06| Medical # 7 (Session 2023) 20th Aug, 2023 MM ACADEMY

NMDCAT PRACTICE TEST 8. The forward current through a semi-conductor diode circuit is due to the:
A) Minority carriers B) Majority carriers
2nd YEAR C) Holes D) Electrons
ACCORDING TO PMDC SMART SYLLABUS 9. The configuration of diode in figure is:
A) Forward bias
B) Reversed bias
INSTRUCTIONS: C) May be forward, may be reversed D) None of these
• Total No. of MCQs: 200 • Test will Not Be Submitted Before 10:45 A.M.
10. A half wave rectifier is used to rectify an alternating voltage of frequency
• No Negative Marking • Total time allowed: 3.5 Hours
50Hz. The obtained number of pulses of rectified current recorded in 1 sec is:
A) 50 B) 100 C) 25 D) 200
Biology Chemistry Physics English 11. The practical application of the mutual induction phenomena is:
• Reproduction • Alkyl Halides • Electromagnetic • General Subject A) Electric motor B) Transformer C) Generator D) Transistor
• Evolution • Alcohols & Induction Verb Agreement 12. Turn ratio of a step-up transformer is 50. If 220V AC is applied to its primary
Phenols • Electronics • Vocabulary coil, then voltage in the secondary coil will be:
LOGICAL A) 44V B) 11000V C) 4.4V D) 220V
REASONING 13. According to faraday law the induced emf depends upon:
• Deduction A) Strength of a bar magnet B) Relative motion
C) No. of loops of a coil D) All of these
PHYSICS 14. Lenz’s law depicts the law of conservation of:
1. In half wave rectifier, the output DC voltage is obtained across the load for: A) Mass B) Momentum C) Energy D) Charge
A) The positive half cycle of output AC 15. 1 Henry equals to:
B) The negative half cycle of output AC A) Volt sec / Ampere B) Volt ampere per second
C) The positive and negative half cycle of input AC C) Sec volt / Ampere D) Ampere volt per second
D) Either positive or negative half cycle of input AC 16. Maximum magnetic flux is 𝜙0 then at angle of 30° between 𝐵 ⃗ and 𝐴 is
2. The device used for conversion of AC into DC: 𝜙30° =?
A) An amplifier B) An oscillator C) A detector D) A rectifier A) 100% of 𝜙0 B) 50% of 𝜙0 C) 86% of 𝜙0 D) 0% of 𝜙0
3. The potential barrier in a diode stops the movement of: 17. Conventional current is passed through a conductor; the force
A) Holes only B) Both electrons and holes will be along:
C) Electrons only D) Bounded electrons A) Left B) Right
4. Which circuit is used for smooth output voltage in rectification? C) Out of page D) Into page
A) Oscillator B) Filter C) Amplifier D) Rectifier 18. Lamination of core of transformer is done to decrease its:
5. The width of depletion region of a diode: A) Resistance B) Hysteresis loss C) Inductance D) Eddy current
A) Increase under forward bias B) Increase under reverse bias 19. A metal rod of length 1m is moving at a speed of 1m/s in the direction making
C) Increase in forward bias and decrease in reversed bias D) All an angle of 30° with 0.5T magnetic field. The emf produced is:
6. How many diodes are used for full wave rectification in bridge rectifier? A) 0.25V B) 0.5V C) 2.5V D) 4V
A) Two B) Three C) Four D) One 20. A copper ring is held horizontally. A bar magnet is dropped through the ring
7. Depletion region carries: with its length along the axis of the ring. Acceleration of the falling magnet is:
A) Negative charge B) Positive charge A) Equal to that due to gravity B) Less than that due to gravity
C) No free charge D) Positive ion C) More than that due to gravity
D) Depends on the diameter of ring and length of magnet
06| Medical # 7 (Session 2023) 20th Aug, 2023 MM ACADEMY

21. For ideal transformer: 34. A magnet is falling over a loop as in figure, the direction of induced current is:
A) Pinput = Poutput B) Efficiency = 1 A) Clockwise B) Anti clockwise
C) No power losses D) All of these C) No induced current
22. Purpose of step-down transformer is to make the: D) Either clockwise or anti clockwise
A) Output current lower than input current 35. In case of center-taped transformer full-wave rectifier:
B) Output voltage lower than input voltage A) Minimum 2 diodes are required
C) Input current same as output current D) None of these B) Only one diode conducts at a time
23. If the speed of rotation of AC motor armature is made four times of initial C) Both A and B D) None
value, the percent increase in an induced emf is: 36. The output voltage of a rectifier is a:
A) 100% B) 200% C) 300% D) 500% A) Straight line B) Smooth C) Pulsating D) None
24. In AC generator, the induced emf depends upon: 37. If a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 50Hz mains, then the time
A) No. of loops of a coil B) Angular velocity of a coil period of output ripple will be:
C) Area of the coil D) All of these A) 10ms B) 40ms C) 50ms D) 8m/s
25. Energy and power is transferred from primary to secondary coil in a 38. A rod of length 20cm is moving with 20m/s in a direction perpendicular to a
transformer due to: magnetic field of 20T. What is the value of emf?
A) Electrostatic induction B) Flow of charges A) 20 V B) 40 V C) 60 V D) 80 V
C) Flux linkage D) All of these 39. The diode is made from silicon. How much current flows through the resistor?
26. Turn ratio of step-up transformer is: A) 0.3B B) 1V
A) = 1 B) > 1 C) < 1 D) < 0 C) No current D) None
27. 2
A 1m circular coil of 100 turns is placed parallel to changing magnetic field at 40. Lenz’s law deals with:
0.3T, the induced emf is: A) Magnitude of emf
A) 0V B) 0.5V C) 3V D) 3.5V B) Direction of emf
28. A charged particle moves with velocity V in a uniform magnetic field B. The C) Resistance D) Direction of induced current
magnetic force experienced by the particle is: 41. If a step-up transformer were 100% efficient, the primary and secondary
A) Always zero B) Zero if B and V are perpendicular windings would have the same:
C) Zero if B and V are parallel D) Never zero A) Current B) Power C) Voltage D) Direction of winding
29. A proton is moving along z-axis in a magnetic field. The magnetic field is 42. If the coil is wound on iron, the flux through it:
along x-axis. The proton will experience a force along: A) Increases B) Decreases
A) X-axis B) Y-axis C) Z-axis D) Negative z-axis C) Remain same D) Becomes zero
30. The motional emf depends upon: 43. An emf of 0.5V is induced between the ends of a metal bar moving through a
A) V B) B C) L D) All magnetic field of 0.20T. What field strength would be needed to produce an
31. The ripple factor in half wave rectifier is: emf of 1.5V between the ends of the bar. If all other factors remain same?
A) 1.21 B) 0.48 C) 1 D) Zero A) 0.3T B) 0.6T C) 0.9T D) 1.2T
32. The efficiency of full wave rectifier is: 44. The mutual inductance M is expressed as:
𝑁 𝜙 𝜙 𝐼 𝑁
A) 48% B) 81.2% C) 100% D) 60% A) 𝑀 = 𝑆𝐼 𝑆 B) 𝑀 = 𝑁 𝑆𝐼 C) 𝑀 = 𝑁 𝐼 D) 𝑀 = 𝐼 𝜙
𝑃 𝑆 𝑃 𝑆 𝑃 𝑃 𝑆
33. In full wave rectifier, the frequency of output DC is always:
45. If we doubled all the parameters of the force acting on current carrying
A) Double of AC B) Remain same as AC
conductor and 𝜃 = 90°, then magnetic force becomes:
C) Half of AC D) 4 times of AC
A) Half B) Doubled C) Four times D) Eight times
06| Medical # 7 (Session 2023) 20th Aug, 2023 MM ACADEMY

46. In alternating current, a/an _______ behaves like a resistor. 58. 𝑂𝐻 − act as _______ when react with 2-bromopropane in presence of alcohol.
A) Capacitor B) Inductor C) L-C circuit D) R-C circuit A) Base B) Nucleophile C) Ligands D) All
47. The maximum emf induced by an alternating generator is: 59. Which one can act as nucleophile?
A) 𝜀 = 𝑁𝜔𝐴𝐵 B) 𝜀 = 𝑁𝐼𝐴𝐵 C) 𝜀 = 𝑁𝜔𝐵 cos 𝜃 D) None A) 𝐻2 𝑆 B) Ethene C) Benzene D) All
48. In order to enhance the magnetic flux, the primary and secondary coils of the 60. In which of the following, two transition state formations are possible?
transformer are wound on a ________ core. A) 1st order SN reaction B) 2nd order elimination reaction
A) Copper B) Soft iron C) Steel D) Rough iron
C) 2nd order SN reaction D) All of these
49. Which of the following diagram shows the symbol of diode?
61. Which one is the strongest nucleophile?
A) B) A) 𝑅 − 𝑁 ̅𝐻2 B) C) −𝐶 ≡ 𝑁 D) All same
62. In 𝛽-elimination the product formed is:
C) D)
A) Alcohol B) Alkane C) Alkyl halide D) Alkene
50. When a diode is in reverse biased, if offers _________ resistance.
63. ____ is irrelevant to decide the order of reaction for rxn: R–X + 𝑂𝐻 − ⟶
A) Zero B) Low C) High D) Infinite
51. Which statement is correct for diode? A) Solvent B) Nature of alkyl halide
A) It allows unidirectional current B) It allows bidirectional current C) Nature of reagent D) None
C) It offers high resistance in forward bias 64. Which one always follow 𝑆𝑁2 or 𝐸2 mechanism?
D) It acts as a closed switch in reverse bias A) Ethyl halide B) 2-Bromopropane
52. The knee voltage for forward biased silicon diode is: C) 2-Bromo-2methyl propane D) Both B and C
A) 0.3V B) 0.4V C) 0.6V D) 0.7V 65. Dehydration of alcohols with concentrated 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 at 180℃ gives:
53. At which angle between normal to plane and magnetic field induced emf in A) Ethers B) Esters C) Alkenes D) Alkyl halide
generator is half of its maximum value? 66. Intermolecular dehydration of alcohols with 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 at 140℃ gives:
A) 90° B) 45° C) 60° D) 30° A) Ether B) Ester C) Alkene D) Alkyl halide
54. For long distance transmission, the transformer used is: 67. Which one will react faster with K metal?
A) Step down B) Step up C) Amplifier is used
A) 1° alcohol B) 2° alcohol C) 3° alcohol D) All same
D) Input voltage and output voltage remain the same Pyridine KOH and H2 O
68. Consider a reaction: 𝑅 − 𝑂𝐻 + 𝑆𝑂𝐶𝑙2 → 𝐴→ 𝐵
CHEMISTRY The expected compounds A and B are respectively:
55. The reaction between 3°-alcohol and halogen acid is ___ in presence of 𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2 . A) Thio alcohol and alcohol B) Alkyl halide and alcohol
A) 1st order and elimination B) 2nd order and SN reaction C) Alkyl halide and thioalcohol D) Alcohol and alkyl halide
C) 2nd order and elimination D) 1st order and SN reaction 69. 𝑅 − 𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻𝑋 ⟶ 𝑅 − 𝑋 + 𝐻2 𝑂 Predict the mechanism of reaction:
56. Which one is denser than water? A) Electrophilic substitution B) Nucleophilic addition
A) Methyl fluoride B) Ethyl fluoride C) Nucleophilic exchange D) Nucleophilic substitution
C) Ethyl chloride D) None of these 70. Which one can’t be reacted directly with alcohol to produce alkyl halide?
57. Which method is not suitable to prepare pure alkyl halide? A) 𝑃𝐵𝑟3 B) 𝑃𝐼3 C) Both A and B D) 𝑃𝐶𝑙3
A) Reaction of alcohol with HX 71. When alkyl iodide reacts with 𝐾𝑂𝐻 in aqueous media. The end product is
B) Reaction of 𝐶𝐻4 with 𝐶𝑙2 in presence of sunlight found to be alcohol. Which one is nucleophuge?
C) Reaction of alcohol with 𝑃𝑋3 D) Both A and B A) Iodonium ion B) Alkyl iodide C) Iodide ion D) Hydroxyl ion
06| Medical # 7 (Session 2023) 20th Aug, 2023 MM ACADEMY

72. Which alcohol has secondary carbon? 85. Which one will react most readily in 𝑆𝑁2 reaction?
A) Trimethylene glycol B) Propylene glycol A) (𝐶𝐻3 )𝐶 𝐶𝑙 B) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐼
C) Ethylene glycol D) All of these C) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝑙 D) (𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝑙
Polar protic (Solvent) 86. Which property is irrelevant to good leaving group?
73. Consider the reaction: 2-iodopropane +𝑂̅𝐻 → 2° alcohol.
A) Size B) Electronegativity C) Polarizability D) None
If concentration of both 𝑂̅ 𝐻 and 2-iodopropane increases 2 times then rate
87. The general formula of alcohol is:
increases ______ times.
A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) Unaffected A) 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛 𝑂𝐻 B) 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛+1 𝑂𝐻 C) 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛+2 𝑂 D) Both B&C
74. Which of the following shows umbrella effect predominantly? 88. Hydrogenation of 𝐶6 𝐻5 − 𝑂𝐻 gives:
A) 𝑆𝑁1 B) 𝑆𝑁2 C) 𝐸1 D) 𝐸2 A) Dihydroxy benzene B) Cyclopentanol
75. Which one can follow SN reaction except? C) Cyclohexanol D) Cyclohexanal
A) Acetyl chloride B) Acid amide C) Carboxylic acid D) None 89. The reactivity order of “𝐶 − 𝑂” bond breaking of different alcohol is:
76. For ____ only 180°(backside) attack occurs to replace the nucleophile. A) 1° > 2° > 3° B) 3° < 2° < 1° C) Both A, B D) 3° > 2° > 1°
A) 𝑆𝑁1 B) 𝐸1 C) 𝑆𝑁2 D) Both A and B 90. The reactivity order of “𝑂 − 𝐻” bond breaking of difference alcohol is:
77. Which factor will not affect the elimination reaction? A) 1° > 2° > 3° B) 3° < 2° < 1° C) Both A, B D) 3° > 2° > 1°
A) Bulky substrate B) Bulky nucleophile/base 91. Which one is strongest acid?
C) Solvent nature D) None of these A) 𝐻2 𝑂 B) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝑂𝐻 C) 𝐶2 𝐻5 − 𝑂𝐻 D) Ethyne
78. Hydrolysis of methyl iodide in presence of KOH is ______ reaction. 92. The final products of reaction between methyl magnesium bromide and
A) 𝑆𝑁1 B) 𝑆𝑁2 C) 𝐸1 D) 𝐸2 simplest ester is:
79. The oxidation of alcohol is ________ reaction. A) 1° alcohol B) 2° alcohol C) 3° alcohol D) None
Pyridine⁄HCl
A) 𝛼-elimination B) 𝛽-elimination C) None D) Both A & B 93. Consider the reaction: 𝑅 − 𝑂𝐻 + 𝑆𝑂𝐶𝑙2 → 𝑅 − 𝐶𝑙 + 𝑆𝑂2
80. Which one will proceed through partial oxidation reaction? In this reaction pyridine act as:
A) 3° alcohol + 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 B) 1° alcohol + 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 A) Dehydrating agent B) Dehydrogenating agent
C) 1° alcohol + PCC D) None of these C) Base D) Acid
81. The reaction of 𝐶𝐻3 𝑀𝑔𝐵𝑟 with butanone followed by hydrolysis gives: 94. Consider the reaction: 3𝑅 − 𝑂𝐻 + 𝑃𝐶𝑙3 ⟶ 3𝑅 − 𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂3
A) 2-butanol B) 2-methylbutane-1-ol Which one is nucleophile in the above reaction?
C) 2-methylbutan-2-ol D) None of these A) Alcohol B) 𝑃𝐶𝑙3 C) 𝐶𝑙 − D) None
82. Which one can convert acetic acid into ethanol? 95. Which one is not correct?
A) Na + alcohol B) 𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4 + ether A) Nucleophilicity increases down the group
C) 𝐻2 + Pt D) Sn + HCl B) Basicity decreases down the group
83. Which one gives esterification reaction more readily? C) Both increases from right to left in period D) All correct
A) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝑂𝐻 B) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝑂𝐻 96. Which one reacts most readily with NaOH?
C) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝑂𝐻 D) All with same rate A) 1° alcohol B) 2° alcohol C) 3° alcohol D) None
LiAlH4 +Ether [0] 97. Which one on reduction can give two different alcohols?
84. Consider the reaction: Acetyldehyde → 𝐴 → 𝐵 at the end of reaction
A) Ester B) Acetone C) Aldehyde D) None
what is A and B?
A) Ethanol and formaldehyde B) Acetaldehyde and ethanol
C) Ethanol and acetaldehyde D) Ethanol and acetic acid
06| Medical # 7 (Session 2023) 20th Aug, 2023 MM ACADEMY

98. __________ bond breaks when alcohols follow elimination. 111. Testes are the sites of _________ in human.
A) 𝐶 − 𝐶 & 𝐶 − 𝐻 B) 𝐶 − 𝐻 & 𝑂 − 𝐻 A) Spermatogenesis B) Testosterone production
C) 𝐶 − 𝑂 & 𝐶 − 𝐻 D) None C) Semen production D) Both A and B
112. The min. number of vasa efferentia that collect sperms inside testis:
A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) None
99. What is the end product of the following?
113. Epididymis is part of ducts system used for all except:
A) Acetic acid B) Acetaldehyde C) Formic acid D) None
A) Sperm storage B) Transport of sperm
100. The carbon to which functional group in alcohols is attached called:
C) Sperm gaining swimming ability D) Spermatogenesis
A) 𝛼-carbon B) 𝛽-carbon C) Saturated carbon D) None
114. Each ejaculatory duct enters into:
101. Which one will produce strongest nucleophile when reacted with Na metal?
A) Prostate gland B) Seminal vesicle
A) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝑂𝐻 B) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝑆𝐻 C) 𝐻𝐹 D) All same
C) Cowper’s gland D) Vas deferens
102. When alcohol is treated with 𝑃𝐶𝑙3 , the order of reactivity of alcohol is:
115. ______ is the terminal portion of male reproductive system.
A) 1° > 2° > 3° B) 3° > 2° > 1° C) 1° > 3° > 2° D) Both B, C A) External genitalia B) Semen C) Vaginal fluid D) All
103. Which bond of alcohol breaks when ROH react with 𝑆𝑂𝐶𝑙2 in presence of 116. Urethra is the passage way for all secretions except:
pyridine? A) Urine B) Semen C) Vaginal fluid D) None
A) 𝑂 − 𝐻 B) 𝐶 − 𝐻 and 𝑂 − 𝐻 C) 𝐶 − 𝐻 and 𝐶 − 𝑂 D) 𝐶 − 𝑂 117. Testes in abdominal sac will produce:
104. ____ of 𝐻2 gas is produced when 92g of Na reacts with excess of 𝑅 − 𝑂𝐻. A) Less sperm B) Dead sperm C) More sperm D) Normal sperm
A) 2g B) 4g C) 8g D) 1g 118. Component of seminal vesicle that enhance sperm motility is:
105. Which one is true about 𝑅 − 𝐼? A) Fructose B) Vesiculase
A) Most reactive alkyl halide B) Greatest B.P among all alkyl halide C) Prostaglandin D) Hyaluronidase
C) Can’t be prepared directly by reaction of alkane with 𝐼2 D) All true 119. Citrate as nutrient source is present in secretion of:
106. Which one is a good nucleophile? A) Seminal vesicle B) Bulbourethral
A) 𝑁𝐻3 B) 𝐵𝑟2 C) 𝐻𝐵𝑟 D) 𝐵𝐻3 C) Prostate D) None
107. 2-haloalkane show both 𝑆𝑁1 and 𝑆𝑁2 reactions depending upon: 120. The immediate result of second meiotic division in spermatogenesis:
A) Nature of functional group B) Temperature A) Spermatogonium B) Primary spermatocyte
C) Nature of solvent D) All of these C) Spermatid D) Secondary spermatocyte
108. Which organo-chloro compound can show complete stereo chemical inversion 121. In seminiferous tubules, germ cell line is maintained by cell:
during substitution reaction? A) Type A B) Type B C) Primary spermatocyte D) Sperm
A) (𝐶2 𝐻5 )2 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙 B) (𝐶𝐻3 )3 𝐶𝐶𝑙 C) (𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙 D) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝑙 122. Non-motile and round cell is changed into motile and active cell by:
BIOLOGY A) Oogenesis B) Spermiogenesis
C) Spermatogenesis D) Spermiation
109. ______ is not part of male reproductive system. 123. The lysosome like acrosome is produced by:
A) Pair of testis B) Ducts C) External genitalia D) Ovaries A) Hyaluronidase B) Animal seed C) Golgi bodies D) Nucleus
110. Total number of lobules in both testes are: 124. Everyday, a healthy adult male makes about __________ sperms.
A) 250 B) 300 C) 600 D) None A) 20 million B) 150 million
C) 200 million D) 400 million
06| Medical # 7 (Session 2023) 20th Aug, 2023 MM ACADEMY

125. ___ spermatids are formed from five leyden cells of seminiferous tubules. 139. Sperm cells are developed inside:
A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) Zero A) Epididymis B) Interstitial cells
126. Which structure is absent in testis? C) Seminiferous tubules D) Lobules
A) Seminal vesicle B) Lobules 140. At end of meiosis-I, male germ cells are differentiated into:
C) Seminiferous tubules D) None of these A) Spermatid B) Spermatozoa
127. Initial part of female duct system is about: C) Primary spermatocyte D) Secondary Spermatocyte
st
A) 3-5cm B) 10cm C) 12cm D) 20cm 141. In female tract vagina 1 leads to:
128. Fallopian tube receives _____ from ovary each month. A) Cervix B) Uterus C) Ovary D) Oviduct
A) Sperm B) Egg C) Secondary Oocyte D) Both A and C 142. The first arrest of primary oocyte is due to waiting for:
129. Oocyte is carried towards uterus by: A) Entry of sperm B) Egg maturation
A) Beating of cilia B) Peristalsis C) Female maturation D) All of these
C) Secretion of cells D) Both A and B 143. Number of oogonium cells required for synthesis of 30 secondary polar body
130. Ruptured follicle is transformed into glandular corpus luteum: cells is:
A) During ovulation B) After ovulation A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) 30
C) After menstruation D) None of these 144. WOF is correct pair in case of arrest:
131. Uterus is located in pelvis, posterior to ________ and anterior to ___________. A) Primary-oocyte – metaphase – II B) Secondary oocyte – prophase – I
A) Rectum – Bladder B) Bladder – Rectum C) Secondary oocyte – metaphase – II D) Primary oocyte – metaphase – I
C) Ovary – Bladder D) Rectum – Ovary 145. The periodic menstrual cycle for reproduction is present in:
132. A hollow, thick-walled muscular organ is for receiving and retaining: A) All mammals B) All primates except human
A) Secondary oocyte B) Sperm C) All mammals except primate D) Primate and human
C) Fertilized ovum D) Unfertilized ovum 146. The gonadotropin and FSH begin to rise in:
133. Which layer of uterus is responsible for child birth? A) Proliferative B) Menstrual phase
A) Perimetrium B) Myometirum C) Endometrium D) Myocardium C) Secretory D) Ovulation
134. Spermiogenesis process occurs when: 147. Which pair of hormones are responsible in thinning of cervical mucus?
A) Secondary spermatocyte develops to spermatid A) Estrogen and progesterone B) FSH and LH
B) Spermatid develops into sperm C) Hyaluronidase and GnRH D) Estrogen & prostaglandin
B) Spermatogonium change to spermatid D) All of these 148. Ovulation process is completed at day:
135. Number of epididymis per testis is: A) 13 B) 14 C) 15 D) 16
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 149. The time period for premenstrual phase in menstrual cycle is:
136. Semen pH can become neutral by addition of secretion from: A) 14 – 15 day B) 24 – 28 day C) 26 – 28 day D) None
A) Seminal vesicle B) Prostate 150. Functional layer of uterus is converted to glandular secretory layer by:
C) Cowper’s gland D) Seminiferous A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) FSH & LH D) Both A and B
137. Destructive lesions of CNS appear in: 151. The last female reproductive cycle at age of 50 is called:
A) AIDS B) Gonorrhea C) Syphilis D) Chancer A) Menopause B) Menarche C) Andropause D) Menstrual
138. WOF is unpaired male reproductive structure: 152. All are related to secretory phase except:
A) Testes B) Prostate A) Release of glycogen B) Rise of progesterone
C) Vasa differentia D) Bulbourethral C) Rise of estrogen D) Increase and decrease of LH
06| Medical # 7 (Session 2023) 20th Aug, 2023 MM ACADEMY

153. Identical twins result from fusion of: 166. Darwin was surprised to see diversity of:
A) 1 sperm and 2 oocyte B) 2 sperms and 1 oocyte A) Turtles & Finches B) Finches & Snakes
C) 1 sperm and 1 oocyte D) 2 sperms and 2 oocyte C) Finches & Tortoises D) Only Finches
154. The target organ for agent of gonorrhea in female is: 167. Darwin was catalyzed because of work of:
A) Urethra B) Uterus C) Vagina D) All A) Alfred Wallace B) Lamarck
155. Penicillin antibiotic is used for treatment of: C) Mendel D) Cuvier
A) AIDS B) Syphilis C) Gonorrhea D) Both B and C 168. Organism reproduces high number of offspring. It is due to:
156. The percentage of asymptomatic gonorrhea in males is: A) High resources B) Less resources
A) 10% B) 20% C) 40% D) None C) Natural selection D) None
157. First evolutionist who proposed mechanism about evolution was: 169. Competition between wolf and tiger is ________ struggle.
A) Aristotle B) Lamarck C) Darwin D) Mendel A) Inter specific B) Intra specific C) Extra specific D) Variation
158. Fossils from oldest rock layers were very close to: 170. The modern theory accepts all causes of evolution except:
A) Modern species B) Descendants A) Natural selection B) Genetic drift
C) Younger species D) None of these C) Variation D) Reproductive isolation
159. According to George Cuvier, the flora and fauna of modern world are: 171. In term “survival of fittest” was used by:
A) New species B) Survived species A) Darwin & Wallace B) Hebert Spencer
C) Dead species D) Fossils C) Mayor & Simpson D) Only Darwin
160. The layered patterns are created by four forces, it was explained by: 172. Which factor does not permit interbreeding of individuals of different species?
A) Cuvier & Agassiz B) Lamarck & Darwin A) Genetic recombination B) Natural selection
C) Hutton & Lyell D) Baer & Haeckle C) Reproductive isolation D) None of these
161. WOF is related to concept of Lamarck: 173. The flippers of whales are like:
A) Inheritance of acquired characters A) Wings of bat B) Hand of human
B) Innate drive of organism for perfection C) Wings of insects D) Both A and B
C) Urge of organism to climb ladder D) All 174. What is common in shark, seal and blue whale?
162. Eukaryotes evolved from prokaryotes __________ years ago. A) Homology B) Convergent evolution
A) 1 billion B) 1.5 billion C) 3 billion D) 4 billion C) Divergent evolution D) Fossils
163. The main point of Lamarckism was: 175. Total number of toes in dawn horse?
A) Inheritance of genetic character B) Use or disuse of organ A) 12 B) 14 C) 16 D) 18
C) Gradual accumulation of adaptation D) All of these 176. Presence of gills in all vertebrates at stage of embryo is evidence of evolution
164. The loss of limbs in snakes was due to: from:
A) Lion B) Predator A) Embryology B) Fossils C) Biochemistry D) Anatomy
C) Weasel D) Environment ENGLISH
165. Name of the book published by Charles Darwin:
A) Origin of species B) Darwinism 177. Choose the correct sentence.
A) If the students finished the work to schedule, they would receive a present
C) Origin of species by natural selection D) Natural selection
from the teacher.
B) Were the students to finish the work to schedule, they would receive a present
from the teacher.
06| Medical # 7 (Session 2023) 20th Aug, 2023 MM ACADEMY

C) Did the students to finish the work to schedule, they would receive a present 191. I think that’s the book that’s got much information about morphology.
from the teacher. D) Both A and B A) That is – that has B) That has – that has
178. The most exciting event in the Sydney Olympics for most British viewers ______ C) That has – that is D) That is – that is
the sensational finals. 192. Many people forget the keys of ________ cars and then ______ worried about
A) Was B) Were C) Have been D) Both B, C them.
179. Both the doctor and the surgeon ______ advised me to quit eating fast-food. A) Theirs – they’re B) Their – they’re
A) Has B) Have C) Had been D) Has had C) Theirs – there D) Their’s – they’re
180. Politics ______ a topic best avoided with people you don't know well. 193. Her cousin and most loving friend ______ sent her some lovely presents.
A) Are B) Have been C) Is D) Both A, B A) Have B) Has C) Has been D) Have been
181. Scissors _____ used to cut the jeans. 194. The synonym of “Intelligent” is not ______.
A) Is B) Was C) Are D) Both A, B A) Prudent B) Astute C) Perspicacious D) Oblivious
182. Twenty-four hours ______ not sufficient for this task. LOGICAL REASONING
A) Is B) Are C) Has been D) Have been
183. The United Nations _____ agreed to deploy a peacekeeping force. 195. If it takes 5 people 5 days to build 5 walls, how long would it take for 20 people
to build 20 walls?
A) Has B) Have C) Are D) Is
A) 5 days B) 10 days C) 20 days D) 25 days
184. I bought a new racquet, a bat and a football at the ______ shop. 196. Three friends, Alex, Ben, and Chris, each said something:
A) Sport B) Sports C) Sport’s D) Sports’ (i) Alex: Ben is lying. (ii) Ben: Chris is lying. (iii) Chris: Alex is lying.
185. “MM Academy welcomed its students with open arms, eager to guide them on A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
their educational journey.” Which figure of speech is employed in the sentence? 197. At Mm Academy, five students—David, Lisa, Jessica, Peter, and Erica—
A) Simile B) Hyperbole C) Personification D) Mataphor participated in a science competition. Their scores were ranked as follows: David
186. Each student at MM Academy, along with their textbooks, _____ required to scored higher than Lisa.Jessica scored lower than both David and Lisa.Peter
bring their own laptop today. scored higher than Erica but lower than Lisa. Who scored the highest?
A) Is B) Are C) Was D) Were A) David B) Lisa C) Peter D) Erica
187. David's ability to solve complex mathematical problems _____ unparalleled 198. Which of the following is the odd one out?
A) Ynaomd B) Tyeadus C) Gatuus D) Adynsu
among his peers. 199. In a competition, the top three scores were 85, 89, and 93. If Lisa scored higher
A) Are B) Were C) Is D) Have than Peter but lower than David, and Jessica scored lower than Peter, who could
188. We'll see ______ at the university at half past one tomorrow. have scored 89?
A) Us B) Ourselves C) Each other D) Themselves A) Lisa B) Jessica C) Peter D) David
189. Erica is one of the teachers who _____ always been involving students in the 200. If all books are papers, some pens are not papers, some papers are expensive, and
discussions. no expensive things are pens, which of the following statements is false?
A) Some pens are expensive B) Some books are expensive
A) Has B) Have C) Are D) Is
C) All papers are books D) All pens are papers
190. The once beautiful village was __________ by the hurricane, leaving behind a
scene of utter destruction. GROUP TUITION: 8TH, 9TH, 10TH, 1ST & 2ND YEAR
A) Created B) Decorated C) Proliferated D) Devastated Demo Class: 11 September | Regular Class: 20 September