E12 K 2

TẢI SÁCH TẠI: TAISACHONTHI.
COM
ĐỀ SỐ 1
(3/5/2021)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. worked B. looked C. booked D. crooked
Question 2: A. charge B. drunkard C. postcard D. apartment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. promote B. victim C. panic D. worship
Question 4: A. identity B. intimacy C. anonymous D. mechanical
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: She read the poem slowly and quietly, _______ ?
A. does she B. doesn’t she C. did she D. didn’t she
Question 6: He _______ from prison after serving two years of a five-year sentence.
A. was released B. has released C. was being released D. had been release
Question 7: He's very particular _______ the kitchen - everything has to be perfectly clean and in its place.
A. in B. for C. about D. with
Question 8: _______ I know him, the more I admire him.
A. More B. The more C. The most D. The much
Question 9: I bought my _______ camera from a friend of mine.
A. expensive new silver German B. German new silver expensive
C. new expensive silver German D. silver German new expensive
Question 10: This is the second time I _______ that song. The first time was at the club last month.
A. heard B. have heard C. hear D. will hear
Question 11: He managed to eat a big lunch _______ having eaten an enormous breakfast.
A. although B. because C. despite D. because of
Question 12: The teachers have had some problems deciding _______ .
A. when will they return the final papers to the students
B. when are they going to return to the students the final papers
C. when they should return the final papers to the students
D. the time when the final papers they should return for the students
Question 13: _______ all the trees in the garden, I washed my car.
A. Watering B. Having watered C. Having been watered D. Being watered
Question 14: The government is expected to take _______ against the level of unemployment.
A. action B. activity C. act D. acting
Question 15: The friends I _______ in my home town are different from my college friends.
A. go out with B. get along with C. hang around with D. stand in for
Question 16: How can I believe you? You are always _______ lies.
A. telling B. speaking C. saying D. talking
Question 17: He has not expressed a _______ as to which position he wants to apply for.
A. favour B. priority C. preference D. liking
Question 18: These proposals are for discussion, they're not carved in _______ .
A. rock B. stone C. gravel D. pebble
Question 19: The media broadcast two different _______ of the news story, which confused the viewers.
A. dedications B. concessions C. dictations D. versions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Although many people speculate about the future of the family, no one is certain about how it will
change.
A. know what will happen B. argue about what is happening
C. guess what will happen D. declare for certain
Question 21: Western civilization today is based on ideas from ancient Greece and Rome.
A. well developed society B. very new society
C. society that has disappeared D. highly educated community
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 22: “What I’ve got to say to you now is strictly off the record and most certainly not for publication,”
said the official to the reporter.
A. popular B. examined C. recorded D. official
Question 23: He thought Janet's response seemed a bit fishy, so he did a bit of investigation into her role in the
company.
A. suspicious B. unfaithful C. loyal D. honest
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: - “Sorry, I didn’t mean to do that.” - “ _______ ”
A. You’ve to forget it! B. Then what did you mean?
C. No problem. Don’t worry about it. D. You can blame yourself.
Question 25: - “What does it mean by this sign?” - “ _______ ”
A. It’s to prevent people from parking here. B. It’s a nice and colourful sign.
C. This sign really means something. D. It doesn’t mean much to me.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
It may seem hard to believe that people can actually change the Earth’s climate. But scientists think that the
things (26) _______ people do are making our planet warmer.
Once, all climate changes occurred naturally. (27) _______ , during the Industrial. Revolution, we began
altering our climate and environment through agricultural and industrial practices. The Industrial Revolution was
a time when people began using machines to make life easier. It changed the way humans live. Before the
Industrial Revolution, human activity (28) _______ very few gases into the atmosphere, but now through
population growth, fossil fuel burning, and deforestation, we are affecting the mixture of gases in the atmosphere.
Since the Industrial Revolution, the need for energy to run (29) _______ has increased. Some energy, like the
energy you need to do your homework, comes from the food you eat. But other energy, like the energy that makes
cars run and (30) _______ of the energy used to light and heat our homes, comes from fuels like coal and oil –
fossil fuels. Burning these fuels releases greenhouse gases.
(www.sc-s.si/joomla/images/Ecology)
Question 26: A. what B. that C. when D. where
Question 27: A. Moreover B. Although C. Because D. However
Question 28: A. liberated B. emitted C. discharged D. released
Question 29: A. machines B. devices C. techniques D. vehicles
Question 30: A. little B. a little C. much D. a few
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Most Americans say they know at least some of their neighbors, but only about three-in-ten say they know
all or most of them. Rural residents are more likely than those in urban or suburban areas to say they know all or
most of their neighbors, but they don’t necessarily interact with their neighbors more than their counterparts in
other community types.
Overall, Americans tend to be trusting of their neighbors, but this is particularly the case in suburban and
rural areas. About six-in-ten in these types of community say they have a neighbor they would trust with a key to
their home, compared with about half in urban areas.
The longer people have lived in their community, the more likely they are to have a neighbor they would
trust with a key to their home. But even among those who report that they have lived in their community for less
than one year, 34% say they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys. Meanwhile, 64% of those
who have lived in their community for six or more years and 47% of those who have done so for one to five years
say the same. Those who own their home are more likely than renters to say they would be comfortable with a
neighbor having a set of keys to their home (67% vs. 45%).
When asked to describe their neighbors, people in rural areas are far more likely than those in cities and
suburbs to say all or most of their neighbors share their race or ethnicity. Suburbanites are somewhat more likely
than their urban and rural counterparts to say their neighbors are the same social class as they are, while relatively
few across community types say all or most of their neighbors share their political views.
(Adapted from https://www.pewsocialtrends.org/)
Question 31. Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The similarities and differences in the neighborhood in urban, suburban and rural areas
B. How urban, suburban and rural residents interact with their neighbors
C. The number of neighbors that urban, suburban and rural residents have
D. How people trust their neighbors
Question 32. According to paragraph 2, how many Americans in suburban and rural areas wouldn’t have enough
belief in their neighbors to have a key to their home?
A. about 60% B. about 50% C. about 40% D. about 30%
Question 33. The phrase “the same” in paragraph 3 refers to _______ .
A. they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys
B. they have lived in their community for six or more years
C. they have done so for one to five years
D. they have lived in their community for less than one year
Question 34. The word “share” in paragraph 4 most probably means _______ .
A. experience their race or ethnicity at the same time
B. give other people something you have
C. have the same race or ethnicity
D. tell people about your race or ethnicity
Question 35. According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT _______ .
A. More rural inhabitants know all or most of their neighbors than their urban and suburban counterparts do.
B. People trust their neighbors more if they live in the same community for a longer time.
C. More than half of people renting a room wouldn’t like to give their neighbors their home key.
D. People living in rural areas are often in the same social class as their neighbors.
Education technology (EdTech) is one of the few industries experiencing a sharp upward demand, reinforcing
its potential for profitability and the role it can play in societal wellbeing.
The global spreading of the coronavirus (COVID-19) has required drastic regulations in an effort to contain
it. One of the first compulsory measures taken by affected countries has been the closure of all schools. The
sudden adjustments of educational processes and altered dynamics between all involved parties - schools,
teachers, students and parents – are challenging familiar routines and threatening crucial public objectives.
Accordingly, the World Bank has commissioned its EdTech expertise team to support policymakers worldwide
in facilitating the continuation of basic education by adapting to modern technologies.
EdTech's practical value has hence rapidly improved from its pre-pandemic standing. Previously considered
an option for quality education and a supplement to traditional schooling systems, it is now essential for preserving
a progressing society.
Institutions previously working with digitalized education platforms have already benefitted during the
COVID-19 crisis from their contemporary approach. These schools smoothly mastered the sudden transition to
homeschooling, easing the adjustment process for students and parents. Their early investment in equipment and
software and in coaching of educational staff has allowed them to continue their operations with minimal
interruption.
Investors have long identified the windows of opportunity offered by technology in the classrooms. However,
its recent unprecedented expansion highlights even more its sustainable profitability. “So far only 2 to 3% of the
5 trillion USD spent globally on education is digital. This, combined with EdTech's sudden vital role during
COVID-19 and the significant differences seen up to now in its geographical investments, intensify the previously
unseized global growth opportunities", says Dr. Kirill Pyshkin, Fund Manager at Credit Suisse Asset
Management.
(Adapted https://www.credit-suisse.com/)
Question 36. What does the article mainly discuss?
A. The upward trend in demand of education technology.
B. The development of education technology in the pandemic.
C. The measures to develop education technology.
D. The benefits and role of education technology.
Question 37. The word “contain” in paragraph 2 most probably means _______ .
A. control B. overcome C. defeat D. treat
Question 38. As mentioned in paragraph 2, the following are affected by the sudden adjustments of educational
processes, EXCEPT _______ .
A. teachers B. students C. parents D. policymakers
Question 39. What does the word “their” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. platforms’ B. institutions’
C. the COVID-19 crisis’s D. schools’
Question 40. The word “coaching” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. hiring B. inviting C. training D. employing
Question 41. According to paragraph 4, what have those schools done to minimize education interruption?
A. Early preparing for teaching facilities and human resources.
B. Smoothly transferring to teaching online.
C. Previously working with digitalized education platforms.
D. Rapidly improving from its pre-pandemic standing.
Question 42. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Investors are uninterested in technology in the classrooms.
B. Education technology is a more and more profitable sector to invest.
C. People invest less money in education technology during COVID – 19.
D. Students and parents need much time to adjust their learning at home.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43: Whenever we hear of a natural disaster, even in a distant part of the world, we
A B
feel sympathy for the people to have affected.
C D
Question 44: Each of the nurses reports to the operating room when their name is called.
A B C D
Question 45: A deficient of folic acid is rarely found in humans because the vitamin is contained in a
A B C D
wide variety of foods.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
Question 46: This is the first time we have been to England.
A. It’s ages since we last went to England.
B. We never was to England before.
C. We have never been to England before.
D. We had never been to England before.
Question 47: “You must not enter the temple until you have removed your shoes,” said the monk.
A. The monk insisted that the tourists not enter the temple until they had removed their shoes.
B. The monk begged the tourists to remove their shoes before entering the temple.
C. The monk warned the tourists about removing their shoes before entering the temple.
D. The monk ordered us not to enter the temple after we had removed our shoes.
Question 48: It’s mandatory for you to hand in the papers by Friday.
A. You should hand in the papers by Friday.
B. You must hand in the papers by Friday.
C. You may hand in the papers by Friday.
D. You can hand in the papers by Friday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You are not in my situation. You don’t understand my feeling.
A. As long as you are in my situation, you will understand my feeling.
B. If only you were in my situation and you understand my feeling.
C. I wish you were in my situation and could understand my feeling.
D. You are not in my situation. Otherwise you could have understood my feeling.
Question 50: I strongly disapprove of your behaviour. I will help you this time.
A. While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, but I will help you this time.
B. No matter how strongly I disapprove of your behavior, I will help you this time.
C. However I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
D. Much as I will help you this time, I strongly disapprove of your behaviour.
ĐỀ SỐ 2
5/5/2021
Question 1: A. thinks B. plays C. meets D. laughs
Question 2: A. wonder B. overload C. solar D. piano
Question 3: A. worksheet B. scary C. aware D. sculpture
Question 4: A. suspicious B. distressful C. confidence D. extinction
questions.
Question 5: Let's go out for a drink after work, _______?
A. will you B. shall we C. won't you D. don't we
Question 6: Patients' names _______ to protect their privacy.
A. was changed B. will have changed C. have been changed D. had been changed
Question 7: The smell is very familiar _______ everyone who lives near a bakery.
A. to B. with C. in D. about
Question 8: _______ the seriousness of the problems we are facing, we give priority to them.
A. To recognize B. Having recognized C. Recognize D. Being recognized
Question 9: When I was walking along the beach, I met a(n) _______ girl who asked me how to hire a boat.
A. young beautiful tall Russian B. beautiful tall young Russian
C. Russian beautiful young tall D. beautiful young tall Russian
Question 10: - "May I speak to your manager Mr Williams at five o'clock tonight?"
- "I'm sorry. Mr Williams _______ to a conference long before then."
A. will have gone B. had gone C. would have gone D. has gone
Question 11: I almost missed my flight _______ there was a long queue in the duty-free shop.
A. because B. because of C. although D. in spite of
Question 12: I'm acting as deputy _______.
A. if the boss were away B. in case the boss is away
C. while the boss is away. D. as the boss was away.
Question 13: _______, the more worried I felt.
A. The darker it got B. When it got darker
C. Getting darker and darker D. Darker and darker it got
Question 14: _______ have speeded up our lives so much that they often leave us feeling stressed and tired.
A. Invent B. Inventions C. Inventor D. Inventive
Question 15: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to _______ what she missed while she was away.
A. catch up on B. cut down on C. put up with D. take up with
Question 16: Some women _______ a deliberate choice to rear a child alone.
A. make B. take C. have D. do
Question 17: Human facial expressions differ from those of animals in the degree to which they can be _______
controlled and modified.
A. deliberately B. noticeably C. delicately D. instinctively
Question 18: He said he would sell my bike and bring me back the profits, but he sold me a bill of _______ -I
never heard from him again!
A. goods B. things C. trappings D. chattels
Question 19: His camera was _______ because he had brought it into the country illegally.
A. confiscated B. deprived C. extorted D. subtracted
Question 20: Your plan looks good. I hope it will really work. It’s time to implement it and see if it's as brilliant
as you claim.
A. carry out B. take apart C. join in D. put off
Question 21: They decided to go on a trip together to consolidate their relationship, but it didn't help at all.
A. strengthen B. disconnect C. destroy D. concentrate
Question 22: If you want to solve the problem, you’ll have to put your thinking cap on.
A. hardly think B. always think C. think seriously D. think openly
Question 23: I'm a bit wary of giving people my address when I don't know them very well.
A. trustful B. upset C. cautious D. supportive
Question 24: - "Hi, Biden. How have you been?" -" _______ "
A. I’ve been to Bangkok recently. B. Oh, pretty good. And you?
C. Badly. And how are you? D. Oh, I’ve done a lot of things.
Question 25: - "Would you like to go to the coffee shop with me this afternoon?" -" _______ "
A. How do you do? B. Yes, I'd love to.
C. Don't worry about that. D. Take care.
Mass tourism involves huge numbers of people going to the same resort often at the same time of year. It is
a popular form of tourism and is often (26) _______ through ready-made holiday packages. The traditional sun,
sea and sand holiday to the Spanish Costas is an example of mass tourism. Specialised tourism is the provision of
customised tourism (27) _______ that cater to the specific interests of groups and individuals. An individualised
tour itinerary with a chauffeur and your own tour guide is an example of specialised tourism.
There are three main reasons (28) _______ people travel - for leisure, for business or to visit friends and
relatives. Destinations are often geared towards one type of tourism; for example a beach resort will appeal mainly
to leisure tourists, (29) _______ a purpose-built conference resort will appeal mainly to business tourists. Business
tourists tend to visit urban areas whereas leisure visitors tend to find countryside locations offer the best facilities
for recreational activities. Those visiting friends and relatives have no control over the nature of the destination
they will visit; it will very (30) _______ depend on where the people they are visiting live.
(www.cambridge.org > flies > Travel_and...)
Question 26: A. sold B. offered C. presented D. given
Question 27: A. businesses B. actions C. activities D. travels
Question 28: A. what B. which C. that D. why
Question 29: A. since B. otherwise C. though D. whereas
Question 30: A. many B. much C. a few D. a little
Expanding the planet's protected natural areas to safeguard vanishing forests and other ecosystems, and the
species they protect, is unlikely to be effective on its own as human encroachment into reserves grows, scientists
warned Tuesday. A study by Cambridge University researchers, which looked at thousands of conservation areas
in more than 150 countries, found that, on average, protected designation is not reducing human encroachment in
vulnerable areas. Both chronic underfunding of efforts to protect the land, and a lack of engagement with local
communities that live there are hurting conservation efforts, they found.
Creating protected areas is "a type of intervention that we know can work, we know is absolutely essential
for conserving biodiversity, at a time in this world's history where it has never been under higher pressure," said
lead author Jonas Geldmann. "But despite that we are seeing that some of our protected areas are not managing
to mitigate or stop that increasing pressure," said Geldmann, of the University of Cambridge Conservation
Research Institute.
One-sixth of the globe now falls within protected areas, the study noted. Those include national parks, nature
reserves and wilderness areas, according to the International Union for Conservation of Nature's World Database
on Protected Areas. Such protected areas are vital for preserving diverse ecosystems, and helping to curb climate
change by conserving carbon- sequestering forests and other vegetation. The United Nations Environment
Program estimates protected areas hold 15% of the carbon stored on land.
"Protected areas are one of the most important things that we can do to stem the loss of biodiversity and to
help solve the climate crisis," said Andrew Wetzler, managing director of the U.S.- based Natural Resources
Defense Council's nature program. "The destruction of natural habitat is the single biggest driver of extinction."
(Source: https://www.voanews.com/)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Protected status not enough to guard threatened nature.
B. Destruction of nature as dangerous as climate change.
C. Damaged and threatened national natural landmarks.
D. Conservation status and history of threatened species.
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, what is mentioned as one of the problems for natural conservation?
A. Unauthorized access of motor vehicles.
B. Widespread abandonment of the area.
C. Continually insufficient financial provision.
D. Post-fire invasion of pyrophytes species.
Question 33: The word "it" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. time B. history C. intervention D. biodiversity
Question 34: According to paragraph 3, how much land do the total preserved zones in the world account for?
A. Above 60% of the terrain area.
B. Nearly 17% of the earth surface.
C. Approximately 15% of the globe.
D. One-sixteenth of the hydrosphere.
Question 35: The word “stem” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. stalk B. restrict C. spring D. originate
The name is a bit of a mouthful, but cultural appropriation happens when a dominant culture takes things
from another culture that is experiencing oppression. Cultural exchange is different from cultural appropriation.
Things like tea, gunpowder and pasta have been shared between different cultures throughout history. These
'borrowings' aren’t the same as cultural appropriation, because they don't involve power. When dominant groups
take from an oppressed group, we're dealing with appropriation, not cultural exchange. Cultural appropriation is
also very different from assimilation. 'Assimilation' describes what happens when minority cultures are forced to
adopt features from a dominant culture in order to fit in.
When we look at a culture that's experiencing oppression, it's often a result of colonisation, where a
dominant group has claimed ownership of the land and its people. When the dominant group continues to steal
aspects of the non-dominant culture, it continues the economic oppression and disadvantage of that culture. In
Australia, there are cases where white Australian businesses have stolen Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander
artworks for use on T-shirts and souvenirs. This allows the dominant culture to make money from the non-
dominant culture, without benefiting the original artists.
Cultural appropriation also has a nasty habit of giving the dominant group credit for aspects of a culture that
they have taken, reinforcing the power imbalance between the two groups. For example, Kylie Jenner was credited
with starting an 'edgy' new hair trend, while black actress Zendaya faced criticism for wearing her hair the same
way. What's interesting about this, is that Zendaya's natural hair was seen as a negative. But Kylie Jenner, a person
with no ties to black culture, was given credit for taking something that wasn't hers.
Cultural appropriation creates stereotypes. The Native American chief, the Japanese geisha or the Arab
sheikh can be examples of stereotypes that pop up during Halloween. When people from dominant cultures 'dress
up' like this, it reduces something of cultural significance to a costume just so that the dominant group can have
'a bit of fun'. It also keeps these kinds of stereotypes going.
There are times when it's encouraged to try something from a different culture. Being invited to an Indian
wedding where the hosts are cool with you wearing traditional clothing is not cultural appropriation.
(Source: https://au.reachout.com/)
Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Cross-cultural exchange.
B. Cultural exploitation.
C. Cultural appreciation.
D. Cultural appropriation.
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, what can be suggested about cultural exchange, cultural appropriation
and assimilation?
A. Cultural exchange and assimilation are the subcategories of cultural appropriation.
B. Cultural exchange happens when different cultures come together on an equal footing.
C. The three practices involve dominant cultures taking some features from minority ones.
D. Cultural assimilation is practiced to ensure survival and to avoid discrimination.
Question 38: The word "it” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. group B. ownership C. land D. oppression
Question 39: The word "ties” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. strings B. friendships C. ropes D. connections
Question 40: According to the passage, which is NOT true about cultural appropriation?
A. It does not give people credit for their own culture.
B. It continues the oppression of the non-dominant culture.
C. It is the savior of a cultural product that has faded away.
D. It adds to stereotypes faced by non-dominant cultures.
Question 41: Which statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Cultural appreciation is the forceful adoption of certain elements from another culture.
B. Being invited to take part by people from that culture is not cultural appropriation.
C. A non-dominant culture is the most visible and accepted culture within a society.
D. Oppression is just one-on-one behaviour and not a form of structural discrimination.
Question 42: The word "cool” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. okay B. keen C. fresh D. quiet
Question 43: It is imperative that a graduate student maintains a grade point average of "B” in his major field.
A B C D
Question 44: Every month, I usually buy monthly bus tickets because it are much cheaper and more convenient.
A B C D
Question 45: Mass production is the manufacture of machineries and other articles in standard sizes
A B C
and large numbers.
D
Question 46: They began investigating the reasons for the accident 3 days ago.
A. The last time they investigated the reasons for the accident was 3 days ago.
B. It's 3 days since they last investigated the reasons for the accident.
C. They have investigated the reasons for the accident 3 days ago.
D. They have investigated the reasons for the accident for 3 days.
Question 47: “Why don’t we go out to have a coffee?", said he.
A. He invited me to go out to have a coffee.
B. He reminded me to go out to have a coffee.
C. He suggested that we should go out to have a coffee.
D. He encouraged me to go out to have a coffee.
Question 48: It's unnecessary for you to book the tickets in advance.
A. You mustn't book the tickets in advance.
B. You can't book the tickets in advance.
C. You needn't book the tickets in advance.
D. You shouldn’t book the tickets in advance.
Question 49: She did not study hard at school. She now regrets that.
A. She regretted not studying hard at school.
B. She wished she had studied hard at school.
C. If only she had studied hard at school, then she doesn't regret now.
D. If she had studied hard at school, she would regret now.
Question 50: The prices went up too much. The couple couldn’t afford a new car.
A. Had the prices not gone up too much, the couple could have afforded a new car.
B. The prices did not go up too much, so the couple could afford a new car.
C. The couple managed to afford a new car even though the prices went up.
D. High as the prices were, the couple afforded a new car in the end.
ĐỀ SỐ 3
NGÀY 12/5/2021
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. toured B. jumped C. solved D. rained
Question 2: A. post B. role C. dome D. loch
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. impose B. childcare C. access D. curfew
Question 4: A. graduate B. organise C. emission D. confidence
questions.
Question 5: I think I’ll ______ a visit to Louvre museum while I’m in Paris this summer.
A. drop B. raise C. bring D. pay
Question 6: This sort of test is supposed to be _______ because the marking is not affected by individual
preferences.
A. impersonal B. objective C. subjective D. unspecified
Question 7: Modern computers can hold huge amounts of information, _______ ?
A. were they B. can’t they C. did they D. don’t they
Question 8: Several people were hurt in the accident but only one _______ to hospital.
A. was taken B. was taking C. has taken D. has been taking
Question 9: You were very rude to Uncle Tom. Don’t you think you should apologize _______ him?
A. with B. to C. for D. before
Question 10: The more she sleeps, _______ she becomes.
A. laziest B. the laziest C. lazier D. the lazier
Question 11: She wore a _______ dress that made her more pretty.
A. long white wedding B. long wedding white
C. white long wedding D. wedding white long
Question 12: Mr. Nam _______ many items in his grocery since he moved to this area.
A. will sell B. has sold C. sells D. was selling
Question 13: At 84 he’s still quite active _______ he walks with the aid of a stick.
A. since B. moreover C. although D. instead of
Question 14: It may be many years _______ .
A. if the situation improved B. when the situation had improved
C. before the situation improves D. because the situation will improve
Question 15: _______ his composition, Louie handed it to his teacher.
A. To write B. Being written C. Having written D. Wrote
Question 16: An unexpected surge in _______ power caused the computer to crash.
A. electricity B. electrical C. electrically D. electrify
Question 17: The firm was badly in need of restructuring when she _______ .
A. took over B. took up C. looked over D. looked up
Question 18: Five years after her debut, the diminutive star of the Royal Ballet has the world at her _______.
A. heads B. hands C. feet D. shoulders
Question 19: These melodious folk songs are generally _______ to Smith, a very important musician of the
century.
A. devoted B. contributed C. composed D. ascribed
Question 20: After the party I collected up bottles from various parts of the house.
1
A. diverse B. current C. public D. formal
Question 21: Accumulations of sand can be formed by the action of waves on coastal beaches.
A. Requirement B. Acquisition C. Inquiry D. Acknowledgement
Question 22: It is extremely unlikely that the new owner would want to make people redundant.
A. softly B. strictly C. speedily D. probably
Question 23: Don’t get angry with such a thing. It’s only a storm in a teacup.
A. commercial tension B. trivial thing
C. serious problem D. financial issue
Question 24: Quang is asking Bach about the questions in the test.
Quang: “Was any of the questions difficult for you?” - Bach: “ _______ ”
A. No, I’m not. B. The second one. C. No one. D. Please ask me again.
Question 25: Minh is asking his mother about attending a Chinese language course.
Minh: “Do I have to take that Chinese language course?” - Minh’s mother: “ _______ ”
A. It’s up to you. B. Welcome to China.
C. Thank you. D. No, you have to.
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Human beings have become an increasingly powerful environmental force over the last 10,000 years.
With the advent of agriculture (26) _______ started about 8,000 years ago, we began to change the land. And
with the industrial revolution, we began to (27) _______ our atmosphere. The recent increase in the world’s
population has magnified the effects of our agricultural and economic activities. But the growth in world
population has masked what may be an even more important human-environmental interaction: (28) _______
the world’s population is doubling, the world’s urban population is tripling. Within the next few years, more
than half the world’s population will be living in urban areas.
The level and growth of urbanization differ considerably by region. Among developing countries, Latin
American countries have the highest proportion of their population living in urban areas. But East and South
Asia are likely to have the fastest growth (29) _______ in the next 30 years. Almost all of future world
population growth will be in towns and cities. (30) _______ the increase in and the redistribution of the earth’s
population are likely to affect the natural systems of the earth and the interactions between the urban
environments and populations.
Question 26: A. where B. that C. when D. who
Question 27: A. release B. insist C. apply D. affect
Question 28: A. While B. After C. Though D. Unless
Question 29: A. ratios B. percentages C. rates D. proportions
Question 30: A. Both B. Either C. Each D. Some
A few months ago, a group of scientists warned about the rise of “extinction denial,” an effort much like
climate denial to mischaracterize the extinction crisis and suggest that human activity isn’t really having a
damaging effect on ecosystems and the whole planet. That damaging effect is, in reality, impossible to deny.
This past year, scientists and conservation organizations declared that a long list of species may have gone
extinct, including dozens of frogs, orchids and fish. Most of these species haven’t been seen in decades, despite
frequent and regular expeditions to find out if they still exist. The causes of these extinctions range from
diseases to invasive species to habitat loss, but most boil down to human behavior.
One of the first papers of 2020 to report any extinction announced the probable loss of 17 percent of
Bangladesh’s 187 known orchid species. Some of these still exist in other countries, but even regional
extinctions (or extirpations, as they’re called) tell us that we’ve taken a toll on our ecological habitats. A similar
2
paper published just days later suggested that nine more orchid species from Madagascar may have also gone
extinct.
One of the few extinctions of 2020 received much media attention, and it’s easy to see why. Handfish are
an unusual group of species whose front fins look somewhat like human appendages, which they use to walk
around the ocean floor. The smooth species, which hasn’t been seen since 1802, lived off the coast of Tasmania
and was probably common when it was first collected by naturalists. Bottom fishing, pollution, habitat
destruction, bycatch and other threats are all listed as among the probable reasons for its extinction. Even
though the local fishery collapsed more than 50 years ago, the remaining handfish species are still critically
endangered, so this extinction should serve as an important wake-up call to save them.
(Adapted from https://www.scientificamerican.com/)
Question 31. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Human activities are not the primary cause of species extinction.
B. Myriad flora and fauna species may have become extinction recently.
C. The negative effects of extinction crisis are increasing.
D. Plants are more vulnerable than animals.
Question 32. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______ .
A. expeditions B. decades C. species D. scientists
Question 33. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. It’s likely to find the extinct orchid species beyond the borders of Bangladesh.
B. Deforestation may cause some diseases to kill the invasive species.
C. The price for our modern society is the increasing loss in ecological habitats.
D. Bottom fishing and accidental entrapment only affect big marine species.
Question 34. According to the last paragraph, handfish _______ .
A. are raised for recreation. B. resemble human’s ancestor.
C. are threatened by naturalists D. live on the seabed.
Question 35. The word “collapsed” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. closed down B. gave up C. put off D. took over
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 36: Some families go without medical treatment because of their disability to pay.
A. Some B. go without C. treatment D. disability
Question 37: When I was a girl, I walk five miles to school every day.
A. When B. walk C. miles D. every day
Question 38: Many miners have suffered from the effects of coal dust in his lungs.
A. suffered B. the C. coal D. his
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 39: Perhaps they will build a new supermarket here.
A. They may build a new supermarket here.
B. They should build a new supermarket here.
C. They mustn’t build a new supermarket here.
D. They needn’t build a new supermarket here.
Question 40: He last spoke Chinese one year ago.
A. He didn’t speak Chinese one year ago.
B. He has spoken Chinese for one year.
C. He spoke Chinese for one year.
D. He hasn’t spoken Chinese for one year.
Question 41: “Let’s go for a walk today?” said Jane.
A. Jane promised to go for a walk today.
B. Jane suggested going for a walk that day.
3
C. Jane agreed to go for a walk that day.
D. Jane admitted going for a walk today.
Question 42: We are too busy with chores. We really want to go camping now.
A. As long as we weren’t busy with chores, we will be able to go camping.
B. If we aren’t busy with chores, we can go camping now.
C. We wish we weren’t busy with chores and could go camping now.
D. If only we hadn’t been busy with chores and could have gone camping.
Question 43: There was an explosion. The plane then dropped from the sky.
A. No sooner had there been an explosion, the plane dropped from the sky.
B. Had the plane dropped from the sky, there would be an explosion.
C. Only after an explosion did the plane drop from the sky.
D. Having dropped from the sky, there was an explosion.
Nowadays, most people realize that it’s risky to use credit card numbers online. However, from time to
time, we all use passwords and government ID numbers on the Internet. We think we are safe, but that may
not be true! A new kind of attack is being used by dishonest people to steal IDs and credit card numbers from
innocent websurfers. This new kind of attack is called “phishing.”
Phishing sounds the same as the word “fishing,” and it implies that a thief is trying to lure people into
giving away valuable information. Like real fishermen, phishers use bait in the form of great online deals or
services. For example, phishers might use fake emails and false websites to con people into revealing credit
card numbers, account usernames, and passwords. They imitate well- known banks, online sellers, and credit
card companies. Successful phishers may convince as many as five percent of the people they contact to
respond and give away their personal financial information.
Is this really a big problem? Actually, tricking five percent of the online population is huge! Currently,
more than 350 million people have access to the Internet, and seventy-five percent of those Internet users live
in the wealthiest countries on Earth. It has been estimated that phishers send more than three billion scam
messages each year. Even by tricking only five percent of the people, phishers can make a lot of money.
Since there is so much money to make through this kind of scam, it has caught the interest of more than
just small-time crooks. Recently, police tracked down members of an organized phishing group in Eastern
Europe, who had stolen hundreds of thousands of dollars from people online. The group created official-
looking email messages requesting people to update their personal information at an international bank’s
website. However, the link to the bank in the message actually sent people to the phishers’ fake website. To
make matters worse, further investigation revealed that this group had connections to a major crime gang in
Russia.
How can innocent people protect themselves? Above all, they have to learn to recognize email that has
been sent by a phisher. Always be wary of any email with urgent requests for personal financial information.
Phishers typically write upsetting or exciting, but fake, statements in their emails so that people will reply right
away. Also, messages from phishers will not address recipients by name because they really don’t know who
the recipients are yet. On the other hand, valid messages from your bank or other companies you normally
deal with will typically include your name.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 3 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)
Question 44: Which of the following could best serve as the topic of the passage?
A. A new type of internet attack.
B. Passwords and government ID numbers on the Internet.
C. Innocent websurfers and online risks.
D. Valuable information shared on the internet.
Question 45: The word “lure” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. avert B. obviate C. forestall D. entice
4
Question 46: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to _______ ?
A. credit card numbers, account usernames, and passwords
B. people
C. fake emails and false websites
D. phishers
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, why are only 5% of online users tricked a big problem?
A. Because these 5% of internet users are the wealthiest people among online population.
B. Because the number of online population is myriad and three fourths of them live in rich nations.
C. Because the number of scam messages sent to these users is more than three billion.
D. Because the personal information these people are tricked is financial.
Question 48: As mentioned in paragraph 4, the trick used by phishers in Eastern Europe is _______ .
A. creating fake international bank’s website to deceive police’s investigation
B. requesting users to update information through official-looking email messages
C. connecting people’s personal information to a major crime gang in Russia
D. interesting many small-time crooks to organize a phishing group
Question 49: The word “revealed” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______ .
A. concealed B. suppressed C. divulged D. disguised
Question 50: What suggestion is TRUE according to the last paragraph?
A. Keep calm and be careful with urgent financial messages without your name.
B. You shouldn’t answer any message related to your personal financial information.
C. Ask your bank or company if you receive any upsetting or exciting email.
D. Be cautious with any email without the name of sender.
5
ĐỀ SỐ 4 (NGÀY 17/5/2021)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. bonus B. crop C. both D. cold
Question 2: A. troops B. doubts C. months D. ways
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
Question 3: A. impact B. perceive C. design D. project
Question 4: A. generation B. approximate C. alternative D. empirical
questions.
Question 5: She wants to know that what you are doing right there, _______ ?
A. does she B. want not she C. doesn’t she D. aren’t they
Question 6: At this time tomorrow, her boyfriend _______ a date with her for ten years.
A. will be making B. will have been making
C. have been making D. has been making
Question 7: He remained at Stuttgart for some years as Russian minister and _______ adviser of the crown
princess.
A. confident B. confidence C. confidential D. confided
Question 8: Her mood improved, Deidre returned to her penthouse with newfound resolve to _______ the last
few months of her life.
A. give off B. take on C. take in D. give in
Question 9: Even when people do things for you and give you things that you don't actually want, you must
always remember that it's the _______ that counts.
A. thought B. idea C. mind D. commemoration
Question 10: She has _______ eyes, so she is really different from others.
A. big glassy blue B. glassy blue big C. blue big glassy D. glassy big blue
Question 11: _______ as The Global Ambassador of YGL, Rosé considered it as a challenge for her to improve
herself in the public eye.
A. One choosing B. Be chosen C. Having chosen D. Having been chosen
Question 12: _______ we climb, the steeper the mountain became
A. highest B. the higher C. higher D. the highest
Question 13: He longed to get into that water, _______ dirty it might be, and he glanced round at the pool from
whence came sounds of shrieks with laughter.
A. although B. though C. however D. as
Question 14: Volcanoes have not only made the continents, they are also thought to _______ the world’s first
stable atmosphere.
A. make B. have made C. have been made D. making
Question 15: She knew it was a _______ that in the depth of his soul he was glad she was remaining at home and
had not gone away.
A. proof B. root C. evidence D. witness
Question 16: It comprises 10,000 acres of high moorland, with beautiful, _______ wild scenery.
A. unharmed B. undamaged C. unspoilt D. uninjured
Question 17: My friend read the first page of this book _______.
A. when he felt the frightening feeling running in his bones
B. As soon as he feels the frightening feeling running in his bones
C. After he had felt frightening feeling running in his bones
D. Until he was feeling frightening feeling running in his bones
Question 18: While she was pregnant, her husband waited _______ her hand and foot.
A. for B. in C. at D. on
Question 19: Spending several weeks on holiday together has _______ their friendship between Jack and Jucy.
A. cemented B. spoiled C. improved D. accepted
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 20: Her father is an incredible man, who lived through the worst of wars, the great depression, and lost
both his parents at a young age.
A. ridiculous B. tedious C. lavish D. remarkable
Question 21: We found that walking for utilitarian purposes significantly improves your health, and that those
types of walking trips are easier to bring into your daily routine.
A. realistic B. sensible C. opulent D. sick
Question 22: The band had a hugely popular single in the '80s, but they fell off the radar soon afterward.
A. the grand ones in the moment period but taken on more and more.
B. the success that happened within one time after that.
C. drew a blank in one’s mind about the break-out of the music group.
D. got icon rhythm into every single person in some moment
Question 23: Every breath we inhale feeds our body and nourishes our mind. With every exhalation, we expel
unwanted molecules and negative energy.
A. nurture B. commence C. absorb D. relegate
Question 24: Choi and Mingyu are discussing the topic they are present in the middle semester exam.
Mingyu: “I recommend that this topic should focus on nearly vocabulary than grammar, what do you think about
that, Choi”
Choi: “_______”
A. Have it your way B. Suit yourself C. Help yourself D. I can’t agree with you
Question 25: Jennie and Rosé are planning to invite many people to join in their feast
Rosé: “I want everyone in my company will be taken aback by the things arranged today, Jennie”
Jennie: “_______”
A. Yeah, I think so B. Oh really?
C. Oh yes whatever you say D. hmm, as you wish
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 26: She started to work as a journalist three months ago.
A. She has worked as journalist for three months.
B. She started to work as a journalist for three months.
C. She hasn’t worked as a journalist for three months.
D. She didn’t start to work as a journalist three months ago.
Question 27: “Would you like to stay for dinner?” she asked me.
A. She insisted me on staying for dinner.
B. She invited me to stay for dinner.
C. She promised me to stay for dinner.
D. She ordered me to stay for dinner.
Question 28: It’s not good for you to eat so much sugar every day.
A. You needn’t eat so much sugar every day.
B. You must eat so much sugar every day.
C. You may eat so much sugar every day.
D. You shouldn’t eat so much sugar every day.
Question 29: Nga doesn’t have a new computer. She really needs it to finish her thesis early.
A. Nga wishes she had a new computer and could finish her thesis early.
B. As long as Nga has a new computer, she will be able to finish her thesis early.
C. Nga not only has a new computer but she also needs to finish her thesis early.
D. Before Nga has a new computer, she needs to finish her thesis early.
Question 30: The new generation of computers is powerful. It can process faster than any earlier models.
A. Not until the new generation of computers had processed faster than any earlier models was it powerful.
B. So powerful is the new generation of computers that it can process faster than any earlier models.
C. But for the new powerful generation of computers, it would have processed faster than any earlier models.
D. Only if the new generation of computers were powerful could it process faster than any earlier models.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 31: My friends are always gossiping about my new boyfriend, which make me so irritated.
A. are always B. gossiping about C. make D. irritated
Question 32: Everyone has its own ideas about the best way to bring up children.
A. his B. about C. way D. children
Question 33: Building a new road in this area could be environmentally damaged. Therefore central and local
government should have taken action to protect our planet.
A. environmentally B. damaged C. taken D. protect
answer to each of the questions.
Ecotourism
The primary aim of ecotourism is to educate the traveler and bring him or her closer to nature. Participants
are given the chance to visit parts of the world (34) _______ are untouched by human intervention and to engage
in conversation work and various other kinds of environmental projects. Visitors benefit by gaining an
appreciation of natural habitats and an (35) _______ into the impact of human beings on the environment. Local
communities gain financially but also in (36) ways, since not only monuments but other buildings as well, such
as bridges or windmills, are restored in order to attract more visitors.
(37) _______, there are also disadvantages to this type of tourism. There have been cases in which tourism
has been allowed to develop with no control or limits. As a result, (38) _______ cultures have been affected or
even threatened by foreign lifestyles. Many people today support that our approach to the development of
ecotourism has to be reconsidered. It is essential that this type of tourism be environmentally, socially and
culturally friendly.
34. A. who B. that C. when D. why
35. A. advent B. intent C. access D. insight
36. A. other B. another C. every D. one
37. A. Although B. Therefore C. However D. Moreover
38. A. primary B. peculiar C. indigenous D. exotic
Cities, not nation states, are the dominant form of human civilization in the 21st century. Humanity
transitioned from a rural to a primarily urban species - homo urbanis – at breathtaking speed. In the early 1800s,
less than 3% of the world's population lived in cities; today, more than half of the global population is urban and
by 2050, the proportion will rise to three quarters. There are thousands of small and medium-sized cities along
with more than 30 megacities and sprawling, networked metropolitan areas with 15 million residents or more. Yet
despite these massive transformations in how people live and interact, our international affairs are still largely
dictated by national states, not cities.
Cities are beginning to flex their muscles on the international stage. They are already displacing nation states
as the central nodes of the global economy, generating close to 80% of global GDP. Cities like New York and
Tokyo are bigger in GDP terms than many G-20 countries.
Metropolitan regions and special economic zones are linking global cities through transnational supply
chains. A growing number of mega-regions, such as those linking cities in Mexico and the U.S., transcend borders.
In the process, cities are collectively forging common regional plans, trading partnerships, and infrastructure
corridors.
The spectacular rise of cities did not happen by accident. Cities channel creativity, connect human capital,
and when well governed, they drive growth. That many cities and their residents are rolling up their sleeves and
getting things done - where nations have failed - are grounds for optimism. In the future, we hope that it is our
proximate, accountable, and empowered city leaders who will define our fates.
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. History of cities all over the world B. Types of cities in the world
C. Contributions of cities to the world D. The not-to-distant future of cities
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT true according to the writer?
A. Humanity transitioned from a rural to a primarily urban species at breathtaking speed.
B. Cities are the dominant form of human civilization in the 21st century.
C. There is a tendency for cities to connect to form large urban regions.
D. People should not be too optimistic about the future of cities.
Question 41: The phrase "flex their muscles" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. show their strength B. change their attitudes
C. leave their side D. find their ways
Question 42: Would the following sentence best be placed at the end of which paragraph?
This is neither fair nor rational.
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 43: The word "they” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. plans B. partnerships C. cities D. residents
The roles of higher education in sustainable economic and social development increase year by year, and this
will continue over the next decades. Higher education can be seen as a focal point of knowledge and its
application, an institution which makes a great contribution to the economic growth and development through
fostering innovation and increasing higher skills. It is looked as a way to improve the quality of life and address
major social and global challenges. Higher education is broadly defined as one of key drivers of growth
performance, prosperity and competitiveness.
Business has changed over the last decade. There are a lot of jobs today that failed to exist several decades
ago. The 2017 McKinsey report estimated that 49 percent of time spent on recurrent work activities worldwide
could be automated using existing technologies. The requirements on employee’s skills have also changed.
Modern universities provide their students with various programmes aimed at preparing them for different
economic sectors, helping them to stay and progress in the labour market for long, programmes that make a
difference for labour market outcomes and keep pace with changes in the global economy and changes in the
innovation process. Universities promote lifelong learning; they offer opportunities to engage and attract
professionals into training and professional development. Investing in knowledge creation and enabling its
diffusion is the key to creating high-wage employment and enhancing productivity growth.
One of the missions of the modern universities is finding solutions to big challenges and conducting research
within global priority areas, contributing to social outcomes such as health and social engagement. Often it is
aimed at designing technologies that result in new products and supplying advanced technology for use.
Knowledge is the true basis of higher education: its production via research, its transmission via teaching, its
acquisition and use by students. Hence, excellence must remain the prime objective of any institution of higher
education, including universities in any country. Countries are putting knowledge at the service of their societies
to create a better world. This can be achieved through the training of first-class minds, through major advances in
science and technology and by encouraging an interest in learning.
Now, to realize its full potential, higher education is to maintain a pro-active stance, strengthen its position
as a bedrock upon which countries are and build a new road to growth.
(source: https://qswownews.com/)
A. Importance of higher education.
B. What is higher education?
C. Ensuring continuity for learning.
D. Transforming tertiary education.
Question 45: The word “address” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. label B. tackle C. convey D. face
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned about the current situation around the role of
higher education?
A. Technology is changing the nature of work.
B. Higher education can create a quality workforce.
C. Global economy is the only reason tertiary education exists.
D. Higher education adapts workforce to the changing economy.
Question 47: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. universities B. changes C. students D. programmes
Question 48: According to paragraph 3, what can be suggested about tertiary education?
A. It can support business and industry.
B. It is a technology and innovation driver.
C. Higher education students are guaranteed higher living standards.
D. Many countries choose to retain the universities’ traditional role.
Question 49: The word “bedrock” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. essence B. root C. heart D. foundation
Question 50: The following statements are true, EXCEPT _______.
A. The modern workplace is in a constant state of evolution.
B. Automation is able to remove part of the repetitive tasks.
C. Research can directly impact the wealth of an economy.
D. A skilled workforce will potentially increase productivity.
THE END
ĐỀ SỐ 5
NGÀY 24/5/2021
Question 1: A. enjoyed B. called C. joined D. helped
Question 2: A. slope B. bomb C. whole D. home
Question 3: A. explore B. mission C. threaten D. sector
Question 4: A. chemical B. quality C. solution D. decorate
questions.
Question 5: We regret that it is impossible to meet the _______ date for the goods you recently ordered from us.
A. arrival B. carriage C. transport D. delivery
Question 6: How long the journey takes will _______ on how long it takes to get through the traffic.
A. dependent B. dependently C. depend D. dependence
Question 7: _______ to wake him up, I turned off the radio.
A. Not wanting B. Not wanted C. Not to want D. Not have been wanted
Question 8: Anne was fond of Tim _______.
A. after he often annoys her B. though he often annoyed her
C. when he has often annoyed her D. until he will often annoy her
Question 9: The whole report is badly written. ________, it’s inaccurate.
A. Despite B. Therefore C. Because of D. Moreover
Question 10: Trang went to see the dentist after she ______ able to suffer the toothache.
A. hasn’t been B. wasn’t C. hadn’t been D. won’t be
Question 11: The older Ms. Lucy is, _______ she becomes.
A. the most attractive B. most attractive C. the more attractive D. more attractive
Question 12: I have known him for a long time, so I'm confident _______ his skills as a manager.
A. in B. about C. of D. All are correct
Question 13: So as not _______ by paparazzi, Angelina Jolie wore a veil.
A. recognize B. to be recognizing C. recognizing D. to be recognized
Question 14: These parts of the world don’t have different climatic conditions, _______ ?
A. didn’t they B. do they C. weren’t they D. are they
Question 15: Ms. Hoa is a ______ girl who always smiles with everyone friendly.
A. beautiful tall young B. young beautiful tall
C. young tall beautiful D. tall young beautiful
Question 16: It is the job of the ______ to enforce compliance with the regulations.
A. Supervisor B. counsellor C. inspectors D. investigators
Question 17: I _______ sight of my former teacher while I was out shopping yesterday.
A. seen B. caught C. viewed D. faced
Question 18: I’ve tried to get him to leave, but he can’t take a _______.
A. implication B. guess C. suggestion D. hint
Question 19: They said the operation had been successful and they expected his wife to _______.
A. pull through B. come through C. pull away D. come away
1
Question 20: We've done everything we can to make the house as secure as possible.
A. odd B. weak C. safe D. fair
Question 21: Scientists hope that this new drug will be a major breakthrough in the fight against Covid-19.
A. new cure B. important therapy
C. sudden remedy D. dramatic development
Question 22: All non-violent religious and political beliefs should be respected equally.
A. frankly B. differently C. properly D. joyfully
Question 23: Sure, I’ve tried to live a benign life, putting my shoulder to the wheel for peace.
A. being indifferent to B. feeling tired of C. looking happy in D. becoming strong in
Question 24: The postman is talking to Tom on the phone.
Postman: “I will come and give you the package a bit late.” - Tom: “_______”
A. Thanks anyway. B. Why late? C. No way. D. I don’t agree.
Question 25: Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight?” - Sarah: “_______”
A. It’s kind of you to invite. B. You are very welcome.
C. That’s a great idea. D. That’s acceptable.
We might be drinking the recommended amount of fluid each day, but are we drinking the right things?
Very few of us can say that water is the only thing we drink and tea, coffee, fruit juices and carbonated drinks are
a daily choice for most of us, (26) _______ does the wrong choice of drink means we might actually be doing
more (27) _______ than good? If thirst sees you reaching for a sweetened, caffeinated drink, you will be loading
your system with sugar and stimulants that bring with them excess calories, and a temporary boost (28) _______
is bound to result in an energy slump soon afterwards. Fruit juice and smoothies should also be limited because
of the natural ‘free’ sugars they contain and the high caffeine levels of (29) _______ tea and coffee can cause
anxiety, insomnia and digestive uses. Few of us will want to give up all these choices but swapping some of them
for more tap water in our diet each day can only be a good thing and if you are finding tap water a bit dull, try
adding a slice of lemon, lime or cucumber for a subtle taste. Also interested about how it works with food and
health? And would like to get a clear (30) _______ on what is a healthy body fat percentage? Then take a look at
our body fat percentage page.
Question 26: A. but B. because C. although D. as
Question 27: A. damage B. harm C. ruin D. spoil
Question 28: A. who B. when C. where D. which
Question 29: A. few B. another C. some D. every
Question 30: A. view B. sight C. vision D. scenery
At the end of 2019, a new type of coronavirus started spreading in China. This type of coronavirus is often
called 2019-nCoV, novel coronavirus, or COVID-19. It is believed that the virus was transmitted from animals to
humans. Some of the first cases were diagnosed in people who had visited a market selling live seafood and
animals. Unfortunately, when viruses are transmitted from animals to people, it can take scientists a lot of time
before they can develop a vaccine or medicines to cure it.
Some of the symptoms of the coronavirus are fever, cough, runny nose, sore throat, headache, and trouble
breathing. These symptoms are very much like those people have with a cold or the flu. The virus appears to
spread mainly from person to person. The transmission occurs when someone comes into contact with an infected
2
person. For example, a cough, sneeze or handshake could cause transmission. The spread may also be caused by
coming into contact with something an infected person has touched and then touching your mouth, nose or eyes.
There is no specific vaccine or medication to cure the disease, but generally, symptoms will go away on their
own. However, experts recommend seeking medical care early if symptoms feel worse than a standard cold.
Doctors can relieve symptoms by prescribing pain or fever medication. As far as antibiotics are concerned, they
are useless to treat coronavirus.
(Adapted from MyEnglishpage.com)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title of the passage?
A. The symptoms of coronavirus B. The origin of coronavirus
C. Coronavirus: Do you know about it? D. How to treat coronavirus?
Question 32: The word “Unfortunately” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______?
A. Unluckily B. Unpleasantly C. Uncomfortably D. Unacceptably
Question 33: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a symptom of the coronavirus?
A. fever B. cough C. trouble breathing D. allergic
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, the coronavirus can be transmitted from person to person when _____?
A. An infected person shakes hands with someone.
B. An infected person coughs or sneezes without covering.
C. Someone come into contact with something an infected person touched.
D. All are correct.
Question 35: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to _______ ?
A. Doctors B. Antibiotics C. Symptoms D. Experts
Do you feel like your teenager is spending most of the day glued to a phone screen? You're not too far off. A
new survey from the Pew Research Center reveals the surprising ways that technology intersects with teen
friendships—and the results show that 57 percent of teens have made at least one new friend online. Even more
surprisingly, only 20 percent of those digital friends ever meet in person.
While teens do connect with their friends face-to-face outside of school, they spend 55 percent of their day
texting with friends, and only 25 percent of teens are spending actual time with their friends on a daily basis
(outside of school hallways). These new forms of communication are key in maintaining friendships day-to-day
-27 percent of teens instant message their friends every day, 23 percent connect through social media every day,
and 7 percent even video chat daily. Text messaging remains the main form of communication — almost half of
survey respondents say it's their chosen method of communication with their closest friend.
While girls are more likely to text with their close friends, boys are meeting new friends (and maintaining
friendships) in the gaming world—89 percent play with friends they know, and 54 percent play with online-only
friends. Whether they're close with their teammates or not, online gamers say that playing makes them feel "more
connected" to friends they know, or gamers they've never met.
When making new friends, social media has also become a major part of the teenage identity—62 percent of
teens are quick to share their social media usernames when connecting with a new friend (although 80 percent
still consider their phone number the best method of contact). Despite the negative consequences—21 percent of
teenage users feel worse about their lives because of posts they see on social media—teens also have found support
and connection through various platforms. In fact, 68 percent of teens received support during a challenging time
in their lives via social media platforms.
Just as technology has become a gateway for new friendships, or a channel to stay connected with current
friends, it can also make a friendship breakup more public. The study reveals that girls are more likely to block
or unfriend former allies, and 68 percent of all teenage users report experiencing "drama among their friends on
social media."
(Source: https://www.realsimple.com/)
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Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Social media affects friendship too much.
B. Teenagers are making and keeping friends in a surprising way.
C. The difference of making new friends between girls and boys.
D. Social media connects friendship.
Question 37: The word “digital” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. analogue B. numeracy C. numerous D. online
Question 38: According to the passage, what percentage of teens spend actual time with their friends?
A. 25% B. 55% C. 27% D. 23%
Question 39: The following sentences are true, EXCEPT _______.
A. According to the survey, more than half of teens have ever made new friends online.
B. Teens only meet face-to-face one fifth of online friends they have made.
C. Most teenagers use video chat to maintain relationship with friends.
D. New forms of communication play an important role in keeping friendships.
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. friends B. online gamers C. their teammates D. online-only friends
Question 41: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Boys are more likely to meet new friends than girls.
B. Most teens are not easy to give others their usernames when making new friends.
C. The majority of teenage users agree that social media has negative consequences in their lives.
D. Thanks to social media, more than two thirds of teens are supported when they face with challenges in their
lives.
Question 42: What is the synonym of the word “breakup” in the last paragraph?
A. termination B. divorce C. commencing D. popularity
Question 43: Today’s students also appear more formerly dressed and conservative-looking.
A. Today’s B. also C. formerly D. conservative-looking
Question 44: She was studying English when the light goes out.
A. She B. English C. the D. goes out
Question 45: If anyone rings for me, please tell him I’ll be back in the office at four o’clock.
A. rings B. him C. back D. at
Question 46: You are not allowed to step on the grass in this area.
A. You cannot step on the grass in this area.
B. You may step on the grass in this area.
C. You should step on the grass in this area.
D. You mustn’t step on the grass in this area.
Question 47: My father started planting orchids several years ago.
A. My father has planted orchids for several years.
B. My father last planted orchids several years ago.
C. My father didn’t plant orchids several years ago.
D. My father hasn’t planted orchids for several years.
Question 48: “You can’t wear your dirty shoes in the class,” said the teacher to the student.
A. The teacher asked the student wear his dirty shoes in the class.
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B. The teacher forbade the student from wearing his dirty shoes in the class.
C. The teacher invited the student wear his dirty shoes in the class.
D. The teacher informed the student wear his dirty shoes in the class.
Question 49: Ms. Nga has little money. She really wants to buy a new mobile.
A. Because Ms. Nga has little money, she can buy a new mobile.
B. As long as Ms. Nga has more money, she will be able to buy a new mobile.
C. Ms. Nga wishes she had more money and could buy a new mobile.
D. Although Ms. Nga has little money, she still wants to buy a new mobile.
Question 50: She finished the meal. Her children came home after school soon after that.
A. Had it not been for her children’s coming home after school, she couldn’t have finished the meal.
B. Only after her children had come home after school did she finish the meal.
C. Not only did her children come home after school but she also finished the meal.
D. No sooner had she finished the meal than her children came home after school.
THE END
5
ĐỀ SỐ 6
NGÀY 26/5/2021
There has always been a problem with teachers being from a different generation to their pupils, particularly
older educators. But the dominance of digital technology has spread that generation gap even wider, as young
people become conversant with mobile digital devices, games and social media that didn’t exist when their
teachers were growing up. Teachers now face pupils using devices and online systems that they don’t use
themselves, and don’t really understand either. The generation gap is more prevalent than ever, but teachers can
bridge that gap if they receive the right guidance with appropriate technology.
Some schools and teachers have particular trouble grasping the role of social media and mobile devices in
teenage life. They consider Facebook a threat and warn parents against it at parent- teacher evenings, without
realizing that preventing teenagers from using social media like this, or messaging apps such as Snapchat and
Instagram, is nearly impossible. Online social media and network gaming are now such an integral part of teenage
behavior that any attempt to prize the mobile devices out of the hands of young people is likely to widen the
generation gap rather than narrow it.
The generation gap in education isn’t just between pupils and teachers – it exists within the staffroom, too. A
teaching career can span more than 40 years, and those towards the end of their working life will not have grown
up with digital technology, whereas teaching staff in their 20s and 30s could well be “digital natives”.
Keeping up with the latest online trend is like a dog chasing its tail; every time you think you’ve caught up,
kids move on. However, it’s not beneficial to get fixated on how young people are using social networks that are,
in the case of Snapchat, hard for the older generation to understand. The key factor to consider is that today’s
school students now take for granted that a lot of their communication with their peers will be online, and
predominantly using smartphones and other mobile devices. Young people expect their educational experience to
be similarly interactive, and partially delivered via these kinds of devices.
(Adapted from https://www.alphr.com/)
Question 1. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. How to Bridge the Generation Gap Between Teachers and Students
B. The Technology Problems of Older Teachers
C. What Causes Difficulties for Teachers Nowadays?
D. The Generation Gap in Education
Question 2. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. teachers B. pupils C. devices D. online systems
Question 3. The word “bridge” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. form B. connect C. reduce D. build
Question 4. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Some teachers and schools don’t want their children to use social networks.
B. It’s unlikely to stop students from using social media.
C. Separating teenagers from the mobile devices can help to narrow the generation gap.
D. Social media and network gaming become an important part of the behavior of teenagers.
Question 5. The generation gap exists even in the staffroom mostly because _______.
A. the teaching career span is too long to adapt new technology.
B. the older teachers are not as familiar with digital technology as the younger.
C. many young teachers prefer using digital devices to operating others.
D. the older teachers are less unaffected by the development of technology than the younger.
Question 6. The phrase “a dog chasing its tail” in the last paragraph most probably means _______.
A. keeping on doing something futile B. moving around a circle
C. doing harm to yourself D. getting tired of your behavior
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Question 7. According to the last paragraph, what is the main factor to consider in the generation gap between
teachers and students?
A. It’s hard for the older generation to understand the social networks used by the young.
B. Students get accustomed to communicating with their friends online by smartphones and mobile devices.
C. Teachers should use these social networks to provide education.
D. Students are competing with the latest online trend with their peers.
Famously being one of Vietnam’s seven UNESCO World Heritage Sites, the Imperial City of Hue has long
been a must-see attraction for tourists visiting a hidden charm of Vietnam. The Imperial City of Hue was actually
a walled fortress and palace belonged to the ancient city of Hue which was a capital city of the Nguyen Dynasty
for 140 years date back from 1805 until 1945.
The grandeur architecture was planned to be built in 1803 by Gia Long – an emperor who founded the Nguyen
Dynasty. During 27 years from 1805 to 1832, the Imperial City of Hue was finally completed under the reign of
Minh Mang, making it the most massive structure being built in the history of modern Vietnam involving
thousands of workers, millions cubic meters of rock and huge volume of burden workload. It locates on the
northern bank of Huong River, turning South with total land area of 520 ha. The place was made UNESCO Site
in 1993 with the remained buildings being actively restored and preserved after the destruction from the Vietnam
War.
The Imperial City of Hue has a circumference of 10 kilometers with the height of 6.6 meters and 21 meters
thick with forts being meanderingly arranged, accompanied by cannons, artilleries and ammunitions. Initially the
fortress was built solely by soil, only to be replaced by bricks afterward. Surrounding the city is the complicated
canal system served not only as a protection but also as a waterway with nearly seven kilometers.
There are total of ten main majestic gates leading to the Imperial City of Hue, which can be divided into two
main parts excluding houses and mansions: The Citadel and The Forbidden City. The former served to protect the
important palaces inside while the latter was where the emperor and the royal family stayed as well as the court’s
workplace. All the typically traditional Eastern architectures including majestic palaces, tombs and museums
stand accordantly together to make an utmost amusing attraction right in the heart of Vietnam.
(Adapted from https://www.vietnamonline.com/)
Question 8. Which of the following could be the best tittle of the passage?
A. The Imperial City of Hue – the Ancient City of Vietnam
B. Hue Imperial City – A Must-see Attraction in Vietnam
C. The History of the Imperial City of Hue
D. The Construction of Hue Imperial City
Question 9. According to the passage, which statement is TRUE?
A. Hue city was the capital city of the South of Vietnam from 1805 to1945.
B. The Imperial City of Hue was constructed in more than thirty years.
C. The Imperial City of Hue is situated on the southern bank of Huong River.
D. Hue Imperial City was recognized as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1993.
Question 10. The word “volume” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. sound B. number C. amount D. proportion
Question 11. According to paragraph 3, originally, the material used to build the fortress was _______.
A. soil B. brick C. cannons D. rock
Question 12. The phrase “the latter” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. the Citadel B. the Forbidden City
C. the important palaces D. the Imperial City of Hue
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in pronunciation
in each of the following questions.
2
Question 13: A. cat B. many C. fat D. hat
Question 14: A. dedicated B. flooded C. hatred D. distinguished
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15: A. portable B. popular C. convenient D. practical
Question 16: A. enter B. happen C. follow D. decide
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 17: It was wrong of you not to call the fire brigade at once.
A. Calling the fire brigade must be done at once.
B. You should have called the fire brigade at once.
C. You called the fire brigade early and it was wrong.
D. The fire brigade was called at the wrong time.
Question 18: “I will pay back the money, Gloria.” said Ivan.
A. Ivan offered to pay Gloria the money back.
B. Ivan suggested paying back the money to Gloria.
C. Ivan promised to pay back Gloria’s money.
D. Ivan apologized to Gloria for borrowing her money.
Question 19: We started working here three years ago.
A. We have no longer worked here for three years.
B. We will work here in three years.
C. We worked here for three years.
D. We have worked here for three years.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The soup was so tasty that Harry asked for another serving.
A. awful B. soft C. tough D. delicious
Question 21: Biogas can be utilized for electricity production, cooking and heating.
A. insulation B. transformation C. conduction D. generation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following
exchanges.
Question 22: The teacher is talking to Jane about her assignment in class.
- Teacher: “You have done a really good job.”
- Jane: “ _______ ”
A. Of course not. I did it so badly. B. Thank you. You deserve it
C. Thanks. How nice of you to say so. D. Thank you. It’s going to be fine.
Question 23: Lucia is calling to Mrs. Mary’s home.
- Lucia: “Hello, may I speak to Mrs. Mary, please?”
- Call receiver: “ _______ ”
A. Of course not B. Wait here C. Yes, please D. Hold on, please
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
Question 24: The soccer team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they know they lost the match.
B. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
C. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
3
D. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match.
Question 25: Susan didn’t apply for the job in the library. She regrets it now.
A. If only Susan applied for the job in the library.
B. Susan regrets applying for the job in the library.
C. Susan regrets to apply for the job in the library.
D. Susan wishes she had applied for the job in the library.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 26: Joe’s outstanding performance in the exams made him think he was the cat’s whiskers.
A. an animal lover B. the best performer C. the worst person D. a troublemaker
Question 27: Henry is interested in wildlife and takes pleasure in watching animals in their natural habitats.
A. sadness B. change C. delight D. surprise
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 28: _______ it further with her husband, she decided to accept the job offer.
A. Discussed B. Discussing C. After discuss D. Having discussed
Question 29: IPF has installed more than 60 air _______ devices in campus buildings and 238 in campus
elevators.
A. absorption B. pollution C. adjustment D. purification
Question 30: David has just sold his _______ car and intends to buy a new car.
A. old Japanese white B. white old Japanese
C. old white Japanese D. Japanese old white
Question 31: Staying in a hotel costs _______ renting a room in a dormitory.
A. twice as B. twice more than
C. twice as much as D. as much as twice
Question 32: Many students in this high school are excited _______ ICT assessment tools.
A. on B. to C. with D. about
Question 33: I came extra money babysitting my neighbor’s kids. I will save it for a _______ day.
A. windy B. rainy C. sunny D. cloudy
Question 34: Juliette _______ a quiet life in a small town.
A. spends B. leads C. deals D. leaves
Question 35: As its sales have increased rapidly, that computer company is going to _______ more staff.
A. take in B. take over C. take up D. take on
Question 36: Andrea can speak English fluently, _______ ?
A. can’t her B. could she C. can she D. can’t she
Question 37: _______, we will have a game of tennis.
A. When you finished work B. Once you had finished work
C. As soon as you finish work D. Until you finished work
Question 38: Although some societies are _______ undeveloped, their languages - from a linguist’s point of view
- are very complex.
A. technologically B. technology C. technologist D. technological
Question 39: It’s high time to ______ a stop to bullying and body shaming in schools.
A. make B. play C. set D. put
Question 40: In 1911, Marie Curie ______ a Nobel Prize in Chemistry in recognition of her discovery of the two
elements radium and polonium.
A. was awarding B. being awarded C. awarded D. was awarded
4
Question 41: Eating organically grown food is a clear, intelligent, delicious choice. _______, finding and
affording only organic food is sometimes tough.
A. However B. Although C. Regarding D. So
Question 42: We _______ for going home when it began to rain.
A. were preparing B. has prepared C. will be preparing D. are preparing
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the conference.
Question 43: William James, the general manager, started with some complementary remarks about the
organizers of the conference.
A. general B. started C. complementary D. organizers
Question 44: I’m becoming increasingly forgetful. Last week I lock myself out of the house twice.
A. forgetful B. lock C. myself D. the
Question 45: They point out that Internet banking did not result in the closure of its high- street branches as was
predicted.
A. point B. in C. its D. was
Recycling is important in today’s world if we want to leave this planet for our future generations. It is good
for the environment since we are (46) _______ new products from the old products which are of no use to us.
Recycling begins at home. If you are not throwing away any of your old products and (47) _______ utilizing it
for something new, then you are actually recycling.
When you think of recycling, you should really think about the (48) _______ idea: reduce, reuse and recycle.
We’ve been careless up to this point with the way we’ve treated the Earth, and it’s time to change, not just the
way we do things but the way we think.
Recycling is good for the environment; in a sense, we are using old and waste products (49) _______ are of
no use and then converting them back to the same new products. Since we are saving resources and are sending
less trash to the landfills, it helps in reducing air and water pollution.
With each passing day, the population is increasing. With that, the quantity of waste produced is also
increasing manifolds. The more the waste production, the more is the amount of space required to (50) _______
these wastes. Now, it must be remembered that the space available on earth is very limited, and it is obviously up
to us to use it judiciously.
(conserve-energy-future.com/importance_of_recycling.php)
Question 46: A. doing B. making C. using D. throwing
Question 47: A. yet B. then C. instead D. but
Question 48: A. most B. other C. number D. whole
Question 49: A. that B. what C. where D. who
Question 50: A. entomb B. bury C. hide D. dump
THE END
5
ĐỀ SỐ 7
NGÀY 28/5/2021
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. coughed B. asked C. watched D. smiled
Question 2: A. pipe B. mind C. bike D. pity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
Question 3: A. restaurant B. engineer C. hospital D. chemistry
Question 4: A. open B. reply C. arrive D. assist
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: I will phone you immediately _______ in New York.
A. when I will arrive B. as soon as I arrive
C. by the time I had arrived D. after I arrived
Question 6: You like films, _______ ?
A. will you B. do you C. won’t you D. don’t you
Question 7: He _______ a striking resemblance to one of my friends.
A. bears B. owns C. holds D. shows
Question 8: When he phoned, we _______ with our friends at home.
A. had sung B. are singing C. sang D. were singing
Question 9: Brian lost so much money as he didn’t know how to _______ his business.
A. run B. make C. do D. put
Question 10: _______ the content, we are now looking for supporting information.
A. To plan B. Having been planned
C. Having planned D. To be planned
Question 11: He lost the race because he _______ petrol on the last lap.
A. ran out of B. got out of C. put out of D. made out of
Question 12: A number of _______ buyers have expressed their interests in the company.
A. potential B. potentiality C. potentially D. potention
Question 13: People in this area _______ with clothes and food by the government every year.
A. are providing B. provided C. provide D. are provided
Question 14: The later you get up, _______ you will be.
A. the tired B. the more tired C. the most tired D. the tireder
Question 15: Many young people are now interested _______ Korean music.
A. on B. by C. at D. in
Question 16: I’ve got a promotion at work, but all John did was make a joke about it. He has a real chip on
his _______. I think he is just jealous.
A. head B. shoulder C. nose D. mount
Question 17: We bought a _______ cat at the flea market last week.
A. nice British white B. British nice white
C. nice white British D. white British nice
Question 18: Numerous _______ have prevented us from going to the lakeside again this year.
A. disadvantages B. impairments C. obstacles D. adversities
Question 19: He was late for school this morning _______ he had missed the bus.
A. in spite of B. although C. despite D. because
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOEST in meaning to the
1
Question 20: Sewage from this company has definitely contaminated the vast area of the river, the habitat of
numerous aquatic species.
A. polluted B. corrupted C. defiled D. purified
Question 21: Female kangaroos carry their young in pouches that are external to their bodies.
A. woman B. man C. male D. gender
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 22: Mr. Brown is a very generous old man. He has given most of his wealth to a charity organization.
A. honest B. hospitable C. mean D. kind
Question 23: Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate
more in the future.
A. resolve a conflict over B. voice opinions on
C. find favor with D. express disapproval of
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Nick and Peter are talking about sports.
- Nick: “What sports do you like?”
- Peter: “ _______ ”
A. Yes, it’s my favorite sport B. Well, I love volleyball
C. I think it’s boring D. No, I don’t
Question 25: Maria and Alex are talking about the environment.
- Maria: “Our environment is getting more and more polluted. Do you think so?”
- Alex: “ _______. It’s really worrying.”
A. I don’t think so B. I don’t agree
C. I can’t agree more D. I’ll think about that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Culture refers to the customs, practices, languages, values and world views that define social groups
such as those based on nationality, ethnicity, region or common interests. Cultural identity is important for
people’s (26) ______ of self and how they relate to others. A strong cultural identity can contribute to people’s
overall well –being.
Cultural identity based on ethnicity is not necessarily exclusive. People may identify themselves as
New Zealanders in some circumstances and as part of a particular culture (e.g. Maori, Chinese or Scottish) in
(27) ______ circumstances. They may also identify with more than one culture.
Cultural identity is an important contributor to people’s well-being. Identifying with a particular
culture helps people feel they belong and gives them a sense of security. An established cultural identity has
also been linked with positive outcomes in areas such as health and education. It provides access to social
networks, (28) ______ provide support and shared values and aspirations. (29) ______, strong cultural identity
expressed in the wrong way can contribute to barriers between groups. Members of smaller cultural groups
can feel (30) ______ from society if others obstruct, or are intolerant of, their cultural practices.
Question 26: A. sense B. opinion C. thinking D. feeling
Question 27: A. the other B. another C. other D. others
Question 28: A. where B. which C. who D. that
Question 29: A. But B. Therefore C. However D. And
Question 30: debarred B. eliminated C. excluded D. exhausted
One way of training for your future occupation in Germany is by pursuing a dual vocational training
programme. Such programmes offer plenty of opportunities for on-the-job training and work experience.
Programmes usually last between two and three and a half years and comprise theoretical as well as practical
elements. You will spend one or two days a week, or several weeks at once, at a vocational school where you
2
will acquire the theoretical knowledge that you will need in your future occupation. The rest of the time will
be spent at a company. There you get to apply your newly acquired knowledge in practice, for example by
learning to operate machinery. You will get to know what your company does, learn how it operates and find
out if you can see yourself working there after completing your training.
This combination of theory and practice gives you a real head start into your job: by the time you have
completed your training, you will not only have the required technical knowledge, but you will also have
hands-on experience in your job. There are around 350 officially recognized training programmes in
Germany, so chances are good that one of them will suit your interests and talents. You can find out which
one that might be by visiting one of the jobs and vocational training fairs which are organized in many German
cities at different times in the year.
Employment prospects for students who have completed a dual vocational training programme are very
good. This is one of the reasons why this kind of training is very popular with school leavers Germans around
two-thirds of all students leaving school go on to start a vocational training programme.
Question 31: Which of the following is probably the best title of the passage?
A. Employment Opportunities and Prospects in Germany
B. Dual Vocational Training System in Germany
C. Higher Education System in Germany
D. Combination of Theory and Practice in Studying in Germany
Question 32: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. machinery B. knowledge C. company D. organization
Question 33: How many German school leavers choose this vocational training programme?
A. around one out of five B. about 70% C. well over 75% D. less than a third
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE about vocational training
programmes in Germany?
A. They last two and three and a half years.
B. They offer opportunities for on-the-job training.
C. They provide work experience.
D. They are organized in one city in German.
Question 35: The word “hands-on” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. theoretical B. integral C. practical D. technical
The number of people accessing the State’s and community’s priority policies and programmes is
increasing, said Minister of Labour, Invalids and Social Affairs Dao Ngoc Dung. Vietnam has around 6.2
million people over the age of two with disabilities, making up 7.06 per cent of the country’s population. Of
those, 28 per cent are severely disabled, 58 per cent female, 28 per cent children and 10 per cent living in
poverty. Most live in rural areas and many are victims of Agent Orange. Minister Dung said in the past, the
State, the Party and Vietnamese people had paid much care to people with disability. Vietnam ratified the
United Nations’ Convention on the Rights of People with Disability in 2014. In March this year, the country
ratified the International Labour Organisation’s Convention 159 about jobs for people with disability. It
strongly confirmed Vietnam’s commitment ensuring the disabled would not be discriminated at work.
Last month, the Secretariat Committee issued the Instruction 39 about the Party’s leading work on affairs
related to people with disability. The National Assembly later ratified the amended Law on Labour with many
adjustments relating to disabled people. Dung said that every year, millions of disabled people receive an
allowance from the State and all of provinces and cities had rehabilitation centres. Attending the event, Truong
Thi Mai, head of the Party Central Committee’s Commission for Mass Mobilisation, said besides the
achievements, Vietnam still sees many obstacles. Infrastructure is still limited demand for people with
disability and many live below the poverty line depending heavily on their families.
Mai asked organisations to improve education to raise people’s awareness of the meaning of supportive
work to people with disability. This year, more than VNĐ17 trillion (US$735.4 million) from the State budget
was allocated to provinces and cities to implement policies for people with disability, according to the
Ministry of Labour, Invalids and Social Affairs.
3
The Ministry of Planning and Investment on Thursday launched the programme “White stick for
Vietnamese visual impaired people”. Its aim is to present one million white sticks to visually impaired people
across the country. Training to use the device will also be provided. Minister of Planning and Investment
Nguyen Chi Dung said the ministry will listen to disabled people’s demands and wishes and put them into its
policies. Deputy chairwoman of the National Assembly Tong Thi Phong said Vietnam has committed to
developing socio-economy, taking care of social equality and improving social management ability.
(Source: https://vietnamnews.vn/)
A. The plight of overflowing number of the handicapped.
B. The healthier the people, the stronger the nation.
C. Generous financial support for the visual impaired.
D. More disabled people access to supportive policies.
Question 37: The word “Invalids” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. Sufferers B. Valetudinarian C. Convalescents D. Bedridden patients
Question 38: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Commitment B. Disability C. Country D. Convention
Question 39: According to paragraph 3, what was the view of Vietnam’s governing bodies towards the
disabled?
A. They displayed an entirely altruistic and selfless act.
B. They expressed a philanthropic and supportive attitude.
C. They aimlessly enacted laws in the interest of the people.
D. They tried their best but handled situations nonchalantly.
Question 40: The word “implement” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. prepare B. follow C. clarify D. establish
Question 41: According to paragraph 5, what did the Ministry of Planning and Investment have in mind when
launching the project?
A. Encouraging the handicapped to be confident.
B. Fulfilling the responsibility as a part of the nation.
C. Ensuring no people in need would be left behind.
D. Improving the overall image of the government.
Question 42: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The matter concerning the disabled’s welfare only gains recognition in the recent years.
B. The handicapped is annually supported by the government financially and physically.
C. Sectors and localities have drafted policies for their sustainable development strategy.
D. Dao Ngoc Dung is the current Minister of Planning and Investment of Vietnam.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 43: It started to rain while we play on the swing at the park at 3 yesterday afternoon.
A. play B. to rain C. afternoon D. at
Question 44: Human beings are changing the environment in all respects through the action in his
habits.
A. through B. environment C. are D. his
Question 45: They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on schoolchildren’s
health and their academic results.
A. into B. exhausting C. health D. academic results
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
Question 46: It’s about time she got more practical experiences for her job.
A. She should have got more practical experiences for her job.
B. Getting more practical experiences for her job is necessary.
4
C. She ought to get more practical experiences for her job.
D. It is possible to get more practical experiences for her job.
Question 47: It is 3 months since the last time we came to the national park.
A. We last came to the national park for 3 months ago.
B. It is 3 months when we first came to the national park.
C. We haven’t come to the national park for 3 months.
D. I haven’t come to any national parks for 3 months.
Question 48: The lifeguard told the children “Don’t swim farther than 5 meters”.
A. The lifeguard reminded the children to swim farther than 5 meters.
B. The lifeguard warned the children not to swim farther than 5 meters.
C. The lifeguard stopped the children from swimming farther than 5 meters.
D. The lifeguard allowed the children not to swim farther than 5 meters.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
Question 49: They’ve decided to install an online classroom application to keep track of all lessons at school.
It’s the only way.
A. Only by installing an online classroom application do they keep track of all lessons at school.
B. By installing an online classroom application do they only keep track of all lessons at school.
C. The way they can keep track of all lessons at school is by installing an online classroom application.
D. The only way to install an online classroom application is keeping track of all lessons at school.
Question 50: She didn’t revise her lesson yesterday. That’s why she can’t finish the test today.
A. As long as she had revised her lesson, she could finish the test today.
B. Without revising her lesson yesterday, she could finish the test today.
C. If she had revised her lesson yesterday, she could finish the test today.
D. She wished she had revised her lesson yesterday, so she can’t finish the test today.
The end
5
ĐỀ SỐ 8 (NGÀY 31/5/2021)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 1: A. crooked B. booked C. talked D. walked
Question 2: A. machine B. stomach C. champagne D. parachute
Question 3: A. report B. project C. cashier D. giraffe
Question 4: A. comfortable B. photographer C. development D. psychology
questions.
Question 5: I think Lucas and Emma have just had an argument, _______ ?
A. haven’t they B. don’t they C. don’t I D. haven’t I
Question 6: We will send you a brochure _______.
A. until new stock will arrive B. by the time new stock arrives
C. when new stock arrived D. until new stock arrives
Question 7: A 35-year-old female medical worker died after the Covid-19 vaccine injection because of being
allergic _______ non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
A. with B. to C. for D. at
Question 8: One day, hopefully in the not so distant future, all housework _______ by robots.
A. will be done B. is being done C. will have done D. will do
Question 9: What _______ the two women _______ about when we started to quarrel ?
A. did/ talk B. are/ talking C. were/ talking D. had/ talked
Question 10: We are going on a _______ boat for our anniversary next Sunday.
A. red sailing beautiful B. beautiful red sailing
C. sailing red beautiful D. red beautiful sailing
Question 11: The older dogs get, _______.
A. the aggressive they get more B. the less aggressive they get
C. they get more and more aggressive D. they get less aggressive
Question 12: _______ often offering poor conditions and basic salaries, charities rarely have problems in
recruiting staff.
A. In spite of B. Owing to C. Although D. Because
Question 13: I was afraid the _______ was going to turn into a fight.
A. argue B. argument C. arguable D. arguably
Question 14: David was determined to see the performance through after _______ his admission fee.
A. having been paid B. paying C. having pay D. being paid
Question 15: Attendance at that new play is so low that the producers are trying to ______ by advertising heavily.
A. build it up B. stick it out C. fade it away D. come it about
Question 16: As he hated every minute of his life in the army, it is no wonder that he decided one day to _______
his unit.
A. dessert B. descend C. desert D. deserve
Question 17: I feel as fresh as a(n) _______ after having had a good workout and a shower.
A. cave B. daisy C. fish D. orange
Question 18: When you are in Rome, you'll have to _______ yourself to the ways and customs of the Romans.
A. adapt B. alter C. imitate D. adopt
Question 19: Jack is a great manager. However, he is very hot-tempered. That’s his only _______.
A. act of god B. acid test C. Achilles’ heel D. Dutch treat
1
Question 20: It's outrageous! They charged me double the price of an ordinary bottle of wine in that restaurant.
A. undesirable B. outstanding C. competitive D. scandalous
Question 21: The Rev. Dr. Martin Luther King fought to put an end to racial segregation in the United States.
A. integration B. separation C. education D. torture
Question 22: The technical department enthusiastically hired Ms. Long because she was proficient in the use of
computers.
A. skilled B. adequate C. competent D. incapable
Question 23: I think having a beer during a meeting with your boss is clearly overstepping the mark.
A. doing a completely acceptable thing. B. making your boss satisfied.
C. do something over. D. behaving in an improper way.
Question 24: Selena and Fred are talking about the baseball match at school.
- Selena: “The match will be postponed if the weather is bad. But they say it’s going to rain.”
- Fred: “ _______ ”
A. I don’t hope so. B. I hope not so. C. I don’t hope either. D. I hope not.
Question 25: Meghan and Kate are discussing the cancer.
- Meghan: “I believe that worrying about cancer can give you cancer.”
- Kate: “ _______. Worrying makes things worsen.”
A. No, I'm not so sure about that. B. No way.
C. I couldn't agree with you more. D. Really? Are you sure?
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Diabetes is one of the most (26) _______ childhood chronic illnesses in the USA. Every year, approximately
13,000 new cases are diagnosed in children under the age of 18, according to the CDC. (27) _______ the condition
being fairly commonplace, many educators are not entirely sure how to assist students with diabetes. This may
result in unnecessary stress for both the teacher and the student. Thankfully, you do not have to have a medical
degree in order to accommodate students with diabetes. In fact, by following (28) _______ basic guidelines, an
educator will be able to be of great assistance to a student living with a diabetes diagnosis.
In order to best assist students with diabetes, it is of vital importance that an educator carries as much
knowledge as possible about the condition. Apart from knowing what diabetes is and how it develops, it is also
essential to understand what impact it can have on the student’s everyday life. Some students may also be living
with diabetic neuropathy, (29) _______ can cause considerable pain. Neuropathy can manifest itself in many
ways, including (30) _______ and pain in the legs and feet, and damage to the digestive system, heart, blood
vessels, and urinary tract.
Question 26: A. extraordinary B. prevalent C. uncommon D. rare
Question 27: A. Despite B. Because C. Moreover D. While
Question 28: A. much B. a few C. another D. every
Question 29: A. that B. what C. which D. when
Question 30: A. numbness B. fracture C. appendicitis D. strain
Contrary to the perception that small talk is inconsequential, researchers have found that chit-chat actually
has many profound benefits. “As we broke down daily interaction, we realized our most meaningful interactions
2
are not when we’re talking about actual work. It’s when we’re greeting administrative staff, or the friendly gabbing
before a meeting,” said Jessica R. Methot of Rutgers University and University of Exeter.
To measure the impact of small talk on employee well-being, the researchers surveyed 151 full-time
employees working at traditional 9 to 5 jobs outside the home. After controlling for participants’ baseline
engagement for small talk, the researchers queried about levels of small talk throughout the day, and asked
respondents to rate their emotions, work productivity, and overall engagement.
“It didn’t matter if you were an introvert whose average amount of small talk was lower than what it is for an
extrovert, small talk enhanced employees’ daily positive social emotions and contributed to employees feeling
connected,” Methot said. Methot was quick to explain what small talk is not. It is not long-winded ranting about
an ineffective supervisor. It is not a sensitive discussion about someone’s personal life. “It is surface level. It is
‘Weather looks great this weekend, any plans?’ Surface level is what gives it its benefits.”
Because small talk builds trust and connections, it also can lead to creative ideas and foster inclusiveness.
“Culturally, there are differences in the content and cadence of small talk, which can create a barrier for new
employees to engage with colleagues. In this age of greater awareness about diversity and inclusion, small talk
can be an asset to a company. It can be a road to more inclusion by helping socialize and embed employees into
the organizational culture.” Methot said.
(Source: https://journals.aom.org/)
Question 31: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Office chit-chat. B. Sober socialising. C. Workplace guide. D. Gossip-mongers.
Question 32: The word “inconsequential” in paragraph 1 mostly means _______.
A. infinitesimal B. intangible C. insignificant D. irrelevant
Question 33: Which benefit of small talk in the workplace is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Small talk boosts employees’ ability to multitask.
B. Small talk contributes to employees’ positive emotions.
C. Small talk inspires new thoughts and ideas.
D. Small talk fosters good workplace citizenship.
Question 34: Which of the following sentences is NOT an example of small talk?
A. “Can you believe all of this rain we've been having?”
B. “It looks like Steve is getting the promotion I wanted.”
C. “Did you hear about that fire on Fourth Street?”
D. “You look like you could really use a cup of coffee.”
Question 35: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. trust B. connection C. talk D. idea
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 36 to 42.
Although it’s impossible to ignore their popularity, it seems to me that many reality shows send an
unfortunate message encouraging a cult of instant celebrity. Many are built around blatant self-promotion and are
based on humiliating others for the entertainment of viewers. These programmes suggest that anyone can become
famous simply by “being themselves” on TV, without working hard or displaying any talent. Children who watch
these shows may come to believe that they don’t need to study conscientiously at school, or train hard for a job.
As one commentator points out, “We tell kids that what matters is being a celebrity and we wonder why some
behave as they do. It seems to me that this addiction to celebrity culture is creating a dumbed-down generation.”
In pretending to imitate real life, reality shows promote the belief that we should aspire to be the reality stars we
watch on televisions.
One of the reasons so many people enjoy reality shows is that they feature real people operating without
scripts. The fact that characters have been selected to encourage disagreements or tension and then cynically
manipulated does not take away from the reality of the programmers; in fact it adds to it. The unusual settings of
shows like Big Brother do not reduce the educational value of observing how the contestants cope with their
situation. In fact, without such shows, most people would have little concept of how a group of strangers would
3
be able to survive, co-operate and develop in such environments. As Time Magazine describes it, “They provoke
and offend, but at least they are trying to do something besides helping you get to sleep.” This insight therefore
into the human condition is invaluable, and it is little surprise that so many viewers are eager to watch these
programmes.
Far from discouraging hard work and education, reality TV programmes help to create a society in which we
have shared experiences and a strong sense of community. Despite the fact that they do not reflect reality, they
provide an important social glue. In the past, there were only a few television channels, and everybody watched
the same programmes. This sense of a shared experience helped to bind people together, giving them common
things to talk about at work the next day: so-called “water cooler moments’. Reality programmes play that role in
contemporary society with viewership being almost a cultural imperative, an experience shared simultaneously
with friends and family. The criticism that reality TV shows may corrupt viewers is not sustainable. Just as it is
possible empathize with real-life criminals without going on to commit crimes ourselves, there is no reason why
viewers should be persuaded to emulate the morality of reality TV programmes.
(Adapted from Life by National Geographic)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title of the passage?
A. How are reality TV programmes produced?
B. The arguments between commentators about reality TV programmes.
C. The aspects of reality TV programmes.
D. The effects of reality TV programmes on young people.
Question 37: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to _______ ?
A. Reality shows B. Reality stars C. Viewers D. Characters
Question 38: Why do so many people enjoy reality shows?
A. Because the real people appear in the shows.
B. Because there are no unusual settings in the shows.
C. Because people have to be in real situation.
D. Because there is no script for real people to perform.
Question 39: The phrase “cope with” is closest in meaning to _______ ?
A. fit B. manage C. stop D. make
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, what reality TV programmes bring people nowadays more than in the
past?
A. That everybody watches the same programmes.
B. That everybody experiences the morality of TV programmes.
C. That everybody has a sense of shared experiences.
D. That everybody talks to each other about work after watching TV programmes.
Question 41: The word “sustainable” in paragraph 3 most probably means _______ ?
A. continuous B. unsuitable C. wasteful D. tiring
Question 42: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Reality TV programmes send no message of morality to viewers.
B. Reality TV programmes have no values to viewers.
C. Reality TV programmes create a community in which people tend to be closer to each other.
D. Kids seem not to be interested in the celebrity appearing in the TV programmes.
Question 43: At this time next week, Fiona will have sat on a beach, sipping a cool drink and
A B C
reading a fashion magazine.
D
4
Question 44: Coffee is one of the most popular drinks in the world can have a stimulating effect
A B
on humans because of their caffeine content.
C D
Question 45: Cows are risen by farmers in Burundi, but are generally not eaten because the
A B
slaughter of a cow reduces one's visible wealth.
C D
Question 46: It’s a long time since men last went to the Moon.
A. The last time men went to the Moon was since a long time.
B. Men haven’t gone to the Moon for a long time.
C. Men went to the Moon a long time ago.
D. Men didn’t go to the Moon since a long time.
Question 47: ‘If you’re good, I’ll buy you an ice cream later,’ said the boy’s mother
A. His mother told him to buy her an ice cream later if he was good.
B. His mother promised to buy him an ice cream later if he was good.
C. His mother asked him whether he liked an ice cream or not.
D. His mother threatened to buy him an ice cream later if he was good.
Question 48: There is no obligation to get an international driving licence for this country.
A. You must get an international driving licence for this country.
B. You shouldn’t get an international driving licence for this country.
C. You don’t have to get an international driving licence for this country.
D. You may not get an international driving licence for this country.
Question 49: Flora couldn’t get a scholarship. She didn’t get a chance to study abroad.
A. If only Flora had got a scholarship and got a chance to study abroad.
B. Without a scholarship, Flora could have got a chance to study abroad.
C. Flora wishes she could get a chance to study abroad without a scholarship.
D. Supposed Flora got a scholarship, she could get a chance to study abroad.
Question 50: The researchers developed the first flu vaccination recently. There was a reliable protection against
flu in this country.
A. Not until the researchers developed the first flu vaccination recently was there a reliable protection against
flu in this country.
B. Scarcely the researchers developed the first flu vaccination recently when there was a reliable protection
against flu in this country.
C. But for the first flu vaccination, there wouldn’t be a reliable protection against flu in this country.
D. So reliable was the protection against flu in this country that the researchers developed the first flu
vaccination recently.
The end
5
ĐỀ SỐ 9
NGÀY 17/6/2021
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. looked B. laughed C. opened D. stepped
Question 2. A. seat B. leave C. increase D. ready
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. precede B. offer C. visit D. finish
Question 4. A. charity B. agency C. origin D. disaster
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Michael rarely returns to his hometown, _______ ?
A. doesn’t he B. hasn’t he C. does he D. has he
Question 6. Acupuncture is part of traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) and _______ in China for thousands of
years.
A. has been used B. has using C. has used D. has been using
Question 7. My father is interested _______ playing chess with his friends.
A. on B. with C. of D. in
Question 8. _______ the time passes, _______ I feel! The deadline of my thesis is coming, but I have just finished
half of it.
A. The faster / the nervous B. The more fast / the nervous
C. The fast / the more nervous D. The faster / the more nervous
Question 9. I remember she wore a _______ dress to go out with her boyfriend last week.
A. cotton white Vietnamese B. Vietnamese white cotton
C. white Vietnamese cotton D. white cotton Vietnamese
Question 10. When I last saw him, he _______ in London.
A. has lived B. is living C. was living D. has been living
Question 11. Many exam candidates lose marks simply _______ they do not read the questions properly.
A. because of B. because C. due to D. owing that
Question 12. The car will have been ready for him _______ tomorrow.
A. as soon as he came B. by the time he comes
C. when he had come D. after he has come
Question 13. _______ the homework, he was allowed to go out with his friends.
A. Finishing B. Finish C. To finish D. Having finished
Question 14. John’s _______ and efficiency at the company led to his promotion to Sales Manager.
A. punctuality B. punctual C. punctuate D. punctually
Question 15. The manager is good at _______ difficult customers.
A. relying on B. dealing with C. showing off D. wiping off
Question 16. Nobody took any _______ of the warning and they went swimming in the contaminated water.
A. regard B. recognition C. notice D. attention
Question 17. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a _______ day.
A. windy B. rainy C. foggy D. snow
Question 18. It is alleged that mothers and grandmothers spoil the children by _______ their mistakes.
A. neglecting B. overlooking C. avoiding D. passing
Question 19. Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetable can be _______ to health.
A. crucial B. supportive C. receptive D. destructive
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
Question 20. The discovery of the new planet was regarded as a major breakthrough in astronomy.
A. promised B. doubted C. considered D. refused
Question 21. His physical conditions were no impediment to his career as a violinist.
A. help B. impotence C. hindrance D. impossibility
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
Question 22. 2008 is a memorable year for people around the world because of the global financial
recession that hit practically every sector of world economy.
A. prosperity B. downturn C. crisis D. depression
Question 23. Jose had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they were apples
and oranges.
A. containing too many technical details B. very similar
C. completely different D. very complicated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. A student is asking the librarian to help her to fax a report.
- Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?”
- Librarian: “ _______ ”
A. Sorry, I have no idea. B. It’s very kind of you to say so.
C. What rubbish! I don’t think it’s helpful. D. Certainly, what’s the fax number?
Question 25. David is talking to Linda after a party.
- David: “Would you like me to give you a ride home?”
- Linda: “ _______ ”
A. That’s be great, thanks. B. Sorry, you’re not my type.
C. Yes, I’m riding home now D. No, thanks. I don’t like riding.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each the numbered blanks.
Who are celebrities?
A celebrity is a person who is easily recognised by people in a certain region or country. Celebrities usually
get a lot of media attention and often are social people. Many become celebrities because of their profession, after
appearing in the media or simply by chance. Celebrities (26) _______ only achieve a small amount of fame are
called B- or C-celebrities. In the last decades we have become fascinated with famous people. They have led to
the rise of gossip magazines and TV shows and (27) _______ work for journalists and paparazzi. Movie stars,
television actors and actresses, high-ranking politicians, successful business people, supermodels and athletes
usually become celebrities. A few humanitarian leaders such as Mother Teresa have achieved fame because of
their charity work. Some people have become known because of their online activities and are regarded as Internet
celebrities. (28) _______ celebrities lead a life that is different from that of normal people, the public is interested
in their private lives. Magazines and newspapers follow their (29) _______ move. Celebrities are often shown as
(30) _______ examples of success and perfection, or as bad and immoral if they are involved in scandals.
(Source: www.english-grammar.at)
Question 26: A. which B. who C. when D. why
Question 27: A. condemn B. invent C. take D. provide
Question 28: A. Because B. Therefore C. Although D. Moreover
Question 29: A. other B. another C. every D. one
Question 30: A. severe B. flagrant C. glowing D. immense
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
A study by St. Louis University has found that a lovable dog named Sparky and a robotic dog, AIBO, were
about equally effective at reducing the loneliness of nursing home residents. The study confirmed previous
findings that dogs have a good effect on nursing home residents.
Dr. Andrew Smith led the Stanford University team that built a home-assistance robot. “If humans can feel
an emotional tie with robots, some day they could be not just our assistants, but also our companions,” he said.
To test whether residents responded better to Sparky, a trained dog, or the Sony-made robotic dog, researchers
divided 38 nursing home residents into three groups at three long-term care centers in St. Louis. One group had
weekly 30-minute one-on-one visits with Sparky; another group had similar visits with AIBO; a control group
had no contact with either dog. The groups’ respective levels of loneliness were tested by having them answer a
number of questions at the beginning and near the end of the visits.
After two months, both groups that had contact with the dogs were less lonely and more attached. Most of
the elderly regarded Sparky, a 9-year-old dog, as an audience for their life stories, said investigator Marian Banks.
“He listened attentively, wagged his tail, and allowed them to pet him,” said Banks, who adopted and trained
Sparky after finding him in a street behind her home seven years ago.
Those who were together with AIBO took a little longer to warm up to the robotic creature. Over time,
however, they grew comfortable with him, and petted and talked to him. He would respond by wagging his tail,
vocalizing, and blinking his lights.
“AIBO is charming once you start to interact with him,” said the study’s author, Dr. William Banks, “He’s
an attractive sort of guy. He gives a feeling of being personal, not just a robot.”
(www.startribune.com › in-the-future-a-robotic-rover)
Question 31: Before the new study, it was known that _______.
A. robots were effective at reducing people’s loneliness
B. robots could build close connection with humans
C. dogs could help get rid of old people’s loneliness
D. dogs and robots were equally effective at reducing loneliness
Question 32: The underlined word “attached” in the passage most probably means _______.
A. friendly B. surprised C. confused D. faithful
Question 33: Those who had contact with the robotic dog found that _______.
A. they didn’t feel comfortable with it
B. it was hard for them to interact with it
C. they weren’t comfortable with it at first
D. the robot’s vocalizing and blinking confused them
Question 34: The findings of the researchers tell us that _______.
A. robots are better at caring for old people than nurses
B. robots can to some degree replace dogs as companions for old people
C. it’s easy for people to become close with robots
D. every home will have a robot assistant one day
Question 35: What would be the best title for the passage?
A. Robots Serve People Better than Thought
B. No More Lonely Old Age with Emotional Robots
C. Advanced Technology Used to Cheer up the Elderly
D. Robots and Dogs Can Equally Cheer up the Elderly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
Carnegie Hall, the famous concert hall in New York City, has again undergone a restoration. While this is
not the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the building’s history. As a result of this new restoration, Carnegie
Hall once again has the quality of sound that it had when it was first built. Carnegie Hall owes its existence to
Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel company in the late 1800s. The hall was finished in 1891 and
quickly gained a reputation as an excellent performing arts hall where accomplished musicians gained fame.
Despite its reputation, however, the concert hall suffered from several detrimental renovations over the years.
During the Great Depression, when fewer people could afford to attend performances, the directors sold part of
the building to commercial businesses. As a result, a coffee shop was opened in one corner of the building, for
which the builders replaced the brick and terra cotta walls with windowpanes. A renovation in 1946 seriously
damaged the acoustical quality of the hall when the makers of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the
dome of the ceiling to allow for lights and air vents. The hole was later covered with short curtains and a fake
ceiling but the hall never sounded the same afterwards.
In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stern became involved in restoring the hall after a group of real estate developers
unveiled plans to demolish Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise office building on the site.
This threat spurred Stern to rally public support for Carnegie Hall and encourage the City of New York to
buy the property. The movement was successful, and the concert hall is now owned by the city. In the current
restoration, builders tested each new material for its sound qualities, and they replaced
the hole in the ceiling with a dome. The builders also restored the outer walls to their original appearance and
closed the coffee shop. Carnegie has never sounded better, and its prospects for the future have never looked more
promising.
Question 36. This passage is mainly about _______.
A. changes to Carnegie Hall
B. the appearance of Carnegie Hall
C. Carnegie Hall’s history during the Great Depression
D. damage to the ceiling in Carnegie Hall
Question 37. The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. Carnegie Hall B. New York City C. a restoration D. a plan
Question 38. What major change happened to the hall in 1946?
A. The acoustic dome was damaged.
B. Space in the building was sold to commercial businesses.
C. The walls were damaged in an earthquake.
D. The stage was renovated.
Question 39. Who was Andrew Carnegie?
A. A violinist B. An architect
C. A steel mill owner D. Mayor of New York City
Question 40. What was Isaac Stern’s relationship to Carnegie Hall?
A. He made the movie “Carnegie Hall” in 1946.
B. He performed on opening night in 1891.
C. He tried to save the hall, beginning in 1960.
D. He opened a coffee shop in Carnegie Hall during the Depression
Question 41. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “detrimental” in paragraph 2?
A. dangerous B. trivial C. impressive D. damaging
Question 42. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “unveiled” in paragraph 3?
A. announced B. restricted C. overshadowed D. located
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 43. We are going to visit our grandparents when we will finish our final exams.
A. are going to B. our C. when D. will finish
Question 44. A good artist like a good engineer learns as much from their mistakes as from successes.
A. like B. as C. their D. from
Question 45. For such a demanded job, you will need qualifications, soft skills and full commitment.
A. demanded B. will need C. qualifications D. full commitment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I have met my grandparents for five years.
D. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 47. “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night
Question 48. I don’t think Max broke your vase because he wasn’t here then.
A. Max wouldn’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
B. Max was likely to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
C. Max can’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
D. Max wasn’t able to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions.
Question 49. They cannot give birth any more. They really wish to have one more daughter.
A. Although they cannot give birth any more, they have one more daughter.
B. As long as they can give birth, they want to have one more daughter.
C. If only they could have given birth and could have had one more daughter.
D. They wish they could give birth and could have one more daughter.
Question 50. The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problems.
C. He was such bright a student that he could solve all the math problems.
D. So bright was the student that he could solve all the math problems.

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