MTAP Microbiology

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Which of the following components is present in gram-negative
bacteria but absent in gram-positive bacteria?

A. teichoic acid B. Lipid A

B. Lipid A
C. Pili
D. peptidoglycan
Most microorganisms pathogenic for humans grow best in the
laboratory when cultures are incubated at...

A. 30-35 degrees C B. 35-37 degrees C

B. 35-37 degrees C
C. 25-30 degrees C
D. 15-20 degrees C
Bacterial Conjugation requires...

A. lysis of the donor

C. a sex pilus
B. a bacteriophage
C. a sex pilus
D. transfer of plasmid
The first step when performing any antimicrobial susceptibility test
is...

A. inoculum preparation A. inoculum preparation

B. inoculum standardization
C. titration of antibiotic
D. none of the choices
The following factors influence bacterial resistance to antimicro-
bial agents, EXCEPT...

A. exogenous source of essential metabolite D. none of the choices

B. cation concentration
C. increased rate of excretion
D. none of the choices
The Gram-staining procedures separates bacteria into two large
groups based on their...

A. cell wall characteristics A. cell wall characteristics

B. growth requirement
C. energy production scheme
D. motility organelles
MICs may be determined when performing the following, EX-
CEPT:

A. Broth microdilation test B. Alamar test

B. Alamar test
C. Kirby Bauer Method
D. E test
This fluorescent stain is used when attempting to detect small
numbers of both gram(+) and gram(-)bacteria from a specimen.

A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain B. Acridine orange

B. Acridine orange
C. Gram stain
D. Auramine-rhodamine stain
Routine susceptibility testing in diagnostic laboratories detect...
A. clinical resistance
A. clinical resistance
B. biological resistance

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Gram-positive bacteria stain...

A. blue
C. purple
B. red
C. purple
D. pink
Which of the following media will ensure faster growth of bacteria?

A. Agar plate
B. Broth medium
B. Broth medium
C. Agar slant
D. Agar deep
Which of the following is used for the cultivation of obligate intra-
cellular parasites?

A. Selective agar medium B. Cell culture

B. Cell culture
C. None of the choices
D. Enriched broth medium
The following are selective media, EXCEPT:

A. MH
A. MH
B. PEA
C. Thayer Martin
D. XLD
Fastidious bacteria are cultivated using...

A. Any of the choices

D. Enriched medium
B. Transport medium
C. Selective medium
D. Enriched medium
The routine agar medium for susceptibility testing.

A. BHI
B. MH
B. MH
C. TSA
D. EMB
Which of the following is considered the best possible result of
antibiotic combination?

A. Antagonism C. Synergy
B. Indifference
C. Synergy
D. Additive
The following techniques effectively remove all microbial forms of
life, EXCEPT:

A. HEPA filters B. pasteurization

B. pasteurization
C. autoclave
D. incineration
Which microbial form among the following is most resistant to
killing?

A. fungal spores C. mycobacteria

B. enveloped virus
C. mycobacteria
D. vegetative bacteria

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Which among the following is least resistant to killing?

A. enveloped virus
A. enveloped virus
B. fungal spores
C. mycobacteria
D. vegetative bacteria
Cold sterilization may be performed by using...

A. isopropyl alcohol
D. glutaraldehyde
B. non-ionizing radiation
C. iodophores
D. glutaraldehyde
Which of the following is best for collecting wound/abscess fluid?

A. Impression smear
D. Needle aspiration
B. Any of the choices
C. Swab
D. Needle aspiration
If a CSF specimen cannot be processed immediately, it must be
kept at 37 degrees C.
True
True
False
ß-lactam antibiotics inhibit bacterial growth by...

A. inhibition of cell wall synthesis

A. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. inhibition of protein synthesis
C. inhibition of essential metabolites
D. interruption of cell membrane function
Part of the lipopolysaccharide that is identical with endotoxin.

A. None of the above

B. Lipid A
B. Lipid A
C. Antigenic O-specific polysaccharide
D. Core polysaccharide
Sterilization using the autoclave is achieved by using steam at...

A. 121 psi at 15 degrees C

C. 15 psi at 121 degrees C
B. 100 psi at 120 degrees C
C. 15 psi at 121 degrees C
D. 15 psi at 100 degrees C
A bacterium that varies in size and shape is said to be...

A. fusiform
D. pleomorphic
B. palisade
C. gram-variable
D. pleomorphic
The Standardized inoculum for susceptibility tests must be used
within...

A. 1 hour B. 15 mins
B. 15 mins
C. 20 mins
D. 2 hours
When performing disk diffusion testing for Neisseria spp. which
agar media should be used?
D. GC agar with nutrient supplement
A. Wilkens-Chalgren
B. MH with Hb
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C. MH blood
D. GC agar with nutrient supplement
The best sputum specimen for bacteriologic tests.

A. 24-hour collection
B. First morning
B. First morning
C. Mid-stream
D. Any of the choices
Extremely mucoid specimens should be ______________ before
processing.

A. digested with mucolytic A. digested with mucolytic

B. centrifuged
C. refrigerated
D. All of the choices
Characteristics motility patterns are best observed using...

A. hanging drop procedure

A. hanging drop procedure
B. None of the choices
C. saline mounts
D. darkfield microscopy
Which of the following structures can be found in eukaryotic cells
but absent in prokaryotic cells?

A. Mitochondria A. Mitochondria
B. Chromosomes
C. Cell wall
D. Ribosomes
A component of the acid-fast cell wall that is responsible for the
retention of carbolfuchsin during decolorization.

A. Mycolic acid A. Mycolic acid

B. Teichoic acid
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Lipoteichoic acid
Acid-fast staining is performed primarily to detect the presence
of...

A. Enterobacteriaceae D. Mycobacterium spp.

B. fungi
C. Bacterial endospores
D. Mycobacterium spp.
ALL bacteria that are pathogenic to humans are...

A. microaerophilic
C. heterotrophs
B. facultative anaerobes
C. heterotrophs
D. autotroph
Bacteria that require low concentrations of oxygen for optimal
growth are called...

A. obligate anaerobes C. microaerophilic

B. facultative anaerobes
C. microaerophilic
D. heterotrophs
Biologic testing of bacterial isolates for identification are best done
during the...
D. Log phase
A. Stationary phase
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B. Death/decline phase
C. Lag phase
D. Log phase
Small circular piece of DNA found in the cytoplasm containing
extra genetic material.

A. Nucleoid C. Plasmid
B. Sex pili
C. Plasmid
D. Transposon
The removal or killing of all forms of life.

A. Disinfection
C. Sterilization
B. Sanitation
C. Sterilization
D. Decontamination
Tapwater is disinfected for drinking purposes by the use of...

A. Halogens
A. Halogens
B. Detergents
C. Heavy metals
D. Aldehydes
Routine dilution methods for susceptibility testing determine...
A. MIC
A. MIC
B. MBC
When processing is to be delayed for more than 4 days and
freezing is necessary, specimens are frozen using non-defrosting
freezers at...
B. -70 C
A. -50 C
B. -70 C
C. -80 C
D. -4 C
When performing broth dilution techniques for susceptibility test-
ing, the MIC corresponds to the...
B. last tube without visible growth
A. first tube with visible growth
B. last tube without visible growth
Antimicrobial resistance resulting from the normal genetic, struc-
tural, or physiologic state of a microorganism.
B. Intrinsic resistance
A. Acquired resistance
B. Intrinsic resistance
McFarland turbidity standards are prepared by mixing.

A. Barium sulfate and hydrochloric acid

D. Barium chloride and sulfuric acid
B. None of the choices
C. Sodium chloride and sulfuric acid
D. Barium chloride and sulfuric acid
The following are components of a gram-positive cell wall, EX-
CEPT:

A. Peptidoglycan D. Lipopolysaccharide
B. Lipoteichoic acid
C. Teichoic acid
D. Lipopolysaccharide
The turbidity of 0.5 McFarland standard is equivalent to...

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A. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL
B. 1.0 x 10^7 CFU/mL
A. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL
C. 1.0 x 10^5 CFU/mL
D. 1.5 x 10^6 CFU/mL
Which of the following tests will differentiate between Enterococ-
cus sp. and group D Streptococcus?

A. Modified oxidase D. PYR hydrolysis

B. Bile solubility
C. Bile esculin
D. PYR hydrolysis
An isolate is readily identified as member of family Streptococ-
caceae when the following characteristics are satisfied:
1. Gram-positive cocci
2. Catalase negative
3. Modified oxidase positive
4. Catalase positive C. 1 & 2

A. 2 & 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1 & 2
D. 1 & 4
All of the following are true for Neisseria, EXCEPT:

A. None of the choices

B. Cytochrome oxidase negative
B. Cytochrome oxidase negative
C. Catalase positive
D. Gram-negative diplococci
A self-limiting form of food-poisoning associated with a preformed
toxin and has typical incubation period of 2-8 hours after ingestion
of contaminated food associated with...
C. Staphylococcus aureus
A. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Enteroinvasive E. coli
The following may be found as part of normal flora, EXCEPT:

A. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Viridans streptococcus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Neisseria meningitidis
The most common cause of UTI:

A. S. saprophyticus
B. E. coli
B. E. coli
C. S. pneumoniae
D. S. epidermidis
Enterobacteriaceae will grow on the following media, EXCEPT:

A. Blood agar
D. Chocolate agar
B. None of the choices
C. MacConkey agar
D. Chocolate agar

Which S. aureus virulence factor binds Fc portions of im-

munoglobulins?
C. Protein A
A. M protein
B. Pili

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C. Protein A
D. Coagulase
Positive growth and fermenting in MSA is used to confirm the
identity of...

A. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Enterococcus faecalis
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Also known as Group B Streptococcus:

A. Enterococcus faecium
C. S. agalactiae
B. S. pneumoniae
C. S. agalactiae
D. S. pyogenes
The red rash seen in scarlet fever is due to the production of...

A. Hyaluronidase
C. Erythrogenic toxin
B. Streptolysin O
C. Erythrogenic toxin
D. Epidermolytic toxin
Swarming of colonies on non-selective media like BA is charac-
teristics of which bacteria?

A. Proteus mirabilis A. Proteus mirabilis

B. Serratia marcescens
C. Providencia rettgeri
D. Morganiella morganii
Enhanced hemolysis in the shape of an arrowhead is a positive
reaction for which of the following tests?

A. CAMP A. CAMP
B. MUG
C. Taxo A
D. Taxo P
The Sereny test is used to detect the virulence of which Es-
cherichia coli strain?

A. EHEC D. EIEC
B. ETEC
C. EAEC
D. EIEC
Sereny test may be used to determine the virulence of...

A. All of the choices

B. Shigella
B. Shigella
C. Klebsiella
D. Salmonella
After 18-24 hours of inoculation, a NLF enteric will exhibit what
pattern in the TSI tube?

A. A/A B. K/A
B. K/A
C. K/NC
D. K/K
The Staphaurex test detects:
C. Both
A. Coagulase
B. Protein A
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C. Both
D. Neither
Which of the following strains attach to the surface of intestinal
cells causing damage to the microvilli?

A. VTEC B. EPEC
B. EPEC
C. O157:H7
D. ETEC
Calculi formation is associated with UTI in infections with...

A. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Proteus mirabilis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
Calculi formation is associated with UTI in infections with (PRE-
VIOUS ANSWER) and is due to the pH altering effect of the action
of...
D. Urease
A. Tryptophanase
B. Coagulase
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Urease
Black Death, a pandemic that killed 25 million Europeans is as-
sociated with...

A. Shigella dysenteriae C. Yersinia pestis

B. Salmonella typhi
C. Yersinia pestis
D. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
Mineral oil is overlayed over the broth media to provide an anaer-
obic environment for...

A. Indole test B. Moeller decarboxylase

B. Moeller decarboxylase
C. LIA
D. MR-VP
The following parameters can be evaluated using LIA, EXCEPT:

A. Motility
A. Motility
B. Lysine decarboxylation
C. H2S production
D. Lysine deamination
Positive lysine deamination is indicated by...

A. red butt
C. red slant
B. purple slant
C. red slant
D. yellow butt
A gram(+) cocci, catalase(-), alpha hemolytic, bile solubility neg-
ative was isolated. What should be your next step?

A. Perform PYR hydrolysis D. Perform Bile esculin

B. Perform CAMP test
C. Perform Taxo P
D. Perform Bile esculin
What is the reagent used for the tube coagulase test?

A. Plasma
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B. NSS
C. Serum A. Plasma
D. H2O2
From an infected surgical site, lactose fermenting organisms were
isolated on EMB. After performing biochemical tests, the isolate
demonstrated a negative oxidase, negative indole, positive citrate,
positive VP, negative motility, and an A/A in KIA. What is most
probable identity of the isolate?
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
A. Enterobacter cloacae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
Purple colonies were observed growing on EMB. Which of the
following tests is best performed before processing with other
biochemical tests?
C. Indole test
A. TSI
B. Catalase
C. Indole test
D. Cytochrome oxidase
Yersinia pestis is transmitted via the bite of a...

A. Rat flea
A. Rat flea
B. Aedes mosquito
C. Anopheles mosquito
D. Deer fly
Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) may result as a complication
of an infection with...

A. EHEC A. EHEC
B. ETEC
C. EIEC
D. EPEC
The following are zoonotic infections, EXCEPT:

A. Bubonic plague
C. Typhoid fever
B. Salmonellosis
C. Typhoid fever
D. None of the choices
The CTA-CHO utilization test is useful in identifying...

A. Catalase-positive, Gram-positive bacilli

D. Oxidase-positive, Gram-negative diplococci
B. Catalase-negative, Gram-positive cocci
C. Oxidase-negative, Gram-negative bacilli
D. Oxidase-positive, Gram-negative diplococci
M protein is in part responsible for the pathogenesis of...

A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

C. Rheumatic heart disease
B. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Hemolytic uremic syndrome

A male patient consulted a doctor with the following complaints: a

purulent urethral discharge and painful urination characterized by
a burning sensation. A gram-stained smear of the discharge re-
vealed numerous pus cells with intracellular Gram-negative diplo- C. Gonorrhea
cocci. Which of the following is most consistent with the findings?*

A. UTI caused by S. epidermidis

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B. Culture must be performed
C. Gonorrhea
D. UTI caused by E. coli
Hydrogen sulfide production in TSI is indicated by...*

A. splitting of the agar

B. black precipitates
B. black precipitates
C. All of the choices
D. yellow butt
The CAMP factor enhances the hemolytic ability of...*

A. Streptolysin S
B. Beta lysin
B. Beta lysin
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Streptolysin O
Prodigiosin, a pink to red pigment, is produced by which bacte-
ria?*

A. Morganella morganii C. Serratia marcescens

B. Providencia rettgeri
C. Serratia marcescens
D. Proteus mirabilis
The indole broth test detects which bacterial enzyme?*

A. Alanine deaminase
B. Tryptophanase
B. Tryptophanase
C. Beta-galactosidase
D. Hyaluronidas
The candle extinction jar is used to create an environment that
is...*

A. Halophilic B. Microaerophilic
B. Microaerophilic
C. Capnophilic
D. Anaerobic
The yellow color seen in the Moeller decarboxylase control
tube is due to...

A. amino acid decarboxylation A. amino acid decarboxylation

B. carbohydrate fermentation
C. amino acid deamination
D. indole production
Which bacterial enzyme is known as spreading factor?*

A. Tryptophanase
C. Hyaluronidase
B. Catalase
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Coagulase
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Shigella
dysentery?

A. Low infective dose (less than 200 bacilli) C. Stool specimens will have no pus cells
B. None of the choices
C. Stool specimens will have no pus cells
D. Isolates are Sereny test positive
The following results wre obtained from an alpha hemolytic isolate
on BAP.
Gram(+) cocci
Bile solubility(-)
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Bile esculin(-)
Catalase(-)
Optochin(R)
Which of the following organisms is consistent with the observa-
tions?*
C. Viridans streptococci
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Enterococcus sp.
C. Viridans streptococci
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Even in low numbers, isolation of this organism from a urine
sample of a female patient is still clinically significant.

A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Streptococcus
Clearing of the bacterial suspension after incubation in Na deoxy-
cholate is a positive reaction for a streptococci?

A. S. agalactiae B. S. pneumoniae
B. S. pneumoniae
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. S. pyogenes
Bipolar staining with methylene blue is characteristic of
which genus?

A. Yersinia A. Yersinia
B. Neisseria
C. Citrobacter
D. Providencia
Group D streptococci and Enterococcus posses similar Lancefield
antigens.
True
True
False
The following can be evaluated based on the colony morphology
of an isolate in EMB, EXCEPT:

A. Lactose fermentation B. H2S production

B. H2S production
C. Both
D. Neither
Which of the following morphologies best describe Streptococcus
pneumoniae.

A. Lancet shaped diplococci A. Lancet shaped diplococci

B. Kidney bean-shaped diplococci
C. Bipolar staining rods
D. None of the choices
Based on the following observations, what is the most probable
identity of the isolate?
TSI = K/AG - H2S
MR = positive
Citrate = negative
B. Salmonella typhi
Indole = negative
VP = negative

A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Salmonella typhi
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C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Escherichia coli
Staphylococci are...

A. Gram-negative bacilli
C. Gram-positive cocci
B. Gram-positive bacilli
C. Gram-positive cocci
D. Gram-negative cocci
Which of the following biochemical test characteristics should
prompt a technologist to perform the OF test on an isolate identi-
fied as a Gram(-) bacillus?
D. TSI = K/NC
A. Indole(-)
B. Oxidase(+)
C. No growth on Mac
D. TSI = K/NC
Which of the following characteristics is a clue to the
presence of a fastidious Gram(-) bacillus?

A. Growth on BA only D. Growth on Mac

B. TSI = K/K
C. Oxidase(+)
D. Growth on Mac
This toxin causes the accumulation of CAMP in intestinal cells
leading to the significant loss of water and electrolytes.

A. Diphtheria toxin D. Choleragen

B. Anthrax toxin
C. Listeriolysin O
D. Choleragen
This organism may be identified as a large spore-forming Gram(+)
bacillus that is positive for lecithinase and gelatin liquefaction.

A. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae C. Bacillus anthracis

B. Nocardia brasiliense
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Campylobacter jejuni
This Gram(+) bacillus typically demonstrate branching
filamentous forms that may be mistaken for fungal hyphae.

A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

B. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Nocardia brasiliense
The KL virulence agar is used to test for...

A. X & V factor requirements

D. Diphtheria toxin production
B. Kanagawa phenomenon
C. Cholera toxin production
D. Diphtheria toxin production
If the test from KL virulence agar yields a negative result, the
organism then is...
A. Campylobacter
A. Campylobacter
B. Helicobacter
The LOS of Haemophilus influenza is an important
virulence factor that enables it to persist in the respiratory
epithelium by...

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A. facilitating invasiveness
B. inactivating IgA
A. facilitating invasiveness
C. paralyzing the ciliary motion
D. adhering to the cell surface
Biogroups designated as Classic and El Tor are
responsible for epidemics caused by...

A. Vibrio cholerae 01 A. Vibrio cholerae 01

B. Bacillus cereus
C. Vibrio cholerae 0139
D. Legionella pneumophila
Which of the following is resistant to smoking, salting, and pick-
ling?

A. Vibrio cholerae D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Francisella tularensis
D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
The diarrheal form of Bacillus cereus food poisoning is most
commonly associated with the consumption of...

A. seafood D. meat & poultry

B. milk & dairy products
C. fried rice
D. meat & poultry
Acinetobacter can be easily differentiated from Pseudomonas by
a ...

A. negative oxidase A. negative oxidase

B. positive catalase
C. negative catalase
D. negative urease
The string test is used for the presumptive identification of an
oxidase(+), glucose fermenting Gram(-) bacillus as...

A. Vibrio A. Vibrio
B. Acinetobacter
C. Campylobacter
D. Bacillus
The string test uses which of the following reagents?

A. Ehrlich's reagent
D. Na deoxycholate
B. Penicillin
C. Paraffin
D. Na deoxycholate
Clinical samples suspected to yield Haemophilus spp. must be
inoculated in...

A. Chocolate Agar A. Chocolate Agar

B. Blood Agar
C. MacConkey Agar
D. Tinsdale Agar
This organism produces a purple pigment and is associated with
skin infections via contaminated soil or water.

A. Pasteurella multocida C. Chromobacterium violaceum

B. Vibrio vulnificus
C. Chromobacterium violaceum
D. Vibrio alginolyticus

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The test for Chromobacterium violaceum

A. Lecithinase test
D. Elek test
B. Paraffin bait test
C. String of Pearl test
D. Elek test
A few days after a hunting trip, a man suffered from ulcerative
lesions on his arms with accompanying swelling of the lymph
nodes. Which of the following bacteria is the likely agent?
B. Francisella tularensis
A. Legionella pneumophila
B. Francisella tularensis
C. Brucella melitensis
D. Pasteurella multocida
Plesiomonas shigelloides is serologically cross-reactive with...

A. Shigella sonnei
A. Shigella sonnei
B. Shigella boydii
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Shigella flexneri
Gram-negative bacilli, isolated in Mac and BA, oxidase-
positive.

A. Bacillus C. Haemophilus
B. Vibrio
C. Haemophilus
D. Pasteurella
All of the following are gram-negative bacilli, EXCEPT:

A. Haemophilus
C. Bacillus
B. Pasteurella
C. Bacillus
D. Vibrio
The urea breath test is used to monitor patients with...

A. C. jejuni
C. H. pylori
B. B. anthracis
C. H. pylori
D. C. diphtheriae
The genes coding for this toxin is acquired via the lysogenic
cycle of the ß-phage.

A. Endotoxin C. Diphtheria toxin

B. Cholera toxin
C. Diphtheria toxin
D. Epidermolysin
Enrichment using alkaline peptone water is used for the effective
isolation of...

A. Haemophilus spp. C. Vibrio spp.

B. Pseudomonas sp.
C. Vibrio spp.
D. Campylobacter sp
Medusa head colonies are characteristics of which organism?

A. Vibrio cholerae
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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A patient recovering from a surgery developed hospital-
acquired pneumonia. A sputum sample was submitted to
the laboratory for bacterial culture. The following results
were observed:
Dark gray colonies on EMB
Cytochrome Oxidase positive
K/NC in TSI
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Based on the information above, which of the following is a
possible agent?

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Acinetobacter fowlii
C. Haemophilus influenza
D. Nocardia asteroides
Which of the following is an acid-fast organism?

A. Pasteurella
D. Nocardia
B. Aeromonas
C. Vibrio
D. Nocardia
Although actually susceptible to gastric acidity, this organism is
able to penetrate deep underneath the mucus layer of the stomach
where it is able to survive.
D. Helicobacter pylori
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Haemophilus influenza
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Helicobacter pylori
Which of the following is the correct positive reaction for the
vibriostat test?

A. Mucoid stringing A. Mucoid stringing

B. Purple color
C. White opacity
D. Zone of inhibition
The positive lecithinase reaction is indicated by a
______________...

A. Purple color B. White opacity

B. White opacity
C. Zone of inhibition
D. Mucoid stringing
Lecithinase test is done on which agar medium??

A. Mueller-Hinton
D. Egg Yolk Agar
B. KL virulence agar
C. Tinsdale
D. Egg Yolk Agar
Bacillus anthracis produces an inverted pine tree pattern in...

A. Motility medium
C. Gelatin liquefaction
B. Lead acetate medium
C. Gelatin liquefaction
D. Hanging drop

This Gram(-) bacillus is considered the most common cause of

bacterial gastroenteritis in the US.
B. Campylobacter jejuni
A. Brucella melitensis
B. Campylobacter jejuni

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C. Vibrio cholera
D. Helicobacter pylori
A patient presents with gastroenteritis manifesting as abdominal
cramps and diarrhea. If stool culture is to be performed using only
routine selective-differential media for Gram-negative bacilli (Mac,
EMB, XLD), which of the following organisms will not be able to
grow using the described technique?
1. Vibrio cholera
2. Aeromonas hydrophila
3. Bacillus cereus B. 4 only
4. Campylobacter jejuni

A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 4 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 and 4
A patient presents with gastroenteritis manifesting as abdominal
cramps and diarrhea. Culture revealed no significant Gram-neg-
ative organisms using routine and special culture techniques.
Which of the following may be considered?
A. Vibrio cholera
A. Vibrio cholera
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Aeromonas hydrophila
D. Bacillus cereus
Which of the following will stain easily and can be viewed under
brightfield microscopy?

A. Leptospira B. Borrelia
B. Borrelia
C. Treponema
D. Listeria
N-acetyl-L-cysteine is used as a...
A. Digestant
A. Digestant
B. Decontaminant
N-acetyl-L-cysteine is most commonly used in combination with

A. Oxalic acid
D. NaOH
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Zephiran
D. NaOH
N-acetyl-L-cysteine is used when preparing smears for the detec-
tion of...

A. Chlamydia pneumoniae C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

B. Treponema pallidum
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Clostridium perfringens
The etiologic agent of relapsing fever.

A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Borrelia recurrentis
B. Rickettsia prowazekii
C. Borrelia recurrentis
D. Chlamydia psittas

The semiquantitative catalase test for mycobacteria is performed

with...

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A. Middlebrook agar
B. LJ deep tubes
B. LJ deep tubes
C. Fletcher's medium
D. EYA
A double zone of hemolysis an anaerobic blood agar is typical of...

A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Clostridium psittasi

B. Clostridium psittasi
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
Which of the following is infectious?

A. Reticulate body
B. Elementary body
B. Elementary body
C. Both
D. Neither
Also known as PPLO or Eaton agent.

A. Chlamydia pneumoniae
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Ureaplasma urealyticum
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
The lecithinase and lipase reactions are observed in...

A. PEA
C. EYA
B. CCFA
C. EYA
D. BRU/BA
Which of the following is transmitted by ixodes ticks?

A. Borrelia burgdorferi
A. Borrelia burgdorferi
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Chlamydia pneumoniae
D. Borrelia recurrentis
Which of the following demonstrates "fried egg" colonies when
grown on solid media?

A. Rickettsia C. Mycoplasma
B. Chlamydia
C. Mycoplasma
D. Clostridium
The BCG vaccine is made of avirulent...

A. M. bovis
A. M. bovis
B. M. tuberculosis
C. MAC
D. M. leprae
Which of the following is true about tetanospasmin?

A. Produced by bacterial spores

C. Produces spastic paralysis
B. Enterotoxin
C. Produces spastic paralysis
D. Inhibits muscle contraction
Selective and differential media of choice for the isolation of C.
difficile.

A. CCFA A. CCFA
B. PPLO
C. BBE
D. EYA

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Which of the following is true about the lipase reaction?

A. Indescent multicolored sheen

A. Indescent multicolored sheen
B. None of the choices
C. Positive with C. tetani
D. Observed on CCFA
The BACTEC system detects bacterial growth by detecting...

A. turbidity
D. All of the choices
B. liberated 14CO2
C. increase in pH
D. All of the choices
The following are indications of the presence or growth of anaer-
obes, EXCEPT:

A. Double zone of hemolysis D. Acid-fast organism in smear

B. Bile esculin positive growth in BBE plate
C. Foul odor
D. Acid-fast organism in smear
The following specimen submitted for AFB culture will
require either decontamination or digestion, EXCEPT:

A. Blood C. None of the choices

B. Autopsy tissue
C. None of the choices
D. Urine
How many fields should at least be examined before
reporting a negative AFB smear?

A. 500 HPF B. 300 OIF

B. 300 OIF
C. 500 OIF
D. 300 HPF
Which form of leprosy demonstrates spontaneous recovery?
B. Tuberculoid
A. Lepromatous
B. Tuberculoid
The browning of the media immediately surrounding the
colonies is positive for...

A. Esculin hydrolysis in BBE C. Lecithinase in EMB

B. Lecithinase in EYA
C. Lecithinase in EMB
D. Lipase in EYA
All anaerobic chambers contain the following, EXCEPT:

A. Nitrogen gas
C. pH indicator
B. Catalyst
C. pH indicator
D. Hydrogen gas
Mycobacterium that produces carotene when incubated in the
absence of light.
B. Potochromogen
A. Scotochromogen
B. Potochromogen
C. Nonchromogen
The results obtained in the semi-quantitative catalase test for
Mycobacterium are reported as...

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A. Titer
B. Positive or negative
D. Greater or less than 45mm
C. Resistance or susceptible
D. Greater or less than 45mm
Catalase heat stability can be evaluated by pre-heating the
bacterial suspension in...

A. 121 C 15mins B. 30 C 20mins

B. 30 C 20mins
C. 68 C 20mins
D. 48 C 30mins
Which two anaerobic bacteria fluoresce under the Wood's
lamp?

A. Prevotella and Propionibacterium D. Bacteroides and Porphyromonas

B. Propionibacterium and Peptostreptococcus
C. Porphyromonas and Prevotella
D. Bacteroides and Porphyromonas
The following statements are TRUE regarding collection of bac-
teriology specimen, EXCEPT:

A. The usual flora should be avoided

C. Collection should be done after administration of antibiotics
B. Specimen container should be sterile
C. Collection should be done after administration of antibiotics
D. Specimen should be collected during the acute phase of infec-
tion
The optimum temperance for the storage of specimen such
as urine, catheters, swab, and viral blood specimen is

A. 37 C D. 4 C
B. -70 C
C. 25 C
D. 4 C
Which staining method uses heat to facilitate staining?

A. Gram stain method

D. Ziehl-Neelsen method
B. Kinyoun method
C. All of the above
D. Ziehl-Neelsen method
Which stain is used to observe Babes-Ernst granules in
Corynebacterium?

A. Acridine orange D. Methylene blue

B. Safranin red
C. Auramine-rhodamine
D. Methylene blue
Prompt transportation and processing (w/in 10 mins.) are vital for
maximum recovery of which fastidious gram negative bacillus?

A. Mycobacterium B. Haemophilus
B. Haemophilus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Acinetobacter

A culture medium that contains inhibitory substances such as

antibiotics.
A. Selective medium
A. Selective medium
B. Enrichment broth

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C. Enriched medium
D. Differential medium
Thayer Martin agar, Martin Lewis agar and New York City agar are
selective media for which organism?

A. Mycobacterium B. Neisseria
B. Neisseria
C. Chlamydophila
D. Haemophilus
Which of the following agar medium should be prepared
without autoclaving:

A. Bile Esculin Agar C. Xylose Lysine Deoxycholate Agar

B. Mannitol Salt Agar
C. Xylose Lysine Deoxycholate Agar
D. Brain Heart Infusion Agar
Which medium can recover Salmonella and Shigella from stool?

A. All of the following

A. All of the following
B. XLD agar
C. Sel-F broth
D. HE agar
Compared to blood agar media, chocolate agar favors the
growth of which organism?

A. Facultative bacteria D. Highly fastidious bacteria

B. Anaerobic bacteria
C. Hemolytic bacteria
D. Highly fastidious bacteria
Some bacteria are considered pleomorphic. This means:*

A. They do not have just one shape

A. They do not have just one shape
B. They are neither bacilli nor cocci
C. They have a corkscrew shape
D. They are shaped like bent rods
Which organism gives a "safety-pin" appearance when stained
with methylene blue?*

A. Campylobacter jejuni C. Yersinia pestis

B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Yersinia pestis
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
Gram positive cells:*

A. Have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal

violet stain B. Have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal
B. Have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain
violet stain
C. Have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet
D. Have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain
What would be the appearance of the gram-negative organism
after flooding the smear with acetone-alcohol?*

A. Colorless A. Colorless
B. Blue
C. Purple
D. Pink
A bacillus bacterium with a single flagellum at each end is
described as:
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A. Ampitrichous
B. Lophotrichous A. Ampitrichous
C. Monotrichous
D. Peritrichous
What is the term used to describe the colonial growth of Bacillus
anthracis?*

A. Spider appearance C. Medusa head appearance

B. Bread crumbs appearance
C. Medusa head appearance
D. Fried egg appearance
A non-fermenting organism which produces green metallic
sheen on BA:

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Escherichia coli

B. Escherichia coli
C. Both
D. Neither
This selective medium contains 7.5% NaCl which inhibits most
g(-) and g(+) bacteria. The fermentation of a certain sugar found in
this medium turns the medium yellow in the presence of S. aureus.
Which medium is it?*
C. MSA
A. CAN
B. PEA
C. MSA
D. BEA
This genus is distinct in producing prodigiosin which turns the
culture medium red especially when cultures are left at room
temperature.*
D. Serratia marcescens
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Enterobacter sakazakii
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Serratia marcescens
Which facultative anaerobe organism produces spider colonies
during the first week then becoming "molar tooth" colonies in the
subsequent weeks?
A. Actinomyces
A. Actinomyces
B. Vibrio
C. Plesiomonas
D. Pasteurella
In order to speciate a swarming Proteus organism found on eosin
methylene blue agar plate, the best approach would be to*

A. Inoculate to a 4% agar plate and subculture to MacConkey's C. Determine indole production, phenylalanine and urease activity
B. Determine motility and lysine decarboxylase activity
C. Determine indole production, phenylalanine and urease activity
D. Determine utilization of sodium acetate and citrate
Neufield Quellung reaction is used in the diagnosis of infection
caused by which organism?*

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae A. Streptococcus pneumoniae

B. Haemophilus influenza
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Neisseria meningitidis

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A positive Microdase test is observed for:*

A. Bubbles
B. Purple color
B. Purple color
C. Agglutination
D. Red color
Which organism is described as moist and mucoid colonies
in EMB and will give an IMVC reaction of - - + +?

A. E. coli C. K. pneumoniae
B. P. vulgaris
C. K. pneumoniae
D. S. enterica
The String test is applicable in the presumptive diagnosis of
gastroenteritis caused by:*

A. Vibrio cholerae A. Vibrio cholerae

B. Plesiomonas shigelloides
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Salmonella typhi
The following organism will give a TSH fermentation result of A/A,
EXCEPT:*

A. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Proteus vulgaris

B. Escherichia coli
C. Enterobacter cloacae
D. Proteus vulgaris
The characteristics of being lactose negative, citrate negative,
urease negative, lysine decarboxylase negative, and nonmotile
best describe which organism?*
B. Shigella dysenteriae
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Shigella dysenteriae
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Salmonella typhi
Enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is
responsible for causing

A. Carbuncles A. Carbuncles
B. Enterocolitis
C. Scalded skin syndrome
D. Staphylococcal pneumonia
Urea breath test is recommended for monitoring therapy of
patients infected with:

A. H. pylori A. H. pylori
B. C. jejuni
C V. parahaemolyticus
D. All of the above
The etiologic agent of Pontiac fever is*

A. Corynebacterium diphtheria
C. Legionella pneumophila
B. Francisella tularensis
C. Legionella pneumophila
D. Brucella melitensis

The potentially lethal intoxication type of food poisoning associ-

ated with improperly canned food is caused by*
B. Clostridium botulinum
A. Bacillus cereus

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B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Growth in 6.5% sodium chloride and the hydrolysis of esculin are
tests for*

A. Viridans streptococci B. Enterococci

B. Enterococci
C. Pneumococci
D. Group B streptococc
A Vietnamese veteran who visited a doctor waws diagnosed with
melioidosis, the causative agent of this disease is*

A. Burkholderia pseudomallei A. Burkholderia pseudomallei

B. Nocardia asteroides
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Bacillus anthracis
Shigella sonnei is differentiated from the other species of
Shigella by

A. Its ability to ferment lactose A. Its ability to ferment lactose

B. Its positive PAD reaction
C. Its negative oxidase reaction
D. Its ability to demonstrate motility at 42 C
Which of the following conditions can be caused by Ple-
siomonas?*

A. Osteomyelitis C. Gastroenteritis
B. Pneumonia
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Endocarditis
A presumptive test for the identification of respiratory
disease caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae is the

A. Cold agglutinin test A. Cold agglutinin test

B. Weil-Felix test
C. ASO test
D. Capsular swelling test
Precipitates of diphtheria toxin and antitoxin formed in agar gels
are an in vitro means for detecting toxigenic strains of Corynebac-
terium diphtheriae. The name of this test procedure is
C. Elek test
A. Epsilomer test
B. Shick's test
C. Elek test
D. CAMP test
McFarland 0.5 Standard is composed of

A. 99.5 mL 1% sulfuric acid and 0.5 mL 1.175% potassium chlo-

ride
B. 99.5 mL 1% phosphoric acid and 0.5 mL 1.175% barium D. 99.5 mL 1% sulfuric acid and 0.5 mL 1.175% barium chloride
chloride
C. 99.5 mL 1% phosphoric acid and 0.5 mL 1.175% potassium
chloride
D. 99.5 mL 1% sulfuric acid and 0.5 mL 1.175% barium chloride

Which of the following tests is used to determine the minimal

inhibitory concentration?
D. All of the above
A. Agar dilution tests

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B. Broth macrodilution tests
C. Broth microdilution tests
D. All of the above
How will you perform disk diffusion susceptibility test for a
fastidious organism such as Haemophilus spp?

A. Add sheep's blood to MH B. Use chocolate agar

B. Use chocolate agar
C. Add X and V factors to MH
D. Use Quad plates

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