CDS 1 2024 Sectional Test-01 QP

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BOOKLET SERIES
QUESTION
CDSE 1 2024 EXAM
A
BOOKLET NO
GKN24721 ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
SECTIONAL TEST-01
QUESTION PAPER
Time Allowed: 3.00hrs Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST
BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED
BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B,
C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything
else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 200 items (questions). Each item is printed in
English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer
Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill
in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION
PAPERS.
1. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong has been given
by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deal penalty.
2. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
3. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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CDS 1 2024 EXAM SECTIONAL TEST-01 [GKN24721] [ENG + BIO + POL + CA]
ENGLISH (1-100) (d) Swelled
Direction (1-10): Read the given passage and answer Passage-2
the questions that follow. It was in the early 1960s when India was facing an
Passage-1 enormous shortage of cereals that new agricultural
Dr. John is of the opinion that, few would argue about the policies were born marking the start of the Green
quality of our foods and its decline compared to foods of Revolution. In 1964, the government set up the Food
a generation or two ago. Hybrid grains, vegetables and Corporation of India (FCI) to procure foodgrains from
fruits have increased in popularity. These hybrid seeds farmers at remunerative prices, and through the public
boast big, luscious products that are more resistant to distribution system distribute them to consumers and also
diseases. The nutrient content of hybrids, however, is maintain buffer stock for food security. In 1965, an
significantly less than that of their natural counterparts. Agricultural Prices Commission was set up to advise on
The farmer is paid according to bushels per acre not for the pricing policy for agricultural commodities and its
the quality of his produce. Agriculture too has become a impact on the economy. It was then that the Price Support
demanding and politically charged industry. Despite our Policy of the Government came in, providing a fool proof
need for nutrition, the bottom line is making a living, and solution to agricultural producers against a sharp fall in
hybrid produce makes it possible. farm prices.
1. Farmers resort to cultivating hybrids because 6. The word procure as used in the passage means:
(a) Hybrids are resistant to diseases (a) Ponce
(b) The demand for hybrids is higher (b) Contrive
(c) It helps them live better lives (c) Machinate
(d) Hybrid products are big and luscious (d) Obtain
2. The farmer is paid according to the _____ of his 7. Which policy provided the solution to agricultural
produce. producers against a fall in farm prices?
(a) Price Support Policy
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(b) Quality (b) Food Corporation Policy

(c) Wide variety (c) Agricultural Prices Policy
(d) Demand (d) Green Revolution Policy
3. Dr. John is of the opinion that agriculture has 8. Who gave the advice on impact of the pricing policy
(a) Contributed to the economic growth of the on the economy of India?
farmer (a) Food Corporation of India
(b) Become a demanding and politically charged (b) Agricultural Prices Commission
industry (c) Government
(c) Increased in popularity (d) Farmers
(d) Paved the way for scientific experiments 9. What was the reason behind the starting the Green
4. The author is concerned about the Revolution?
(a) Fact that agriculture has become a demanding (a) No agricultural policy
and politically charged industry (b) Maintained buffer stock
(b) Plight of the farmer (c) Harsh Pricing Policy
(c) Fact that farmer is paid according to bushels per (d) Shortage of cereals
Acre 10. When was the FCI established?
(d) Quality of food in today’s world (a) 1960
5. Hybrid products have now _____ in popularity. (b) 1965
(a) Lessened (c) 1964
(b) Decreased (d) 1970
(c) Increased Direction (11-20): Each of the following sentences in this
section has a blank space with four words or group of words
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given. Select whichever word or group of words you (b) tax
consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate (c) ultimatum
your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. (d) challenge
Given its ability to feed on multiple crops nearly 80 15. Choose the correct answer.
____11____ crops ranging from maize to sugarcane-FAW (a) urgency
(Fall Army Worm) can attack multiple crops. Similarly, it (b) urgently
can spread across large tracts of land as it can fly over (c) insurgency
large distances. Similarly, it can spread across large tracts (d) insurgent
of land _____12______it can fly over large distances. This 16. Choose the correct answer.
explains the quick spread of the pest across India. More (a) spread
than 50 per cent of the country, including Mizoram, has (b) juxtapose
reported cases of FAW infestation this year. ____13____of (c) flock
the new Kharif season, FAW poses a serious - (d) conceal
____14______before farmers due to lack of knowledge 17. Choose the correct answer.
about the pest and lack of clarity on how to tackle it. If (a) partially
these problems are not addressed ____15_____, vast tracts (b) indifferent
of crops can be laid to waste by this pest. FAW was first (c) actual
detected in the African continent in 2016. Since then, it (d) affected
has ____16_____ to other countries such as China, Thailand, 18. Choose the correct answer.
Malaysia, and Sri Lanka. It was reported in India for the (a) have
first-time last year, when it ____17______ crops in (b) had
Karnataka. Within a span of only six months, almost 50 per (c) has
cent of the country, including Mizoram, Maharashtra, (d) was
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, 19. Choose the correct answer.
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Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and West Bengal, _____18______ (a) making

reported FAW infestations. What _____19_______ FAW (b) makes
dangerous is the polyphagous (ability to feed on different (c) make
kinds of food) nature of the caterpillar and the ability of (d) to make
the adult moth to ____20_____ more than 100 km per night. 20. Choose the correct answer.
11. Choose the correct answer. (a) to fly
(a) similar (b) flying
(b) different (c) fly
(c) indistinguishable (d) struggle
(d) corresponding Directions (21-28): In the following questions a pair-of
12. Choose the correct answer. similar sounding words is provided. You are required to
(a) but select the option that most appropriately describes the
(b) so meaning of both the words and mark your response
(c) as accordingly.
(d) however 21. 'blew' and 'blue'
13. Choose the correct answer. (a) blew means to inhale air and blue means to
(a) Ahead exhale air
(b) Afterwards (b) blew means to exhale air and blue means to turn
(c) Before or make blue
(d) As far as (c) blew means to turn or make blue and blue means
14. Choose the correct answer. to exhale air
(a) try
(d) blew means to inhale air and blue means to turn (b) Reward is prize for recognition and Award is
or make blue compensation for effort
22. ‘Threw’ and ‘Through’ (c) Reward is prize for recognition and Award is gift
(a) Threw means past tense of throw and Through from someone
means from one end or side to the other (d) Reward is gift from someone and Award is
(b) Threw means from one end or side to the other compensation for effort
and Through means past tense of 27. ‘Sight’ and ‘Site’
(c) Threw means past tense of curl and Through (a) Sight means a location or place and Site means
means from one end or side to the other the ability to see
(d) Threw means from one end or side to the other (b) Sight means being blind and Site means a
and Through means past tense of hurl location or place
23. ‘Leak’ and ‘Leek’ (c) Sight means the ability to see and Site means a
(a) Leak means a vegetable with long, green leaves location or place
and a white stalk and Leek means an unintended (d) Sight means a location or place and Site means a
hole or escape of liquid view
(b) Leak means a vegetable with long, green leaves 28. ‘Rain’ and ‘Reign
and a white stalk and Leek means to let (a) Rain means to rule or dominate and Reign means
something out intentionally water falling from the sky
(c) Leak means to let something out intentionally (b) Rain means water falling from the sky and Reign
and Leek means a vegetable with long, green means to rule or dominate
leaves and a white stalk (c) Rain means to pour down and Reign means to
(d) Leak means an unintended hole or escape of tease someone
liquid and Leek means a vegetable with long, (d) Rain means to rule or dominate and Reign means
green leaves and a white stalk to pour down
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24. ‘Flour’ and ‘Flower’ 29. Which of the sentences has the correct usage of
(a) Flour means a powder made from grain and vocabulary and is grammatically correct?
Flower means a plant that blooms 1. Will lack of sleep effect your game?
(b) Flour means a plant that blooms and Flower 2. We would like to cell our car.
means a powder made from grain 3. The quarterback passed the ball.
(c) Flour means a type of food and Flower means a (a) 2 only
car tyre (b) 3 only
(d) Flour means a car tyre and Flower means a type (c) 1and C only
of food (d) 1 only
25. ‘Sympathy’ and ‘Empathy’ 30. Which of the sentences has the correct usage of
(a) Sympathy means sharing another’s feelings and vocabulary and is grammatically correct?
Empathy means understanding another’s feelings 1. I will go swimming weather it rains or not.
(b) Sympathy means expressing another’s feelings 2. I usually wear boots when I go hiking.
and Empathy means sharing another’s feelings 3. We drove threw a thunderstorm on the way here.
(c) Sympathy means pitying another’s feelings and (a) 2 only
Empathy means emphasising another’s feelings (b) 3 only
(d) Sympathy means emphasising another’s feelings (c) 1 and 3 only
and Empathy means pitying another's feelings (d) 1 only
26. ‘Reward’ and ‘Award’ Direction (31-40): Each item in this section has a sentence
(a) Reward is compensation for effort and Award is with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read
prize for recognition each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any
underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer
Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). (c) Adjective
If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d) Interjection
(d). 45. Covid – 19 was a depressing time for everyone.
31. From Bombay (a)/ the Rajdhani express (b)/ don’t go (a) Noun
straight to New Delhi (c)/ No Error (d) (b) Preposition
32. I am interested in many things, (a)/ from physics to (c) Interjection
sports, but unfortunately (b)/ not good in most of them. (d) Adjective
(c)/ no error (d) 46. Somya thinks that she will arrive roughly at 6 am.
33. By two o’clock yesterday (a)/ I called on her twice, but (a) Noun
she was not (b)/ at her home (c)/ no error (d) (b) Pronoun
34. I am sorry that (a)/ you left your book in the (b)/ library (c) Preposition
when you came here last time (c)/ no error (d) (d) Conjunction
35. One of my relatives (a)/ is having a big house in (b)/ a 47. Music is very loud.
posh colony in Delhi (c)/ no error (d) (a) Adjective
36. His fine character and (a)/ conscience earned him (b) Pronoun
universal (b)/ respect and confidence. (c)/ No error (d) (c) Noun
37. She could live a lifetime (a)/ and never find someone (d) Adverb
so (b)/ perfect fit to her wants and desires. (c)/ No error 48. Eh! What did she say?
(d) (a) Conjunction
38. I don't know to tell (a)/ you without just (b)/ blurting (b) Interjection
it out. (c)/ No error (d) (c) Adjective
39. I hoped to immediately reply (a)/ to your emails (d) Adverb
regarding (b)/ the issue of water supply. (c)/ No error (d) 49. After breakfast, let’s go out for a walk.
40. She need not to know (a)/ how hard it was (b)/ for me (a) Verb
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to see her again. (c)/ No error (d) (b) Preposition

Direction (41-50): Identify the parts of speech of the (c) Pronoun
word given in bold. (d) Noun
41. Take your first right and then go over the mountain. 50. I’m sure I’ve met your parents before.
(a) Preposition (a) Verb
(b) Conjunction (b) Noun
(c) Verb (c) Conjunction
(d) Adverb (d) Preposition
42. There is a seminar next month though I don’t think I Direction (51-60): Improve the bold part of the sentence.
can go. If the given sentence is correct mark no improvement.
(a) Adjective 51. Unless I get some break, I should not be able to do
(b) Conjunction any more work.
(c) Adverb (a) shall not be able
(d) Preposition (b) should be unable
43. He quickly packed his belongings and left. (c) shall not be unable
(a) Adverb (d) No Improvement
(b) Verb 52. Was it they who were accused of stealing the
(c) Noun neighbour’s car?
(d) Adjective (a) were it they who were
44. Wow, you have got a great taste in fashion. (b) was it they who had
(a) Conjunction (c) were it they who
(b) Adverb (d) No Improvement
53. Neither any of the members of the society nor the Directions (61-65): In the following question, a particular
chairman were present for the annual meeting word is provided. Four sentences have been framed, one
(a) were present at of which does not make use of the word correctly. You
(b) was present for are required to select that option and mark your response
(c) have been present on the answer sheet accordingly.
(d) Improvement 61. Square.
54. We can only revise the rates after taking into (a) Mr Sam also tried to square his belief in the
account of the views of the other Board members. sanctity of life.
(a) have taken into account (b) Never square with your customer.
(b) taking into account (c) They have received a square hearing from the
(c) on taking an account disciplinary panel.
(d) No Improvement (d) We stepped into a square room, perhaps thirty by
55. Having paid your taxes on time you would have thirty.
avoided such a stiff penalty 62. Steady
(a) had you paid your (a) A popular actress who produces a steady output
(b) if you have paid of best acting year after year.
(c) pay off your (b) A quiet but steady woman who is one of the
(d) No Improvement pillars of the community.
56. We have not preference of this Airline over any other (c) Steady warm breezes from the west threatened to
(a) do not prefer to expand two fires in Central Oregon.
(b) have no preference for (d) The attitude toward obesity has been steady over
(c) are not preferring for centuries and cultures.
(d) No Improvement 63. Right.
57. To sustain production across these level we need (a) All I could do at that point was stay right there
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additional investment with him.

(a) at these levels (b) She hasn't been right since she suffered a serious
(b) beyond this level knee injury in the accident.
(c) above this level (c) At this time, we are unable to distinguish the true
(d) No Improvement positives from the right ones.
58. He refused to sign till, he would read the text of the (d) They'll leave right after dinner.
agreement 64. Well.
(a) had read (a) My current system for dividing household items
(b) would have read works well.
(c) Should be reading (b) GPS-based accelerometry is well sensitive in the
(d) No Improvement radial direction.
59. If I were you, I cannot have granted him any relief. (c) Well, that is odd!
(a) would not grant (d) My father is quite well, thank you.
(b) Would not have been granting 65. Counter.
(c) Would not have granted (a) Baltic governments are making strong efforts to
(d) No Improvement counter Russian propaganda.
60. Why you refrained from mention this point is a (b) It was determined that black ministers were the
surprise to me. best counter to influential personalities.
(a) Refrained from mentioning (c) Raj was unprepared for such a strong counter
(b) Refrained from mention of campaign by opponents of the legislative bill.
(c) Refrain from any mention of
(d) No Improvement
(d) The name wildfire was once a counter for Greek (a) CBDA
fire but now refers to any large or destructive (b) ACDB
conflagration. (c) ADBC
Directions (66-70): The following question has one part of (d) ABCD
a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the 72. when another employee (A)/ employee of the month
sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your (B)/ Kyle was demoted from (C)/ surpassed his
response accordingly. performance (D)
66. The more exercise you do (a) BDCA
(a) your burned calories will be higher (b) CADB
(b) will your calories burned be higher (c) ACBD
(c) will be higher your burned calories (d) CBAD
(d) the more calories you will burn 73. in ordering copies (A) booksellers interested (B) as
67. Rock wishes he soon as possible (C) should contact BA Marketing (D)
(a) ought to be the greatest comedian (a) ABCD
(b) will be the greatest comedian (b) BADC
(c) could be the greatest comedian (c) BDAC
(d) can being the greatest comedian (d) ACBD
68. If it rains on Friday, 74. assam whether the final (P) a humanitarian crisis
(a) I will stay in home. awaits (Q) NRC is published on (R) July 31 or after (S)
(b) I will stay home. (a) PQRS
(c) I will never stay home (b) QPRS
(d) I could stay home. (c) RSQP
69. No sooner had she finished one project (d) RPSQ
(a) when she started working on the next. 75. P. when bursts of radiation with charged
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(b) than she started working on the next. Q. fields in the atmosphere
(c) because she started working on the next. R. essentially, auroras appear on Earth
(d) and she started working on the next. S. particles from the Sun hit magnetic
70. Hardly had they spoken these words (a) RPSQ
(a) then the door opened and Arion himself stood (b) PQSR
before them. (c) PQRS
(b) than the door opened and Arion himself stood (d) RSQP
before them. 76. with steel or copper bottles (P) are not that
(c) but the door opened and Arion himself stood dependent on it. Replace plastic bottles (Q) take a
before them. pledge to get rid of it, you realise that you (R) plastic
(d) when the door opened and Arion himself stood is in our lives because of convenience, But once you
before them. (S)
Directions (71-80): Each of the following items this (a) SRQP
section consists of a sentence the parts of which have (b) PSRQ
been jumbled these parts have been labelled as P Q, R and (c) QSRP
S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (d) PQRS
(A), (B), (C) and (D). You are required to rearrange the 77. with a dummy named Starman in space (P) on
jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response on February 6, SpaceX launched (Q) the most powerful
the Answer Sheet accordingly. rocket currently (R) in use and put a red Tesla sports
71. the sales manager is a good (A) researcher who car (S)
spends (B) a great amount of time (C) surfing the web for (a) QRPS
information. (D) (b) QPRS
(c) QPSR (c) To cheat
(d) QRSP (d) To perform well
78. I had before of the (P) / me a better glimpse than 85. Being unable to pay the rent, Patrick left his flat last
(Q) / the tiny incident gave (R) / real nature of week bag and baggage.
imperialism (S) (a) With all the belongings
(a) SPQR (b) With all the furniture
(b) PQRS (c) With some necessary things.
(c) PSRQ (d) To run away secretly to save rent.
(d) RQPS 86. My school headmaster has asked the school staff to
79. interest and political propaganda (P)/ we promise so its tasks by the book.
to deliver (Q)/ quality journalism that (R)/ stays away (a) Following rules and regulations strictly.
from vested (S) (b) As per its wish
(a) QRSP (c) By studying the book
(b) PQRS (d) According to his orders.
(c) RSPQ 87. There are no two ways about it because the crime that
(d) SRPQ has been committed is really akin to murder.
80. of the most (A) hazardous problems (B) (a) keen on
environmental pollution is one (C) of mankind across (b) good to
the globe (D). (c) similar to
(a) CABD (d) different to
(b) ABCD 88. You will not slip over because the floor is as dry as a
(c) CDBA bone.
(d) DABC (a) completely hard
Directions (81-90): Choose the alternative which best (b) extremely flat
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expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase in (c) totally dry

bold. (d) completely cracked
81. We should go the whole hog cleaning the house. 89. They made the mess of this cricket tournament
(a) Do quickly (a) Handled it well
(b) Do comfortably (b) Handled it badly
(c) Do completely and thoroughly (c) Made profitable
(d) Do obstinately. (d) Made popular
82. The rules and conditions should be in black and 90. The supreme court declared this provision of Indian
white. penal code null and void.
(a) In written (a) Appropriate
(b) simple (b) Valid
(c) Colourful (c) Copied
(d) Orally understood (d) Having no legal force
83. The reshuffling of the cabinet is on the cards Directions (91-100): Select the alternative with the
(a) Likely to happen correct spelling of the given word.
(b) Not probable shortly 91. Select the correct spelling of the given word.
(c) Based on the lottery. (a) Filanthropic
(d) Under public watch (b) Philaenthropic
84. The team gave a good account of themselves in the (c) Philenthropic
match. (d) Philanthropic
(a) To perform badly 92. Select the correct spelling of the given word.
(b) To be famous (a) Independant
(b) malignant (c) SRQP
(c) neglegent (d) SQRP
(d) impertinant 97. S1: India’s gross Goods and Services Tax (GST)
93. Select the correct spelling of the given word. revenues grew almost 11% this November to nearly
(a) Surraptitious ₹1.46 lakh crore.
(b) Surreptitious P: Discounting periodic spikes in compliance, one can
(c) Surreptuous possibly peg the ₹1.4 lakh crore as the new normal
(d) Surreptiteous baseline for monthly GST revenues hereon.
94. Select the correct spelling of the given word. Q: While this is only the tenth such occasion since the
(a) Conoisseur onset of the GST in July 2017 when revenues have been
(b) Cannoisseur over ₹1.4 lakh crore, that mark has been consistently
(c) Conoiseeur topped for nine months now.
(d) Connoisseur R: With almost ₹12 lakh crore already in the GST kitty this
95. Select the word with the correct spelling: year, the Government is likely to end up with a not-
(a) Accesory insignificant surplus over its Budget.
(b) Accidentaly S: The two highest GST monthly receipts so far — over
(c) Absense ₹1.67 lakh crore in April and ₹1.51 lakh crore in October
(d) Acquitted — were partly bolstered by taxpayers filing quarterly
Directions (96-100): This question consists of six returns.
sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are S6: This is welcome fiscal headroom, especially since the
given as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have Centre’s subsidy bill on items such as fertilizers and
been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R and S. You are foodgrains has also surpassed the Budget math, and may
required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences help the Government stick to its fiscal deficit target.
and mark your response accordingly. (a) QSPR
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96. S1: Noted artist Sudarsan Pattnaik created the (b) QSRP
logo of India's G20 presidency on sand on December (c) QPRS
1, 2022 as the country officially took over the chair of (d) QRPS
the grouping. 98. S1: After three years of living under the world’s
P: Prime Minister Narendra Modi said that India's G20 most stringent pandemic restrictions, thousands of
Presidency will work to promote a universal sense of one- people in China have taken to the streets in many
ness rooted in the Indian philosophy of Vasudhaiva cities, calling for an end to lockdowns and the “zero-
Kutumbakam or One World, One Family, One Future. COVID” policy.
Q: India assumed the yearlong presidency of the G20 P: The emergence of more transmissible but milder
forum on December 1 and will hold over 200 meetings variants has, however, rendered that approach
across 50 plus cities in India with foreign delegations increasingly obsolete, particularly when vaccines are
participating in these events in different parts of India. enabling countries to live with the virus.
R: Mr. Pattnaik along with his students spent over two Q: The lockdowns, mass testing, and quarantining of
days in making the G20 Logo in sand, officials said. infected cases and close contacts formed a strategy that
S: Mr. Pattnaik displayed the logo and its theme at the helped China emerge faster than any other country out of
International Sand Art Festival in Konark in Odisha. the first COVID-19 wave, avoiding mass deaths seen in the
S6: Speaking to reporters, Mr. Pattnaik said India's logo rest of the world.
and theme represent the ancient knowledge and values R: The unprecedented protests, on a scale not seen since
that have passed down through millennia with the 1989, reflect public weariness towards a policy that
message of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam (world is one family) appears out of date.
(a) PSRQ S: The ruling Communist Party of China would do well to
(b) PSQR listen.
S6: To deal with new variants, China’s lockdowns have S6: Playground uses artificial intelligence to accept inputs
grown harsher. from users in the form of written descriptions or pictures,
(a) SPQR and processes these under different conditions to create
(b) SRPQ new images.
(c) SQRP (a) RPQS
(d) SRQP (b) RSQP
99. S1: A team at the Department of Electrical (c) RSPQ
Communication Engineering (ECE), Indian Institute of (d) RPSQ
Science (IISc) has developed a true random number POLITY (101-140)
generator (TRNG), which, the team says, can improve 101. In essence, what does 'the principle of natural
data encryption and provide improved security for justice' mean?
sensitive digital data such as credit card details, a) Equal protection of laws
passwords, and other personal information. b) Fair and reasonable application of laws
P: The study describing the TRNG device has been c) Equal allocation of social resources
published in the journal ACS Nano. d) Focus on punishment rather than rehabilitation
Q: “Almost everything we do on the internet is encrypted 102. A State law reserving a portion of private sector
for security. jobs for the domicile of the concerned State violates
R: Encrypted information can be decoded only by which of the following Articles of the Constitution of
authorised users who have access to a cryptographic ‘key’. India?
S: The strength of this encryption depends on the quality 1. Article 16
of random number generation,” explained Nithin 2. Article 19
Abraham, a PhD student who is a part of a team led by 3. Article 17
Kausik Majumdar, Associate Professor at ECE, which has 4. Article 35
developed the TRNG device.
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S6: But the key needs to be unpredictable and, therefore, (a) 1 and 2 only
randomly generated to resist hacking. (b) 3 and 4 only
(a) PSRQ (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) PSQR (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) PQSR 103. Which one of the following acts, for the first time,
(d) PQRS laid the foundation of government by written laws
100. S1: September this year began with a storm of and regulations in British India?
emotions in the art world. (a) Regulating Act, 1773
P: Others countered that AI art was not too different from (b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
the programs and virtual brushes used by digital artists. (c) Charter Act of 1793
Q: On Twitter, traditional artists tore into the entry and (d) Charter Act of 1813
claimed that people using AI platforms could not be 104. Consider the following:
considered artists. 1. Advice tendered by Council of Ministers to the
R: American game designer Jason Allen won the $300 first President
prize for his entry in an art contest, which he created using 2. Decision of the Speaker in case of Money Bills
an artificial intelligence program that generates images 3. Proceedings of the Parliament
from text prompts. In how many of the above cases, the Constitution of
S: Infused with a fantasy world atmosphere, Théâtre India explicitly prohibits enquiry by courts?
D’opéra Spatial depicted a group of abstract, royally (a) Only one
dressed figures in an intricate court room, peering (b) Only two
through a sun-drenched portal. (c) All three

(d) None (b) the date of first Lok Sabha sitting after the results
105. Which one of the following statements is correct of general elections
with reference to the Preamble to the Constitution of (c) the date of appointment of the Prime Minister by
India? the President
(a) It grants substantive rights to the citizens and is (d) the date on which the general election results are
enforceable in the courts. declared
(b) It does not grant substantive rights to the citizens 109. Which of the following conditions are laid down
but is enforceable in the courts. in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 for the
(c) It grants substantive rights to the citizens but is formation and registration of a political party?
not enforceable in the courts. 1. It must consist only of Indian citizens.
(d) It does not grant substantive rights to the citizens 2. It must have at least 100 registered electors as its
and is not enforceable in the courts. members.
106. Consider the following: 3. It must hold regular internal elections for office
1. Chief Election Commissioner bearers and candidate selection.
2. Central Vigilance Commissioner 4. It must call itself a political party set up for the
3. Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation purpose of contesting elections to the
4. Chairperson of the Lokpal 5. Parliament and State Legislatures and for no
The Chief Justice of India is a member of the selection other purpose.
panel for how many of the above appointments? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Only one (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Only three (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) All four (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
107. Consider the following statements: 110. Consider the following statements:
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1. The Regulating Act of 1773 fixed the tenure of the

Governor-General at five years.
1. The proposal to summon, prorogue or dissolve the 2. The Pitt’s India Act of 1784 exempted the
Lok Sabha can be made by the Prime Minister with Governor-General from the jurisdiction of the
or without the consultation of the Cabinet. Supreme Court.
2. The Constitution of India mandates that both 3. The Charter Act of 1833 excluded the
Houses of the Parliament should be summoned on Commander-in-Chief from the membership of
the same date. the Governor-General’s Council.
3. Since the commencement of the Constitution, the How many of the above statements are correct?
President has not addressed the Houses of the (a) Only one
Parliament together under the provision of Article (b) Only two
86. (c) All three
How many of the above statements are correct? (d) None
(a) Only one 111. According to the Fifth Schedule of the
(b) Only two Constitution of India, the expression “Scheduled
(c) All three Areas” means such areas as declared by:
(d) None (a) President of India
108. In India, the tenure of the Lok Sabha generally (b) Parliament
starts from: (c) Governor of a State
(a) the date on which the President administers the (d) State Legislature
oath of secrecy to the Council of Ministers 112. Consider the following:
1. To promote international peace and security
2. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and (c) Delegation of certain functions to authorities
integrity of India established by law
3. To maintain just and honourable relations (d) Framing of laws and regulations directly by
between the nations people
4. To encourage settlement of international 116. Which one of the following acts as Chief Whip of
disputes by arbitration the Government in the Lok Sabha?
How many of the above Directive Principles are (a) Prime Minister of India
enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution of India? (b) Member nominated by the Speaker
(a) Only one (c) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(b) Only two (d) Leader of the House
(c) Only three 117. Consider the following:
(d) All four 1. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team
113. With reference to difference between the (CERT-In)
Electoral bonds (EB) and Electoral Trusts (ET), consider 2. Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU)
the following statements: 3. Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB)
1. An Electoral Bond is a bearer banking instrument 4. Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)
while an Electoral Trust is a legal arrangement for 5. Defence Research and Development
holding assets on behalf of a political party. Organisation (DRDO)
2. Unlike Electoral Trusts, Electoral Bonds do not How many of the above are exempted from the
disclose the donors and beneficiary political purview of the Right to Information Act, 2005 in
parties. India?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only two
(a) 1 only (b) Only three
(b) 2 only (c) Only four
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(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) All five

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 118. The Supreme Court recently stayed the
114. Which one of the following is not a consequence proceedings of the Lok Sabha Privilege committee
of the President's rule in a State? against the Chief Secretary, Director General of Police
(a) The President can assume to himself all the and three other officials of the State of West Bengal.
powers vested in any executive authority in the The powers and privileges of Members of Parliament
State. is provided under which of the following Article:
(b) The Governor can administer the State with the (a) Article 105
help of the advisors appointed by the President. (b) Article 110
(c) The Parliament can delegate the power to make (c) Article 117
laws for the State to the authority specified by the (d) Article 120
President in this regard. 119. Which one of the following Schedules of the
(d) The Governor can promulgate ordinances with Constitution of India contains provisions regarding
respect to the State's administration. anti-defection?
115. In the context of Indian polity, what does (a) Second Schedule
“democratic decentralization” mean? (b) Fifth Schedule
(a) Division of power between the centre and its (c) Eighth Schedule
constituent parts (d) Tenth Schedule
(b) Transfer of decision-making from Central 120. In the Constitution of India, promotion of
Government to field organizations as a matter of international peace and security is included in the
right (a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties (d) None of the above
(d) Ninth Schedule 127. Which one of the following objectives is not
121. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of
Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in India?
order to (a) Liberty of thought
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes (b) Economic liberty
(b) determine the boundaries between States (c) Liberty of expression
(c) determine the powers, authority and (d) Liberty of belief
responsibilities of Panchayats 128. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of
(d) protect the interests of all the border States India is reflected in which of the following?
122. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of (a) The Preamble
the Constitution of India? (b) The Fundamental Rights
(a) The President of India (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) The Prime Minister of India (d) The Fundamental Duties
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat 129. A parliamentary system of government is one in
(d) The Supreme court of India which
123. "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity (a) All political parties in the parliament are
and Integrity of India" is a provision made in the represented in the government
(a) Preamble of the Constitution (b) The government is responsible to the parliament
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy and can be remove by it
(c) Fundamental Rights (c) The government is elected by the people and can
(d) Fundamental Duties be removed by them
124. The ideal of Welfare State' in the Indian (d) The government is chosen by the parliament but
Constitution is enshrined in its cannot be removed by it before completion of a
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(a) Preamble fixed term

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy 130. One common agreement between Gandhism and
(c) Fundamental Rights Marxism is
(d) Seventh Schedule (a) The final goal of a stateless society
125. Consider the following statements regarding the (b) Class struggle
Directive Principles of State Policy: (c) Abolition of private property
1. The principles spell out the socio-economic (d) Economic determinism
democracy in the country. 131. Rajyasabha has equal powers with Loksabha in
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are (a) The matter of creating new all India services
not enforceable by any court. (b) Amending the Constitution
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (c) The removal of the government
(a) 1 only (d) Making cut motions
(b) 2 only 132. A constitutional government by definition is a
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) government by legislature
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) popular government
126. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the (c) Multi-party government
Indian Constitution has been provided in (d) Limited government
(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights 133. Consider the following statements:
(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State 1. The president of India can summon a session of
Policy Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive
Principles of State Policy
2. The Constitution of India provides for three 138. Which one of the following statements best
sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not reflects the chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a
mandatory to conduct all three sessions country?
3. There is no minimum number of days that the (a) It determines the objective for the making of
Parliament is required to meet in a year. necessary laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) It enables the creation of political offices and a
(a) 1 only government.
(b) 2 only (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) It secures social justice, social equality and social
(d) 2 and 3 only security.
134. Consider the following statements: 139. Consider the following organizations/bodies in
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or India:
to amend a Money Bill. 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for 2. The National Human Rights Commission
Grants. 3. The National Law Commission
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal
Financial Statement. Commission
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) Only two
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All four
135. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both 140. By which one of the following Acts was the
the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by Governor General of Bengal designated as the
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(a) a simple majority of members present and voting Governor General of India?
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and (a) The Regulating Act
voting (b) The Pitt's India Act
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses (c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) absolute majority of the Houses (d) The Charter Act of 1833
136. Consider the following statements BIOLOGY (141-170)
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is 141. Consider the following pairs:
vested in the Prime Minister. Invertibrates : Description
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of 1. Arachnids : Marine animals with arms or spines
the Civil Services Board. 2. Annelids : Segmented bodies with no limbs
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 3. Echinoderms : Soft skin-like organs covered with
(a) 1 only hard outside shell
(b) 2 only 4. Protozoa : Simple, single-celled animals
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 matched?
137. In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean? (a) 2 only
(a) The principle of natural justice (b) 2 and 4 only
(b) The procedure established by law (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) Fair application of law (d) 3 and 4 only
(d) Equality before law 142. Which among the following is/are genetic
diseases?

1. Haemophilia Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. Down's syndrome (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Sickle-cell anaemia (b) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only 147. Which of the following factors aid the process of
(c) 2 and 3 only pollination?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Pollen grains having tough protective coat.
143. Which of the following organisms are common 2. Pollen grains being light weighted.
pollinating agents in flowering 3. Flowers' attractiveness to insects.
plants? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. Bat (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Bees (b) 1 and 3 only
3. Wasp (c) 2 and 3 only
4. Ants (d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 148. A false fruit or pseudo-carp is derived from the
(a) 1 and 2 only floral parts other than ovary. Which of the following
(b) 2 and 3 only are false fruits?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. Apple
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Strawberry
144. With reference to respiration, consider the 3. Mango
following statements: 4. Grapes
1. Oxygen is required by all the organisms to break 5. Pine apple
down glucose. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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2. Rate of breathing is faster in aquatic animals than (a) 1 and 3 only

the terrestrial animals. (b) 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2 only 149. Consider the following pairs:
(c) Both 1 and 2 Disease : Pathogen
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Tuberculosis : Bacteria
145. Which of the following is/are the characteristics 2. Malaria : Protozoa
of Amphibians? 3. Diphtheria : Virus
1. Warm blooded Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
2. Vertebrates matched?
3. Permeable skin (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only 150. Consider the following pairs: Vitamin Deficiency
(d) 1, 2 and 3 leads to
146. The process of transpiration helps plants in which 1. Vitamin A : Dry and scaly skin
of the following functions? 2. Vitamin B1 : Attention deficit
1. To pull water to heights in tall trees. 3. Vitamin C : Pain in joints and muscles
2. Maintaining water pressure within the cells. Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
3. Regulation of temperature. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 155. Which of the following are asexual modes of
(c) 1 and 3 only reproduction in plants?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Pollination
151. "Biological invasion by alien species is recognized 2. Budding
as one of the major threats to native species and 3. Fragmentation
ecosystems". Which of the following are the invasive 4. Fertilisation
species in India? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. Sleeping grass (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. Giant African snail (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Gold Fish (c) 3 and 4 only
4. Pigeon (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 156. Which among the following is/are parts of innate
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only immunity of human body?
(b) 3 and 4 only 1. Lymphocytes
(c) 1 and 2 only 2. Tears
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. Saliva
152. Osmosis in plants is helpful for which of the Select the correct answer using the code given below.
following processes? (a) 1 only
1. Photosynthesis (b) 1 and 2 only
2. Absorption of water from soil (c) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only 157. The scientific name for Human beings is Homo
(b) 2 only sapiens. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) Both 1 and 2 this:
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Homo indicates the class to which human beings
153. Consider the following statements regarding belong.
antioxidants: 2. Sapiens indicates the species to which human
1. They activate certain genes in the cells of the beings belong.
body and help delay the ageing process 3. All human beings belong to kingdom Animalia.
2. Fresh fruits and vegetables are good source of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
antioxidants. (a) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 158. Which of the following parts of circulatory
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 system carry the oxygenated blood?
154. The xylem in plants is responsible for 1. Pulmonary artery
transportation of: 2. Left Ventricle
1. water 3. Pulmonary Vein
2. minerals Select the correct answer using the code given below.
3. carbon dioxide (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only 159. Which among the following hormones is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 produced by the human body?
1. Insulin (b) Mitochondrion
2. Cytokinin (c) Lysosome
3. Thyroxine (d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 165. Who among the following scientists introduced
(a) 1 only the concept of immunization to the medical world?
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) Edward Jenner
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) Robert Koch
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Robert Hooke
160. With reference to the passive immunity of human (d) Carl Linnaeus
body to fight the disease, consider the following 166. Marsilea, Fern and Horse-tail are examples of
statements: which one of the following plant groups ?
1. Passive immunity is generated due to antibodies (a) Pteridophyta
obtained from outside the body. (b) Bryophyta
2. Passive immunity is slow and takes time to give (c) Gymnosperms
its full effective response. (d) Angiosperms
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 167. Which one of the following organisms is
(a) 1 only responsible for sleeping sickness?
(b) 2 only (a) Leishmania
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Trypanosoma
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Ascaris
161. Which among the following is/are transported by (d) Helicobacter
the blood plasma? 168. Which one of the following body parts/organs of
1. Carbon dioxide the human body does not have smooth muscles?
2. Nitrogenous wastes (a) Ureters
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3. Glucose (b) Iris of eye

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Bronchi of lungs
(a) 1 only (d) Biceps
(b) 1 and 3 only 169. Which one of the following cell organelles is
(c) 2 and 3 only known as ‘suicide bags’ of a cell?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Lysosomes
162. Which one of the following is the correct (b) Plastids
sequence of organs that occur in the path of urine (c) Endoplasmic reticulum
flow in human body? (d) Mitochondria
(a) Kidney, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra 170. Which of the following classes of animals
(b) Kidney, urinary bladder, ureter, urethra has/have three chambered heart?
(c) Kidney, ureter, urethra, urinary bladder (a) Pisces and Amphibia
(d) Urinary bladder, kidney, urethra, ureter (b) Amphibia and Reptilia
163. Which of the following endocrine glands is not (c) Reptilia only
found in pair in humans? (d) Amphibia only
(a) Adrenal CURRENT AFFAIRS (171-200)
(b) Pituitary 171. Which Countries are part of the Nordic-Baltic
(c) Testis cooperation known as NB8?
(d) Ovary (a) Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Iceland, Latvia,
164. Which one of the following cell organelles Lithuania, Norway and Sweden
contains DNA?
(a) Golgi apparatus
(b) Belgium, Hungary, Poland, Romania, Slovakia, 3. Green Development Pact
Ukraine, and Croatia 4. Green Grids Initiative
(c) Germany, France, Italy, Spain, Portugal, Greece, 5. India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor
Austria and Czech Republic How many of the above were launched as part of
(d) Netherlands, Luxembourg, Bulgaria, Cyprus, India’s G20 Presidency?
Malta, Ireland, Lithuania and Slovakia (a) Only two
172. In the context of Chandrayaan-3, what is the (b) Only three
significance of studying the far side of the moon? (c) Only four
(e) It provides a static place for Earthobserving arrays. (d) All five
(f) It aids in a better understanding of the geology of 177. Consider the following statements:
the Moon as there are no temperature variations • Statement-I: 28th February is declared as
due to lack of sunlight. National Science Day.
(g) It offers constant communication with the ground • Statement-II: It was on this day that India’s first
networks on Earth. satellite, Aryabhata, was launched.
(h) It is considered a good location for the placement Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
of radio telescopes by astronomers. above statements?
173. The ‘BonFIRE Technique’, recently seen in the (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
news, is mainly used to: and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
(a) visualize biological processes at a singlemolecule Statement-I
level (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) generate green energy from renewable sources and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
(c) control wildfires in Amazon forests Statement-I
(d) identify different types of atomic bonds in (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
molecules incorrect
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174. Invasive Alien Species Report” is released by (d) Statement-I Is incorrect but Statement-II is
which one of the following organisations? correct
(e) Intergovernmental Platform on Biodiversity and 178. Operation Storm Makers II, recently seen in the
Ecosystem Services (IPBES) news, aimed to:
(f) World Wide Fund for Nature (a) tackle cyber threats in the financial sector
(g) The Nature Conservancy (b) counter illicit drug trafficking across international
(h) International Union for Conservation of Nature borders
(IUCN) (c) combat fraud schemes linked to human
175. Which one of the following statements best trafficking networks
describes the term ‘Asian Premium’? (d) prevent illegal arms trade in conflict zones
(a) It refers to the low-interest loans offered by Asian 179. The term “C-PACE”, often seen in the news, is
Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) to African related to:
nations. (a) Striking off companies from the Ministry of
(b) It is the high rate of growth witnessed by the Corporate Affairs (MCA) Register
emerging economies in South East Asia. (b) commercialization of off-grid clean energy
(c) It implies the migration of highly skilled labour (c) transition to circular economy
from Asia to developed economies. (d) patent acquisition
(d) It is the price discrimination strategy where Asian 180. Zircon Missile, a supersonic ballistic missile,
countries receive oil at a higher price recently launched by which country?
176. Consider the following initiatives: (a) Russia
1. Mission LiFE (b) Israel
2. Global Biofuel Alliance (c) Ukraine
(d) China 188. When does the Model Code of Conduct (MCC)
181. ‘Electricity 2024’ report, recently seen in the come into effect in India?
news, is released by which organization? (a) When the election schedule is announced
(a) International Energy Agency (b) After the final list of candidates is announced
(b) International Development Association (c) 48 hours before the voting
(c) Organization for Economic Development (d) On the day of voting
(d) World Bank 189. Which one of the following is not a member of
182. In which city is the “1st BIMSTEC Aquatics ASEAN?
Championship” being held? (a) Indonesia
(a) Dhaka (b) Japan
(b) Colombo (c) Thailand
(c) New Delhi (d) Malaysia
(d) Kathmandu 190. The Rubber Board is a statutory organisation
183. What is ‘Tupolev Tu-160m’ that has been in the works under:
news recently? (a) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(a) A nuclear-powered aircraft carrier (b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(b) A strategic missile-carrying bomber (c) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare
(c) A long-range, hypersonic ballistic missile (d) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(d) A Kiev-class aircraft carrier 191. The INDUS-X initiative, recently seen in the news,
184. Anti-hydrogen Experiment: Gravity, focuses on:
Interferometry, Spectroscopy (AEgIS), is a (a) agriculture technology
collaboration of physicists from (b) antipiracy measures
(a) Europe and Australia (c) high-tech cooperation in the defence sector
(b) Australia and India (d) renewable energy solutions
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(c) Europe and India 192. Warship-Category

(d) Europe and USA 1. INS Shivalik-Frigate
185. NaViGate Bharat portal is developed by which 2. INS Vikrant -Aircraft carrier
ministry: 3. INS Visakhapatnam - Guided missile destroyer
(a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare 4. INS Vagir - Submarine
(b) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(c) Ministry of statistics and program (a) Only one pair
implementation (b) Only two pairs
(d) Ministry of health and family welfare (c) Only three pairs
186. What is Smishing, sometimes seen in the news? (d) All four pairs
(a) Form of phishing that targets individuals through 193. Consider the following statements with reference
text messages to the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
(b) Artificial Intelligence method to develop 1. It is conferred annually by the Ministry of Youth
deepfakes Affairs and Sports.
(c) Toolkit to curb fake news 2. It is generally given to only one person at a time.
(d) Spyware targeting government infrastructures 3. It is given for performance by a sportsperson over
187. The Raisina Dialogue is an annual conference on: a period of preceding four years.
(a) Geopolitics and Geo-economics issues How many of the statements given above are correct?
(b) Cyber Security (a) Only one
(c) Artificial Intelligence (b) Only two
(d) Women Empowerment (c) All three
(d) None
194. The Jnanpith Award is given for excellence in 3. Qatar
which of the following fields? 4. Saudi Arabia
(a) Medicine 5. Syria
(b) Social work How many of the above are members of the Gulf
(c) Literature Cooperation Council?
(d) Cinema (a) Only two
195. Recently, the United Nations declared the year (b) Only three
2024 as the ‘International Year of Camelids’ with the (c) Only four
aim to: (d) All five
(a) call for increased investment in the camelid sector 199. Consider the following statements regarding the
(b) prevent the rising incidents of poaching of the AKASH weapon system:
camelids 1. It is a short-range surface-to-air missile system.
(c) highlight the influence of climate change on the 2. It can simultaneously engage multiple targets.
survival of camelids 3. It is inducted with the Indian Navy and Indian
(d) prevent the exploitation of camelids for Army.
commercial purposes How many statements given above are correct?
196. Consider the following statements with reference (a) Only one
to the Chief Guest for the Republic Day of India: (b) Only two
1. It is the highest honour accorded to a country in (c) All three
terms of protocol. (d) None
2. The list of potential candidates for the Chief Guest 200. Consider the following statements:
is prepared by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. 1. ANTRIX Corporation Ltd. is the commercial arm of
3. The first Chief Guest of the parade in 1950 was the ISRO.
President of Indonesia. 2. It is engaged in providing space products and
TE
ITU
ST
E IN
NC
FE
L DE
NA
TIO
NA
How many of the above statements are correct? services to international customers.
(a) Only one Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) All three (b) 2 only
(d) None (c) Both 1 and 2
197. With reference to Central Industrial Security (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Force (CISF), consider the following statements:
1. It was established in 1969 on the ****
recommendations of the Justice Mukherjee
Commission.
2. It is a dedicated force whose services can be
availed only by government installations.
3. It is the only Central Armed Police Force with a
dedicated firefighting wing.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
198. Consider the following:
1. Bahrain
2. Turkey

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NDI NATIONAL DEFENCE INSTITUTE

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