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FIELD OF SPECIALIZATION - 150 ITEMS

MAJOR IN ENGLISH

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. Which approach to language teaching anchors on the behaviorist assumption that language learning is
the acquisition of a set of correct language habits and whose goal is to use the target language
communicatively, over learn it, so as to be able to use it automatically?
a. Direct method c. Grammar – translation method
b. Audio – lingual method d. Suggestopedia

2. The content of the language teaching in this type of syllabus is a collection of specific abilities that may
play a part in using language. Which is referred to?
a. Task – based syllabus c. National – function syllabus
b. Skill – based syllabus d. Content – based syllabus

3. A teaching practice which is compatible with Communicative Approach is one that ____________.
a. Gives priority to oral proficiency
b. Addresses the needs of the target learners
c. Follows the listen – speak – read – write sequence of skills
d. Derives and makes explicit the grammatical rules of the language

4. The primary aim of second language teaching using the audio – lingual method is _____________.
a. Oral proficiency c. Reading comprehension
b. Literary appreciation d. Vocabulary development

5. Which of the following concepts is/are correctly defined?

I. A curriculum includes the philosophy, purposes, design and implementation of a whole
program.
II. A course is an integrated series of teaching learning experiences, whose ultimate aim is
to lead the learners to a particular state of knowledge.
III. A syllabus is the specification and ordering of content of a course or courses.

a. I and II only c. I, II, and III

b. I only d. II only

6. The k to 12 language teaching in secondary school cam be described are as follows, except
a. Focuses on common areas of difficulty in grammar
b. Is literature – based and genre- focused
c. Uses culminating performance tasks
d. Use literary and informative texts

7. A plan of what to be achieved through the teaching and learning process which contain the course
description, objectives, the prerequisites, the requirements, and the topic to be taught is the
__________________.
a. Lesson plan c. Curriculum guide
b. Course outline d. Course syllabus

8. When decoding multisyllabic words, what do students need to know?

I. What is syllable
II. Read the word by combining the part
III. That a syllable contains one vowel sounds
 IV. How to divide the words in parts and each part

a. I, II, III, and IV c. I, III and IV

b. II and III d. I and II

9. Which is not a variable of functioning grammar?

a. Tenor is concerned with the nature of the relationship among the people involved.
b. Field which represents the content or topic of the social activity.
c. Mode is the medium and role of language in the situation.
d. Term which represents the role of the interlocutors.

10. Which of the following K to 12 features of English language teaching in secondary level is not true?
a. Common errors included in standard and international English proficiency tests.
b. Focus on common areas of difficulty in grammar.
c. Sequential teaching of language forms.
d. Use of literary and information texts.

11. An important step in ensuring the relevance of the instructional materials to the rest of the curriculum is
to keep a list of ______________.
a. Curriculum standard c. Goals and objectives of the curriculum
b. Policies issued by DepEd d. Visions and mission of the school

12. To enhance the power of the mind, learners read literary text in the target language and memorize
vocabulary list translated into the native language. Explicit grammar instruction of rules and their
exceptions is the main focus to master the target language. What is this approach?
a. Audio – lingual approach c. Grammar – translation approach
b. Natural approach d. Direct approach

13. Which of the following is a manifestation of covert grammar teaching?

a. Silent way c. Communicative language teaching
b. Audio lingual method d. Task based language teaching

14. The aspect of communicative competence that deals with the appropriate use of communication and
coping strategies is known as ___________ competence.
a. Strategic competence c. Sociolinguistic competence
b. Discourse competence d. Grammatical competence

15. The study of ways in which non – native speakers acquire, comprehend, and use linguistic patterns of
speech acts in a second language is known as ______________.
a. Intra – language variety c. Inter – language pragmatics
b. Contrastive rhetoric d. Jargonized expression

16. The word “off” function as an adverbial particle in which structure?

a. We put it off too long. c. Their on and off relationship.
b. Off with you! d. You’re off the hook.

17. Which of the following is an example of a sentence fragment?

a. Quit it c. A family just move in
b. They fought d. The boy and girl’s uncle

18. What is the function of the underlined constituent in the following sentence: “Josh dreads wild animals
in the zoo.”?
a. Optional modifier c. Optional complement
b. Indirect object d. Obligatory complement

19. Which of the following statements best qualities as a “complex” sentence?

a. Len likes her new house, but she doesn’t like the front yard.
b. Don’t make any comment unless you are fully aware of the issue.
 c. You can wallow in your miseries or you can start over and move on.
d. I didn’t start this dispute and I don’t want to have anything to do with it.

20. Which of the following sentence structure is “syntactically ambiguous”?

a. The valet looks imposing in his purple velvet vest.
b. The columnist writes feature articles on antique writing desks.
c. The mayor invited all city hall employees to his birthday dinner.
d. The man with a tall hat sits rather uncomfortably at the dinner table.

21. “All the bitterness melted out of him suddenly and the world renewed itself out of the youth and
happiness that was all around him, PROLIFERATE as the spring sunshine.” The capitalized word means
___________.
a. Openly c. Superfluous
b. Brightly d. Over – abundant

22. The following sentences are considered ungrammatical except ___________.

a. Nadine has lived with her parents for ten years.
b. Samuel has bought it last Monday.
c. I’m believing you!
d. Help! I will fall.

23. This sentence structure contains a “ditransitive verb group”.

a. Alex hates huge spiders. c. Alex has turned a subtle shade of red.
b. Alex had replied to my letter. d. Alex is giving his boss a headache.

24. Which approach to grammar refers to the structure of a language as it is actually used by speakers and
writers?
a. Prescriptive grammar c. Pedagogical grammar
b. Reference grammar d. Descriptive grammar

25. Which is correct description of motif in literary writing?

a. The element of surprise in a work of fiction, such as twist ending.
b. The main insight, central idea, or universal truth found in a literary work.
c. An image or idea repeated throughout a work or several works of literature.
d. The writing style adopted by the author which is revealed in his/her word choice.

26. The summary of main points of a text, lecture, or course of study is referred to as:
a. Unit plan c. Subject framework
b. Lesson exemplar d. Course outline

27. What stylistics device was employed in “And breaths were gathering sure/for that last onset, when the
king/Be witnessed in his power” (Emily Dickinson)?
a. Irony c. Paradox
b. Oxymoron d. Antithesis

28. Which of the following exemplifies the device “allusion”?

a. Death, be not proud c. Philippines, O, Pearl of the Orient
b. Not yet, Rizal, not yet d. Shakespeare is a literary titan

29. In applying passive voice, which should you use on an official signage. Beyond this point, pedestrian
should permit to go.
a. Pedestrians are not permitted beyond this point.
b. Beyond this point, do not permit pedestrians.
c. Do not permit pedestrian beyond this point.

30. What device did Alexander Pope use in the excerpt “Here thou, great Anna, whom the realms obey/
dost sometimes counsel take, and sometimes tea”?
a. Paradox c. Anticlimax
b. Oxymoron d. Irony
31. Which of the following is the focus of medieval literary period?
a. Divine and spiritual c. Secular and individualistic
b. Aesthetic and social d. Mundane and symbolic

32. Which of the following does not allow intertextual reading of literature?
a. Marxism criticism c. Post – colonial criticism
b. New criticism d. Feminism criticism

33. Which is characterized by a re – examination and imitation of the classical models, literary styles ad
values of the ancient Greek and Roman authors?
a. Neo – Platonism c. Romanticism
b. Renaissance d. Neoclassicism

34. Which of the following may be accepted by a Reader – Reception critic?

a. All interpretations and meanings are correct.
b. Interpretations can be objective, truthful, and accurate.
c. Interpretations should ultimate be aligned with the author’s intention, not the reader’s
perception.
d. Interpretations are governed by the language and convention of the text, and the literary
competence of the reader.

35. Which is the audience’s ability to remove them from the play so that they can contemplate ad evaluate
the performance?
a. Ideal distance c. Manageable distance
b. Aesthetic distance d. Reasonable distance

36. Which refers to the capacity for some kind of language to be transferred from one language to another
without undergoing radical change?
a. Transferability c. Transfigurability
b. Translatability d. Transformability

37. In the stage acts, which do you use to show comparison?

a. Color c. Syllabication
b. Sound d. Pitch

38. Known as the era of “decadence,” which literary movement was a reaction against realism and
naturalism, and highly structured poetry?
a. Classicism c. Aestheticism
b. Symbolism d. Enlightenment

39. Which emphasizes the hereditary psychological component of characters and experimenting the
connections between human psychology and external environment?
a. Realism c. Neoclassicism
b. Naturalism d. Romanticism

40. Which characterized hermeneutics during the middle ages?

a. Meaning became terribly difficult in literature.
b. Interpretation became significantly important in the field of religion.
c. Invention of literary forms gave rise to the science of interpretation in secular texts.
d. Philosophical ideas were so abstract that people had to invent the science of interpretation.

41. The following are post - colonial critical approaches, except _____________.
a. It recognizes how history shaped the lives and beliefs of people of a former colony.
b. It studies the impact of colonial culture upon a community through literature.
c. It pushes for the appreciation of the literary creativity of the post – modern era.
d. It analyzes how a superior culture influences an inferior community.
42. Which of the following is not a process or principle of formalist criticism?
a. Meaning is the essence of literature.
b. Defamiliarization creates the literary experience.
c. The dominant quality and literary device shape the nature and form of literature.
d. Close reading and non – intertextual interpretation are approaches in the study of literary texts.

43. A word can have associated mental images and feelings. Often these cannot be found by consulting a
dictionary. These are referred to as ___________________.
a. Connotation c. Co – reference
b. Collocation d. Denotation

44. Which of the following relates Psychoanalytic theory in literary criticism?

a. Art is decadent and self – indulging.
b. Literary criticism is giving judgment of the behavior and prejudices of the readers.
c. The text is a rich symbol of the author’s personal and psychological view
d. The literary text is the products of the author’s repressed dreams and fantasies and literary
interpretations is a form of dream interpretation or psychoanalysis.

45. Which approach to literary criticism highlights how meaning, interpretations, frameworks, system, and
structural beliefs break apart?
a. Semiotics c. Post – structuralism
b. Structuralism d. Hermeneutics

46. Which character or force in conflict with a main character, e.g. the extreme cold in Jack London’s “To
Build a Fire?”
a. Antagonist c. Protagonist
b. Hero/heroine d. Supernatural power

47. Which is a body of stories, legends, myths, ballads, songs, riddles, sayings, and other work arising out of
the oral traditions of peoples around the world?
a. Epics c. Folk pop
b. Pop culture d. Folk literature

48. In mythology, Zeus, the ruler of Olympus had two brothers: one who ruled the sea and the other who
ruled the underworld. The two were _____________.
a. Hermes and Ares c. Poseidon and Hades
b. Apollo and Artemis d. Achilles and Aeschylus

49. Three monstrous sisters with snakes for hair, teeth like the tusks of a wild boar, hands of brass and
bodies covered with impenetrable scales. They turned to stone all who looked on them. The most
famous of the three was Medusa. Which is described?
a. Furies c. Gigantes
b. Fates d. Gorgons

50. In Greek mythology, who was the hero who sailed in the long ship Argo to search for the Golden Fleece?
a. Jason c. Achilles
b. Paris d. Ulysses

51. A king of Corinth condemned in the underworld to roll a huge stone up hill. Just as he reached the top,
the stone would roll down, forcing him to begin the task again. Who is referred to?
a. Sphinx c. Sisyphus
b. Stentor d. Spartacus

52. Which of the subject in Mythic history portrayed in “Musee des Beaux Arts” paintings?
a. Iliad and Odyssey c. Farewell of Hector and Andromache
b. Daedalus and Icarus d. Encounter with Polyphemus

53. The following are typical characters of an epic hero, except ____________________.
a. Fame c. Superiority
 b. Bravery d. Immortality

54. Which term borrowed from art criticism and applied to a kind of fiction that mixes realism with flights of
myth and fantasy. It is associated with Latin American writers such as Gabriel Garcia Marquez?
a. Masque c. In medias res
b. Metaphor d. Magic realism
55. In mechanism by which a narrative sequence of events (story) is structure and organized called
________.
a. Plot c. Denouement
b. Point of view d. Literary device

56. Which represents the various social overtones, cultural implications or emotional meanings associated
with a sign?
a. Syntax c. Connotation
b. Denotation d. Euphemism

57. Memoirs, which are first – person accounts of personally or historically significant events, may be
classified under ____________.
a. Fiction c. Drama
b. Biography d. Autobiographical writing

58. A stanza is a group of lines whose metrical pattern is repeated throughout the poem. A stanza of six is
called ___________.
a. Octave c. Couplet
b. Sestet d. Quatrain

59. The following make a good idea for an essay, except ______________.
a. It has probable setting c. It comes with available evidence
b. It is true but arguable d. It is limited enough in scope

60. What difference identifies the eating habits of the typical Filipino of the countryside from the more
affluent city families?
a. Plot c. Character
b. Setting d. Theme

61. His crowning achievement was Aeneid, an epic poem in twelve books recounting the story of Aeneas.
Who is referred to?
a. Virgil c. Euripides
b. Homer d. Aristophanes

62. Essay may be provisional in its appraisal of the subject but unlimited in point of view. Is it true?
a. False c. Maybe
b. True d. None of the above

63. Which among the four basic types of assessment task in speaking requires “parroting” back words,
phrases, and sentences, which student hear?
a. Responsive c. Extensive
b. Imitative d. Interactive

64. To help the student to get to process information received, which of the following expressions should
the teacher model?
a. Asking someone to repeat something (Pardon me, please?)
b. Asking for clarification (What did you say?)
c. Getting someone’s attention (Hey, say. So)
d. Using fillers (Uh, I mean. Hmmm)

65. Which of the following actions should the teacher do in order to encourage the students to participate
in any speaking activity?
 I. Provide an oral or written text/prompt before engaging the learners in the
speaking task.
II. Let the students write reflection about the activity.
III. Ask the students to share their ideas right away.
a. I only c. I, II and III
b. II only d. III only

66. To illustrate the principle, “Encourage the use of authentic language,” which of the following should
teacher avoid?
a. Use labels of any item, community announcements, speeches, etc.
b. Prepare audio – visual aids such as maps, globes, radio, books, references, etc.
c. Provide texts used in a particular discipline such as weather report, news report.
d. Designs tasks such as interviewing for employment purpose, asking information in a particular
place, advertising a product or place, etc.

67. Which strategy is for reading literature where the reader responds to the literary and cultural impact of
the text by identifying images and themes and writing marginal notes about them?
a. Reading c. Highlighting
b. Annotating d. Previewing

68. Literature is language in use, as such: language becomes the medium or the tool of literature. Therefore,
language is ______________.
a. The development of more than linguistic ability.
b. Inseparable from literature.
c. Separable in literature.
d. Beyond literature.

69. “Life is like a roller coaster.” Is an example of what figure of speech?

a. Simile c. Personification
b. Hyperbole d. Metaphor

70. The reading and teaching of literature must yield not only enjoyment but also ____________.
a. Knowledge c. Understanding
b. Pleasure d. Information

71. Which is an approach to literature and the other arts that stresses reason, balance, clarity, ideal beauty
and orderly form in imitation of the arts of ancient Greece and Rome?
a. Imagism c. Classicism
b. Realism d. Romanticism

72. In teaching literature, the task of the teacher is not just to provide the students with information.
Therefore, he/she should not do the following, except ______________.
a. Make a synopsis; dictate notes.
b. Tell what each piece of literature is about.
c. Prescribe the interpretations; do character studies.
d. Enable his/her students to discover for themselves what the work is about; giving
encouragement when and where needed.

73. The curriculum goes through the stages of curriculum planning, curriculum implementation and
evaluation. The production of instructional materials falls under:
a. Planning c. Planning and evaluation
b. Evaluation d. Planning and implementation

74. One prime consideration of instructional materials use is to link the materials to the:
a. Textbook board c. Policies
b. Curriculum d. Textbook issues

75. An important step in ensuring the relevance of the instructional materials to the rest of the curriculum is
to keep a list of ____________.
 a. Goals and objectives of the curriculum
b. Provision in the constitution of the PTA
c. Vision and mission of the school
d. Policies issued by DepEd

76. Which materials are used to help students organize information through the use of a combination of
shapes, figures and lines?
I. Graphic organizer
II. Material organizer
III. Pocket organizer

a. I only c. I, II and III

b. II only d. I and II

77. The reading and teaching of literature must yield not only enjoyment but also _____________.
a. Pleasure c. Understanding
b. Knowledge d. Information

78. Which of the following qualities does not describe a teacher in the preparation, selection and utilization
of instructional materials?
a. Fashionable c. Resourceful
b. Creative d. Culture – sensitive

79. To illustrate the use of a comprehensible input in language teaching to Grade 4 students, the teacher
may use the following, except _____________.
a. Video clip c. Recorded song
b. A journal article d. A written weather report

80. Which among the following best explains what imagery is?
a. The author sends mental images in the reader’s mind using words.
b. Cartoon shows that makes everyone laugh.
c. Expressive picture hanging on the wall.
d. When the author compares two things.

81. One of the prerequisites to entry to university A is based on the general knowledge or skills of the
applicants. Which of the following test types should it administer?
a. Placement test c. Diagnostic test
b. Achievement test d. Proficiency test

82. The effect of testing on teaching and learning is known as _________________.

a. Construct c. Wash back
b. Credibility d. Audability

83. The teacher wants to measure the language abilities of her students using direct testing. Which of the
following is not recommended?
a. Role plays c. Writing letters
b. Close test d. Information gap test

84. The following are examples of discrete point testing, except _____________.
a. Spelling test c. True – False test
b. Yes/No answers d. Writing letters

85. A test pretended to measure pronunciation ability but did not require the test taker to speak might be
thought to lack of ______________.
a. Content validity c. Test – administration reliability
b. Concurrent validity d. Test – rater reliability
86. One of the prerequisites to entry to university A is based on the general knowledge or skills of the
applicants. Which of the following test types should it administer?
a. Placement test c. Diagnostic test
b. Achievement test d. Proficiency test

87. In K to 12 Curriculum, which two types of texts are prescribed to facilitate and enrich learning?
I. Literary text as primary text
II. Informative text as parallel text
III. Literary text as parallel text
IV. Informative text as primary text

a. I and III c. I and II

b. II and IV d. III and IV

88. Which of the following qualities as an authentic material?

a. A list of isolated sentences c. A series of vocabulary words
b. A label of a can good d. A paragraph from the book

89. Which figure of speech uses exaggeration for special effect like: “…Where the corn grows so tall they
have to go up on a ladder to pick the ears off.”?
a. Metaphor c. Onomatopoeia
b. Alliteration d. Hyperbole

90. What instructive principle of right conduct can one draw out from a story?
a. Setting c. Character
b. Plot d. Theme

91. What is a novel about the education and development of the young hero?
a. Allegory c. Bildungsroman
b. Burlesque d. Aestheticism

92. Which type of plot device ends abruptly that the main characters are left in a difficult situation without
offering any resolution or conflict?
a. Anti – hero c. Archetype
b. Foil d. Cliffhanger

93. A figure of speech uses words having sounds that imitate what they donate, e.g. whoosh, bang , buzz?
a. Allusion c. Onomatopoeia
b. Metaphor d. Synecdoche

94. A great deal of the oldest literature of which we have written records in the verse. Which genre of
literature may well be considered the oldest literary form?
a. Essay c. Fiction
b. Poetry d. Drama

95. Which is a figure of speech in which apparently contradictory terms appear in conjunction?
a. Parody c. Metonymy
b. Antithesis d. Oxymoron

96. The following materials are used to activate student’s schema or prior knowledge, except ___________.
a. Story star c. Story impression
b. Opinionaire d. Anticipation guide

97. Which approach in studying literature establishes the relationship of the writer’s life with his work?
a. Mythic c. Biographical
b. Textual d. Psychological
98. Which among the following options best explains what imaginary is?
a. The author sends mental images in the reader’s mind using words.
b. Cartoon shows that makes everyone laugh.
c. Expressive picture hanging on the wall.
d. When the author compares two things.

99. A study on the effectiveness of Communicative Language Teaching deals with what allied discipline?
a. Educating c. Anthropology
b. Sociology d. Psychology

100. A type of comedy based on a far – fetched humorous situation often with ridiculous or
stereotyped character is called _______________.
a. Simile c. Sequel
b. Fable d. Farce

101. In which type of novel are real people represented in the guise of fictional characters?
a. Roman a clef c. Deux ex machine
b. Epistolary novel d. Picaresque novel

102. Which work of Dante Alighiere narrates his journey through Hell (the Inferno) purgatory and
finally, paradise?
a. Animal Farm c. Elegy Written in a Country Churchyard
b. Divine Comedy d. Canterbury Tales

103. What could be the reason why Benjamin Franklin added Humility in the list of 13 virtues?
a. Success without humility is worthless.
b. Humility best reflects the strength of character.
c. He believes the conceit spoils even the finest genius.
d. He reminded of his friend Quaker about how overbearing and insolent he is.

104. The crowning achievement was the Aeneid, an epic poem in twelve books recounting the story
of Aeneas. Who is referred to?
a. Virgil c. Aristophanes
b. Homer d. Euripides

105. Philosophic – religious belief in reincarnation is based on which mythical character?

a. Paris c. Agamemnon
b. Achilles d. Orpheus

106. Half – human and half – bull, he/it was confined in the labyrinth, where he/it received an annual
tribute of seven youths and seven maidens from Athens. Which is referred to?
a. Medea c. Minotaur
b. Pegasus d. Midas

107. Egyptian literature is identified as ____________ literature.

a. Asian c. Mediterranean
b. African d. Middle Eastern

108. Which movement reacted against the stylistic excess and superfluous artistry and
ornamentation of Renaissance writers?
a. Realism c. Neoclassicism
b. Romanticism d. Aestheticism

109. Which literary movement is characterized by logical thinking and freedom which are vital in
making choices that relate to moral and social choices?
a. Renaissance c. Enlightenment
b. Romanticism d. Neoclassicism
110. Which of the following can be the subject matter of humanism literature?
a. Poverty c. Salvation
b. Faith d. Sacred

111. The following characterize realism, except ___________________.

a. It considered the human experiences of the present time, and the topics from contemporary life
rather than longing for some idealized past.
b. It emphasized the social rather than the individual or seeing the individual as a social being.
c. It emphasized logical reason, and empiricism the presentation of events and characters
d. It is focused on contemporary life, not about some classical events in the past.

112. The Chinese leader whose essays and poems depicted the totalitarian rule in China and
advocated a revolutionary movement?
a. Lao – Tze c. Chou en Lai
b. Confucius d. Mao Tze – Tung

113. In stylistics parlance, which term refers to the appropriateness of a work to intended subject,
genre, and audience?
a. Tone c. Decorum
b. Diction d. Point of view

114. Which figure of speech did Nathaniel Hawthorne use in making Rev. Dimmesdale metaphorically
dim as the novel progresses while making Chillingworth have a chilled heart?
a. Pun c. Charatonym
b. Symbol d. Allusion

115. The application of social and behavioral science research method to the practice of journalism is
called __________________.
a. Modern journalism c. Contemporary journalism
b. New journalism d. Precision journalism

116. What techniques were used in the excerpt “See nymphs hourly ring his knell/Ding dong.
Hark!/now I hear them – Ding dong bell”?
a. Assonance and rhyme c. Anomatopoeia and rhyme
b. Consonance and rhythm d. Onomatopoeia and assonance

117. The glass unicorn in the Glass Menagerie, the rocking horse in the Rocking – horse Winner, and
the road in Robert Frost’s The Road not Taken are all examples of ___________.
a. Imagery c. Symbolism
b. Fable d. Subject

118. Which strategy is for reading literature where the reader responds to the literary and cultural
impact of the text by identifying images and themes and writing marginal notes about them?
a. Reading c. Highlighting
b. Previewing d. Annotating

119. Literature is language in use: as such, language becomes the medium or the tool of literature.
Therefore, language is ____________________.
a. Beyond literature. c. Inseparable from literature
b. Separable from literature d. The development of more than linguistic ability

120. Which is an engaging task of recording experiences, ideas, insights or reflections on a regular
basis that encourages students to articulate their minds than merely restating information about a text?
a. Pantomime c. Brainstorming
b. Role play d. Journal writing
121. Which is the substitute of a term considered inoffensive for one that might bring the reader or
listener too close to an uncomfortable reality?
a. Bathos c. Euphemism
b. Imagery d. Translation

122. In Bloom’s Taxonomy of Thinking Process, which verbs help you design activities for the creating
level?
a. Modify, apply, debate c. Compose, imagine, process
b. Justify, debate, invent d. Recommend, design, produce

123. Which type of paragraph would this topic sentence be considered? The day I won the oratorical
title change myself perception.
a. Narrative c. Expository
b. Descriptive d. Persuasive

124. In creative non – fiction, what do you use to support fact – based narratives?
a. Dramatic dialogue c. Inventive and dramatic techniques
b. Essays and memoirs d. Commentaries and accounts

125. Which types of tests is administered at the beginning or middle of the term and are aimed at
fostering achievement by promoting strengths and eliminating the weakness of individual students?
a. Placement test c. Diagnostic test
b. Proficiency test d. Achievement test

126. An English teacher may administer a performance – based assessment in ESP using a rubric as
measuring instrument. In which of the following tests is a rubric best applicable?
a. Oral interview c. Analyzing sentence
b. Dictation test d. Sentence transformation

127. How can the new criticism school in poetry be characterized?

a. Sentimental and didactic c. Impressionistic and symbolical
b. Intellectual and metaphysical d. Emphasis on craft over content

128. Which of the following types of words does not fit into the category of determiners?
a. Possessive c. Demonstratives
b. Articles d. Prepositions

129. Which of the following sentence/s depict/s a dative case?

a. The university accepted an award from the accrediting organization.
b. The charity received a donation from Cecille.
c. Cecille gave a donation to charity.
d. Sentece B and C are dative.

130. What lexical process is exemplified by the following?

Fe removed dust from the desk. = Fe dusted the desk.
a. Polesemy c. Derivational affixation
b. Conversion d. Compounding

131. Which of the following is grammatical?

a. The burglar lurked. c. It fascinated the alarm clock.
b. I don’t like these books. d. Anyone who is a good friend must be trustful.

132. Which is a sense property in which two words have the same sense or same values for all of
their semantic features? Example: teacher and instructor
a. Deixis c. Synonymy
b. Hyponymy d. Anaphora
133. A description on a gravestone or a short poem in memory of a deceased person called
_________.
a. Maxim c. Couplet
b. Motto d. Epitaph

134. In which class is code switching allowed?

a. TBLT c. Communicative classroom
b. Audio – lingual class d. Grammar – translation class
135. The teacher read about dessugestopedia. Which of the following activities is a practice of
dessugestopedia?
a. Role play
b. Drill and substitution
c. Languages games and quiz bees
d. Doing tasks such as writing letters, composing poems and watching movies

136. Which of the following illustrate positive transfer in interlanguage?

a. A Filipino student pronounces bag correctly.
b. A Filipino student tells, We ate pish (fish) last night.
c. A Filipino student writes a sentence; The book is new.
d. A Filipino student constructs a sentence in English; Beautiful is Mary.

137. Which of the following does not characterized deconstructive reading of text?
a. It is a reading which analyzes a text critical difference from its intended meaning.
b. A test is a combination of multiple shades of contradicting meaning.
c. Authorial intention fallacy renders meaning uncertain.
d. Language is a fixed system of signs.

138. Which approach to language testing views language learning as chiefly concerned with the
systematic acquisition of a set of habits?
a. Pragmatic c. Essay translation
b. Integrative d. Structuralist

139. Which of the following is not true?

a. Formalism is criticism for meaning.
b. New criticism promotes close reading and interpretation.
c. Marxism is literary theory rejects the idea of art for art’s sake.
d. Psychoanalytic theory in literature attempts to interpret symbols in literature.

140. Which is known as the science of interpretation?

a. Textual exegesis c. Documentary analysis
b. Hermeneutics d. Literary appreciation

141. Which is an example of a course for English for Occupational Purposes (EOP)?
a. English for Technician c. English for Classroom Application
b. English for Counseling d. English for Social Advocacy

142. Which is a jargon for academe?

a. Leverage c. Bureaucracy
b. Deficit d. Pedagogy

143. What is an indication of hypothesis testing in language learning?

a. Error c. Utterance
b. Input d. Acculturation

144. Eminent educators have observed qualified jobs are becoming ___________.
a. Scarcer c. More scarce
b. Scaring d. Scarcest
145. Based on principles of first language acquisition, which of the following should be taught first to
students?
a. Possessive c. Present progressive
b. Simple present d. Plural regular

146. In first language acquisition, the following are considered language developmental milestone
during the pre – linguistic stages, except _____________.
a. Cooing c. Babbling
b. Crying d. Echolalia
147. What semantic change is reflected in the word queer? A queer case was solved by Sherlock
Holmes. He is such a queer.
a. Taboo c. Pejoration
b. Metaphor d. Association

148. What major poetic device is also called an imperfect rhyme or slant rhyme?
a. Partial c. Temporary
b. Semi d. Half

149. Which is a colloquial expression that has been overused?

a. Tautology c. Emotive language
b. Cliché d. Informal language

150. The study of ways in which patterns or speech acts in a second language is known as:
a. Intra – language c. Inter – language pragmatics
b. Contrastive rhetoric d. Jargonized expression