
as c. Genital tubercle
a. Chemoprophylactic d. Mesonephric duct
b. Chemotherapeutic e. Sinovaginal bulbs
c. Radiosensitive 197. Turcots syndrome is associated
d. Radioprotective with
e. Immuno stimulant a. Duodenal polyps
192. In patient suffering through b. Familial adenosis
CML the heamoglobin level falls from c. Brain tumors
11gm% to 4 gm%, in a short span of d. Villous adenomas
time. Also the spleen shows an e. Hyperplastic polyps
increase in size. The cause for this 198. Black gun powder all of the
could be following are found except
a. Accelerated CML a. Charcoal
b. CML in blast crisis b. Pottassium nitrate
c. Ineffective erthropoiesis c. Sulphur
d. Myelofibrosis d. Lead peroxide
e. Infection e. Arsenic
193. True regarding Legionella 199. Haab’s straie is seen in
pneumonia include a. Angle closure glaucoma
a. It occurs in epidemics b. Infantile glaucoma
b. It is treated by penicillin c. Stargardt’s disease
c. It is associated with d. Disciform keratitis
splenomegaly e. Leber’s disease
d. Can be easily diagnosed from 200. In a young patient presenting
sputum with recurrent vitreous heamorrage
e. More common in children a. Eales disease
b. CRVO
194. Chordoma commonly involves c. Proliferative retinopathy
which of the following sites d. Coats disease
a. Dorsal spine e. Episcleritis
b. Clivus 201. LMN lesion includes
c. Lumbar spine a. Dorsal horn cells
d. Sacrum b. Sympathetic ganglia
e. Cerical spine c. Peripheral nerve
195. True about oocyte is d. Gasserian ganglia
a. It is also called primordial e. Anterior horn cells
follicle

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202. Functions of basal ganglia c. Daily moderate physical
include activity
a. Gross motor d. Yearly blood and urine
b. Skilled movements examination
c. Emotion e. Less stress
d. Maintaining equilibrium 209. CA-125 is associated with
e. Co-ordination of movements a. Carcinoma colon
203. Central muscle relaxant acts by b. Ca breast
a. Decreasing nerve conduction c. Ca ovary
b. Inhibits spinal polysynaptic d. Ca lung
reflexes e. Ca pancreas
c. Blocks conduction across nerve 210. CEA as a tumor marker is
muscle junction useful in carcinoma colon
d. CNS depression a. Levels give an indication of
e. Decreases muscle excitation prognosis after surgery
204. Preaneasthetic medication is b. Extent of tumor
used for which of the following reasons c. Post op fall in CEA reflects
a. It decreases the autonomic complete clearance of tumor
reflexes d. Follow up after surgery for
b. It helps in anesthesia recurrence
c. Reduce anesthetic side effects e. High levels reflect metastasis
d. Decrease blood pressure 211. True about septal heamatoma is
e. Prevent tachycardia /are
205. In myasthenia gravis which of a. Common in adults
the following should not be given b. Occurs commonly due to
a. Gallamine trauma
b. Neostigmine c. Can lead to saddle nose
c. Aminoglycoside antibiotics deformity
d. Metronidazole d. Conservative management
206. WHO ORS contains e. Leads to formation of abscess
a. Na+ 2.5 gms after sometime
b. K+ 1.5 gms 212. In management of head injury
c. Glucose 20 gm a. Antibiotics are given for upto
d. Sucrose 108 gm % 48 hours
e. Potassium bisulphate- 90 b. CT scan of head is done
c. Hydrocortisone is given
207. In IV hyperalimentation given d. Complete clinical examination
is/are is required
a. Hypertonic saline e. Diazepam is given
b. Fats 213. True about CSF rhinorrhea
c. Amino acids a. Commonly occurs due to break
d. Dextrose in cribriform plate
e. Low molecular weight dextran b. Decreased glucose content
208. Health is associated by confirms diagnosis
a. Mental peace c. Contains less amount of
b. Adequate nutrition proteins

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d. Immediate surgery is required c. Pervaginal decompression of
214. True about Fox Fordyce spot is after coming head
a. It is more common in females d. Craniotomy of after coming
b. Reflects presence of internal head
malignancy 220. A postmenopausal woman
c. Is premalignant presenting with bleeding PV has a
d. Present in axilla and groin mass in the fornix measuring 3*3 cms.
e. Presents with itching Which of the following can be
215. Carcinoma of the right colon considered in the diagnosis
presents as a. Carcinoma Endometrium of
a. Anemia uterine body
b. Mass in the right iliac fossa b. Tuboovarian mass
c. Bleeding PR c. Ovarian theca tumors
d. Alternate constipation and d. Dermoid tumor of ovary
diarrhea e. Subserous fibroid
e. Presents with obstruction 221. Non irritant gas causing
commonly systemic toxicity include
216. Immediate surgery is required a. Ammonia
in b. Hydrochloric acid
a. Adhesions c. Carbon monoxide
b. Volvolus d. Nitrogen
c. Perforated appendix with e. Chlorine
paralytic ileus 222. True about adenoids is/are
d. Intestinal obstruction a. Failure to thrive
e. Tubercular stricture b. Mouth breathing
217. In external beam radiotherapy c. CT scan is done to assess size
used is/are d. Immediate surgery is required
a. I-123 for even mild symptoms
b. Cesium 137 e. Glottic arch palate is seen
c. Co-60 223. Nocardia is differentiated from
d. Tc 99 actinomycosis by
e. Iridium –191 a. Gram stain
b. Acid stain
218. All of the following iodine c. Different clinical features
isotopes are in use except d. Facultative anaerobe
a. I 131 224. True about Creutzfeldt Jacobs
b. I 123 disease is
c. I 125 a. Inheritable disease
d. I 122 b. Corneal implants transmit
e. I 129 disease
219. Breech presentation with c. It is transmitted by RNA
hydrocephalous is managed by containing organism
a. Ceasarian section d. Transmitted by DNA
b. Transabdominal CSF containing organism
decompression e. Arthropod borne disease

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225. Prominent a waves are seen in e. Pressure symptoms when
all of the following except present at the cervix
a. Mitral stenosis 231. In rheumatoid arthritis
b. Tricuspid stenosis a. More common in females
c. Pulmonary hypertension b. Disease primarily affects
d. Right atrial myxoma cartilage
e. ASD c. Involves small and large joints
226. Uterine fibromyoma is d. Presence of RA factor is
associated with diagnostic
a. Endometriosis 232. Hepatic infarcts are seen in
b. PID a. Chronic passive venous
c. Ca ovary congestion
d. Amennorhea b. Acute Budd Chiarri syndrome
e. Tamoxifen c. Septicemia
227. True about hepatitis A include d. Hepatoveno-occlusive disease
a. IgG anti Hep A is used in e. Extra hepatic biliary
diagnosis obstruction
b. Boiling for 5 minutes kills the 233. The surgical lobes of liver are
virus divided on the basis of
c. Spread by faeco-oral route a. Hepatic vein
d. Incubation period is 45-180 b. Hepatic artery
days c. Bile ducts
e. Predisposes to cirrhosis d. Hepatic portal vein
228. Arlt’s line is seen in e. Central vein
a. Opthalmia neonatorum 234. Most important diameters of
b. Trachoma pelvis during labor is/are
c. Angular conjunctivitis a. Interspinous diameter in mid
d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis pelvis
e. Vernal catarrh b. Oblique diameter in inlet
c. AP diameter at outlet
229. Dietary cholesterol is d. Transtubercular diameter
transported to extra hepatic tissues by e. Intertubercular diameter
a. IDL 235. Pubertal menorrhagia is
b. VLDL managed by
c. Chylomicrons a. Progesterone
d. LDL b. Estrogen and progesterone
e. HDL c. GnRH
230. True regarding fibomyoma d. Danazol
uterus is/are e. Surgery
a. Estrogen dependant 236. Bilateral breast carcinoma is
b. Capsulated caused by
c. Can lead to red degeneration in a. Scirrhous carcinoma
pregnancy for which immediate b. Medullary carcinoma
surgery is required c. Lobular carcinoma
d. Danazol is used in treatment d. Intra ductal carcinoma
e. Paget’s disease

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237. Enucleation is done in all of the 243. True about HCG is/are
following except a. Glycoprotien
a. Retinoblastoma with glaucoma b. Has 2 subunits
b. Dystoma of ciliary body c. Increased to maximum level in
c. Vitreous hemorrhage 3rd trimester
d. Malignant melanoma d. Secreted by trophoblastic tissue
e. Malignant glaucoma e. The alpha subunit is specific
238. Familial Retinoblastoma is
associated with 244 The antigen-binding region on
a. Presents at later age the antibody is/are
b. More commonly bilateral a. Hinge region
c. Associated with other b. Constant region
malignancies c. Variable region
d. Better prognosis d. Hyper variable region
e. Is due to mutation e. Idiotype region
239. Continous variables are
depicted graphically as
a. Histogram 245 Prominent a waves are seen in
b. Pie chart all of the following except
c. Frequency polygan a. Mitral stenosis
d. Bar chart b. Tricuspid stenosis
e. Olgive c. Pulmonary hypertension
240. True regarding DIC is d. Right atrial myxoma
a. Increased PT e. ASD
b. Increased PTT
c. Decreased fibrinogen
degradation products
d. Decreased fibrinogen
e. Normal platelet count
AIPPG.com is a free to use resourse for all
241. Glucose intolerance is caused PRE PG aspirants. We welcome any
by contribution to make this site more useful; all
a. Thiazides contributions received will be duely
b. Enalapril acknowledged. At aippg.com we do not
c. Propranolol believe in making money from young doctors.
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e. AT1 antagonist @aippg.com
242. True about oxytocin is/are
a. It is secreted by anterior
pituitary
b. It acts on the myoepithelial
cells of breast
c. It causes contraction of uterus
in labor
d. It causes retention of water
e. Also has sympathetic activity

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