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Certainly! Let's find the probability of drawing at least one white ball from the
given setup.
1. Probability of drawing at least one white ball (P(at least 1 white)):
We can approach this problem by considering the complementary event. The
probability of drawing at least one white ball is the same as the probability of
not drawing any white balls subtracted from 1.
● Step 1: Calculate the probability of drawing no white balls (P(no white)).
○ If no white balls are chosen, we can select k balls from the n black
balls in (n choose k) ways.
● Step 2: Calculate the total number of ways to choose k balls from the
combined set of m white and n black balls, which is (n + m choose k).
Therefore, the probability of drawing at least one white ball is:
[ P(\text{at least 1 white}) = 1 - P(\text{no white}) = 1 - \frac{{\binom{n}{k}}}{{\
binom{n+m}{k}}} ]
Now, let's simplify this expression:
[ P(\text{at least 1 white}) = 1 - \frac{{\binom{n}{k}}}{{\binom{n+m}{k}}} ]
Feel free to provide specific values for m, n, and k, and I'll compute the
probability accordingly! 🎱

Source(s)
1. Find the probability of drawing at least one white ball
2. Find the probability of drawing at least one white ball
3. Probability of getting at least 1 white ball
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