TYPE

BREAK UP OF QUESTIONS

S.
Topic Sub Topic Questions
No.
Nature and Scope of Science & Technology 0
Relevance of Science & Technology to the day to day life 5
Science and National Policy on Science, Technology and Innovation 2
1
Technology: Institutes and Organization in India promoting integration of Science 5
Technology and Innovation, their activities and contribution 3
Contribution of Prominent Indian Scientists. 0
Nature and Scope of ICT 0
Information ICT in day to day life 4
and ICT and Industry 5
2 Communication ICT and Governance - Various government schemes promoting use of ICT, E-
Technology 7
Governance programmes and services
(ICT) Cyber Security Concerns - National Cyber Crime Policy, Netiquettes 4
Miscellaneous 5
Evolution of Indian Space Programme 1
Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) — it's activities and achievements 8
Technology in Various Satellite Programmes — Satellites for Telecommunication, Indian
3
Space Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) 4
Satellites; Satellites for defence, Eduset or Satellites for academic purposes
Miscellaneous 7
Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO)- vision, mission and
11
4 Defence activities.
Miscellaneous 8
India's existing energy needs and deficit 1
India's Energy Resources and Dependence 1
5 Energy Energy policy of India Government Policies and Programmes 1
Solar, Wind and Nuclear energy 2
Issues and concerns related to environment 4
Biodiversity- its importance and concerns 6
Climate Change, International Initiatives (Policies, Protocols) and India's
commitment 4

6 Enironment Forest and Wildlife - Legal framework for Forest and Wildlife Conservation in
India 6

Environmental Hazards, pollution, carbon emission, Global warming 1

National Action plans on Climate Change and Disaster management 1
Miscellaneous 3
Biotechnology and Nanotechnology; Nature, Scope and application, Ethical,
Social, and Legal issues, Government Policies 5

Genetic Engineering; Issues related to it and its impact on human life. Health
7 Biotechology 6
& Environment

Miscellaneous

Grand Total 120

 APPSC – GROUP-I, Prelims – TEST 20 (03-03-2024)
SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
1. Consider the following statements about
Agnibaan SubOrbital Technological
Demonstrator (SOrTeD):
1) Agnibaan SOrTeD is a double-stage launch
vehicle powered by Agnilet engine.
2) Agnilet engine is an entirely 3D-printed,
single-piece semi-cryogenic engine.
3) It is capable of carrying payloads up to 100
kg to an altitude of 700 km in five different
configurations.
How many of the following statements are
correct?
1) Only one 2) Only two
3) All three 4) None
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 Agnibaan SOrTeD is a single-stage launch
vehicle powered by AgniKul’s patented
Agnilet engine. Hence statement I is
incorrect.
 Agnibaan SOrTeD is an entirely 3D-printed,
single-piece, 6 kilonewton (kN) semi
cryogenic engine. Unlike traditional
sounding rockets that launch from guide
rails, Agnibaan SOrTeD will lift off vertically
and follow a predetermined trajectory to
perform a precisely orchestrated set of
manoeuvres during flight. Hence
statement II is correct.
 It is a customisable launch vehicle that
could be launched in one or two stages. The
rocket stands 18 metres tall and has a mass
of 14,000 kg. It is capable of carrying
payloads up to 100 kg to an altitude of 700
km in five different configurations. The
rocket's first stage could have up to seven
Agnilet engines, depending on the mission,
which are powered by Liquid Oxygen and
Kerosene.
 The rocket is also designed for launch from
more than 10 different launch ports. To
ensure its compatibility with multiple
launch ports, AgniKul has built a launch
pedestal named 'Dhanush' that will
support the rocket's mobility across all its
configurations. The Agnilet engine, which
AMIGOS IAS
powers the entire operation, is the world’s
sole single piece 3D-printed engine. Hence
statement III is correct.
2. Consider the following statements with
respect to G-20 Digital Innovation Alliance
Summit:
I. It was organized by the Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology
(MeitY) in Delhi.
II. Its primary objective is to support startups
that develop innovative digital solutions
that bridge the digital divide and propel
global economic growth.
Which of the above given statement is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 The G20 Digital Innovation Alliance (G20-
DIA) is a program that supports innovators
who have digital solutions for various
economies. The G20-DIA's primary
objective is to support startups that
develop innovative digital solutions that
bridge the digital divide and propel global
economic growth. Hence statement II is
correct.
 The Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology (MeitY), Government of India,
and the MeitY Start-up Hub organised the
G20 Digital Innovation Alliance Summit
in Bengaluru at the Bangalore Palace, from
August 17th to 19th, 2023. Hence
statement I is incorrect.
3. Consider the following statements related to
e-YANTRA:
I. It is a robotics outreach program funded
by the Ministry of Education and hosted at
IIT Bombay.
II. Its objective is to provide hands-on
learning to engineering students who
have limited access to labs and mentors.
Which of the above given statement is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
2
 3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 E-Yantra is a robotics-focused educational
program hosted at the Indian Institute of
Technology (IIT) Bombay. It is funded by
the Ministry of Education and is part of the
National Mission on Education through ICT
(NMEICT). Hence statement I is correct.
 The program's goal is to use the talent of
young engineers to solve problems using
technology in a variety of areas. These
areas include: Agriculture, Manufacturing,
Defense, Home, Smart-city maintenance,
Service industries.
 Its objective is to provide hands-on learning
to engineering students who have limited
access to labs and mentors. It also enables
effective education on embedded systems
and robotics. Hence statement II is correct.
4. Consider the following statements related to
National Quantum Mission:
I. It aims to seed, nurture and scale up
scientific and industrial R&D and create a
vibrant & innovative ecosystem in
Quantum Technology (QT).
II. It targets developing intermediate scale
quantum computers with 50-1000
physical qubits in 8 years in various
platforms like superconducting and
photonic technology.
III. This mission helps to develop
magnetometers with high sensitivity in
atomic systems and Atomic Clocks for
precision timing, communications and
5.
navigation.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) I and III 4) I, II, and III
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Hon'ble
Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, today
approved the National Quantum Mission
(NQM) at a total cost of Rs.6003.65 crore
from 2023-24 to 2030-31, aiming to seed,
nurture and scale up scientific and
industrial R&D and create a vibrant &
innovative ecosystem in Quantum
AMIGOS IAS
Technology (QT). Hence statement I is
correct.
 The new mission targets developing
intermediate scale quantum computers
with 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years in
various platforms like superconducting and
photonic technology. Satellite based
secure quantum communications between
ground stations over a range of 2000
kilometres within India, long distance
secure quantum communications with
other countries, inter-city quantum key
distribution over 2000 km as well as multi-
node Quantum network with quantum
memories are also some of the deliverables
of the Mission. Hence statement II is
correct.
 The mission will help develop
magnetometers with high sensitivity in
atomic systems and Atomic Clocks for
precision timing, communications and
navigation. It will also support design and
synthesis of quantum materials such as
superconductors, novel semiconductor
structures and topological materials for
fabrication of quantum devices. Hence
statement III is correct
 The mission would greatly benefit
communication, health, financial and
energy sectors as well as drug design, and
space applications. It will provide a huge
boost to National priorities like digital
India, Make in India, Skill India and Stand-
up India, Start-up India, Self-reliant India
and Sustainable Development Goals (SDG).
Arctic Amplification, often seen in the news,
refers to?
1) Warming differential between Arctic
region over Antarctic region.
2) warming differential between the poles
and the tropics.
3) warming differential between the sub-
tropics and the tropics.
4) Warming of Antarctic region abnormally.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 World Metrological Organisation (WMO)
study highlighted that Arctic has warmed
twice as much as world average.
 About Artic Amplification:
2
  Refers to warming differential between the
poles and the tropics. Hence, option (2) is
correct.
 As per some other studies, Arctic has
warmed nearly 4 times faster than the rest
of the world over 1979– 2021.
 Reasons for faster warming of Arctic region
 Polar amplification is much stronger in the
Arctic than in Antarctica as it is an ocean
covered by sea ice, while Antarctica is an
elevated continent with permanent ice and
snow.
 Melting of the ice cover in the Arctic
exposes more land/water to the Sun,
leading to more absorption of sunlight.
 Prevailing systems of air circulations
transfer heat from the tropics to the poles.
 Summer Arctic sea ice extent is shrinking by
12.6% per decade as a result of global
warming.
6. Consider the following statements with
respect to National Geospatial policy:
I. The policy is aimed to set up high
resolution topographical survey and
mapping, with a high-accuracy Digital
Elevation Model (DEM) by 2030.
II. It is a citizen-centric policy based on Geo-
Spatial technology, which seeks
to strengthen the Geospatial sector to
support national development, economic
prosperity and a thriving information
economy.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 In 2021, the Ministry of Science and
Technology issued “Guidelines for
acquiring and producing Geospatial
Data and Geospatial Data Services
including Maps.
 It is a citizen-centric policy based on Geo-
Spatial technology, which seeks
to strengthen the Geospatial sector to
support national development, economic
prosperity and a thriving information
economy.
AMIGOS IAS
 The policy is aimed to set up high
resolution topographical survey and
mapping, with a high-accuracy Digital
Elevation Model (DEM) by 2030.
 It aims to make India a World Leader in
Global Geospatial space with the best in
the class ecosystem for innovation.
 To develop a coherent national framework
in the country and leverage it to move
towards a digital economy and improve
services to citizens.
Hence both the statements are correct.
7. Consider the following statements with
respect to “ANUSANDHAN NATIONAL
RESEARCH FOUNDATION ACT, 2023”.
I. The ANRF is to be implemented with a
total budget of Rs. 50,000 crores for five
years (2023-28), out of which a major
share of around 70%, is estimated to come
from non-government sources.
II. The ANRF aims to provide high level
strategic direction for research,
innovation and entrepreneurship in the
fields of natural sciences including
mathematical sciences, engineering and
technology, environmental and earth
sciences, health and agriculture.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 The ANRF aims to provide high level
strategic direction for research, innovation
and entrepreneurship in the fields of
natural sciences including mathematical
sciences, engineering and technology,
environmental and earth sciences, health
and agriculture. The ANRF is to be
implemented with a total budget of Rs.
50,000 crores for five years (2023-28), out
of which a major share of around 70%, is
estimated to come from non-government
sources. ANRF will address many big
challenges of present R&D ecosystem
including that of lower participation of
private sectors in R&D. Hence both the
statements are correct.
3
  The establishment of ANRF will prove to be
one of the most transformational steps in
the country towards achieving global R&D
leadership and making India Atmanirbhar.
8. The 8th Mission Innovation (MI8) and
14th Clean Energy Ministerial (CEM14) on the
sidelines of G20 Energy Transition Ministerial
Meeting (ETMM) hosted by India in:
1) Maharashtra 2) Delhi
3) Tamil Nadu 4) Goa
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 India hosted the joint Ministerial event of
8th Mission Innovation (MI8) and
14th Clean Energy Ministerial (CEM14) on
the sidelines of G20 Energy Transition
Ministerial Meeting (ETMM) on 19-22 July
2023 in Goa.
 The event was held on the sidelines of the
G20 Energy Transitions Ministerial Meeting
and has a theme of "Advancing Clean
Energy Together".
 The MI8's mission is to promote intelligent
cities. The MI Missions encourage
international collaboration and
coordination, allowing governments to
work with the private sector to target
investment and action
9. Consider the following statements with
respect to Loss and Damage (L&D) Fund.
I. It was first announced during COP27 in Sharm
el-Sheikh (Egypt) in 2022.
II. It was operationalized after COP28.
III. It will be administered by the World Bank as a
World Bank-hosted Financial Intermediary
Fund for an interim period of four years.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
1) Only One 2) Two Only
3) All Three 4) None
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• 28th COP28 of the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was
held in Dubai, UAE.
• Loss and Damage (L&D) Fund was
operationalised under it. Hence, Statement II
is correct.
AMIGOS IAS
• First announced during COP27 in Sharm el-
Sheikh (Egypt) in 2022. Hence, Statement I is
correct.
• Meant to compensate countries already
dealing with climate change.
• ✓ L&D refers to the negative consequences
arising from the unavoidable risks of climate
change, like rising sea levels, heatwaves, crop
failures, etc.
• ✓ Warsaw International Mechanism (WIM) for
L&D was established at COP19 in 2013 in
Warsaw (Poland) to address L&D associated
with climate change in developing countries.
• Will be administered by the World Bank as a
World Bank-hosted Financial Intermediary
Fund for an interim period of four years.
Hence, Statement III is correct.
• ✓ But managed by an independent
secretariat. o Countries including UAE,
Germany, UK, Japan, etc., pledged money to
the fund.
• Mobilization of $83.9 billion to climate finance
in the Green Climate Fund, Adaptation Fund,
Least Developed Countries Fund, and Special
Climate Change Fund.
• Declaration on a Global Climate Finance
Framework (India part of the declaration).
10. Recently in news, the term ‘Tycho’ refers to
1) Comet 2) Exoplanet
3) Meteoroid 4) Supernova
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Tycho is a Type Ia supernova, which
occurs when a white dwarf star shreds its
companion star, triggering an explosion and
sending debris hurtling into space at
tremendous speeds. It released as much
energy as the Sun would emit over ten billion
years and blasted particles out into space near
the speed of light. Hence, option 4 is correct.
11. Consider the following statements about the
Lower Earth Orbit (LEO)
I. It is an orbit around the earth with an
altitude between 160 to 2000 km.
II. Unlike geosynchronous satellite, satellites
in LEO have a small field of view and so can
observe and communicate with only a
fraction of the Earth at a time.
4
 III. It has applications in the field of satellite I. It was formed from the amalgamation of
imaging and earth-observing satellites. Technical Development Establishment
Which of the above given statements is/are (TDEs) of the Indian Army and the
correct? Directorate of Technical Development &
1) I and II 2) II only Production (DTDP) with the Defence
3) I and III 4) I, II and III Science Organisation (DSO).
Answer: 4 II. Its vision is to empower the nation with
state-of-the-art indigenous defence
Explanation:
technologies and systems.
 The Lower Earth Orbit is an orbit around
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
the earth with an altitude between 160 –
2000 km. the satellites placed in LEO can 1) I only 2) II only
have a titled plane and the majority of 3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
human space flights land in LEO. Hence, Answer: 3
statement I is correct. Explanation:
 Unlike geosynchronous satellite, satellites  DRDO was formed in 1958 from the
in LEO have a small field of view and so can amalgamation of the then already
observe and communicate with only a functioning Technical Development
fraction of the Earth at a time. That means Establishment (TDEs) of the Indian Army
that a network (or “constellation”) of and the Directorate of Technical
satellites is required to provide continuous Development & Production (DTDP) with
coverage. Satellites in lower regions of LEO the Defence Science Organisation (DSO).
also suffer from fast orbital decay and Hence statement I is correct.
require either periodic re-boosting to  Being a centre of excellence for the design
maintain a stable orbit or launching and development of state-of-the-art UAVs,
replacement satellites when old one’s re- Aero Gas Turbine Engine Technology,
enter. Hence, statement II is correct. Airborne Surveillance Systems,
 It has applications in the field of satellite Technologies and Systems related to
imaging, communication satellites, Parachute, Decelerators and Lighter-than-
remote-sensing satellites, and earth- Air systems. Hence statement II is correct.
observing satellites. The International  Making India a powerful defense system
Space Station is located in LEO. Hence, and move to develop in science and
statement III is correct. technology.
12. ‘BharOS’ recently seen in news is a/an 14. Consider the following statements with
1) Anti-virus 2) Chatbot reference to ‘Pinaka Rocket Launcher
3) Mobile operating system System’:
4) Positioning system I. It has been designed jointly by India and
Answer: 3 Russia
Explanation: II. It can fire 120 rockets in a span of 60
The BharOS is an operating system used in seconds
mobile phones. It was developed by J and K Which of the above given statements is/are
Operations Private Limited. IIT Madras was the correct?
pioneer in developing the app. There are No 1) I only 2) II only
Default Apps in the OS. Funded by the 3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Department of Science and Technology (DST), Answer: 4
the indigenous mobile operating system wants Explanation:
to cater to the approximately 100 crore mobile  Pinaka is a multiple rocket launcher
phone users in India. produced in India and developed by the
13. With reference to the Defence Research and Defence Research and Development
Development Organisation (DRDO), consider
the following statements:
AMIGOS IAS 5
 Organisation (DRDO) for the Indian Army.
Hence statement I is incorrect.
 New Pinaka ER gives it a range of around 70
km, over the 45 km existing range of the
missile. Pinaka can fire a salvo of 12 rockets
over a period of 44 seconds. Hence
statement II is incorrect.
15. “Paris Agreement Synthesis Report” is given
by
1) UNEP 2) Climate Watch
3) UNFCC 4) Green Peace
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 Paris Agreement Synthesis Report:
 It is given by UNFCC.
 Implementing latest NDCs will increase
emissions by approximately 8.8% by 2030,
relative to 2010 levels.
 40% of Parties outlined the roles of local
communities and rights of Indigenous
Peoples in adaptation components of
NDCs.
16. Which of the following is/are a chemical
process?
I. Melting of an ice cube
II. Formation of vinegar from sugarcane juice
III. Mixing sugar in water
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
1) I only 2) II only
3) II and III only 4) I, II and III
Answer:2
 Explanation:
 Melting of ice is a physical change because
it involves change only in the physical state
of water. Ice in solid state convert to water
in the liquid state. Moreover, no new
chemical substance is formed in the
process and this change is reversible.
Hence Statement I is not correct.
 Vinegar is an aqueous solution of acetic
acid and trace chemicals that may include
flavourings. Vinegar typically contains 5–
20% by volume acetic acid. Usually, the
acetic acid is produced by the fermentation
of ethanol or sugars by acetic acid bacteria.
Fermentation is the chemical breakdown of
a substance by bacteria, yeasts, or other
AMIGOS IAS
microorganisms. Hence Statement II is
correct.
 If the chemical formulas do not change,
then any changes are physical changes. An
example of physical is dissolving sugar in
water. Once the sugar has all dissolved, you
have molecules of sugar mixed in with the
molecules of water. The chemical formulas
at the end are the same as they were at the
start, so this is a physical change. Hence
Statement III is not correct.
17. The colour of the sun appears reddish during
sunset. Which of the following is the reason
behind this phenomenon?
1) Absorption of light rays by the
atmosphere
2) Scattering of light rays by atmospheric
particles
3) Human eyes are not sensitive to other
colours during that part of the day
4) The sun emits different wavelengths of
light during different times of the day.
Answer:2
Explanation:
 As sunlight travels through the earth’s
atmosphere, it gets scattered (changes its
direction) by the atmospheric particles.
Light of shorter wavelengths is scattered
much more than light of longer
wavelengths. (The amount of scattering is
inversely proportional to the fourth power
of the wavelength. This is known as
Rayleigh scattering). At sunset or sunrise,
the sun’s rays have to pass through a larger
distance in the atmosphere. Most of the
blue and other shorter wavelengths are
removed by scattering. The least scattered
light reaching our eyes; therefore, the sun
looks reddish. This explains the reddish
appearance of the sun and full moon near
the horizon.
 This is also the reason that the sky appears
blue during the day, as blue has a shorter
wavelength than red and is scattered much
more strongly. In fact, violet gets scattered
even more than blue, having a shorter
wavelength. But since our eyes are more
sensitive to blue than violet, we see the sky
blue.
6
18. Consider the following statements related to
semiconductors:
I. The resistivity of semiconductors is more
than insulators but less than conductors.
II. The most commonly used semiconductor
elements are Silicon and Germanium.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 Conductors, semiconductors,
insulators are classified on the basis of
conductivity/resistivity.
 Conductors possess very low resistivity (or
high conductivity).
 Semiconductors have resistivity or
conductivity intermediate to conductors
and insulators.
 Insulators have high resistivity (or low
conductivity).
 Thus, resistivity of semiconductors is more
than conductors but less than insulators.
Hence statement I is not correct.
 Semiconductors can be:
 Elemental semiconductors: Silicon (Si) and
Germanium (Ge)
 Compound semiconductors: Examples are:
 Inorganic: CdS, GaAs, CdSe, InP, etc.
 Organic: anthracene, doped
phthalocyanines, etc.
 Organic polymers: polypyrene, polyaniline,
polythiophene, etc.
 Most of the currently available
semiconductor devices are based on
elemental semiconductors Si or Ge and
compound inorganic semiconductors.
Hence statement II is correct.
19. Consider the following statements with
reference to National Water Awards 2022.
I. Madhya Pradesh won Best state award.
II. Ganjam district in Odisha won Best District
Award.
Select the correct answer:
1) Only I 2) Only II
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer:3
AMIGOS IAS
Explanation:
 National Water Awards:
 President of India conferred 4th National
Water Awards, 2022.
 Prominent winners are Madhya Pradesh
(Best State), Ganjam in Odisha (Best
District).
 National Water Awards: Launched in 2018
by Department of Water Resources, River
Development & Ganga Rejuvenation.
 2nd and 3rd editions given for the years
2019 and 2020.
and  Awards not given in the year 2021 due to
COVID pandemic.
 Objective: To encourage
various stakeholders towards adopting a
holistic approach towards water resources
management in the country.
20. Consider the following statements with
regard to the Human Genome Project:
I. It was aimed at identifying all the genes in
human DNA.
II. It can help in diagnosis, treatment and
prevention of genetic disorders in human
beings.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 It was aimed at identifying all the genes
(approximately 20,000-25,000 genes) in
human DNA, determine the complete
sequence of DNA bases in the human
genome, create detailed genetic maps that
would provide the location and order of
genes on each chromosome, develop three
research tools that would allow scientists
to identify genes involved in both rare and
common diseases. Hence statement I is
correct.
 It can help in diagnosis, treatment and
prevention of genetic disorders in human
beings. Hence statement II is correct.
21. Consider the following statements regarding
CRISPR-Cas9:
7
 I. Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short
Palindromic Repeats of genetic
information is used in some bacterial
species as part of an antiviral system.
II. Guide RNA (gRNA) binds to Cas9 and
specifies the location at which Cas9
will cut DNA.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 CRISPR is a genetic code or sequence found
in bacteria. They Formed due to the activity
of the previous bacteriophages that had
infected them
 Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short
Palindromic Repeats of genetic information
is used in some bacterial species as part of
an antiviral system. Hence statement I is
correct.
 Guide RNA (gRNA) binds to Cas9 and
specifies the location at which Cas9 will cut
DNA. Hence statement II is correct.
22. Consider the following statements
I. India is the first country in the world to
develop a comprehensive Cooling Action
Plan.
II. India completely phased out the use of
Hydro chlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)- 141b in
manufacturing of rigid foam.
III. As of 2020, India achieved a reduction of
44℅ of hydro chlorofluorocarbon
emissions against the target of 35℅.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) I and II only
3) II and III only 4) All the above
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• India Cooling Action Plan: India is the first
country in the world to develop a
comprehensive Cooling Action Plan, which
seeks to provide an integrated vision
towards cooling across sectors
encompassing inter alia reducing cooling
demand, refrigerant transition, enhancing
AMIGOS IAS
energy efficiency and better technology
options with a 20-year time horizon.
• During Hydro Chlorofluorocarbons Phase
Out Management Plan (HPMP) Stage-II
implementation, India completely phased
out the use of Hydro chlorofluorocarbon
(HCFC)- 141b in manufacturing of rigid
foam, the first among the developing
countries to achieve the milestone.
• As against target of 35% reduction from
the baseline as on 1.1.2020, India
achieved a reduction of 44%, highlighting
India’s efforts in protection of the
stratospheric ozone layer.
23. Bandicoot Robot is built by:
1) HSC, Bangalore
2) Kerala based startup Gen Robotics
3) New Delhi Municipal Corporation
4) IIT Kanpur
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 Bandicoot is India’s first ‘manhole cleaning
robot’ built by a Kerala-based startup Gen
Robotics.
 It is an exoskeleton robot which cleans
manholes without the need for humans to
enter the pit.
 The robotic scavenger is equipped with
four robotic legs for smooth portability. It
has a robotic arm with 360-degree motion
which plucks out the solid waste from the
corners of the manhole and collects it in a
bucket. It is also equipped with a water jet
which clears sewage blockages. There are
cameras attached to the machine which
enables one to see the footage of the
manhole from inside.
24. Consider the following statements with
reference to carbon nanotubes:
I. These are cylindrical molecules consisting
of rolled-up sheets of single-layer carbon
atoms.
II. They have low thermal conductivity as
they are very elastic.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 1
Explanation:
8
  Carbon Nanotubes are cylindrical
molecules consisting of rolled-up sheets of
single-layer carbon atoms. Hence
statement I is correct.
 Carbon Nanotubes are stronger than steel
wires and have high thermal and electrical
conductivity. They are very elastic and have
very high tensile strength. Hence
statement II is incorrect.
25. Which of the following public institutions are
dedicated towards Robotics and Artificial
intelligence?
1) Centre for Artificial Intelligence and
Robotics (CAIR), Bengaluru
2) Research and Development Establishment
(Engineers), Pune
3) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
4) Both (1) and (2)
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Centre for Artificial Intelligence and Robotics
(CAIR), Bengaluru and Research and
Development Establishment (Engineers)
{R&DE(E)}, Pune are prime laboratories of
Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) working in the area of
artificial intelligence and robotics.
26. PARIVESH, online application sometimes
seen in the news is related to
1) Tracking of learning levels for school going
children
2) To encourage students to participate in
research and development
3) online submission and monitoring of the
proposals submitted by the proponents
for seeking Environment, Forest, Wildlife
and CRZ Clearances
4) Create awareness on use of electric
vehicles
Answer:3
Explanation:
 PARIVESH is a web based, role-based
workflow application which has been
developed for online submission and
monitoring of the proposals submitted by
the proponents for seeking Environment,
Forest, Wildlife and CRZ Clearances from
Central, State and district level authorities.
It automates the entire tracking of
AMIGOS IAS
proposals which includes online
submission of a new proposal,
editing/updating the details of proposals
and displays status of the proposals at each
stage of the workflow.
 To enhance users, experience on PARIVESH
with modern day web application, Ministry
has expanded the scope of existing
PARIVESH (2.0) leveraging on emerging
technology such as GIS, Advance Data
Analytics, etc. for providing faster decisions
on Green Clearances and robust
compliance monitoring by end-to-end
online appraisal and grant of clearances. An
upgraded version of existing PARIVESH is
supplemented with unique modules (Know
Your Approval, Know Your Customer,
Decision Support System etc).
 Major modules in PARIVESH 2.0 viz: end to
end online processing of Category A and B
environmental clearance proposals was
developed and rolled out at Central and
SEIAA level, respectively. In addition, all
major functionalities of other major
clearances (FC/WL&CRZ) have been
developed and rolled out. In CRZ clearance,
all nine State Coastal Zonal Management
Authority were onboarded, for the first
time, on PARIVESH 2.0 for online
submission and processing of applications.
Furthermore, PARIVESH 2.0 is also
integrated with Gatishakti and National
Single window portal.
27. Consider the following statements regarding
COP 28 of the UN Climate Change Conference
I. It was held in Egypt.
II. The major outcome from COP 28 is the
decision on Outcome of the First Global
Stocktake.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 28th Session of the UN Climate Change
Conference (COP 28):
 An inter-ministerial delegation from India
attended the 28th Session of the UN
Climate Change Conference (COP 28) held
9
 in Dubai, United Arab Emirates from 30th
November’2023 to 13th December’2023.
 The major outcome from COP 28 included
the decision on Outcome of the First Global
Stocktake, ratcheting up global climate
ambition before the end of the decade and
agreement on the operationalization of loss
and damage fund. These global efforts will be
taken up by the countries in a nationally
determined manner taking into account.
28. Match the following pairs with reference to
Robots and their applications:
I. Ai-Da A) India’s first indigenous
industrial robot
II. Groundhog B) Anthropomorphic
humanoid robot
III. ATLAS C) Mine-Mapping Robot
I.V. BRABO D) First robot artist to
stage an exhibition
Options:
1) I-A II-B III-C IV-D
2) I-B II-D III-A IV-C
3) I-D II-C III-B IV-A
4) I-C II-D III-A IV-B
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 Ai-Da is a humanoid robot artist that uses
AI to draw, paint, and perform.
 Groundhog is an autonomous robotic
system developed by Carnegie Mellon
University in 2010 to explore and map
abandoned mines
 Atlas is a bipedal humanoid robot
developed by Boston Dynamics for search
and rescue tasks.
 BRABO stands for "Bravo Robot" and
is India's first industrial robot. It's designed
to be developed for micro, small, and
medium enterprises (MSME) in India
29. Consider the following statements
1) As of October, 2023, the cumulative
electric power installed capacity from
non-fossil fuel-based energy resources is
more than 200MW in India.
2) The emission intensity of its GDP has been
reduced by 33 percent between 2005 and
2019.
Which of the above given statements is/are
incorrect?
AMIGOS IAS
1) 1 only 2) 2 only
3) Both 1 and 2 4) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:1
Explanation:
 India’s achievements against the NDC
targets:
 As per India’s first Nationally Determined
Contribution (NDC) submitted in the year
2015, India had the target of:
 Reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP
by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from 2005
level; and
 Achieving about 40 percent cumulative
electric power installed capacity from non-
fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030.
 These two targets have been achieved well
ahead of the time. As on 31st October,
2023; the cumulative electric power
installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-
based energy resources is 186.46 MW,
which is the 43.81% of the total cumulative
electric power installed capacity. The
emission intensity of its GDP has been
reduced by 33 percent between 2005 and
2019.
 In August 2022, India updated its NDC
according to which target to reduce
emissions intensity of its GDP has been
enhanced to 45 percent by 2030 from 2005
level, and the target on cumulative electric
power installed capacity from non-fossil
fuel-based energy resources has been
enhanced to 50% by 2030.
30. Consider the following statements with
reference to the immersive technologies:
I. Virtual reality immerses users in a fully
artificial digital environment.
II. In Augmented Reality, physical and digital
objects co-exist and interact in real time.
Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 Virtual reality immerses users in a fully
artificial digital environment. Hence
statement I is correct.
10
  Mixed Reality is an advanced form of
augmented reality where physical and
digital objects co-exist and interact in real
time. Hence statement II is incorrect.
 Augmented Reality (AR) is a live direct view
of a physical, real-world environment
whose elements are augmented (or
supplemented) by computer-generated 3D
models, animations, videos etc. The
technology enhances user’s current
perception of reality. Augmentation is in
real time and the information is overlaid on
the live view of the device’s camera.
Augmented Reality takes our current
reality and adds overlays of various types of
information on it. In other words, it simply
augments our existing reality. AR usually
takes place on your smartphone or tablet.
 Perhaps the most recent development in
immersive or reality technologies, mixed
reality can be considered as an advanced
form of AR, where overlays of information
are placed on existing reality but shown
through your mixed reality glasses or
headsets. The physical and digital objects
co-exist and interact in real-time.
31. Dark fibre is a
1) It is a cable laid on the sea bed between
land-based stations to carry
telecommunication signals across
stretches of ocean and sea.
2) It is part of the internet that isn't visible to
search engines and requires the use of an
anonymizing browser.
3) It is the collective name for a number of
malicious software variants.
4) It is the extra optical fibre laid by
companies in order to avoid cost
repetition when more bandwidth is
needed
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 Dark fibre is the extra optical fibre laid by
companies in order to avoid cost repetition
when more bandwidth is needed.
 In a bid to cut down on capital expenditure,
the three major telecom service providers
– Reliance Jio Infocom, Bharti Airtel and
Vodafone Idea — have reached out to
state-run Bharat Broadband Network
AMIGOS IAS
Limited (BBNL) to use the dark fibre laid by
the latter.
 The hitherto unused infrastructure will be
used by these companies to expand their
presence in rural India and offer 4G as well
as other long-term evolution (LTE) mobile
telephony services.
 The bandwidth requested by all the
telecom service providers is a part of the
dark fibre laid out by BBNL while working
on the BharatNet project.
32. Which of the following diseases are caused
by viruses?
I. Hepatitis C
II. Chicken Pox
III. Common Cold
IV. Malaria
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
1) I, II and III only
2) II and IV only
3) I, III and IV only
4) II, III and IV only
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can
cause both short-term and long-term
illness. It is caused by the Hepatitis C virus
(HCV).
 Chickenpox is a highly contagious disease
caused by the varicella-zoster virus
(VZV). It's a member of the herpesvirus
family and can be spread from 1–2 days
before blisters appear until all the blisters
have crusted over
 The common cold is an upper respiratory
infection that affects your nose, throat,
sinuses, and windpipe. It can be caused by
many different viruses, but rhinoviruses
are the most commonly implicated.
 Malaria is caused by a parasite called
Plasmodium, which is spread to humans
through the bites of infected mosquitoes.
Hence IV is incorrect.
33. Consider the following statements regarding
Green Credit Programme
I. It was launched on the side-lines of COP28
OF UNFCCC.
11
 II. Indian Council of Forestry Research and
Education (ICFRE) is designated as
administrator and is responsible for
implementation and management of GCP.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Green Credit Programme (GCP):
 Green Credit Initiative was launched by
Hon’ble Prime Minister on the side-lines of
COP 28. It is an initiative within the
governments Lifestyle for Environment or
LIFE movement. The Green Credit Rules,
2023, has been notified on 12th October
2023 under the Environment Protection
Act 1986. These rules put in place a
mechanism to encourage voluntary
environmental positive actions resulting in
issuance of green credits. In its initial
phase, voluntary tree plantation is
envisaged on degraded land, waste land,
watershed area etc. under the control and
management of Forest departments.
 The generation of Green Credit under
Green Credit Rules, 2023 is independent of
the carbon credit under Carbon Credit
Trading Scheme 2023.
 Governance structure of GCP includes the
steering committee members from
concerned ministries/departments,
experts and institutions. Indian Council of
Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) is
designated as GCP administrator and is
responsible for implementation and
management of GCP. Digital process of GCP
includes dedicated web platform and GC
registry for streamlining the operations. In
addition to these methodologies and
guidelines, including registration,
accounting and GC issuance monitoring
ensures the transparency and
accountability of GCP.
AMIGOS IAS
34. Consider the following statements:
I. Chromosomal disorders are caused by
absence of one or more chromosomes.
II. Down’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome
are examples of chromosomal disorders.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
 Explanation:
Chromosomal disorders are caused due to
absence or excess or abnormal
arrangement of one or more
chromosomes.
 Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome,
Klinefelter’s syndrome are common
examples of chromosomal disorders.
Hence both statements are correct.
35. Consider the following statements regarding
‘BiodiverCities by 2030’:
I. It aims to support city governments,
businesses and citizens, to enable cities to
live in harmony with nature by 2030
II. It is released by World Economic Forum in
collaboration with United Nations
Development Programme
III. The programme employs Artificial
Intelligence to address challenges related
to nature and cities
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) I and II only
3) II and III only 4) I and III only
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 It aims to support city governments,
businesses and citizens, to enable cities to
live in harmony with nature by 2030. The
initiative brings together multidisciplinary
expertise, combines existing initiatives and
surfaces innovative solutions to promote
sustainable, inclusive and nature-positive
urban development at a global scale.
Hence statement I is correct.
 The BiodiverCities by 2030 initiative is
convened in collaboration with the World
Economic Forum and the Government of
Colombia. Hence statement II is incorrect.
12
  The initiative uses artificial intelligence and
crowdsourcing technologies through the
Forum’s Strategic Intelligence and
Uplink platforms, collecting up-to-date
online content and building a community
of innovators and entrepreneurs to
address the world’s most pressing
challenges on nature and cities. Hence
statement III is correct.
36. Consider the following statements about the
National Supercomputing Mission
I. It aims to indigenise the development and
manufacturing of powerful computers.
II. It is implemented by the National
Informatics Centre (NIC).
III. Under this mission, the
supercomputer ‘Param Pravega’ has been
installed.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II only 2) I, II and III
3) III only 4) I and III
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 The National Supercomputing Mission aims
to indigenise the development and
manufacturing of powerful computers.
 It was launched in 2015 to enhance the
research capacities and capabilities in the
country by connecting them to form a
Supercomputing grid, with National
Knowledge Network (NKN) as the
backbone.
 The NKN project is aimed at establishing a
strong and robust Indian network that will
be capable of providing secure and reliable
connectivity. Hence statement I is correct.
 The Mission is being jointly steered by
the Department of Science and Technology
(DST) and the Ministry of Electronics and
Information Technology (MeitY).
 It is implemented by the Centre for
Development of Advanced Computing (C-
DAC), Pune, and the IISc, Bengaluru. Hence
statement II is incorrect.
 The Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
Bengaluru installed the
supercomputer ‘Param Pravega’ with
a supercomputing capacity of 3.3 petaflops
AMIGOS IAS
which has been installed under the
government’s National Supercomputing
Mission. Hence statement III is correct.
37. Which of the following pair is incorrect
regarding the blue flag certified beaches and
their respective states?
1) Shivrajpur beach - Maharashtra
2) Kappad beach - Kerala
3) Kovalam beach - Tamil Nadu
4) Eden beach - Puducherry
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 Beaches in urban India are widely
recognized as popular tourist destinations
all year round. The coastal areas of
Visakhapatnam, Mumbai, Chennai, Goa,
Kerala, Odisha have gained significant
attention from tourists worldwide, leading
to a substantial influx of visitors. The
presence of these pristine beaches not only
serves as a source of income for many
coastal communities but also plays a crucial
role in boosting the local economy. The
beachline across different regions is
encountering a range of issues such as
pollution, overcrowding due to high tourist
influx, and inadequate upkeep. The
presence of marine litter possesses a
significant threat to the marine and coastal
ecosystem thus hampering tourism.
Citizens and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) are
growing increasingly conscious of this
threat. Joggers and runners across the
country are embracing the practice of
plogging on beaches, which entails picking
up litter while jogging or running. This
activity not only helps in keeping the
beaches clean but also promotes a healthy
lifestyle.
 Efforts are being made by the local
authorities and community groups to enhance
waste management and sanitation on the
beaches. Regular beach cleanup drives and
restoration activities are being carried out to
maintain the cleanliness of the beaches.
Additionally, the ULBs are organizing various
awareness programs to educate people about
the significance of preserving natural
resources and marine life. These initiatives are
being undertaken as part of the Swachh
13
 Bharat Mission Urban, which aims to promote
cleanliness and hygiene in urban areas.
Following the protocols for clean, safe and
environment-friendly beaches, marinas and
sustainable boating tourism operators, India
has 12 Blue Flag Beaches namely, Odisha’s
Golden Beach, Gujarat’s Shivrajpur Beach,
Kappad Beach of Kerala, Diu’s Ghoghla Beach,
Radhanagar Beach in Andaman & Nicobar,
Karnataka’a Kasadgod & Padubidri beaches,
Rushikonda Beach of Andhra Pradesh, TN’s
Kovalam Beach, Eden Beach of Puducherry,
Lakshwadeep’s Minicoy Thundi & Kadmat
beaches.
38. Which of the following statements best
describes “Virtual Private Network”?
1) It is a private computer network of an
organization where the remote users can
transmit encrypted information through
the server of the organization
2) It is a computer network across a public
internet that provides users access to their
organization’s network while maintaining
the security of the information
transmitted
3) It is a computer network in which users
can access a shared pool of computing
resources through a service provider.
4) None of the above statements.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
40.
 A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a service
that creates a secure connection between
a user's computer and the internet. It
provides a private tunnel for data, making
the user anonymous and blocking anyone
from tracking their movements.
 A VPN hides a user's IP address by
redirecting it through a remote server run
by a VPN host. This allows remote workers
to connect to their company's internet or
restricted applications
39. Consider the following statements about
Sand Battery
I. A sand battery is a high temperature
thermal energy storage that uses sand or
sand-like materials as its storage medium.
II. It stores energy in sand as heat.
AMIGOS IAS
III. Its main purpose is to work as a high-
power and high-capacity reservoir for
excess wind and solar energy.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II 2) I and III
3) I, II and III 4) II and III
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 A “sand battery” is a high temperature
thermal energy storage that uses sand or
sand-like materials as its storage medium.
It stores energy in sand as heat. Hence
statement I and II are correct.
 Sand is a very effective medium for
retaining heat over a long period, storing
power for months at a time.
 Its main purpose is to work as a high-power
and high-capacity reservoir for excess wind
and solar energy. The energy is stored as
heat, which can be used to heat homes, or
to provide hot steam and high temperature
process heat to industries that are often
fossil-fuel dependent. Hence statement III
is correct.
 The sand battery helps to ambitiously
upscale renewables production by
ensuring there’s always a way to benefit
from clean energy, even if the surplus is
massive.
Consider the following statements with
regard to Government Instant Messaging
System (GIMS):
I. It is designed and developed by National
Informatics Centre.
II. It is considered safer than the other
private popular messaging platforms.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 Government Instant Messaging System
(GIMS) is designed and developed by
National Informatics Centre (NIC). It is
meant to be used by Central and State
government departments and
organisations for intra and inter
14
 organisation communications. Hence
statement I is correct.
 This platform is considered safer than the
popular messaging platforms like
WhatsApp, as the server hosting it is
installed within the country and the
information stored would be on
government-based cloud, i.e. NIC data
centres. Hence statement II is correct.
41. Consider the following statements with
reference to Radio-frequency identification
(RFID) technology:
I. RFID uses radio waves to communicate
between two objects.
II. RFID Tag needs to be within the line of
sight of the reader to work.
III. RFID can identify the vehicle by reading
the registration number of vehicles.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II and III only
3) I and II only 4) I, II and III
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) is a
type of passive wireless technology that
allows for tracking or matching of an item
or individual. RFID tag uses radio waves to
communicate its identity and other
information. Hence statement I is correct.
 RFID tag does not need to be very close to
the reader or in the line of sight to work. A
tag can be read from up to several feet
away and does not need to be within direct
line-of-sight of the reader to be tracked.
One just simply has to be within a reading
distance from the scanner. Hence
statement II is incorrect
 RFID does not directly read the registration
number of vehicles. In fact, RFID
technology uses an Electronic Produce
Code (EPC) through which every vehicle
can be uniquely identified. This code is
different from the vehicle’s registration
number and exclusive to it on a global
scale. Hence statement III is incorrect.
42. Red-rumped Hawklet, a new dragonfly
species has been discovered in which of the
following region?
1) Western Ghats
AMIGOS IAS
2) The Terai region of Bihar
3) Indo–Myanmar border region of Arunachal
Pradesh
4) Eastern Ghats
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 Red-rumped Hawklet Scientific name –
Epithemis wayanadensis
 It is named to mark the lush and biodiverse
Wayanad plateau in the Western Ghats.
 Habitat - Shaded streamside marsh near
Wayanad’s forested terrain and parts of
the Nilgiri Coorg landscapes
 Features
 Darker pigmentation A restricted red
coloration on the abdomen Absence of the
yellow ante humeral stripe
 Growing conditions – It is profoundly
seasonal which is observed in during the
month of October in skies. It spends the
remainder of the year in the aquatic larval
stage. It bore a striking resemblance to
Ruby-tailed Hawklet.
 Significance– A 2% genetic variance
indicates the presence of a new species. In
this case, an astonishing 12% genetic
difference was observed. This marks the
1st instance of an Indian dragonfly being
documented with genetic evidence
substantiating morphological distinctions
43. In the context of cyber security, consider the
following statements:
I. The content on Dark Net is encrypted and
requires specific browser for net surfing.
II. All activities associated with the deep web
are nefarious.
III. ‘Deep web’ is part of greater ‘dark net’
also known as ‘dark web’.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?
1) I only 2) I and II only
3) I and III only 4) II and III only
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 The content on Dark Net is encrypted and
requires specific browser for net surfing.
Hence statement I is correct.
 Not all activities associated with the deep
web are nefarious. In most cases, these
15
 pages are not searchable through
traditional channels because they are
password-protected and require specific
tools or authorization (like a log-in) in order
to access them. Hence statement II is
incorrect.
 The ‘dark net’ also known as the ‘dark web’
is part of the greater ‘deep web’, a network
of secret websites that exist on an
encrypted network. Hence statement III is
incorrect.
44. Consider the following statements about
iDEX
I. It aims to support projects requiring
support beyond Rs. 10 crores up to Rs. 100
crores.
II. It is an ecosystem to foster innovation &
technology development in defence and
aerospace by engaging innovators &
entrepreneurs.
III. It provides funding/grants to Micro Small
and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), start-
ups, individual innovators, R&D institutes,
and academia.
46.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) I and III 4) I, II and III
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 iDEX aims to support projects requiring
support beyond Rs. 1.5 crores up to Rs. 10
crores. Hence statement I is incorrect.
 iDEX was launched to provide wider
publicity and better visibility of iDEX
activities and enable more efficient running
of future challenges through better
information management.
 It is an ecosystem to foster innovation &
technology development in defence and
aerospace by engaging innovators &
entrepreneurs. Hence statement II is
correct.
 It provides funding/grants to Micro Small
and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), start-
ups, individual innovators, R&D institutes,
and academia. Hence statement III is
correct.
45. Which of the following rays or radiations are
used in thermal imaging?
AMIGOS IAS
1) X rays
2) Ultraviolet radiation
3) Gamma rays
4) Infrared radiation
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 Thermal imaging uses infrared (IR)
radiation to create visible images that
show the temperature differences in a
scene
 A thermal imager (also known as a thermal
camera) is essentially a heat sensor that is
capable of detecting tiny differences in
temperature.
 The device collects the infrared radiation
from objects in the scene and creates an
electronic image based on information
about the temperature differences.
 Because objects are rarely precisely the
same temperature as other objects around
them, a thermal camera can detect them
and they will appear as distinct in a thermal
image.
Ecomark Scheme, recently seen in news is
implemented by which of the following
ministry?
1) Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change
2) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
3) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises
4) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Answer: 1
 Explanation:
To take ahead the ‘LiFE’ (Lifestyle for
Environment’ movement), the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate
Change has introduced the Ecomark
Scheme.
 Ecomark Scheme promotes Eco-Friendly
Products. It provides accreditation and
labelling for household and consumer
products that meet specific environmental
criteria while maintaining quality standards
as per Indian norms.
 The Central Pollution Control Board
administers the Eco mark Scheme in
partnership with Bureau of Indian
Standards (BIS). Products accredited under
16
 the Ecomark Scheme will adhere to specific
environmental criteria, ensuring minimal
environmental impact.
 It will build consumer awareness of
environmental issues and encourage eco-
conscious choices. It will also motivate
manufacturers to shift towards
environmentally friendly production.
47. Consider the following statements
 Israel has become a major supplier of
defence equipment to India, standing
second to Russia.
 Barak 8 a long-range surface to air missile
was jointly developed by India’s Defence
Research & Development Organisation
(DRDO) and Israel Aerospace Industries
(IAI).
Choose the correct code:
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 Israel has become a major supplier of
defence equipment to India, standing
second to Russia on a few occasions. As per
the data furnished by the Indian Ministry of
Defence (MoD) Israel was ahead of Russia
in the year 2013–2014 and 2015–2016, in
terms of signing defence contracts with
India. Hence statement I is correct.
 Barak 8 was jointly developed by India’s
Defence Research & Development
Organisation (DRDO) and Israel Aerospace
Industries (IAI). The Barak 8 missile defence
system is produced by Israel’s Directorate
of Research and Development (DDR&D),
Elta Systems, Rafael Advanced Defence
Systems and India’s Bharat Dynamics
limited (BDL). Hence statement II is
correct.
48. Consider the following statements regarding
the Integrated Guided Missile Development
Programme (IGMDP)
I. Prithvi is a short-range surface-to-surface
ballistic missile.
II. Trishul is a long-range surface-to-air
missile.
III. Akash is a medium-range surface-to-air
missile
AMIGOS IAS
IV. Agni is an intermediate-range surface-to-
surface ballistic missile.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I, II and III 2) II, III and IV
3) I, II and IV 4) I, III and IV
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 The Integrated Guided Missile
Development Programme (IGMDP)
brought together the country’s scientific
community, academic institutions, R&D
laboratories, industries and the three
defence services in giving shape to the
strategic, indigenous missile systems. It
formally got the approval of the Indian
government on July 26, 1983. It was the
brainchild of renowned scientist Dr APJ
Abdul Kalam and was intended to attain
self-sufficiency in the field of missile
technology.
 The missiles developed under IGMDP are –
 Prithvi is a short-range surface-to-surface
ballistic missile. Hence statement I is
correct.
 Trishul is a short-range low-level surface-
to-air missile. Hence statement II is
incorrect.
 Akash is a medium-range surface-to-air
missile. Hence statement III is correct.
 Agni is an intermediate-range surface-to-
surface ballistic missile. Hence statement
IV is correct.
49. Consider the following statements
I. The Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) was established in
1958.
II. The Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO) was established in 1969.
III. The Department of Space (DoS) was
established in 1972.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) I and III 4) I, II and III
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 DRDO is the Research and Development
wing of the Ministry of Defence with a
17
 vision to empower India with cutting-edge
defence technologies. DRDO was formed
in 1958 from the amalgamation of the
then-already functioning Technical
Development Establishment (TDEs) of the
Indian Army and the Directorate of
Technical Development & Production
(DTDP) with the Defence Science
Organisation (DSO). Hence statement I is
correct.
 The Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO) was established in 1969. ISRO is the
space agency under the Department of
Space of the Government of India,
headquartered in the city of Bengaluru,
Karnataka. ISRO’s vision is to harness space
technology for national development while
pursuing space science research and
planetary exploration. Hence statement II
51.
is correct.
 The Department of Space was established
in 1972. Its primary objective of promoting
the development and application of space
science and technology to assist in the all-
around development of the nation. Hence
statement III is correct.
50. Consider the following statements about
U.N. Environment Programme's (UNEP) Cool
Coalition
I. It is a global multi-stakeholder network
that aims to inspire ambition and
accelerate action on the transition to
clean and efficient cooling.
II. It is led by UN Environment, IUNC and
World Economic Forum.
III. It is a unified initiative that links action
across the Kigali Amendment, Paris
Agreement and Sustainable Development
Goals.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) I and III 4) I, II and III
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 Cool Coalition is dedicated to inspiring
ambition, mobilizing action, and
accelerating progress toward UN 2019
Climate Change Summit. The Cool Coalition
is a global multi-stakeholder network that
AMIGOS IAS
connects a wide range of key actors
towards a rapid global transition to
efficient and climate-friendly cooling.
 The key actors include government, cities,
international organizations, businesses,
finance, academia and civil society groups.
Hence statement I is correct.
 The Cool Coalition is led by: UN
Environment, Climate and Clean Air
Coalition, Kigali Cooling Efficiency Program
and Sustainable Energy for All (SEforALL).
Hence statement II is incorrect.
 It is a unified initiative that links action
across the Kigali Amendment, Paris
Agreement and Sustainable Development
Goals. The 3 pillars of the cool coalition
include: Advocacy, Action, Knowledge
Exchange. Hence statement III is correct.
Consider the following statements Mission
Shakti Anti Satellite Weapons Test
I. It was a joint collaboration of the DRDO
and ISRO.
II. It struck a predetermined target orbiting
at a distance of 30000 km from the Earth’s
surface.
III. India became only the fourth country to
carry out an anti-satellite missile test.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) I and III 4) I, II and III
Answer:3
Explanation:
 Mission Shakti is a joint programme of the
Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO). Hence
statement I is correct.
 It struck a predetermined target which was
a redundant Indian satellite that was
orbiting at a distance of 300 km from the
Earth’s surface. As per official sources, the
satellite that had been knocked out was
Microsat R, a micro-satellite launched by
ISRO in January, 2019. Hence statement II
is incorrect.
 The first anti-satellite test (ASAT) was
carried out by the US military way back in
1959. The then Soviet Union followed a
year later. Thereafter, the two countries
18
 carried out a series of such tests up till early
1980s.After that there was a lull, broken
only by the Chinese test in 2007.India
became only the fourth country to carry
out an anti-satellite missile test. Hence
statement III is correct.
52. Consider the following statements about
Bhoj wetland
I. It consists of two contiguous human-made
reservoirs located in the city of Bhopal,
Madhya Pradesh.
II. Recently Keoladeo National Park and Bhoj
wetland were added under the Montreux
record, maintained under the Ramsar
convention.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II 2) II only
3) I only 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 It consists of two contiguous human-made
reservoirs, the upper and lower lakes
located in the city of Bhopal, Madhya
Pradesh. The Upper Lake is called Bhojtal
(Bada Talaab) and Lower Lake is known as
Chhota Talaab.
 The lakes are very rich in biodiversity,
particularly for macrophytes,
phytoplankton and zooplankton. It has
more than 15 kinds of fishes and several
vulnerable species including turtles,
amphibians and aquatic invertebrates. It is
designated as the Ramsar site in 2002.
Hence statement I is correct.
 The Montreux record is a register of
wetland sides on the list of wetlands of
international importance where changes in
ecological character have occurred, are
occurring, or are likely to occur as a result
of technological developments, pollution
or other human interference.
 Currently, 48 sites were listed in the
Montreux Record. Indian sites in the like
Keoladeo National Park- Rajasthan, Loktak
Lake – Manipur are included in Montreux
Record. Hence statement II is incorrect.
AMIGOS IAS
53. The function of control rods in a nuclear
reactor is to
1) Absorb neutrons
2) Slow down the speed of neutrons
3) Cool down the reactor
4) Increase the speed of neutrons
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 Control rods are an essential safety feature
in nuclear reactors. They are made of a
material that can absorb neutrons, such as
boron, cadmium, or hafnium. When
inserted into the reactor core, they can
help regulate the nuclear reaction by
absorbing excess neutrons and slowing
down the rate of fission.
 By absorbing neutrons, control rods can
help prevent the reactor from overheating
and potentially causing a nuclear
meltdown. They can also be used to shut
down the reactor entirely in case of an
emergency. Hence option 1 is correct.
54. ‘Pterygotrigla intermedica’ a species recently
seen in news are
1) Wasps 2) Bats
3) frogs 4) Fishes
Answer: 4
Explanation:
‘Pterygotrigla intermedica’ commonly known
as gurnards or sea-robins and belongs to the
family Triglidae. The specimens of this fish
were found to be very distinct from other
gurnad species in various aspects, such as
snout length, shape of the internuchal space,
and size of the cleithral spine. It is the fourth
species of Pterygotrigla genus reported in
India so far, and there are a total of 178
species of the Triglidae family worldwide.
55. Consider the following statements about
Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
I. It defines Nuclear-weapon states as those
that manufactured and exploded a
nuclear weapon before 1st January 1967.
II. All the members of the United Nations are
members of this treaty.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
19
 Answer: 1
Explanation:
 The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty is a
multilateral treaty aimed at limiting the
spread of nuclear weapons including three
elements:
 non-proliferation
 disarmament and
 peaceful use of nuclear energy.
 According to this treaty, Nuclear-weapon
states are those that manufactured and
exploded a nuclear weapon before
1st January 1967.
 It requires countries to give up any present
or plans to build nuclear weapons in return
for access to peaceful uses of nuclear
energy.
 It represents the only binding commitment
in a multilateral treaty to the goal of
disarmament by the nuclear-weapon
States. Hence statement I is correct.
 The treaty was signed in 1968 and entered
into force in 1970. Presently, it has 191
member states.
 Four UN member states have never
accepted the NPT – India, Israel, Pakistan,
and South Sudan. Hence statement II is
incorrect.
56. The term ‘Tapas-BH’ was recently seen in
news, corresponds to which of the following?
1) It will acquire real-time, high-quality
pictures and signal intelligence from fields
of concern at Short to Medium ranges.
2) It is developed by the Defence Research
and Development Organisation (DRDO).
3) It is high altitude, long endurance (HALE)
Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV).
4) It is capable of carrying different
combinations of advanced payload and
capable of auto-landing among others.
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 Rustom-2 also goes by the name Tapas-BH.
(Tactical Airborne Platform for Aerial
Surveillance-Beyond Horizon 201).
 The Aeronautical Development
Establishment (ADE), Bengaluru, is
responsible for its research and
development, and Hindustan Aeronautics
AMIGOS IAS
Ltd. and Bharat Electronics Limited are its
production partners.
 TAPAS BH-201 is a medium-altitude long-
endurance unmanned aerial vehicle
 It is being designed to acquire real-time,
high-quality pictures and signal intelligence
from fields of concern at medium to long
ranges.
 It is being developed to carry out
surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) roles
and is capable of carrying different
combinations of advanced payloads and
capable of auto-landing among others
 This scheme will help in mapping with
Improvised Technology in Village Areas
with the help of drones to map properties
in villages. People in rural areas now have
clear evidence of ownership.
57. This scheme will help in mapping with
Improvised Technology in Village Areas with
the help of drones to map properties in
villages. People in rural areas now have clear
evidence of ownership.
Which one of the following schemes is being
talked about in the para given above?
1) NATMO
2) Mission Drone Shakti
3) National Atlas
4) SWAMITVA
Answer: 4
Explanation:
SWAMITVA- Drones are being used as part of
a plan called Survey of Villages and Mapping
with Improvised Technology in Village Areas to
map properties in villages. Rural residents now
have undeniable proof of possession.
SVAMITVA Scheme is a reformative step
towards establishment of clear ownership of
property in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas
58. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Environmental DNA (eDNA)
I. It is the genetic material obtained from
the fossils and dead species.
II. It originates from cellular material shed by
organism into their surroundings.
III. eDNA – based molecular methods is used
to detect invasive species in aquatic
ecosystem.
20
 Which of the above given statement is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) I and II only
3) III only 4) II and III only
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 It is defined as the genetic material
60.
obtained directly from environmental
samples (Soil, sediment, water, etc.)
without any obvious signs of the biological
source material. It is an efficient, non-
invasive and easy-to standardise sampling
approach.
 It originates from cellular material shed by
organisms (via skin, excrement, etc.) into
aquatic or terrestrial environments.
 Coupled with sensitive, cost-efficient and
ever-advancing DNA sequencing
technology, the technique is increasingly
being used for biodiversity monitoring.
 Hence II and III are correct.
59. “Neural Networks” is sometimes talked
about with reference to which one of the
following?
1) It consists of networks made up of
neurons and synapses connected to and
controlling tissues as well as impacting
human thoughts and behaviour.
2) It is a means of communication that uses
signals encoded in light to transmit
information in various types of
telecommunications networks.
3) It is a method in artificial intelligence that
teaches computers to process data in a
way that is inspired by the human brain.
4) It refers to a place in the network where
incoming or outgoing traffic is silently
discarded.
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 A neural network is a method in artificial
intelligence that teaches computers to
process data in a way that is inspired by the
human brain. It is a type of machine
learning process, called deep learning, that
uses interconnected nodes or neurons in a
layered structure that resembles the
human brain.
AMIGOS IAS
 Neural networks are designed to work just
like the human brain does. In the case of
recognizing handwriting or facial
recognition, the brain very quickly makes
some decisions. For example, in the case of
facial recognition, the brain might start
with “It is female or male?
The term ‘Geographic Information System’
recently seen in news, which of the following
statement is/are correct?
1) It is a computer-based tool that examines
spatial relationships, patterns, and trends
in geography.
2) GIS mapping produces visualizations of
geospatial information and help us
understanding what is where.
3) e-Green Watch portal uses Geographic
Information Systems (GIS) to analyse land
use in real time to track growth of
vegetation.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
1) Only one 2) Only two
3) All three 4) None
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 Geographic Information Systems (GIS)
store, analyze, and visualize data for
geographic positions on Earth’s surface.
GIS is a computer-based tool that examines
spatial relationships, patterns, and trends
in geography. It was used back in 1854
(without computers of course!) to map a
disease outbreak in the City of London.
Fundamentally, we still use this type of
spatial analysis today but in a more
sophisticated way. Hence Statement I is
correct
 GIS mapping produces visualizations of
geospatial information. The 4 main ideas of
Geographic Information Systems (GIS) are:
 Create geographic data.
 Manage it in a database.
 Analyze and find patterns.
 Display it on a map.
Hence Statement II is correct.
As part of CAMPA, forest land is being diverted
to non-forest uses, so E-Green Watch is an
integrated and online Geographic Information
21
 System (GIS) that will track the growth of
vegetation cover and encourage afforestation.
All stakeholders and the general public will be
able to view it, and the data will be presented
in real time. Hence Statement III is correct.
61. The term “OneWeb” was in News recently
pertaining to India’s space mission. It is for:
1) Enabling the connectivity between the
QUAD nations for Indo-Pacific region.
2) Enabling connectivity between the G20
nations
3) Enabling connectivity for the corporate
sectors.
4) Enabling connectivity for governments,
businesses, and communities
Answer: 4
Explanation:
One Web is a (Bharti group-backed) global
communications network, powered from
space, enabling connectivity for governments,
businesses, and communities
62. Consider the following statements about the
oil spill
I. It refers to any uncontrolled release of
crude oil and gasoline into the
environment.
II. It can be caused only by an
anthropological cause and not by natural
causes.
III. It causes hypothermia in birds as crude oil
ruins the insulating and waterproofing
properties of feathers and fur.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) I and III 4) I, II and III
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 An oil spill refers to any uncontrolled
release of crude oil, gasoline, fuels, or other
oil by-products into the environment.
 Oil spills can pollute land, air, or
water, though it is mostly used for oceanic
oil spills. Hence statement I is correct.
 It can be caused as a result of intensified
petroleum exploration and production on
continental shelves and the transport of
large amounts of oils in vessels.
AMIGOS IAS
 Oil spills that happen in rivers, bays and the
ocean most often are caused by
accidents involving tankers, barges,
pipelines, refineries, drilling rigs, and
storage facilities, but also occur from
recreational boats and natural disasters.
 Natural disasters like very heavy storms in
the oceans, shaking of the sea floor due to
earthquakes, and hurricanes have
contributed to oil tanker ship accidents or
breakage/leakage of underground
pipelines thereby causing colossal oil spills.
 Hence it can be caused by both
anthropological causes and natural
causes. Hence statement II is incorrect.
 It causes hypothermia in birds and threats
to the aquatic ecosystem.
 Crude oil ruins the insulating and
waterproofing properties of feathers and
fur of birds, and thus oil-coated birds
and marine mammals may die from
hypothermia.
 Hypothermia is a decrease in body
temperature to below-normal levels.
 Oil on ocean surfaces is harmful to many
forms of aquatic life because it prevents
sufficient amounts of sunlight from
penetrating the surface, and it also reduces
the level of dissolved oxygen. Hence
statement III is correct.
63. Consider the following statements regarding
the Mangrove Alliance for Climate
I. It is an intergovernmental alliance that
works voluntarily as there are no real
checks and balances to hold members
accountable.
II. India is a member of this alliance.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer:3
Explanation:
 The Mangrove Alliance for Climate seeks
to educate and spread awareness
worldwide on the role of mangroves in
curbing global warming and its potential as
a solution for climate change.
22
  It is an intergovernmental alliance that
works voluntarily which means that there
are no real checks and balances to hold
members accountable.
 Instead, the parties will decide their
commitments and deadlines regarding the
planting and restoring mangroves.
 The members will also share expertise and
support each other in researching,
managing, and protecting coastal
areas. Hence statement I is correct.
 It was launched by the UAE and
Indonesia during the COP27 climate
summit in Sharm El Sheikh, Egypt.
 It includes UAE, Indonesia, India, Sri Lanka,
Australia, Japan, and Spain.
 India is a member of this alliance. Hence
statement II is correct.
64. The term “Extended Reality” is sometimes
talked about with reference to which one of
the following?
1) It is an umbrella term encapsulating
Augmented, Virtual and Mixed Realities.
2) It is a realistic simulation of an
environment, including three-dimensional
graphics, by a computer system using
interactive software and hardware.
3) It is a device aiming at reducing the time
taken to achieve interstellar travel.
4) It is the phenomenon seen around black
holes where reality and time undergoes
distortion.
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 Extended Reality (XR) is the combination of
human & computer-generated graphics
interaction, which is in reality as well as the
virtual environment. In basic terms,
Extended Reality is a superset of
Augmented Reality (AR), Virtual Reality
(VR) & Mixed Reality (MR).
 The concept of Extended Reality (XR) came
into the picture when technologies like
Augmented and virtual reality, were being
used by developers and tech companies all
across the globe.
]
AMIGOS IAS
65. Consider the following statements regarding
levels of biodiversity
I. Genetic diversity ensures the survival of
the population.
II. Species diversity refers to variety of living
and non-living things in a surrounding.
III. Ecosystem diversity is influenced by the
nature of the ecosystem.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) I and III 4) I, II and III
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 Genetic diversity ensures the survival of
the population as it ensures the survival of
individuals. It aims to ensure that some
species survive drastic changes and thus
carry-on desirable genes.
 It is concerned with the variation in genes
within a particular species. It allows species
to adapt to changing environments. Hence
statement I is correct.
 Species diversity refers to the variety of
living organisms on earth. Species differ
from one another, especially in their
genetic makeup, and do not interbreed in
nature. It is the ratio of one species’
population over the total number of
organisms across all species in the given
biome. Zero represents infinite diversity
and one represents only one species
present. Hence statement II is incorrect.
 Ecosystem diversity refers to different
types of habitats.
 A habitat is the cumulative factor of the
climate, vegetation, and geography of a
region. Ex: Grasslands and Corals.
 Ecosystem diversity is influenced by the
nature of the ecosystem because the
climate changes are accompanied by the
change in vegetation as well and each
species adapts itself to a particular kind of
environment. Hence, the diversity of
species in the ecosystem is influenced by
the nature of the ecosystem. Hence
statement III is correct.
23

66. “Advanced Liquid Processing System” is a
technology most commonly used in the
which of the following situations?
1) Sewage water recycling
2) Removal of Radioactive wastes from
Water.
3) Use of Liquid Oxygen in Missile and Space
Technologies.
4) An alternative mechanism to refine crude
oil.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 The Advanced Liquid Processing System
(ALPS), a multi-nuclide removal system,
removes various radioactive materials
from contaminated water.
 When water comes into contact with
69.
melted fuel, fuel debris and other
radioactive substances, it becomes
contaminated. The contaminated water is
then treated through a filtration process
known as Advanced Liquid Processing
System (ALPS) to remove most of the
radioactivity before being stored.
67. Honolulu Strategy is related to
1) Mercury pollution
2) Plastic pollution
3) Nitrogen pollution
4) Water pollution
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 Honolulu Strategy is related to plastic
pollution. National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) in the
United States and UNEP created the
Honolulu Strategy—a planning tool to
reduce plastic pollution and its impacts.
 The Honolulu Strategy is a framework for a
comprehensive and global collaborative
effort to reduce the ecological, human
health, and economic impacts of marine
debris worldwide.
68. The government is reconsidering a key aspect
of cyberspace – ‘safe harbor’. What does it
mean?
1) Allow users to avoid liability for posts
made on social media platforms
AMIGOS IAS
2) Allows social media platforms to avoid
liability for posts made by users
3) Punishes the social media platforms for
their liability for posts made by users
4) Punishes the users for their liability for
posts made on the social media platforms.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
The government is reconsidering a key aspect
of cyberspace – ‘safe harbor’, which is the
principle that allows social media platforms to
avoid liability for posts made by users. Safe
harbor (originally from the US’s
Communications Decency Act) – as prescribed
under Section 79 of the IT Act, 2000 – is legal
immunity that online intermediaries enjoy
against content posted by users on their
platforms.
Consider the following statements regarding
e-waste regulations
I. India’s first e-waste clinic has been set up
in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
II. The Nairobi Declaration of the Basel
Convention is related to the management
of electronic waste.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer:2
Explanation:
 India’s first e-waste clinic has been set up
in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. It is used for
segregating, processing, and disposal of
waste from household and commercial
units.
 The Central Pollution Control Board will
provide technical support at the unit and
the collected hazardous waste will then be
sent to Bengaluru for recycling.
 This would ensure the scientific handling
and disposal of electronic waste generated
from households and commercial
establishments. Hence statement I is
incorrect.
 The Nairobi Declaration of the Basel
Convention is related to the management
of electronic waste.
24
  It was adopted at COP9 of the Basel
Convention on the Control of the
Transboundary Movement of Hazardous
Waste. It aimed at creating innovative
solutions for the environmentally sound
management of electronic waste. Hence
statement II is correct.
70. Consider the following statements:
1) Speech recognition
2) Medical diagnosis
3) Predicting Traffic Patterns.
4) Predicting the possibility of Insurance
fraud.
Helping detect computer viruses
Which of the following functions can be
performed through Machine Learning?
1) I, II and III 2) II, III, IV and V
3) I, II and IV 4) I, II, III, IV and V
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Machine learning can predict outcomes from
a business perspective, such as which of your
customers are likely to churn. It can also
predict the likelihood of an insurance claim
being fraudulent. The list of use cases for
machine learning that can be applied to is vast
72.
and may appear to be too complex to
comprehend quickly. However, the key
element is identifying patterns with common
results.
What are the Common Applications of
Machine Learning?
● Image Recogni on.
● Speech Recogni on.
● Predict Traffic Pa erns.
● E-commerce Product Recommendations.
● Self-Driving Cars.
● Catching Email Spam.
● Catching Malware.
● Virtual Personal Assistant.
71. Consider the following statements about the
Kalashnikov AK 203 Rifle:
I. It is the most advanced version of the AK-
47 rifle.
II. It cannot be used in high altitudes.
III. It is jointly produced by India and Russia.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
AMIGOS IAS
1) I only 2) II and III only
3) I and III only 4) I, II and III
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 AK 203 Rifle is the most advanced version
of the AK-47 rifle. Hence statement I is
correct.
 It is expected to replace the Indian Small
Arms System (INSAS) 5.56×45 mm assault
rifle, which is presently being used by
Army, Navy and Air Force besides other
security forces. INSAS rifles are not suitable
for use at high altitudes. Several other
issues with these rifles include gun
jamming, oil leakage etc. Thus AK 203 will
replace them as they can be used in high
altitudes. Hence statement II is incorrect.
 It is jointly produced by India and Russia.
They had inked an agreement in 2021 for
the procurement of AK 203 assault rifles
through Korwa Ordnance Factory in Uttar
Pradesh’s Amethi district. The deal has a
clause for complete technology transfer
and the rifles will also be exported to
friendly foreign nations. Hence statement
III is correct.
Consider the following statements about
Multiple Independent Re-entry Vehicle
(MIRV)
I. It is an exo-atmospheric ballistic missile
payload containing several warheads.
II. Each warhead is capable of being aimed to
hit a different target
III. The Soviet Union was the first country to
develop MIRV technology
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) I and III 4) I, II and III
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 A multiple independently targetable re-
entry vehicle (MIRV) is an exoatmospheric
ballistic missile payload containing several
warheads, each capable of being aimed to
hit a different target. Hence statement I
and II are correct.
 The United States was the first country to
develop MIRV technology, deploying a
25
 MIRVed Intercontinental Ballistic Missile
(ICBM) in 1970 and a MIRVed Submarine-
Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM) in 1971.
The Soviet Union quickly followed suit and
by the end of the 1970s had developed
their own MIRV-enabled ICBM and SLBM
technology. Hence statement III is
incorrect.
73. Which of the following is/are applications of
drones?
I. Mapping of landslide areas
II. Aerial photography of journalism
III. Disaster management
IV. Inspection of active volcanoes
Choose the correct code:
1) I, II and IV 2) II, III and IV
3) I, II and III 4) I, II, III and IV
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Applications of drones –
Mapping of landslide areas
Aerial photography of journalism
Disaster management
Border control surveillance
Forecasting storms and hurricanes
Crop damage assessment
Inspection of active volcanoes
74. Consider the following statements about
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)
I. It is the amount of oxygen required to
oxidize organic and inorganic compounds
in the water.
II. It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per
litre of water.
III. Higher BOD indicates lower water quality.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II 2) II only
3) III only 4) II and III
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the
amount of dissolved oxygen needed by
bacteria in decomposing the organic
wastes present in water.
 Water pollution by organic wastes is
measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen
Demand (BOD).
AMIGOS IAS
 BOD is limited to biodegradable materials.
 Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) measures
the amount of oxygen in parts per million
required to oxidise organic (biodegradable
and non-biodegradable) and oxidizable
inorganic compounds in the water
sample. Hence statement I is incorrect.
 It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per
litre of water. Hence statement II is
correct.
 Higher BOD indicates more oxygen is
required, which is less for oxygen-
demanding species to feed on, and signifies
lower water quality. Inversely, low BOD
means less oxygen is being removed from
the water, so water is generally
purer. Hence statement III is correct.
75. Consider the following statements
I. Lentic ecosystems include all ecosystems
with static or still water.
II. Lotic ecosystems include all fast-moving
water bodies.
III. Lentic ecosystems are also called the
riverine ecosystem.
IV. Lotic ecosystems are also called the
lacustrine ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
1) I and IV 2) II and III
3) II and IV 4) I and II
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 Lentic ecosystems include all ecosystems
with static or still water. Ex: Lakes and
Ponds. Hence statement I is correct.
 Lotic ecosystems include all fast-moving
water bodies. Ex: Rivers and
Streams. Hence statement II is correct.
 Lentic ecosystems are also called the
lacustrine ecosystem. Hence statement III
is incorrect.
 Lotic ecosystems are also called the
riverine ecosystem. Hence statement IV is
incorrect.
76. 'Totipotency' is best described as the ability
of a
1) The capacity of individual cells to initiate
all lineages of the mature organism in a
26
 flexible manner directed by signals in the
embryo or cell culture environment
2) single cell to divide and produce all of the
differentiated cells in an organism
3) dying cell to regain life by slowing down
the process of oxidation.
4) new organism to develop from an
outgrowth or bud due to cell division at
one particular site.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 Totipotency is the ability of a single cell to
divide and produce all of the differentiated
cells in an organism. It was learned by
scientists, during the 1950s, that whole
plants could be regenerated from explants,
i.e., any part of a plant taken out and grown
in a test tube, under sterile conditions in
special nutrient media. This capacity to
generate a whole plant from any
cell/explant is called totipotency.
 Totipotency is set to become a key tool for
research and future medical applications.
Human development begins when a sperm
fertilizes an egg and the resulting fertilized
egg creates a single totipotent cell, a
zygote. The zygote divides numerous times
and forms cells that are the precursors to
the trillions of cells that will eventually
constitute the human body.
77. Consider the following statements with
reference to the India’s air defence system:
I. Prithvi air defence system has the capacity
to engage targets at an altitude of 50 km.
II. S-400 Triumf air defense system is being
purchased from Russia.
III. Akash is a part of mid-range air to air
defense systems of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) I and II only 2) I only
3) II and III only 4) I, II and III
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 The Prithvi Air Defence (PAD) system, also
known as the Pradyumna Ballistic Missile
Interceptor, is India's ballistic missile
defense system.
AMIGOS IAS
 It's designed to intercept missiles in the
atmosphere at high altitudes, between 50–
80 km. Hence statement I is correct.
 S-400 Triumf air defense system is being
purchased from Russia. Hence statement II
is correct.
 Akash mid-range surface-to-air missile
(SAM) system.
 The missile system can target aircraft up to
30 km away, at altitudes up to 18,000
meters. Hence statement III is incorrect.
78. It is India’s second-largest mangrove
ecosystem after the Sundarbans. This
National Park is a network of creeks and
canals which are inundated with waters from
rivers Dhamra and Patasala, forming a unique
ecosystem. It has one of the largest
populations of endangered saltwater
crocodiles in India.
The above description is related to which of
the following National Park?
1) Galathea National Park
2) Bhitarkanika National Park
3) Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park
4) Rani Jhansi Marine National Park
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 Bhitarkanika National Park:
 Location: It is located in Kendrapara district
in the state of Odisha.
 It is India’s second-largest mangrove
ecosystem after the Sundarbans.
 It is a 145 Sq. km large national park which
was designated on 16th September 1998
and obtained the status of a Ramsar site in
August 2002, e., the second Ramsar site of
the State after the Chilika Lake.
 This National Park is a network of creeks
and canals which are inundated with
waters from rivers Brahmani, Baitarani,
Dhamra and Patasala, forming a unique
ecosystem.
 Flora: Mangrove species, casuarinas, and
grasses like the indigo bush.
 Fauna: Bhitarkanika has one of the largest
populations of endangered saltwater
crocodiles in India.
 The Gahirmatha Beach, which forms the
boundary of the park in the east, is the
27
 largest colony of the Olive Ridley Sea
Turtles.
 Other mammals include monkeys, jackals,
common langurs, otter, sambar deer,
jungle cats, fox, Mongoose, wolfs, fishing
cats, hyenas, etc.
79. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Agni Missile system of India:
I. It has been developed under the
Integrated Guided Missile Development
Programme of DRDO.
II. Agni II is an intermediate range surface-to-
surface nuclear-capable missile.
III. Agni V is a canister launch solid fuelled
Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) I and III only 2) II only
3) I and II only 4) I, II and III
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 It has been developed under the Integrated
Guided Missile Development Programme
of DRDO. Hence statement I is correct.
 Agni II is an intermediate range surface-to-
surface nuclear-capable missile. It is a two-
stage, solid-fuelled, medium-range ballistic
missile (MRBM) with a range of 2,000–
3,500 kilometres. It has a payload capacity
of 1,000 kilograms and a flight ceiling of
405 kilometres. Hence statement II is
correct.
 Agni-V (Fire) is a land based nuclear
capable intercontinental ballistic
missile that has a range of more than 7,000
81.
kilometres. Hence statement III is correct.
80. Consider the following statements with
respect to ‘Kavach System’
I. It is an indigenously developed Automatic
Train Protection (ATP) system developed
by the Research Design and Standards
Organisation
II. It is a set of electronic devices and Radio
Frequency Identification devices installed
in locomotives as well the tracks which
communicate through ultra-high radio
frequencies
III. The system can alert the loco pilot, take
control of the brakes and bring the train to
AMIGOS IAS
a halt automatically when it notices
another train on the same line
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II 2) I and III
3) II and III 4) I, II and III
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 Kavach System is an indigenously
developed Automatic Train Protection
(ATP) system. Kavach was developed by the
Research Design and Standards
Organisation (RDSO) under Indian Railway
(IR) in collaboration with Medha Servo
Drives Pvt Ltd, HBL Power Systems Ltd and
Kernex Microsystems. Hence statement I is
correct.
 It is a set of electronic devices and Radio
Frequency Identification devices installed
in locomotives, in the signalling system as
well the tracks, that talk to each other using
ultrahigh radio frequencies to control the
brakes of trains and also alert drivers, all
based on the logic programmed into them.
Hence statement II is correct.
 The system can alert the loco pilot, take
control of the brakes and bring the train to
a halt automatically when it notices
another train on the same line within a
prescribed distance. The device also
continuously relays the signals ahead to
the locomotive, making it useful for loco
pilots in low visibility. Hence statement III
is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding
Light Combat Aircraft Tejas Mk2
I. It’s mission endurance for fighting a war is
300 minutes
II. It is specifically designed to carry only air-
to-air weapons.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 The Tejas Mk2 is a fighter aircraft
developed in India that can carry eight
Beyond-Visual-Range (BVR)missiles
28
 simultaneously. It is an upgraded version of
the LCA Tejas Mk1, which has improved
range and mission endurance. The mission
endurance for fighting a war was 57
minutes for LCA Tejas Mk1, but it is 120
minutes for LCA Tejas Mk2. Hence
statement I is incorrect.
 The Light Combat Aircraft is designed
to carry only air-to-air, air-to-surface,
precision-guided, weapons. It has the air-
to-air refuelling capability. Hence
statement II is incorrect.
82. Consider the following statements with
respect to ‘Varunastra’
I. It is ship launched thermally-propelled
anti-submarine torpedo capable of
targeting quiet submarines
II. The torpedo’s guidance system uses
active-passive acoustic homing and
GPS/NavIC satellite guidance
III. It was designed and manufactured by
Naval Science and Technological
Laboratory (NSTL) under the Defence
Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO)
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II 2) II only
3) I and III 4) I, II and III
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 Varunastra is a ship launched, heavy
weight, electrically propelled anti-
submarine torpedo capable of targeting
quiet submarines, both in deep and
shallow waters in an intense counter-
measures environment. Hence statement I
is incorrect.
 The torpedo’s guidance system uses active-
passive acoustic homing, wire guidance,
and GPS/NavIC satellite guidance.
Weighing around 1.5 tonnes, it can carry a
250 kg (550 lb) high-explosive warhead and
has a maximum operating depth of 600
metres (2,000 ft). It has long range with
multi manoeuvring capabilities. Hence
statement II is correct.
 It was designed and developed by Vizag-
based Naval Science and Technological
Laboratory (NSTL) under the Defence
AMIGOS IAS
Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO) and is manufactured by Bharat
Dynamics Ltd (BDL). Hence statement III is
incorrect.
83. With reference to ‘Air Independent
Propulsion (AIP) System’ used in submarines,
consider the following statements
I. Statement 1: It allows the submarines to
stay in water by eliminating the need to
come to the surface of the water to charge
their batteries
II. Statement 2: AIP systems generate
electricity, which in turn drives an electric
motor for propulsion or recharges the
boat’s batteries
Which one of the following is correct with
respect to the above statements?
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
3) Statement-I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
4) Statement -I is incorrect but Statement -II
is correct
Answer:4
Explanation:
 AIP system allows the submarines to stay
for longer hours in water. The submarines
need to come to the surface of the water to
charge their batteries. This is reduced by
AIP System. It decreases the noise levels
made by the submarines. This makes it
hard to detect the submarines. Hence
statement I is incorrect.
 AIP is mostly implemented as an auxiliary
source, with the traditional diesel engine
handling surface propulsion. Most of these
systems generate electricity, which in turn
drives an electric motor for propulsion or
recharges the boat’s batteries. AIP allows
longer submergence than a conventionally
propelled submarine. Hence statement II is
correct.
84. ‘Raccoon Stealer’ seen in news recently is
related to
1) Phishing software 2) Spoofing
3) DNS tunnelling 4) Malware
29
 Answer: 4  Hence statement I is incorrect.
Explanation:  States can declare areas adjacent to
Raccoon Stealer is a kind of malware that National parks and Sanctuaries
steals various data from an infected computer. as Conservation Reserve, for protecting
It is a classic example of information-stealing flora and fauna, and their habitat. Hence
malware, which cybercriminals typically use to statement II is correct.
gain possession of sensitive data saved in  It entrusts the Chief Wildlife Warden to
users’ browsers and cryptocurrency wallets. control and maintain all sanctuaries in a
Like most info-stealers, Raccoon Stealer is state. The Chief Wildlife Warden
purchasable. is appointed by the state. Hence
85. Consider the following statements regarding statement III is correct.
the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of  For general violations (increases to Rs
2022 1,00,000 from Rs25,000) and specially
I. The number of schedules has been protected animals (increases to 25,000
increased from four to six. from Rs 10,000).
II. States can declare areas adjacent to  People possessing live specimens of
national parks as a conservation reserves. scheduled animals must obtain a
III. It entrusts the Chief Wildlife Warden to registration certificate from the
control and maintain all sanctuaries in a Management Authority.
state.  It provides to voluntarily surrender any
IV. It provides to voluntarily surrender any captive animals, without any
captive animals, without any compensation. Hence statement IV is correct.
compensation. 86. Consider the following statements about
Which of the above given statements are Supercapacitors
correct? I. Supercapacitors are electronic devices
1) I, III and IV 2) II, III and IV which are used to store extremely large
3) I, II and III 4) I, II, III and IV amounts of electrical charge.
Answer: 2 II. Supercapacitor has high power density and
Explanation: long durability compared to Lithium-Ion
 The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act batteries.
of 2022 seeks to conserve and protect Which of the above given statements is/are
wildlife through better management of correct?
protected areas 1) I only 2) I and II
and rationalise schedules that list out 3) II only 4) Neither I nor II
species under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, Answer: 2
of 1972. Explanation:
 The number of schedules has been  Capacitors, while storing electric charge for
decreased from six in the Wildlife much longer, cannot discharge energy
(Protection) Act, of 1972 to four. constantly.
Animal species that will enjoy  Supercapacitors overcomes these
Schedule I
the highest level of protection shortfalls by combining the properties of
Animal species that will be capacitors and batteries into one device.
Schedule II subject to a lesser degree of  Supercapacitors - Supercapacitors are
protection electronic devices which are used to store
extremely large amounts of electrical
Schedule III Protected Plant species
charge.
Specimens listed in the  It has significant advantages such as high-
Schedule IV Appendices under CITES power density, long durability, and
(scheduled specimens) ultrafast charging characteristics as

AMIGOS IAS 30
 compared to conventional capacitors and
Lithium-Ion batteries (LIB).
Hence both the statements are correct.
87. Consider the following statements
I. The Kuiper Belt is a region of the solar
system that exists beyond the inner
planets, extending from the orbit of
Jupiter.
II. The Asteroid Belt has the maximum
number of known asteroids and is found
between Mars and Jupiter in the solar
system.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 The Kuiper Belt is a region of the solar
system that exists beyond the eight major
planets, extending from the orbit of
Neptune. Hence, statement I is incorrect.
 The Asteroid Belt has the maximum
number of known asteroids and is
found between Mars and Jupiter in the
solar system. Hence, statement II is
correct.
88. Consider the following statements about the
‘Large Hadron Collider (LHC)’
I. It is a giant, complex machine built to study
particles that are the smallest known
building blocks of all things.
II. In its operational state, it fires two beams
of electrons almost at the speed of light in
opposite directions inside a ring of
superconducting electromagnets.
III. ATLAS is the largest general-purpose
particle detector experiment at the LHC.
IV. In the LHC’s first run, the Higgs boson was
discovered.
Choose the correct code:
1) I and II 2) III and IV
3) II, III and IV 4) I, III and IV
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 The Large Hadron Collider is a giant,
complex machine built to study particles
that are the smallest known building blocks
of all things. It is the world’s most powerful
AMIGOS IAS
particle collider. Hence, statement I is
correct.
 In its operational state, it fires two beams
of protons almost at the speed of light in
opposite directions inside a ring of
superconducting electromagnets. The
magnetic field created by the
superconducting electromagnets keeps the
protons in a tight beam and guides them
along the way as they travel through beam
pipes and finally collide.
 Just before the collision, another type of
magnet is used to ‘squeeze’ the particles
closer together to increase the chances of
collisions. The particles are so tiny that the
task of making them collide is akin to firing
two needles 10 km apart with such
precision that they meet halfway. Hence,
statement II is incorrect.
 ATLAS is the largest general-purpose
particle detector experiment at the
LHC. Hence, statement III is correct.
 In the LHC’s first run, the Higgs boson was
discovered. The Higgs boson is the
fundamental particle associated with
the Higgs field, a field that gives mass
to other fundamental particles such
as electrons and quarks. Hence, statement
IV is correct.
89. Consider the following statements regarding
the NASA’s Space Missions
1. Artemis I is a crewed space mission to the
satellite moon.
2. Perseverance Rover is a space mission to
planet Mars.
3. Messenger is a space mission to planet
Mercury.
4. Mariner 2 is a space mission to planet
Venus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) Only One 2) Only Two
3) Only Three 4) All Four
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 The National Aeronautics and Space
Administration (NASA) is an independent
agency of the executive branch of the
United States federal government
responsible for the civilian space program,
as well as aeronautics and aerospace
31
 research. It was established under the
National Aeronautics and Space Act of
1958 and is headquartered in Washington,
DC, USA
 Artemis I is an uncrewed space mission to
the moon. Hence, statement I is incorrect.
 Perseverance Rover is a space mission to
Mars. Hence, statement II is correct.
 Messenger is a space mission
to Mercury. Hence, statement III is
correct.
 Mariner 2 is a space mission
to Venus. Hence, statement IV is correct.
90. Consider the following statements
I. Unlike normal matter, dark matter does
not absorb, reflect or emit light, making it
extremely hard to spot.
II. The dark matter is more in abundance as
compared to the dark energy in the
universe
III. While dark matter attracts and holds
galaxies together, dark energy repels and
causes the expansion of the universe.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II 2) I and III
3) II and III 4) I, II and III
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 Dark matter is made up of particles that do
not interact through electromagnetic
interactions i.e. they do not have any
charge. So, these are dark particles,
namely because they do not emit light,
which is an electromagnetic phenomenon,
and matter because they possess mass like
normal matter and hence interact through
gravity. Dark energy is an unknown form of
energy that affects the universe on the
largest scales. The first observational
evidence for its existence came
from measurements of supernovae, which
showed that the universe does not expand
at a constant rate and rather, the
expansion of the universe is
accelerating. Hence, statement I is correct.
 The universe is made of about 27% dark
matter and 68% dark energy. Hence,
statement II is incorrect.
AMIGOS IAS
 While dark matter attracts and holds
galaxies together, dark energy repels and
causes the expansion of the
universe. Hence, statement III is correct.
91. Consider the following statements
I. Space debris refers to man-made objects
in Earth’s orbit that no longer serve a
useful purpose.
II. Project NETRA is an early warning system
in space launched by the Indian Space
Research Organisation to detect debris
and other hazards to Indian satellites.
III. Kessler Syndrome refers to a
phenomenon where humans on earth
might get physically hurt by increasing
density of space debris
IV. European Space Agency has launched
the Clean Space initiative, aimed at
reducing the amount of space debris.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and II 2) II, III and IV
3) I, II and IV 4) I, II and III
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 Space debris refers to man-made objects in
Earth’s orbit that no longer serve a useful
purpose. This includes defunct satellites,
spent rocket stages, and fragments of
debris from collisions or other events. Of
known and tracked space junk 70 percent
is in low-Earth orbit, which extends about
1,250 miles (2,000 km) above the Earth’s
surface. Hence, statement I is correct.
 Project NETRA is an early warning system
in space launched by the Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO) to detect
debris and other hazards to Indian
satellites.
 ISRO has also set up a Centre for Space
Debris Research to monitor and mitigate
the threat of space debris and the System
for Safe and Sustainable Operations
Management (IS 4 OM) to continually
monitor objects posing collision threats,
predict the evolution of space debris, and
mitigate the risk posed by space
debris. Hence, statement II is correct.
 The Kessler syndrome (also called the
Kessler effect,[1][2] collisional cascading,
32
 or ablation cascade), proposed by NASA
scientist Donald J. Kessler in 1978, is a
scenario in which the density of objects in
low Earth orbit (LEO) due to space pollution
is high enough that collisions between
objects could cause a cascade in which
each collision generates space debris that
increases the likelihood of further
collisions. Hence, statement III is
incorrect.
 The European Space Agency has launched
the Clean Space initiative, aimed at
reducing the amount of space debris.
Hence, statement IV is correct.
92. Consider the following statements
I. Exoplanets are the planets that orbit stars
other than sun and are beyond our solar
system.
II. LHS 475 b is a new terrestrial rocky
exoplanet discovered recently by the
Indian Space Research Organisation.
III. Exoplanets cannot be seen directly through
telescopes from the Earth due to their
distance
IV. The study of exoplanets helps in
determining the habitable zone of the
discovered space.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I, III and IV 2) II, III and IV
3) I, II and III 4) I, II, III and IV
Answer:1
Explanation:
 Exoplanets are planets that orbit other
stars and are beyond our solar
system. They come in a host of different
sizes. They can be gas giants bigger than
Jupiter or as small and rocky as Earth. They
are also known to have different kinds of
temperatures from boiling hot to freezing
cold. Hence, statement I is correct.
 LHS 475 b is a new terrestrial rocky
exoplanet discovered by the National
Aeronautics and Space Administration
(NASA). It is roughly the same size as
Earth, its diameter is 99% the same as
Earth. LHS 475 b is about 41 light-years
away from Earth in the constellation
Octans and differs from the Earth in that it
completes an orbit in just two days and is
AMIGOS IAS
hundreds of degrees hotter than Earth.
According to NASA, more than 5,000
exoplanets have been discovered. Hence,
statement II is incorrect.
 Exoplanets cannot be seen directly through
telescopes from the Earth because they are
hidden by the bright glare of the stars they
orbit. So, scientists rely on indirect
methods, such as the transit method,
which is measuring the dimming of a star
that happens to have a planet pass in front
of it, and gravitational microlensing in
which light from a distant star is bent
and focused by gravity as a planet passes
between the star and Earth. Hence,
statement III is correct.
 The study of exoplanets helps in
determining the habitable zone of the
discovered space and helps us piece
together information about our planetary
system and origin. Hence, statement IV is
correct.
93. Consider the following statements about
the Indian Data Relay Satellite System
(IDRSS)
I. It helps to track and be constantly in touch
with Indian satellites, in particular to those
in the low earth orbits.
II. Currently, only the US and Russia have
their own data relay satellite systems.
Which of the above given statement is/are
incorrect?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 The Indian Data Relay Satellite System
(IDRSS) helps to track and be constantly in
touch with Indian satellites, in particular
those in low-earth orbits. It is an Indian
geostationary data relay satellite system
consisting of two geostationary satellites.
IDRSS will facilitate the relay of information
between various Indian spacecraft, in-flight
launch vehicle monitoring, and assist
Indian Human Spaceflight
Programme. Hence, statement I is correct.
 Currently, the US, Russia, China, and
Europe have their data relay
satellites. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
33
94. Consider the following statements about the
Hyperspectral Imaging Satellite (HysIS)
I. It was launched by the Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO) to study the
atmosphere of Earth.
II. Its primary goal is to study the Earth’s
surface in visible, near-infrared, and
shortwave infrared regions of the
electromagnetic spectrum.
Which of the above given statement is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 The Hyperspectral Imaging Satellite
(HysIS) was launched by the Indian Space
Research Organisation. Hence, statement I
is correct.
 Its primary goal is to study the Earth’s
surface in visible, near-infrared, and
shortwave infrared regions of the
electromagnetic spectrum. It can see in 55
spectral or colour bands from 630 km
above the ground. Hyperspectral imaging
allows the distinct identification of objects,
materials, or processes on Earth by reading
the spectrum for each pixel of a scene from
space. It can be highly useful in marking out
a suspect object or person and separating
it from the background. This could aid in
detecting transborder or other stealthy
movements. Hence, statement II is
correct.
95. Consider the following statements regarding
Artificial insemination and In Vitro
Fertilization:
I. In Vitro Fertilization technique introduces
previously selected semen into the
woman’s uterus that has been prepared
by stimulating ovulation.
II. Artificial insemination technique consists
of retrieving a woman’s eggs to be
fertilised in the laboratory.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 4
AMIGOS IAS
Explanation:
 IVF is a complex process that involves
retrieving eggs from ovaries and manually
combining them with sperm in a lab for
fertilization. Hence statement I is
incorrect.
 Artificial insemination technique
introduces previously selected semen into
the woman’s uterus that has been
prepared by stimulating ovulation. Hence
statement II is incorrect.
96. Consider the following statements regarding
‘SANDES’:
I. It is an instant messaging platform on the
lines of WhatsApp.
II. It allows a user to mark a message as
confidential, this safety feature makes the
message unshakeable with others.
III. It is developed by the National Informatics
Centre under the aegis of the Ministry of
Science and Technology.
Which of the given above is/are correct?
1) I only 2) III only
3) I and III only 4) I, II and III
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 SANDES is an instant messaging platform
on the lines of WhatsApp. Hence
statement I is correct.
 It allows a user to mark a message as
confidential, which will allow the recipient
to be made aware that the message should
not be shared with others. The confidential
tag, however, does not change the way the
message is sent from one user to another.
Hence statement II is incorrect.
 It is developed by the National Informatics
Centre under the aegis of the Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology.
Hence statement III is correct.
97. Consider the following statements with
reference to ‘Internet of Things (IoT)’:
 IoT generally refers to scenarios where
network connectivity and computing
capability extends to objects, sensors and
everyday items.
 IoT devices and services can serve potential
entry points for cyber-attack and expose
user-data to theft.
34
  IoT amplifies concerns about the potential
for increased surveillance and tracking.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1) I and II only 2) II and III only
3) III only 4) I, II and III
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 The Internet of Things (IoT) is a system of
physical objects that are connected to the
internet and can exchange data with other
devices and systems. These objects can
range from household items to industrial
tools.
 IoT is the interlinking of digital devices,
people, machines, appliances, and other
objects with one another through wireless
networks.
 It allows machines and people to be
connected to each other and communicate
as well.
 It is considered the future of the internet.
This version of the internet is about data
that is created by things.
 IoT devices and services can serve potential
entry points for cyber-attack and expose
user-data to theft. IoT amplifies concerns
about the potential for increased
surveillance and tracking.
Hence all three statements are correct.
98. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Anti-microbial resistance:
I. It is a gain of susceptibility of bacteria to
the killing properties of an antibiotic
agent.
II. It may result in the formation of super
bugs.
Which of the following statement is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 Antibiotic resistance is a loss of
susceptibility of bacteria to the killing or
growth-inhibiting properties of an
antibiotic agent. Hence statement I is
incorrect.
AMIGOS IAS
 It may result in the formation of super
bugs.
 A superbug is usually defined as a
microorganism that’s resistant to
commonly used antibiotics. Hence
statement II is correct.
99. Which of the following statements correctly
explains the mechanism of Pascal's law in
physics?
1) Pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is
distributed equally in all directions.
2) The density of a fluid increases with depth.
3) The flow rate of a fluid is inversely
proportional to its viscosity.
4) Buoyant force on an object is equal to the
weight of the displaced fluid.
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 Pascal's Law, also known as Pascal's
Principle, is a fundamental principle in fluid
mechanics. It states that when pressure is
applied to an enclosed fluid in a confined
space, the resulting increase in pressure is
transmitted equally in all directions within
the fluid. This means that if you push or
apply pressure to one part of the fluid, that
pressure is not localized; instead, it
propagates uniformly throughout the
entire fluid volume. This principle is the
reason hydraulic systems work efficiently.
 For example, in a hydraulic car brake
system, a small force applied to the brake
pedal creates pressure in the brake fluid,
which is then transmitted to all parts of the
brake system. As a result, the brake
callipers can apply a strong force to the
brake pads, allowing the vehicle to stop
effectively. Pascal's Law is essential in
various applications, including hydraulic
machinery, lift systems, and many other
engineering and industrial processes that
rely on the transmission of force through
fluids.
100. Consider the following statements
Statement I: DNA is responsible for controlling
the hereditary characteristics of living cells.
Statement II: It is because it performs the
function of storing and transferring genetic
information.
35
 Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct and Statement II is the correct
explanation for Statement I
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct and Statement II is not the correct
explanation for Statement I
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect ·
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 DNA is responsible for storing and
transferring genetic information while RNA
directly codes for amino acids and acts as a
messenger between DNA and ribosomes to
make proteins. However, studies showed
that RNA replaces DNA in some viruses like
Tobacco Mosaic virus, QB bacteriophage,
etc. So, not every organism has DNA as its
hereditary material, some have RNA. But
DNA is the predominant one and in the
majority of higher-level organisms, RNA
plays the role of a messenger.
 DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is a
molecule that plays a fundamental role in
controlling the hereditary characteristics of
living cells. This hereditary control is
achieved through a complex interplay of
genetic information encoded in the DNA
molecule.
101. Which of the following technologies is used
for creating a 'three-parent baby' for the
prevention of mitochondrial diseases in
offspring?
1) RNA interference
2) IVF technique
3) Recombinant DNA technology
4) Pronuclear Transfer
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 Pronuclear transfer, also known as
mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT),
is a specialized reproductive technique
used to prevent the transmission of certain
mitochondrial diseases from mother to
child. This procedure involves the
manipulation of the pronuclei, which are
AMIGOS IAS
the nuclei of the sperm and egg, in the early
stages of embryo development.
'Pronuclear Transfer' is a human
reproductive technology, which is used for
creating a 'three-parent baby' for the
prevention of mitochondrial diseases in
offspring. The technique involves
intervening in the fertilization process to
remove faulty mitochondria which can
cause fatal heart problems, liver failure,
brain disorders, blindness, muscular
dystrophy etc.
 The treatment is known as 'three-parent'
IVF because the babies born from
genetically modified embryos would have
DNA from a mother, a father and a woman
donor.
102. Which country has launched a 'sniffing robot'
for early detection of diseases and improving
security checks?
1) India 2) Australia
3) Russia 4) Israel
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 Scientists from Israel have developed a
sniffing robot which is equipped with a
biological sensor.
 The robot uses the antennae of a locust to
diagnose disease and improve security
checks.
 Locust’s smell with their antennae. The
scientists will use the locust’s antennae to
hone the computer’s scent detection
abilities.
 This could help advance disease diagnosis
and improve security checks.
103. Consider the following statements about
Multimodal Artificial Intelligence (AI)
I. It refers to the integration of multiple
modes of information or sensory data to
facilitate human-like reasoning and
decision-making.
II. Gemini is a multimodal large language
model being developed by the OpenAI.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 1
36
 Explanation:
 The multimodal model artificial intelligence
refers to the integration of multiple modes
of information or sensory data to facilitate
human-like reasoning and decision-
making.
 It revolutionizes the way AI systems
process and interpret information by
seamlessly integrating various sensory
modalities.
 Multimodal systems allow users to engage
with AI in several ways. Unlike
conventional Al models, which focus on a
single data type, multimodal Al systems
have the capability to simultaneously
comprehend and utilize data from diverse
sources such as text, images, audio, and
video. Hence statement I is correct.
 Gemini is multimodal large language model
being developed by the google. Gobi is
multimodal AI being developed by the
OpenAI. Hence statement II is incorrect.
104. Consider the following statements about
Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System
(IGMS) 2.0
I. The IGMS 2.0 is a major upgradation of
Centralised Public Grievance Redress and
Monitoring System portal with artificial
intelligence and machine learning
capabilities.
II. Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System
(IGMS) 2.0 is implemented by IIT Kanpur.
Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 The IGMS 2.0 is a major upgradation of
Centralised Public Grievance Redress and
Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) portal with
artificial intelligence (AI) and machine
learning (ML) capabilities.
 The Dashboard provides instant tabular
analysis of Grievances Filed & Disposed,
State-wise & District-wise Grievances Filed
& Ministry-wise data. The Dashboard will
also help the officials identify the root
cause of the grievance.
AMIGOS IAS
 IGMS2.0 Dashboard has been
implemented by IIT Kanpur. CPGRAMS is an
online platform available to the citizens
24x7 to lodge their grievances to the public
authorities on any subject related to
service delivery. It is a single portal
connected to all the
Ministries/Departments of Government of
India and States. Every Ministry and States
have role-based access to this system.
 CPGRAMS is also accessible to the citizens
through standalone mobile application
downloadable through Google Play store
and mobile application integrated with
UMANG.
Hence both the statements are correct.
105. Consider the following statements about
Continuously Operating Reference Stations
(CORS) Network
I. It provides precise Location based services,
which are capable of providing centimetre
level positioning services in real-time.
II. These stations are operated by the Survey
of India, the National Survey and Mapping
Organization of the country, under
Ministry of Science & Technology.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 It is capable of precise Location based
services, which are capable of providing
centimetre level positioning services in
real-time These stations are capable of
providing Real Time Positioning Service
through Real Time-Kinematic with an
accuracy of + / - 3cm. The CORS network is
available 24 /7 throughout the year.
Significance CORS based precision services
will boost auto navigation and machine
control-based solution in Agriculture,
Mining, Construction, Transport and Civil
Aviation sector.
 This will open new domains of innovation
and research and create a Geospatial based
ecosystem in these sectors. CORS data will
also aid in various scientific studies like
Upper Atmosphere and Space weather
37
 studies, Meteorology and weather
forecast, Plate motion and Tectonic
studies, Seismology and Hydrology etc.
 These stations will be operated by the
Survey of India. The Survey of India has set
up more than 1,000 CORS stations across
India. Survey of India It is the National
Survey and Mapping Organization of the
country under the Department of Science
& Technology, Ministry of Science &
Technology.
 It is the oldest scientific department of
India. It was set up in 1767 and has evolved
rich traditions over the years It is assigned
the role as the nation's Principal Mapping
Agency, Survey of India bears a special
responsibility to ensure that the country's
domain is explored and mapped suitably.
Hence both the statements are correct.
106. Consider the following statements about
NISAR
I. NISAR is a Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
observatory jointly developed by NASA
and ISRO.
II. NISAR is the first satellite mission to use
two different radar frequencies to
measure changes in our planet's surface.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer:3
Explanation:
 NISAR is a Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
observatory jointly developed by NASA and
ISRO. It is an SUV-size satellite weighing
2,800 kilograms. NASA has provided the L-
band radar, GPS, a high-capacity solid-state
recorder to store data, and a payload data
subsystem. ISRO has provided the S-band
radar, the GSLV launch system, and
spacecraft.
 It will measure Earth’s changing
ecosystems, dynamic surfaces, and ice
masses, providing information about
biomass, natural hazards, sea level rise,
and groundwater. NISAR will observe
Earth’s land and ice-covered surfaces
globally with 12-day regularity on
ascending and descending passes.
AMIGOS IAS
 It consists of both L-band and S-band
synthetic aperture radar (SAR)
instruments, which makes it a dual-
frequency imaging radar satellite. NISAR
will be the first satellite mission to use two
different radar frequencies (L-band and S-
band) to measure changes in our planet's
surface. SAR is capable of penetrating
clouds and can collect data day and night
regardless of the weather conditions.
 It also consists of a large 39-foot stationary
antenna reflector made of a gold-plated
wire mesh which will be used to focus “the
radar signals emitted and received by the
upward-facing feed on the instrument
structure.
Hence both the statements are correct.
107. With reference to ‘Navigation with Indian
Constellation (NavIC)’, consider the following
statements
Statement 1: It is global navigation satellite
system developed by ISRO.
Statement 2: It comprises 7 satellites, three in
geostationary and four in inclined
geosynchronous orbits.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
3) Statement-I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
4) Statement -I is incorrect but Statement -II
is correct
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 Navigation with Indian Constellation
(NavIC) To meet the positioning, navigation
and timing requirements of the nation,
ISRO has established a regional navigation
satellite system called Navigation with
Indian Constellation (NavIC). NavIC was
erstwhile known as Indian Regional
Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS).
 NavIC is designed with a constellation of 7
satellites and a network of ground stations
operating 24 x 7. Three satellites of the
38
 constellation are placed in geostationary
orbit, and four satellites are placed in
inclined geosynchronous orbit.
 NavIC offers two services: Standard
Position Service (SPS) for civilian users and
Restricted Service (RS) for strategic users.
NavIC coverage area includes India and a
region up to 1500 km beyond Indian
boundary.
 NavIC signals are designed to provide user
position accuracy better than 20m and
timing accuracy better than 50ns. NavIC
SPS signals are interoperable with the
other global navigation satellite system
(GNSS) signals namely GPS, Glonass,
Galileo and BeiDou.
108. Consider the following statements with
reference to ‘SARAS 3’
I. It is an x-ray telescope to observe
luminous galaxies.
II. It is developed by Indian Space Research
Organization.
Which of the above given statements is/are
incorrect?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer:3
Explanation:
 SARAS aims to design, build and deploy in
India a precision radio telescope to detect
extremely faint radio wave signals from the
depths of time, from our “Cosmic Dawn”
when the first stars and galaxies formed in
the early Universe. Hence statement I is
incorrect.
 SARAS is a niche high-risk high-gain
experimental effort of Raman Research
Institute (RRI) The RRI is an autonomous
research institute engaged in research in
basic sciences. The institute was founded in
1948 by the Indian physicist and Nobel
Laureate Sir C V Raman. Hence statement
II is incorrect.
109. Consider the following statements about
Dhruvastra Missile
I. It is a long-range surface-to-surface
helicopter-launched anti-tank guided
missile (ATGM) system.
AMIGOS IAS
II. The fire and forget missile have a
minimum range of 500 metres and a
maximum range of 7 kilometres.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer:2
Explanation:
 It is a helicopter-launched anti-tank guided
missile (ATGM) system. It is a short-range
air-to-surface missile. It was indigenously
developed by the Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO). Hence
statement I is incorrect.
 It is equipped with Imaging Infra-Red (IIR)
seeker and operates in “lock on before
launch” mode. The fire and forget missile
have a minimum range of 500 metres and
a maximum range of 7 kilometres.
 It can be launched from an altitude of up to
4 kilometres and can hit targets moving at
speeds of up to 70 kilometres per hour. The
missile can engage targets both in direct hit
mode as well as top attack mode. It works
in all kinds of weather, during the day or
night, and in various types of terrain, such
as deserts, plains, hills and forests. Hence
statement II is correct.
110. ‘Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS)’
recently seen in news is a mission of
1) European Space Agency
2) National Aeronautics and Space
Administration (NASA)
3) Canadian Space Agency
4) Indian Space Research Organisation
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS) is
a NASA mission to discover exoplanets around
nearby bright stars. TESS circles Earth in a
unique high Earth orbit of 12 to 15 days, which
is inclined in a way that the telescope’s sky
view is largely free from obstructions by our
bright planet and the Moon. The prime
mission ended on July 4, 2020, and TESS is now
on an extended mission. TESS is finding
planets ranging from small, rocky worlds to
giant planets, showcasing the diversity of
planets in the galaxy.
39
111. Consider the following statements about e-
Sanjivani
I. It is a telemedicine app that provides both
doctor-to-doctor and doctor-to-patient
telecommunication.
II. It is designed and developed by The
Centre for Development and Advanced
Computing (C-DAC).
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 It is a cloud-based integrated telemedicine
solution of the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare, Govt. of India. It is a
telemedicine app that provides both
doctor-to-doctor and doctor to-patient
telecommunication. Hence statement I is
correct.
 It is being designed, developed, deployed,
and maintained by The Centre for
Development and Advanced Computing
(CDAC), Mohali. Hence statement II is
correct
Two modules of eSanjeevani:
 eSanjeevani AB-HWC: The doctor-to-
doctor telemedicine platform, being
implemented at all the Health and
Wellness Centres (HWCs) in the country
under the Ayushman Bharat (AB) Scheme
of Government of India.
 It operates on a Hub-and-Spoke model
wherein the ‘Ayushman Bharat-Health and
Wellness Centres’ (HWCs) are set up at the
state level, which is connected with the
hub (comprising MBBS/ Specialty/Super-
Specialty doctors) at the zonal level.
 eSanjeevani OPD: It is the Patient-to-
Doctor remote consultation services rolled
out in 2020 amid the first lockdown
imposed to fight the Covid-19 pandemic,
while the Outpatient Departments (OPDs)
in the country were closed. It enables
people to get outpatient services in the
confines of their homes.
112. Neerakshi, recently seen in news is related
to?
1) Autonomous Underwater Vehicle (AUV)
AMIGOS IAS
2) Unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) of Indian
Air force
3) Air Defence Fire Control Radar by DRDO
4) A supercomputer by CSIR
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 ‘Neerakshi’ designed for mine detection
(currently in the prototype stage)
Developed by: Garden Reach Shipbuilders
and Engineers (GRSE) Ltd and AEPL, an
MSME entity.
 Features: 2.1-meter-long cylindrical AUV,
weighing around 45 kg, can perform
various tasks such as mine detection,
disposal, and underwater surveys. It has
an endurance of four hours and a depth
of up to 300 meters, making it a versatile
tool for ensuring coastal safety and
protection.
113. Consider the following statements
I. Aditya L1 is the first space-based Indian
mission to study the Sun.
II. The spacecraft shall be placed in a halo
orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of
the Sun-Earth system.
III. Lagrange points are specific locations in
space where the gravitational forces of
two large bodies produce enhanced
regions of gravitational equilibrium.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I and III 2) I and II
3) II and III 4) I, II and III
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 Aditya L1 is the first space-based Indian
mission to study the Sun. It will be launched
by the PSLV-XL launch vehicle. The
spacecraft shall be placed in a halo orbit
around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the
Sun-Earth system, which is about 1.5
million km from the Earth.
 A satellite placed in the halo orbit around
the L1 point has the major advantage of
continuously viewing the Sun without any
occultation/eclipses. This will provide a
greater advantage in observing solar
activities and their effect on space weather
in real-time.
40
  Lagrangian points, also known as Lagrange
points or libration points, are specific
locations in space where the gravitational
forces of two large bodies, such as a planet
and its moon or a planet and the Sun,
produce enhanced regions of gravitational
equilibrium. In these points, the
gravitational pull from the two bodies
creates a stable or quasi-stable region
where a third, smaller object can maintain
a relatively constant position relative to the
larger bodies. There are five primary
Lagrangian points, labeled L1 through L5, in
a Sun-Earth system.
Hence all the three statements are correct.
114. NIDHI Program, recently seen in news is an
initiative of which of the following ministry?
1) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises
2) Ministry of Finance
3) Ministry of Science and Technology
4) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 National Initiative for Developing and
Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI) is an end-
to-end plan for startups to double the
number of incubators and startups in the
duration of five years.
 Objectives:
 Promote S&T-based entrepreneurship and
startup ecosystem across the country
Nurture start-ups through scouting,
supporting, and scaling innovations
Components
 NIDHI-Entrepreneur in Residence (EIR):
Inspires graduating students to pursue
entrepreneurship through fellowships
 NIDHI-Promotion and Acceleration of
Young and Aspiring Technology
Entrepreneurs (PRAYAS): Supports
innovators and startups from Idea to
Prototype stage
 NIDHI-Inclusive-Technology Business
Incubator (iTBI): Expands incubation
programs to various geographies and
genders
AMIGOS IAS
 NIDHI-Technology Business Incubator
(TBI): Supports and nurtures knowledge-
driven innovative start-ups
 NIDHI-Seed Support Program (SSP):
Provides early-stage funding to promising
start-ups
 NIDHI-Center of Excellence (CoE): Creates a
world-class facility to help startups go
global
 NIDHI-Accelerator: Accelerates startups
through focused interventions.
115. Consider the following statements with
respect to ‘Gene-edited mustard’
I. It is based on CRISPR/Cas9 gene editing
while being non-genetically modified
II. It is India’s first ever low pungent mustard
that is pest and disease resistant
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 CRISPR/Cas9 – a gene-editing tool
deploying an enzyme was used, which acts
as a “molecular scissors” to cut the DNA at
precise targeted locations of the gene, and
then letting the natural DNA repair process
to take over. The new GTR genes-edited
mustard lines are transgene-free or non-
genetically modified (GM). Hence
statement I is correct.
 Indian scientists have developed the first
ever low pungent mustard that is pest and
disease-resistant. Hence Statement II is
correct.
116. Consider the following statements about
Service Module Propulsion System (SMPS)
I. The service module of Gaganyaan is a
regulated tri-propellant based propulsion
system.
II. The SMPS helps in performing orbital
injection of the spacecraft during the
ascent phase.
Which of the above given statements is/are
incorrect?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
41
 Answer: 1
Explanation:
 The service module of Gaganyaan is a
regulated bipropellant-based propulsion
system. Hence statement I is incorrect.
 It caters to the requirements of the Orbital
Module, performing orbit injection,
circularisation, on-orbit control, de-boost
manoeuvring, and SM-based abort (if any)
during the ascent phase.
 The 440 N thrust LAM engines provide the
main propulsive force during the ascending
phase, while the RCS thrusters ensure
precise altitude correction.
 With the successful completion of the hot
test, the SMPS demonstrated its
performance in the full configuration.
Hence statement II is correct.
117. Consider the following statements with
respect to ‘GM (Genetically Modified) Crops’
1. It is made using a technology that involves
inserting DNA into the genome of an
organism
2. They are regulated under the provisions of
the Biodiversity Act, 2002
3. Bt cotton is the only genetically modified
(GM) crop that has been approved for
commercial cultivation by the
Government of India
How many of the statement(s) given above
are correct?
1) Only one 2) Only two
3) All three 4) None
Answer:3
Explanation:
 Genetic Modification is a technology that
involves inserting DNA into the genome of an
organism. To produce a GM plant, new DNA
is transferred into cells of a plant. These cells
are then grown in tissue culture where they
transform into plants. The seeds produced
by these plants will have new DNA. The most
common way of inserting is using gene guns
method.
 Environment Protection Act, 1986 (EPA),
Biological Diversity Act, 2002, Plant
Quarantine Order, 2003, GM policy under
Foreign Trade Policy, Food Safety and
Standards Act, 2006, Drugs and Cosmetics
AMIGOS IAS
Rule (8th Amendment), 1988 are the Acts
and Rules that regulate GM Crops in India.
 Bt cotton is the only genetically modified
(GM) crop that has been approved for
commercial cultivation in 2002 by the
Government of India. Long term studies
were conducted by ICAR on the impact of Bt
cotton which did not show any adverse
effect on soil, microflora and animal health.
 Hence all the three statements are correct.
118. ‘SAGAR SAMPARK’ recently seen in news is a
1) Maritime expedition
2) Differential navigation satellite system
3) Naval exercise
4) Security doctrine
Answer: 2
Explanation:
SAGAR SAMPARK is an indigenous Differential
Global Navigation Satellite System (DGNSS).
The Differential Global Navigation Satellite
System is a terrestrial based enhancement
system which corrects the errors and
inaccuracies in the Global Navigation Satellite
System (GNSS) allowing for more accurate
positioning information. Sagar Sampark at six
locations will assist the Director General of
Lighthouses and Lightships (DGLL) to provide
radio aids to ships for marine navigation. The
system will provide accurate information to
the ships for safe navigation and will reduce
the risk of collisions, groundings, and
accidents in the port and harbour areas.
119. Consider the following statements with
respect to ‘Chandrayaan-3 Mission’
I. It consists of three payloads comprising of
a lander, rover and an orbiter module
II. It aims to conduct in-situ scientific
experiments on the lunar surface
How many of the statement(s) given above
are correct?
1) I and II 2) II only
3) I only 4) None
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 Chandrayaan-3 is a planned third lunar
exploration mission by the Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO). It will consist
of a lander and a rover similar to
Chandrayaan-2, but would not have an
42
 orbiter. Its propulsion module will behave
like a communication relay satellite. The
propulsion module will carry the lander and
rover configuration until the spacecraft is in
a 100 km lunar orbit. Hence statement I is
incorrect.
 Chandrayaan-3 will have three major
objectives. One is to demonstrate safe and
soft landing on the surface of the moon.
The second is to demonstrate rover
operations on the moon. And the third
objective is to conduct in-situ scientific
experiments on the lunar surface. Hence
statement II is correct.
120. Consider the following statements with
respect to ‘CE-20 Cryogenic Engine’
I. It will power the Cryogenic Upper Stage of
the LVM3 launch vehicle for the
Chandrayaan-3 mission.
II. It is designed by the Liquid Propulsion
Systems Centre (LPSC)
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
1) I only 2) II only
3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 CE-20 cryogenic engine will power the
Cryogenic Upper Stage of the LVM3 launch
vehicle for the Chandrayaan-3 mission. The
high thrust cryogenic engine is the most
powerful upper stage cryogenic engine in
operational service. Hence statement I is
correct.
 It has been designed and developed by the
Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) a
subsidiary of ISRO. It is the first Indian
cryogenic engine to feature a gas-
generator cycle. Hence statement II is
correct.

AMIGOS IAS 43