Đề 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer

sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered
blanks from 26 to 30.
The 1918 influenza pandemic was the most severe pandemic in recent history. It
was caused by an H1N1 virus with genes of avian origin. (26) ______ there is not
universal consensus regarding where the virus originated, it (27) ______ worldwide
during 1918-1919. In the United States, it was first identified in military personnel in
spring 1918.
It is estimated that about 500 million people or one-third of the world’s
population became infected with this virus. The (28) ______ of deaths was estimated
to be at least 50 million worldwide with about 675,000 occurring in the United States.
Mortality was high in people younger than 5 years old, 20-40 years old, and 65 years
and older. The high mortality in healthy people, including those in the 20-40-year age
group, was a unique (29) ______ of this pandemic.
While the 1918 H1N1 virus has been synthesized and evaluated, the properties
that made it so devastating are not well understood. With no vaccine to protect
against influenza infection and no antibiotics to treat secondary bacterial infections
that can be associated with influenza infections, control efforts worldwide were
limited to non-pharmaceutical interventions such as isolation, quarantine, good
personal hygiene, use of disinfectants, and limitations of public gatherings, (30)
______ were applied unevenly.
(Source: https://www.cdc.gov/)
Question 26: A. Because of B. Although C. In spite of D. Because
Question 27: A. engage B. attack C. adopt D. spread
Question 28: A. number B. speed C. progress D. quality
Question 29: A. project B. evidence C. figure D. feature
Question 30: A. when B. where C. which D. that

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Those who work at home may find that the solitude can be a double-edged sword. It is,
of course, easier to (26) ______ when you're in your own home with no co-workers coming
by your desk to chat at random times. But while this solitude can feel blissful at times, when
we have no mandate for social interaction during the workday—when we don't
 automatically run across people outside of those we live with—we can become lonely
before we realize it.
Social media can feel like a lifeline to others, but this type of (27) ______ can
sometimes feel isolating as well, as these interactions can feel less personal than face-to-face
encounters and conversations. (28) ______ we may not need to resort to painting a face on a
volleyball and talking to it, the feelings of isolation can sneak up and we can feel (29) ______
alone than we expect. And given the research on loneliness, this doesn't always feel good.
Social isolation was a factor mentioned in the UN study (30) ______ was related to increased
stress of home-based workers.
Question 26: A. relax B. focus C. protect D. continue
Question 27: A. introduction B. marketing C. community D. interaction
Question 28: A. While B. Unless C. Because D. Despite
Question 29: A. few B. less C. a few D. more
Question 30: A. where B. whom C. that D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
The black rhinoceros (Diceros bicornis) is a massive, double-horned species that has
grayish rather than black skin coloring. These independent animals typically live in damp
forest, desert, shrubland, savanna and grassland (26) ____of Africa, from South African and
Tanzania to Zimbabwe and beyond. As of 2012, black rhinos have been assigned "critically
endangered" population status by the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
The "critically endangered" classification of the black rhino is due to the species'
immense, 97.6 percent population drop from the beginning of the 1960s. At around the
closing of 2010, the estimate for the population of black rhinos was 4,880 specimens. Due
to conservation efforts, including designated havens for the species, (27) ____, numbers of
black rhinoceroses are seeing consistent improvement. In 1995, (28) ___than 2,500 black
rhinos roamed the wild.
Unlawful poaching activities are a severe risk for black rhinoceroses. Since the 1970s,
poaching has been a major culprit behind the reduced population of these herbivores - all in
pursuit of their horns, (29) ______ are used for the production of both daggers and
medicine. Poaching may be the biggest concern for black rhinos' continued existence as a
species, according to the World Wildlife Fund. Black rhinos are very (30) ______ to
poaching for a variety of reasons, one of which is their bad vision, according to the San
Diego Zoo Library. If a black rhino cannot see a poacher approaching, it makes it a lot
harder to escape.
 (Adapted from https://animals.mom.me/)
Question 26: A. relations B. concepts C. habitats D. audiences
Question 27: A. however B. therefore C. although D. moreover
Question 28: A. less B. little C. fewer D. a few
Question 29: A. why B. who C. that D. which
Question 30: A. exclusive B. susceptible C. agreeable D. industrious

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Research on the impacts of mass media began in the 1920s and 1930s, with the rise of
muckraking journalism—elites (26) ______ concerned about the effects of investigative reporting
in magazines such as McClure's on political decision-making. Mass media became a prominent
focus of study in the 1950s after television became widely available, and academic departments
dedicated to communication studies were created. These early (27) ______ investigated the
cognitive, emotional, attitudinal, and behavioral effects of media on both children and adults; in the
1990s, researchers began to use those earlier studies to draw up theories concerning the use of
media today.
In the 1970s theorists such as Marshall McLuhan and Irving J. Rein warned that media critics
needed to watch (28) ______ media affects people. Today, this remains a key concern; (29) ______
attention has been paid, for example, to the impact on the 2016 election of false messaging
distributed on social media. But the myriad forms of mass communication available today have (30)
______ encouraged some researchers to begin to investigate "what people do with media."
(Adapted from https://www.thoughtco.com/)
Question 26: A. impacted B. became C. shared D. screened
Question 27: A. budgets B. reviews C. positions D. studies
Question 28: A. how B. whom C. which D. what
Question 29: A. many B. a few C. much D. fewer
Question 30: A. also B. other C. but D. another

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
One of the main functions for the WHO continues to be tracking health trends across the
globe. With malnutrition and (26) ______ diseases supporting high mortality rates in
underdeveloped countries, it is a mission of this organization to assess trends in order to ensure that
its resources are going to the communities that need the most help. The Twelfth Programme of
Work describes this in great detail and discusses not only child and maternal mortality rates, but
also the spread of disease in (27) ______ region, the expanding number of society that is aged 55
and over, and sanitation issues that contribute to the spread of disease.
WHO continues to be a (28) ______ of integrity, rationality, and hope for the communities
around the world that face global health crises. It is no wonder that it has an amazing reputation for
providing excellent service for global communities (29) ______ being an example for other
organizations all over the world. Now (30) ______ five important functions of the World Health
Organization have been covered, consider learning more about current projects the organization is
overseeing to see if help is needed.
(Adapted from http://www.besthealthsciencedegree.com/)
Question 26: A. unreliable B. vulnerable C. miserable D. preventable
Question 27: A. every B. all C. other D. another
Question 28: A. sample B. signal C. mark D. symbol
Question 29: A. until B. while C. through D. but
Question 30: A. when B. who C. that D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Who thought that the comfy bed on which people relax after an honest day’s work
would be used in racing? The North Yorkshire town of Knaresborough hosts an (26) ______
Knaresborough Bed Race every year. The event was started as a fundraiser by the newly-
formed Knaresborough Round Table in 1966. The first-of-its-kind concept caught the eye of
thousands of spectators, and from then on it has been (27) ______ at different places in the
world.
The team is made of five persons, (28) ______ which four are the runners and one is
the rider. It is wise to choose the skinny person as the rider - you’ll need to carry them along
with the heavy bed. (29) ______ will be a parade as a part of the event in which decorated
teams walk down the runway along with twenty supporters.
The rider wears a helmet and enjoys the bumpy ride on a decorated bed. The runners
need to push the bed along the steep grassy bank, the park land, and along the scenic
waterside. Crowded marketplaces to streets add to the woes of the runners. The team that
passes through all the hurdles the fastest are declared the winners. Apart from bed racing,
the team (30) ______ bed looks the most elegant are given the Best Decorated Bed award.
(Adapted from https://www.thetravel.com/)
Question 26: A. annual B. repetitive C. gloomy D. long
Question 27: A. emphasized B. conducted C. prevented D. described
Question 28: A. between B. from C. through D. among
Question 29: A. Each B. All C. There D. Here
Question 30: A. whose B. who C. that D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Have you ever had the feeling that people older than you are hard to understand? Or,
have you felt like people from younger generations just don't get it? Maybe you find it
easier to connect with people (26) ______ are closer to your age than those who are older or
younger than you. You can probably thank the generation gap for these feelings.
There are currently six generations living in the United States: the Greatest
Generation, Silent Generation, Baby Boomers, Generation X, Millennials, and Generation
Z. (27) ______ generation has its own unique set of characteristics and norms. For (28)
______ , the Greatest Generation (born 1901-1924) is known for its patriotism, hard
workers, and loyalty to institutions. The Millennials (born 1980-2000) are characterized by
their dependence on technology, detachment from traditional institutions, optimism, and
open-mindedness. It is no (29) ______ that many people from different generations have a
hard time understanding each other.
Generation gap refers to differences in actions, beliefs, interests, and opinions that (30)
______ between individuals from different generations. So, what causes these differences?
(Adapted from https://study.com/)
Question 26: A. who B. which C. when D. what
Question 27: A. Another B. Very C. All D. Each
Question 28: A. answer B. process C. example D. study
Question 29: A. wonder B. picture C. business D. training
Question 30: A. trade B. exist C. credit D. target

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Scientists have high confidence that global temperatures will continue to rise for
decades to (26) ______, largely due to greenhouse gases produced by human activities. The
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), (27) ______ includes more than 1,300
scientists from the United States and other countries, forecasts a temperature rise of 2.5 to
10 degrees Fahrenheit over the next century.
According to the IPCC, the extent of climate change effects on individual regions will
(28) ______ over time and with the ability of different societal and environmental systems
to mitigate or adapt to (29) ______ .
The IPCC predicts that increases in global mean temperature of less than 1.8 to 5.4
degrees Fahrenheit (1 to 3 degrees Celsius) above 1990 levels will produce beneficial
impacts in (30) ______ regions and harmful ones in others. Net annual costs will increase
over time as global temperatures increase.
"Taken as a whole," the IPCC states, "the range of published evidence indicates that
the net damage costs of climate change are likely to be significant and to increase over
time."
(Adapted from https://climate.nasa.gov/)
Question 26: A. come B. arrive C. reach D. go
Question 27: A. who B. what C. which D. that
Question 28: A. vary B. force C. review D. matter
Question 29: A. service B. access C. house D. change
Question 30: A. any B. some C. other D. another

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Urbanization is a process whereby populations move from rural to urban area,
enabling cities and towns to grow. It can also be termed as the progressive increase of the
number of people living in towns and cities. It is highly influenced by the notion (26)
______ cities and towns have achieved better economic, political, and social mileages
compared to the rural areas.
Accordingly, urbanization is very common in developing and developed worlds as
more and more people have the tendency of moving closer to towns and cities to (27)
______ “privileged” social and economic services as well as benefits. These include social
and economic advantages such as better education, health care, sanitation, housing, business
opportunities, and transportation.
(28) ______ of people move to cities and towns because they view rural areas as
places with hardship and backward/primitive lifestyle. (29) ______, as populations move to
more developed areas (towns and cities) the immediate outcome is urbanization. This
normally contributes to the development of land for use in commercial properties, social and
economic support institutions, transportation, and residential buildings. Eventually, these
activities raise (30) ______ urbanization issues.
(Adapted from https://www.conserve-energy-future.com/)
Question 26: A. that B. this C. there D. here
Question 27: A. prompt B. resist C. pretend D. acquire
Question 28: A. Majority B. Amount C. Crowd D. Quantity
Question 29: A. Moreover B. Unless C. Therefore D. Although
Question 30: A. emotional B. several C. punctual D. crucial
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
A large majority of Americans believe that social media companies favor some news
organizations over others. About eight-in-ten U.S. adults say social media sites treat some news
organizations differently than others, about five times the share saying all news organizations are
treated the same.
Social media companies do have established policies (26) ______ it comes to publishers,
including prioritizing certain news sources, banning or limiting others that produce lower-quality
content, and using their monetization policies to discourage particular behaviors.
Among those U.S. adults (27) ______ say social media companies treat some news
organizations differently than others, there is broad agreement that they (28) ______ three types:
those that produce attention-grabbing articles, those with a high number of social media followers
and those whose coverage has a certain political stance.
While large social media companies have announced (29) ______ to favor high-quality news
publishers in an effort to improve the news on their sites, (30) ______ who say some news
organizations are treated differently believe social media companies favor organizations that are
well-established, have high reporting standards or have politically neutral coverage.
(Adapted from https://www.journalism.org/)
Question 26: A. despite B. when C. during D. since
Question 27: A. who B. why C. whom D. when
Question 28: A. appear B. obtain C. accept D. favor
Question 29: A. intentions B. conclusions C. initiatives D. signatures
Question 30: A. fewer B. most C. more D. a lot of

ĐỀ 11: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
We have reached greatness, but the magnificent size of our successes will be matched by the
size of our growing Crisis of Success. By 2050 there will be 9 billion people to feed, clothe,
transport, employ, educate and entertain.
Billions are committed to a growth-driven world economy they expect to inflate for centuries
to come. As we pursue (26) ______ growth, our limitless consumption threatens to crowd out
everything else on Earth. We are warming the climate, overspending our financial resources,
requiring more fresh water than we have, increasing income inequality, diminishing other species
and triggering shock waves (27) ______ we can’t cope with a problem.
Billions of people are at the “bottom” of the economy. The middle class is declining in
advanced societies. Youth underemployment is epidemic in (28) ______ countries. The forecast is
for billions to remain stuck for their whole lives.
Many no longer believe today’s leaders can improve this, (29) ______ today’s leaders are
increasing their power and digital surveillance. Leaders want new options as much as everyone else.
Clearly, there is room to (30) ______ about a more successful world along with new technology.
(Adapted from https://www.wired.com/)
Question 26: A. scattered B. conceited C. unlimited D. troubled
Question 27: A. whenever B. whoever C. however D. whatever
Question 28: A. little B. a little C. much D. many
Question 29: A. since B. despite C. though D. thanks to
Question 30: A. check B. dream C. show D. drink

ĐỀ 12: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Wind is a clean source of renewable energy that produces no air or water pollution. And since
the wind is free, operational costs are nearly zero (26) ______ a turbine is erected. Mass production
and technology advances are making turbines cheaper, and (27) ______ governments offer tax
incentives to spur wind-energy development.
Drawbacks include complaints from (28) ______ that wind turbines are ugly and noisy. The
slowly rotating blades can also kill birds and bats, but not nearly as many as cars, power lines, and
high-rise buildings do. The wind is also variable: If it's not blowing, there's no electricity generated.
Nevertheless, the wind energy industry is (29) ______ . Thanks to global efforts to combat
climate change, such as the Paris Agreement, renewable energy is seeing a boom in growth, in (30)
______ wind energy has led the way. From 2000 to 2015, cumulative wind capacity around the
world increased from 17,000 megawatts to more than 430,000 megawatts. In 2015, China also
surpassed the EU in the number of installed wind turbines and continues to lead installation efforts.
(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.com/)
Question 26: A. so that B. though C. therefore D. once
Question 27: A. many B. little C. much D. a little
Question 28: A. foreigners B. masters C. locals D. levels
Question 29: A. worrying B. booming C. informing D. relating
Question 30: A. who B. when C. why D. which

ĐỀ 13: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Not surprisingly, geographic closeness is one of the strongest predictors of a close
relationship between grandparents and grandchildren. This factor may be out of the control of (26)
______ grandparents, although some have demonstrated a willingness to move to be close to their
grandchildren. Other factors, such as the health and financial status of the grandparents can be
factors if they limit travel. Geographical distance isn't terribly important for grandparents (27)
______ are fit, healthy and financially able to afford the cost of frequent trips to see grandchildren.
(28) ______ grandparents agree that there is no substitute for face-to-face interaction,
technology has made it easier to build a relationship with grandchildren across the miles.
Many grandparents visit with their grandchildren daily via FaceTime, Skype or other video
chat platform. Older grandchildren will (29) ______ loving text messages, as long as they are not
too frequent. Facebook and other social networking sites are also good for staying in touch with
teen, and young adult grandchildren. The bottom line is that loving grandparents will find a way to
(30) ______ the distance.
(Adapted from https://www.verywellfamily.com/)
Question 26: A. all B. some C. any D. few
Question 27: A. whom B. where C. which D. who
Question 28: A. Although B. Therefore C. Because D. Moreover
Question 29: A. expand B. approach C. appreciate D. maintain
Question 30: A. bridge B. deliver C. establish D. arrive

ĐỀ14 : Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Spectacular, played today on all kinds of surfaces by tens of millions of people, for fun or in
competition, tennis has spread (26) ______ over the world. Designed and codified in England in the
1870s, it is the direct descendant of jeu de paume, invented in France in the 11th century. The
developments of this mediaeval (27) ______ , originally practised with bare hands, like the
invention of the racket in the 16th century and the special scoring system (15, 30, 40, game), led
directly to tennis, (28) ______ its name, from the French word “tenez!” (in the sense of “here it
comes!”), which you said to your opponent as you were about to serve.
The popularity of tennis in England quickly (29) ______ that of croquet. Indeed, barely three
years passed between the publication of A Portable Court of Playing Tennis by Welsh Major Walter
Clopton Wingfield in 1874, the defining work in terms of codifying lawn tennis, and the holding of
the first Wimbledon tournament in 1877. The decisive element introduced by Wingfield was the use
of a rubber ball, (30) ______ could bounce on grass.
(Adapted from https://www.olympic.org/)
Question 26: A. each B. any C. all D. every
Question 27: A. score B. screw C. smoke D. sport
Question 28: A. including B. before C. without D. except
Question 29: A. pretended B. overtook C. pressured D. guided
Question 30: A. which B. that C. what D. where

ĐỀ15: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Several countries across the globe offer benefits to parents (26) ______ have more children.
Some of these policies even directly encourage their citizens to procreate, while others are aimed at
providing for families who can’t afford to have kids on their own.
(27) ______ officials made many of these policies with their hearts in the right place, they only
contribute to the problem of overpopulation. Parents might not have kids for the tax benefit alone
(although some undoubtedly do), but they aren’t discouraged by government (28) ______ either.
Sometimes, these policies mean that parents with more kids create more income than those
without kids. Changing these policies won’t come easy, as many families (29) ______ on them for a
sustainable income. Still, we need to look at tax benefits and other government policies regarding
one of the overpopulation solutions.
One method of changing policy might be to reward families who decide to have two or (30)
______ children with tax breaks. This won’t harm anyone who has a larger family but might
dissuade some parents from having an excessive amount of kids.
(Adapted from https://www.conservationinstitute.org/)
Question 26: A. when B. where C. which D. who
Question 27: A. While B. Whether C. Such D. Unless
Question 28: A. republic B. estate C. policy D. county
Question 29: A. wrap B. rely C. laugh D. split
Question 30: A. many B. less C. much D. fewer

ĐỀ SỐ 16.
The United States of America, due to its immense size and diverse heritage, has one of the
most complex cultural identities in the world. Millions of immigrants from all over the globe have
journeyed to America (26) ______ the Europeans discovered and colonised the land back in the
17th and 18th centuries. The blending of cultural (27) ______ and ethnicities in America led to the
country becoming known as a “melting pot.” As the third largest country in both area and
population, America’s size has enabled the formation of subcultures within the country. These
subcultures are often geographical as a result of settlement (28) ______ by non-natives as well as
regional weather and landscape differences. While there are countless ways to divide the U.S. into
regions, here we have referenced the four regions that are West, Midwest, North East and South.
People from (29) ______ region may have different lifestyles, cultural values, business practices
and dialects. While there are qualities and values (30) ______ most Americans commonly share, it
is important not to generalise or assume that all Americans think or act the same way.
(Adapted from https://www.londonschool.com/)
Question 26: A. because B. as C. for D. since
Question 27: A. backgrounds B. reference C. expression D. importance
Question 28: A. chapter B. revenue C. patterns D. unions
Question 29: A. each B. other C. all D. another
Question 30: A. when B. that C. why D. who
ĐỀ SỐ 17
The Armstar Bodyguard 9XI-HD01 looks (26) ______ like that scary black body armor that
Christian Bale wears in the recent Batman movies. And it is kind of like that, actually.
The Bodyguard, which was patented by a California inventor in 2007 under the title of
"wearable shield and self-defense device," is (27) ______ to be a shield, a non-lethal weapon and a
communications device all in one. The flexible arm, which is armored with Kevlar and hard plastic,
contains a rechargeable lithium battery pack that powers an "electronic deterrent" device built into
the arm's artificial skin. (28) ______ the user has to do is pull a pin, and an assailant who grabs his
or her arm is going to get zapped with electricity. The Bodyguard is also equipped with a bright
LED flashlight, an HD camera capable of transmitting pictures, and a charging slot into (29)
______ an iPhone apparently fits nicely.
We could see this gadget becoming an indispensable tool for law enforcement officers and
bodyguards of the future, but given that you have to inquire about it to get a price quote, we're
guessing that it'll be too costly to make much of a (30) ______ in the everyday suburban adventurer
market.
Question 26: A. a bit B. an amount C. a few D. a sum
Question 27: A. adapted B. applied C. celebrated D. designed
Question 28: A. All B. Some C. Other D. Another
Question 29: A. where B. whom C. which D. that
Question 30: A. tea B. dent C. site D. pie
ĐỀ SỐ 18
Christ the Redeemer is an Art Deco statue of Jesus Christ in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, created by
Polish-French sculptor Paul Landowski and built by the Brazilian engineer Heitor da Silva Costa, in
collaboration with the French engineer Albert Caquot. The face was created by the Romanian (26)
______ Gheorghe Leonida. The statue is 30 metres tall, not including its 8-metre pedestal, and its
arms stretch 28 metres wide. By (27) ______ , it is approximately two-thirds the height of the
Statue of Liberty’s height from base to torch.
The statue weighs 635 metric tons (625 long, 700 short tons), and is (28) ______ at the peak
of the 700-metre Corcovado mountain in the Tijuca Forest National Park overlooking the city of
Rio. A symbol of Christianity across the world, the statue has also become a cultural icon of both
Rio de Janeiro and Brazil, and is listed as (29) ______ of the New Seven Wonders of the World.
The statue, (30) ______ was constructed between 1922 and 1931, is made of reinforced concrete
and soapstone.
Question 26: A. artist B. guitarist C. stylist D. scientist
Question 27: A. package B. comparison C. pleasure D. occasion
Question 28: A. connected B. scratched C. located D. pointed
Question 29: A. other B. each C. another D. one
Question 30: A. why B. which C. who D. that
ĐỀ SỐ 19
The main advantage of mass media is its ability to reach a large population across many
demographics, while the high cost to utilize it for messaging is a disadvantage. Millions of people
receive news and entertainment from (26) ______ forms of mass media including television, radio
and newspapers.
Mass media has a strong presence in modern-day life. More recently, the Internet has been
integrated into mass media presentations.
Mass media connects people together in ways not otherwise possible by spreading
information and entertainment far and wide. For instance, up-to-the-minute live (27) ______ of a
breaking news event is seen by millions who tune in to find out the latest details. The same news
story is covered from different angles via radio, TV and newspapers. (28) ______ it comes to
entertainment, mass media provides programs with a wide-viewing audience. Companies gain fast
attention for products and services through advertising.
Mass media comes with its own list of downfalls. The messages and images received via mass
media are often limited to a particular viewpoint or angle. The high costs associated with various
mediums restricts access mainly to those with large sums of money. Some (29) ______ mass media
as spreading low quality shows and news programming to a mass audience, and programming (30)
______ tries to appeal to the masses may lack sophistication.
Question 26: A. lots of B. much C. many D. some
Question 27: A. coverage B. memory C. message D. version
Question 28: A. Though B. When C. Despite D. Why
Question 29: A. join B. save C. view D. gain
Question 30: A. where B. that C. whom D. who
ĐỀ SỐ 20
On April 17, the government launched a taskforce designed to "rapidly develop a coronavirus
vaccine", as well as scale up manufacturing so it can be quickly produced and delivered in (26)
______ quantities.
It will be led by Sir Patrick Vallance and Professor Jonathan van Tam, the deputy chief
medical officer, and members will include AstraZeneca and the Wellcome Trust.
The government has initially (27) ______ £14m to plough into 21 coronavirus research
projects – (28) ______ the work by the scientists at the University of Oxford and Imperial College
London. Today’s announcement of a further £44.5 million for the Oxford and Imperial trials
increases this funding further still.
In America, the US government had committed to a $1 billion (£800m) Covid-19 vaccine
deal with Titan Johnson & Johnson, co-financing research through the Biomedical Advanced
Research and Development Authority (Barda).
Human trials on the vaccine have already started in the US - breaking records for the speed
with (29) ______ such trials can get off the ground. Healthy volunteers in America are being given
the new-generation “genetic hack” (30) ______ it bypassed standard animal testing as part of a
highly-accelerated process.
Question 26: A. fresh B. sturdy C. mass D. well
Question 27: A. investigated B. remarked C. recommended D. earmarked
Question 28: A. towards B. such as C. through D. likewise
Question 29: A. which B. who C. where D. when
Question 30: A. although B. after C. in spite of D. as

Read thefollowing passage and mark the letter A,B,C,orD on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from
26 to 30.
 While Gutenberg’s invention of the printing press ushered in an age of
democratized knowledge and incipient mass culture, it also transformed the act of
authorship, making writing a potentially profitable enterprise. Before the mass
production of books, authorship had few financial rewards unless a generous patron
got involved. As a (26) ______, pre-Renaissance texts were often collaborative, and
many books didn’t even list an author. The earliest concept of the copyright, from the
time of the scriptoria, was who had the right to copy a book by hand. The printed
book, (27) ______, was a speculative commercial enterprise, in that large numbers of
identical copies could be sold. The explosive (28) ______ of the European printing
industry meant that authors could potentially profit from the books they made and
then wrote if their legal rights were recognized. In contemporary terms, copyright
allows a person the right to (29) ______ others from copying, distributing, and selling
a work. This is a right usually given to the creator, although that right can be sold or
otherwise transferred. Works not covered by copyright or for which the copyright has
expired are part of the public domain, (30) ______ means that they are essentially
public property and can be used freely by anyone without permission or royalty
payments.
(Adapted from https://saylordotorg.github.io/)
Question 26: A. conference B. preference C. difference D. consequence
Question 27: A. however B. therefore C. moreover D. although
Question 28: A. creation B. generation C. growth D. length
Question 29: A. include B. exclude C. conclude D. minimize
Question 30: A. which B. where C. that D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C,orDon your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
In the year 1900, the world was in the midst of a machine revolution. (26) _____
electrical power became more ubiquitous, tasks once done by hand were now completed
quickly and efficiently by machine. Sewing machines replaced needle and thread. Tractors
replaced hoes. Typewriters replaced pens. Automobiles replaced horse-drawn carriages.
A hundred years later, in the year 2000, machines were again pushing the boundaries
of (27) _____ was possible. Humans could now work in space, thanks to the International
Space Station. We were finding out the composition of life thanks to the DNA sequencer.
Computers and the world wide web changed the way we learn, read, communicate, or start
political revolutions.
 So what will be the game-changing machines in the year 2100? How will they (28)
_____ our lives better, cleaner, safer, more efficient, and (29) _____ exciting?
We asked over three dozen experts, scientists, engineers, futurists, and organizations in
five different disciplines, including climate change, military, infrastructure, transportation,
and space exploration, about how the machines of 2100 will change humanity. The (30)
_____ we got back were thought-provoking, hopeful and, at times, apocalyptic.
(Adapted from https://www.popularmechanics.com/)
Question 26: A. Despite B. However C. Although D. As
Question 27: A. what B. that C. who D. which
Question 28: A. notice B. taste C. make D. hope
Question 29: A. much B. more C. little D. less
Question 30: A. answers B. programs C. contacts D. services

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Boston city officials are in discussions to postpone the Boston Marathon to a date later
this autumn, according to (26) ______ reports. It would be the first time in 124 years that
the Patriots Day race would not be held as planned.
Officials from the communities along the marathon route met Wednesday, (27)
______ the Boston Globe, to discuss holding the April 20 race at a later date amid (28)
______ over the coronavirus outbreak. Government officials also have been in (29) ______
with the Boston Athletic Association, the Globe reported.
Gov. Charlie Baker declared a state of emergency in Massachusetts on Tuesday,
urging employers and large groups to limit or eliminate large events where possible.
A field of 31,000 runners is expected for the 124th running of the marathon, (30)
______ draws about a third of its runners from outside the United States. The Boston
Athletic Association has been working with city and state officials and following updates
from the CDC, Department of Public Health and WHO.
(Adapted from https://www.usatoday.com/)
Question 26: A. insane B. elegant C. chaotic D. multiple
Question 27: A. according to B. owing to C. related to D. prior to
Question 28: A. number B. reaction C. concern D. ambition
Question 29: A. words B. says C. sentences D. talks
Question 30: A. that B. which C. what D. when
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
 Astronomers had some concerns leading up to SpaceX’s first Starlink launch, but no
one was prepared for what the satellites would look like. “I knew they would be bright, but
not as bright as they are,” Patrick Seitzer, a professor of astronomy at the University of
Michigan, tells The Verge. “It was a (26) ______ moment last May when the first group
was launched, and you could see this chain of 60 satellites going across the sky.” The
brightness even took SpaceX officials by (27) ______, according to company
representatives.
The Starlink satellites can catch the Sun’s light well beyond (28) ______ hours, and
because they are meant to orbit fairly close to Earth — about 550 kilometers high — (29)
______ makes them even more visible than satellites located farther out. Then there are the
satellites themselves. The combination of their orientation in space (30) ______ their design
makes them abnormally bright. “They are brighter than 99 percent of the objects on orbit
now,” says Seitzer.
(Adapted from https://www.theverge.com/)
Question 26: A. outgoing B. stunning C. alarming D. exacting
Question 27: A. game B. sense C. surprise D. service
Question 28: A. special B. rush C. twilight D. weakness
Question 29: A. that B. who C. what D. why
Question 30: A. nor B. but C. or D. and

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
No one runs the internet. It’s organized as a decentralized network of networks.
Thousands of companies, universities, governments, and other (26) ______ operate their
own networks and exchange traffic with (27) ______ other based on voluntary
interconnection agreements.
The shared technical standards (28) ______ make the internet work are managed by an
organization called the Internet Engineering Task Force. The IETF is an open organization;
anyone is free to attend meetings, propose new standards, and recommend changes to
existing standards. No one is required to adopt standards endorsed by the IETF, but the
IETF’s consensus-based decision-making process helps to (29) ______ that its
recommendations are generally adopted by the internet community.
The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is sometimes
described as being (30) ______ for internet governance. As its name implies, ICANN is in
charge of distributing domain names (like vox.com) and IP addresses. But ICANN doesn’t
control who can connect to the internet or what kind of information can be sent over it.
(Adapted from https://www.vox.com/)
Question 26: A. entities B. terms C. amounts D. states
Question 27: A. another B. every C. each D. all
Question 28: A. that B. who C. when D. what
Question 29: A. function B. stress C. exchange D. ensure
Question 30: A. curious B. responsible C. cheerful D. interested

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
The novel coronavirus (COVID-19) is challenging the world. With no vaccine and
limited medical capacity to treat the disease, nonpharmaceutical interventions (NPI) are the
main (26) ______ to contain the pandemic. Unprecedented global travel restrictions and
stay-at-home orders are causing the most severe disruption of the global economy since
World War II. With international travel bans (27) ______ over 90% of the world population
and wide-spread restrictions on public gatherings and community mobility, tourism largely
ceased in March 2020. Early evidence on impacts on air travel, cruises, and
accommodations have been devastating. While highly uncertain, early projections from
UNWTO for 2020 suggest international arrivals could decline by 20 to 30% relative to
2019. Tourism is especially susceptible to measures to counteract pandemics (28) ______
restricted mobility and social distancing. The paper compares the impacts of COVID-19 to
previous epidemic/pandemics and (29) ______ types of global crises and explores how the
pandemic may change society, the economy, and tourism. It discusses why COVID-19 is an
analogue to the ongoing climate crisis, and why there is a need to question the volume
growth tourism model (30) ______ is advocated by UNWTO, ICAO, CLIA, WTTC and
other tourism organizations.
(Adapted from: https://www.tandfonline.com/)
Question 26: A. strategy B. location C. direction D. product
Question 27: A. expecting B. reducing C. explaining D. affecting
Question 28: A. because B. because of C. although D. despite
Question 29: A. another B. every C. other D. one
Question 30: A. whom B. who C. where D. that

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Video gamers, parents, politicians and the press often lionize or attack video games,
which opens the door to spin that obfuscates our understanding of how these games affect
people. For example, the European Parliament has been debating whether to limit children’s
access to video games. In a press statement about the report (26) ______ resulted from its
deliberations, the parliament concluded that games could have “harmful effects on the minds of
children.” (27) ______, reporting on this statement, the headline in the Guardian read, “Video
games are good for children.”
Psychologists and neuroscientists conducting well-designed studies are beginning to
shed (28) ______ on the actual effects of video games. These studies show a clear trend:
Games have many consequences in the brain, and most are not obvious—they happen at a
level that overt behaviors do not immediately reflect. Because the effects are subtle, (29)
______ people think video games are simply benign entertainment.
Research projects of variable strength have substantiated claims of both beneficial and
(30) ______ effects. Too often the discussion ends there in a “good” versus “evil” battle,
reminiscent of the plots of the violent video games themselves.
(Adapted from: https://www.dana.org/)
Question 26: A. when B. that C. where D. who
Question 27: A. However B. Otherwise C. Moreover D. Therefore
Question 28: A. depth B. flight C. light D. night
Question 29: A. little B. much C. a little D. many
Question 30: A. harmful B. strict C. various D. typical

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Measles, mumps, polio, and chickenpox are examples of infectious diseases that were
once very (26) ______ but are now rare in the U.S. because vaccines helped to establish
herd immunity. We sometimes see outbreaks of vaccine-preventable diseases in
communities with lower vaccine coverage because they don’t have herd protection. The
2019 measles (27) ______ at Disneyland is an example.
For infections without a vaccine, even if many adults have developed immunity (28)
______ prior infection, the disease can still circulate among children and can still infect
those with weakened immune systems. This was seen for many of the aforementioned
diseases before vaccines were developed.
(29) ______ viruses (like the flu) mutate over time, so antibodies from a previous
infection provide protection for only a short period of time. For the flu, this is less than a
year. If SARS-CoV-2, the virus that causes COVID-19, is like other coronaviruses that
currently infect humans, we can expect that people (30) ______ get infected will be immune
for months to years, but probably not their entire lives.
(Adapted from: https://www.jhsph.edu/)
Question 26: A. sudden B. current C. visual D. common
Question 27: A. outbreak B. action C. session D. concept
Question 28: A. however B. therefore C. because of D. despite
Question 29: A. Each B. Other C. Every D. Another
Question 30: A. who B. why C. which D. where

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
It might feel like ordinary life is at a standstill. Movie theaters and restaurants are
closed; group events and sports activities have been called off. These temporary (26)
______ necessary measures will help communities with their social distancing.
But that doesn't mean we need to feel isolated or lonely. With a bit of (27) ______ ,
you can help your kids stay connected with friends and extended family members by setting
up video visits or playdates.
(28) ______ neighborhoods have created scavenger hunts or homemade bingo games
to keep a feeling of togetherness. Kids can walk or ride with their parents in search of
"treasures" or stuffed animals in windows. These give kids fun things to do outside while
still keeping physical distance from neighbors.
You also can plan family activities. (29) ______ a walk or a hike or riding bikes are
great ways to get out and get active without having physical contact. Try to find quiet streets
or less well-known paths for these outings. It's best not to go to parks (30) ______ other
people might gather, especially those with things that lots of kids use, like jungle gyms.
(Adapted from: https://kidshealth.org/)
Question 26: A. but B. therefore C. and D. however
Question 27: A. reputation B. confidence C. recognition D.
creativity
Question 28: A. One B. Some C. Every D. Any
Question 29: A. Making B. Having C. Taking D. Launching
Question 30: A. who B. where C. that D. when

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The eyes are your body's most highly developed sensory organs. (26) ______, a far larger part
of the brain is dedicated to vision than to hearing, taste, touch, or smell combined! We tend to (27)
______ eyesight for granted; yet when vision problems develop, most of us will do everything in
our power to restore our eyesight back to normal.
The most common forms of vision impairment are errors of refraction -- the way light rays are
focused inside the eye so images can be transmitted to the brain. Nearsightedness, farsightedness,
and astigmatism, (28) ______ are examples of refractive disorders, often occur when the eyes are
otherwise healthy. Refractive errors are correctable usually with glasses, contact lenses, or
refractive surgery, such as LASIK.
(29) ______ vision problems may be related to eye disease. Retinal detachment, macular
degeneration, cataracts, and glaucoma are disorders of the functional eye and its processing units.
These problems can lead to blurry or defective vision. The goals of (30) ______ depend on the eye
disease and may include restoring vision, halting vision loss, and preserving remaining eyesight.
(Adapted from: https://www.webmd.com)
Question 26: A. In fact B. Though C. However D. Therefore
Question 27: A. hold B. keep C. make D. take
Question 28: A. who B. which C. whom D. that
Question 29: A. One B. Every C. Other D. Another
Question 30: A. treatment B. argument C. payment D. moment

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
In 1822, Charles Babbage conceptualized and began developing the Difference Engine,
considered to be the first automatic computing machine. The Difference Engine was capable of
computing several sets of numbers and making hard copies of the results. Babbage received (26)
______ help with development of the Difference Engine from Ada Lovelace, considered by many
to be the first computer programmer for her work and notes on the Difference Engine. (27) ______,
because of funding, Babbage was never able to complete a full-scale functional version of this
machine. In June 1991, the London Science Museum (28) ______ the Difference Engine No 2 for
the bicentennial year of Babbage's birth and later completed the printing mechanism in 2000.
In 1837, Charles Babbage proposed the first general mechanical computer, (29) ______ was the
Analytical Engine. The Analytical Engine contained an ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit), basic flow
control, punch cards (inspired by the Jacquard Loom), and integrated memory. It is the first general-
purpose computer concept. Unfortunately, because of funding (30) ______ , this computer was also
never built while Charles Babbage was alive. In 1910, Henry Babbage, Charles Babbage's youngest son,
was able to complete a portion of this machine and was able to perform basic calculations.
(Adapted from: https://www.computerhope.com)
Question 26: A. some B. several C. any D. few
Question 27: A. Therefore B. Unfortunately C. Otherwise D. Luckily
Question 28: A. responded B. deposited C. completed D. consisted
Question 29: A. when B. which C. why D. that
Question 30: A. levels B. leaders C. ratios D. issues

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The HIV and Aids crisis, at its height in the late 1980s and early 1990s, had a different effect.
Rather than impacting individual events it changed the way games were played. As both are transmitted
through blood, WHO worked with medical sports professionals to quell (26) ______ about how the
disease is spread and came up with guidelines for dealing with blood-related injuries.
For (27) ______ ethical and legal reasons, mandatory HIV testing of athletes or other game
personnel does not exist in many sports – (28) ______ fear of lawsuits leading to invasion of
privacy. Various governing bodies, particularly in contact sports, have adopted practices for dealing
with blood-related injuries, for example the NBA and Fifa instituted a rule (29) ______ forces a
player with an open wound to leave the game until they are treated.
For now the Tokyo Olympics are still set to begin on 24 July – but it’s becoming more likely
that they will also have to be postponed. What the (30) ______ are from this outbreak are yet
unclear but the severity of COVID-19 may have lasting impacts like the HIV and Aids crises did
before it.
(Adapted from: https://theconversation.com/)
Question 26: A. methods B. systems C. efforts D. concerns
Question 27: A. much B. little C. many D. every
Question 28: A. due to B. however C. despite D. therefore
Question 29: A. whom B. which C. when D. who
Question 30: A. regions B. contexts C. lessons D. diseases

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The urban environment is an important factor in determining the quality of life in urban areas
and the impact of the urban area on the broader environment. (26) ______ urban environmental
problems include inadequate water and sanitation, lack of rubbish disposal, and industrial pollution.
(27) ______ , reducing the problems and ameliorating their effects on the urban population are
expensive.
The health implications of these environmental problems (28) ______ respiratory infections
and other infectious and parasitic diseases. Capital costs for building improved environmental
infrastructure — for example, investments in a cleaner public transportation system such as a
subway — and for building more hospitals and clinics are higher in cities, (29) ______ wages
exceed those paid in rural areas. And urban land prices are much higher because of the competition
for space. But not all urban areas have the same kinds of environmental conditions or health
problems. Some research suggests that (30) ______ of health problems, such as rates of infant
mortality, are higher in cities that are growing rapidly than in those where growth is slower.
(Adapted from: https://www.prb.org/)
Question 26: A. One B. Some C. Every D. Any
Question 27: A. Otherwise B. Independently C. Therefore D. Unfortunately
Question 28: A. include B. employ C. result D. process
Question 29: A. which B. that C. where D. who
Question 30: A. indicators B. candidates C. perceptions D. preferences
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The UK government has implemented some extraordinary measures in an exceptionally short
period of time to counter the spread of the coronavirus. (26) ______ to say, it has caught many
companies by surprise and disrupted workflows, events and normal hiring practices. There is plenty
of information out there about the steps you need to (27) ______ to limit the spread of the
pandemic. If at this stage of the article you’re wondering what all the fuss is about, please visit the
NHS guide to the coronavirus or the GOV.uk information page.
Major tech companies, such as Google, Facebook and Amazon have all made public
statements that their interview processes will now be taking place via their chosen video platform or
social service. (28) ______ employers are postponing interviews or internships altogether until a
suitable workaround can be found or social isolation measures are rescinded.
If you are looking for a job in this period, there are a number of things that you can try to
adapt to coronavirus social (29) ______ . There are also a number of changes to essential services
(30) ______ can support job seekers and renters that you should be aware of.
(Adapted from: https://targetjobs.co.uk/)
Question 26: A. Restless B. Needless C. Helpless D. Endless
Question 27: A. keep B. make C. set D. take
Question 28: A. Other B. One C. Another D. Every
Question 29: A. reading B. advertising C. distancing D. marketing
Question 30: A. where B. that C. when D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
For many people, a plate of piping hot pasta spells comfort on a cold winter day. And if you're
short on time – and energy – that store-bought jar of marinara sauce can be convenient. And good
for you, too. Most tomato-based sauces are low in saturated fat, cholesterol-free and packed with
lycopene, an antioxidant (26) ______ has been linked to protection from prostate cancer.
But not all pasta sauces are created equal. The main (27) ______ in most commercial
marinara sauces are tomato puree (i.e. water and tomato paste), tomatoes, vegetable oil, salt
(sometimes lots of it), sugar and spices. Extras like cheese, meat and cream add calories, sodium
and saturated fat, the type that can raise blood cholesterol. You need to read nutrition (28) ______
to know what you are buying.
(29) ______ buying a commercial tomato sauce, choose one with no more than 1 gram of
saturated fat and no (30) ______ than 350 milligrams of sodium per half cup serving. To prevent
your sodium intake from climbing, bulk up your serving sauce with extra vegetables.
(Adapted from: https://www.theglobeandmail.com/)
Question 26: A. who B. why C. that D. where
Question 27: A. requirements B. ingredients C. procedures D. traditions
Question 28: A. groups B. sets C. kits D. labels
Question 29: A. When B. However C. Although D. Therefore
Question 30: A. many B. few C. much D. more

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Switzerland’s education system is one of the most advanced one in the world. It is ranked 9th
out of 65 countries in an OECD/PISA (26) _______ of educational standards among 15-year-olds.
Switzerland is also the go-to choice for many students (27) _______ are looking to study
internationally. The system is well established and functional with delegated accountability and
administration.
The administration and regulation of the school system in Switzerland is done by the cantons
while having a set framework by the central government. (28) _______ canton sets their own school
calendar, curriculum, and criteria. This system is overseen by the State Secretariat for Education,
Research and Innovation (SERI). The decentralization has it’s perks, (29) _______ it can make it
hard from people to move their children from one canton to another.
A distinctive characteristic of the Swiss education system is the taking into account of the
wishes and the abilities of students. This is done by diversifying the different direction a student can
take once they’re done with their primary education. Although the education system is administered
by the cantons, a thing they all have in (30) _______ is that they have this diversity.
(Adapted from: https://studyinginswitzerland.com/)
Question 26: A. failure B. safety C. system D. survey
Question 27: A. who B. where C. which D. whom
Question 28: A. One B. Other C. Each D. Another
Question 29: A. however B. although C. otherwise D. despite
Question 30: A. common B. sample C. contract D. payment

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
By investing in public spaces, smart cities can be places where people want to spend more
time. The city of Barcelona has adopted smart technologies by implementing a network of fiber
optics throughout the city, (26) ______ free high-speed Wi-Fi that supports the IoT. By integrating
smart water, lighting and parking management, Barcelona saved €75 million of city funds and
created 47,000 new jobs in the smart technology sector.
The Netherlands have tested the use of IoT-based infrastructure in Amsterdam, (27) ______ traffic
flow, energy usage and public safety are monitored and adjusted based on real-time data. Meanwhile, in
the United States, major cities like Boston and Baltimore have deployed smart trash cans that relay how
full they are and determine the most (28) ______ pick-up route for sanitation workers.
The Internet of Things has led to a plethora of opportunities for cities willing to implement
new smart technology to improve the efficiency of operations. (29) ______ , tertiary institutions are
also looking into maximizing the impact of integrated smart technology. Places (30) ______ as
university campuses and island communities provide smaller laboratories to implement technology
in a more manageable environment that can be then replicated on a larger scale.
 (Adapted from: https://www.forbes.com/)
Question 26: A. requiring B. providing C. containing D. occurring
Question 27: A. which B. who C. that D. where
Question 28: A. efficient B. potential C. obvious D. numerous
Question 29: A. Otherwise B. Because C. Furthermore D. Although
Question 30: A. such B. so C. same D. like

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The rapid rise in greenhouse gases is a problem because it’s changing the climate faster than
some living things can adapt to. Also, a new and more unpredictable climate poses unique
challenges to all life.
(26) ______, Earth's climate has regularly shifted between temperatures like those we see
today and temperatures cold enough to cover much of North America and Europe with ice. The
difference between average (27) ______ temperatures today and during those ice ages is only about
9 degrees Fahrenheit (5 degrees Celsius), and the swings have tended to happen slowly, over
hundreds of thousands of years.
But with concentrations of greenhouse gases rising, Earth's remaining ice sheets such as
Greenland and Antarctica are starting to melt too. That extra water could raise sea levels
significantly, and quickly. By 2050, sea levels are (28) ______ to rise between one and 2.3 feet as
glaciers melt.
As the mercury rises, the climate can change in unexpected ways. In addition to sea levels
rising, weather can become more extreme. This means (29) ______ intense major storms, more rain
followed by longer and drier droughts—a challenge for growing crops—changes in the ranges in
which plants and animals can live, and loss of water supplies (30) ______ have historically come
from glaciers.
(Adapted from: https://www.nationalgeographic.com/)
Question 26: A. Historically B. Essentially C. Absolutely D. Automatically
Question 27: A. equal B. global C. visual D. major
Question 28: A. persuaded B. extended C. operated D. predicted
Question 29: A. many B. every C. more D. a few
Question 30: A. when B. that C. where D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
There’s lots of evidence that listening to music can help calm you in situations where you
might feel anxious. Studies have (26) ______ that people in rehab after a stroke are more relaxed
once they’ve listened to music for an hour.
Similar studies indicate that music blended with nature sounds help people feel less anxious.
(27) ______ people facing critical illness feel less anxiety after music therapy.
 (28) ______, there’s conflicting evidence about whether listening to music has an effect on
your body’s physiological stress response. One study indicated that the body releases less cortisol, a
stress hormone, when people listen to music. This same study referenced previous research stating
that music had little measurable effect on cortisol levels.
One recent study (29) ______ measured several indicators of stress (not just cortisol)
concluded that while listening to music before a stressful event doesn’t reduce anxiety, listening to
relaxing music after a stressful event can help your (30) ______ system recover faster.
(Adapted from: https://www.healthline.com/)
Question 26: A. held B. shown C. helped D. made
Question 27: A. One B. Another C. Even D. Other
Question 28: A. However B. Therefore C. Otherwise D. Moreover
Question 29: A. where B. who C. when D. that
Question 30: A. remote B. muscular C. nervous D. mental

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
The easiest way to understand why music has such a powerful effect on the mind is to
monitor brain activity while someone is listening to music. Columbia University (26)
______ a machine that effectively does just that. The results show different parts of the
brain that are activated when a song is playing.
Most people have different music preferences, but (27) ______ enough, taste in music
isn’t the most important factor—an emotional connection is. When a song that a person
seems to enjoy is playing, the limbic system (the part of the brain that controls emotion)
shows much more activity. As a result, music that evokes emotion can have a direct effect
on one’s mood.
Music can help connect people and make us feel like we’re not alone. It’s the (28)
______ we have music at parties, funerals, graduations, and in movies. In a 2011 study,
participants completed a task and then were falsely told they performed poorly.
One group was left in silence afterward, while (29) ______ group was placed in a
room with positive music playing. Those (30) ______ heard the music after reported that
they were more hopeful about future tasks than those left in silence.
(Adapted from: https://selecthealth.org/)
Question 26: A. calculated B. remembered C. organized D. developed
Question 27: A. interestingly B. successfully C. immediately D.
significantly
Question 28: A. order B. aspect C. reason D. event
Question 29: A. another B. one C. other D. every
Question 30: A. when B. who C. where D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
A free trade agreement (FTA) between two countries or a group of countries can be
used to set the rules for how countries treat each (26) ______ when it comes to doing
business together.
While we look to pursue New Zealand’s trade goals through the World Trade
Organization (the WTO), (27) ______ involves over 160 economies, the WTO’s consensus
decision-making process means that progress can be slow, and agreements may not address
the specific interests and issues of individual countries. FTAs offer an additional avenue to
(28) ______ our trade interests.
The focus of an FTA is primarily on economic benefits and encouraging trade between
the countries by (29) ______ it more efficient and profitable. Agreements usually remove
tariffs on goods, simplify customs procedures, remove unjustified restrictions on what can
or can’t be traded, and make it easier for business people to travel or live in each other’s
country. (30) ______, FTAs may also have political, strategic, or aid benefits.
FTAs are legally binding, so they provide certainty and security for exporters,
importers and investors. They help businesses to become, and remain, competitive in those
markets.
(Adapted from: https://www.mfat.govt.nz/)
Question 26: A. other B. every C. another D. one
Question 27: A. whom B. which C. who D. that
Question 28: A. advance B. retain C. survive D. suggest
Question 29: A. play B. taking C. start D.
making
Question 30: A. However B. Otherwise C. Moreover D. Therefore

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Good nutrition is essential to ensuring that the body has the protein, minerals, and
vitamins needed to make and regenerate bone. Calcium, phosphorus, zinc, and magnesium
are necessary minerals (26) ______ must come from our diets. Vitamins D, K, and A are
also needed for normal bone metabolism. Without these nutrients, our bones can become
weak and more likely to break.
Calcium and Vitamin D are well known for the important role they (27) ______ in
building strong bones. The skeleton is our body's major storage bank for calcium, and
Vitamin D helps our bodies effectively absorb calcium from our diets. Vitamin D is also
needed to help bone-forming cells mineralize bone proteins into a hard tissue.
(28) ______ we do not have enough calcium in our diets to supply calcium to all the
body cells that need it, calcium is removed from the skeleton. Osteoporosis, the most
common bone disease, can be worsened by a lack of calcium and (29) ______ minerals.
Dairy products like yogurt and cheese, as well as cereals, soy products, and green leafy
vegetables, are great (30) ______ of calcium. Calcium supplements can also help if you
generally avoid dairy products.
(Adapted from: https://orthoinfo.aaos.org/)
Question 26: A. where B. who C. when D. that
Question 27: A. use B. play C. hold D. keep
Question 28: A. If B. However C. Unless D. Otherwise
Question 29: A. another B. every C. other D. each
Question 30: A. sources B. items C. scales D. pieces

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Let's compare how the light emitting diode works versus the older incandescent
lightbulb. The incandescent light bulb works by (26) ______ electricity through a filament
that is inside the glass bulb. (27) ______, the filament heats up and glows, and that creates
the light, it also creates a lot of heat. The incandescent light bulb loses about 98% of its
energy producing heat making it quite inefficient.
LEDs are part of a new family of lighting technologies called solid-state lighting and
in a well-designed product; LEDs are basically cool to the touch. Instead of (28) ______
lightbulb, in an LED lamp there will be a multiple of small light emitting diodes.
LEDs are based on the effect of electroluminescence, that certain materials emit light
when electricity is applied. LEDs have no filament (29) ______ heats up, instead, they are
illuminated by the movement of electrons in a semiconductor material, usually aluminum-
gallium-arsenide (AlGaAs). The light (30) ______ from the p-n junction of the diode.
(Adapted from: https://www.thoughtco.com/)
Question 26: A. looking B. running C. feeling D. playing
Question 27: A. However B. Otherwise C. Therefore D. Moreover
Question 28: A. other B. every C. another D. one
Question 29: A. where B. which C. when D. who
Question 30: A. removes B. informs C. emits D. displays