You are on page 1of 35

BATCH 8

BOARD EXAM TRIAL ON FORENSIC SCIENCE


Prepared by: Prof. Lyen Carel Garcia, June 2022 CLE Top 1

evidences found including the fingerprints of the three


PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION unidentified persons. If you are one of those three
persons whose fingerprints were found on the scene of
1. Four blocks after finger number 3 is ___.
the crime. What will be basis of the investigators in
a. Right little finger
case they will hold you as one of the responsible
b. Left middle finger
regarding the commission of the crime?
c. Left thumb
A. Principle of individuality
d. Left index Finger
B. Principle of permanency
C. Principle of infallibility
2. If all fingers are amputated or missing since birth, the
D. All of these
classification will be___.
a. W 32 M WWW/ W 32 M WWW
8. . It is said that the fingerprints of a person will be
b. M 32 M WWW/ M 32 M WWW
carried from womb to tomb. What principle greatly
c. M 32 W WWW/ M 32 W WWW
described the phrase?
d. M 32 W MMM/ M 32 W MMM
A. Principle of individuality
B. Principle of permanency
3. The word “forensic” came from the Latin word “forum”
C. Principle of infallibility
which literally means?
D. All of these
A. Market place
c. place of discussion
9. . It is said that the fingerprints of a person will be
B. Public
carried from womb to tomb. What principle greatly
d. legal
described the phrase?
A. Principle of individuality
4. What system of identification used earlier than the
B. Principle of permanency
fingerprint system, and is made by measuring various
C. Principle of infallibility
bony structure of human body developed by Alphonse
D. All of these
Bertillion?
A. Portrait Parle
10. Which of the following is not true about the value
B. Tattoo
or the importance of fingerprinting?
C. Anthropometry
A. Serve to provide evidence
D.Photography
B. prevent criminal substitution
C. help identify victims of calamities like crime
5. Who was that notorious gangster and a police
D. speedily identifying the perpetrator
character, who attempted to erase his fingerprints by
burning them with acid but as time went by the ridges
11. It is a kind of gait or manner of walking of a
were again restored to their “natural” feature.
person in which he/she walks in a swaying movement
A. Al Capone
due to knock-knee feet.
B. OJ Simpson
A. Ataxic Gait
C. John Dillinger
B. Cow’s Gait
D. Robert James Pitts
C. Spastic Gait
D. Paretic Gait
6. The greater the number of points of similarities and
dissimilarities of two persons compared, the greater
12. What is the rule when there is a choice between
the probability for the conclusion to be correct. What
a bifurcation and other type of delta found in the
is this Law called?
fingerprint?
A. Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in
A. Bifurcation is selected
Identification
B. the other type of delta is selected
B. Identification by Comparison and Exclusion
C. Bifurcation is disregarded
C. Law of Super Imposition
D. the one towards the core is selected
D. All of these

13. Patterns possess all the characteristics needed on


7. . On the night of August 2, 2010, a certain burglary
the investigation that may be bring light on a certain
happened on the store of a Japanese Merchant. On the
case. What kind of sweat gland that can be found
scene of the crime, laying the dead body of the victim
underneath these patterns?
stained by his own blood and the presence of several
A. Sebaceous gland

Amici Review Center Page 1


B. Eccrine gland 22. What do you call the ridge endings and
C. Lacrimal gland bifurcations?
D. Apocrine gland a. ulnar loop
b. island
14. What fingers are rolled towards the body in c. minutiae
taking a rolled impression? d. accidental
A. both little finger
B. both thumb finger 23. During the infant's stage, usually the ridges are
C. all finger except thumb formed in the fingers and feet on the_________
D. both index finger a. 5th to 6th month
b. 9th to 10th month
15. PINS Cardo is examining a fingerprint pattern c. 1st and 2nd month
having a 2 delta and a core with few spiral formations d. 3rd and 4th month
at the center but no complete circuiting ridge is cut.
What type of pattern INS Cardo is examining? 24. The very first thing to do in fingerprint
A. W classification is
B. X a. to ink the ink slab
C. C b. to be sure that the rolled impression are
D. D in proper place
c. check if the hands of the subject are dry
16. Which is NOT true about accidental whorl? d. to be sure that the subject is not hungry
A. It has a combination of two different patterns
B. It has two deltas 25. The value of all whorls from pair number 2 in
C. The plain arch is not included in the primary division is ______
combination a. six
D. It is subject of ridge tracing in the Key b. eight
Division c. sixteen
d. ten
17. What is the finger appearing five (5) blocks
towards finger number seven (7)? 26. when a pattern shows a series of bifurcation
A. Finger No. 1 opening towards the core at the point of
B. Finger No. 2 divergence of the type line, the bifurcation
C. Finger No. 3 _________ the core is chosen as the delta
D. Finger No. 5 a. Outside
b. Inside
18. In the primary division, if the pattern appearing c. Nearest
in finger number eight (8) is a loop, what is the d. Farthest
numerical value of that finger?
A. None 27. A delta may be any of the following, except
B. 8 a. Bifurcation opening towards the delta
C. 16 b. Dot or fragment as thick as the other ridges
D. 2 c. A point on the first recurving ridge located
Note: Only Whorl Patterns has a numerical value nearest to the center and in front of the
divergence of the type lines
19. . In the Major Division, what table should be used d. A meeting of two ridges
for the right thumb when the left thumb reaches
17 or more? 28. 4. Which of the following conditions are observed
A. Table No. 1 before fragments and dots are counted in ridge
B. Table No. 3 counting?
C. Table No. 2 a. They must be touched or cut by the imaginary
D. Table No. 4 line
b. They must be as thick and heavy as
20. A person committing a crime would always leave other ridges
something behind and may be considered as an c. They must be as long as the other ridges
integral part in the identification of the suspect d. They must be found inside the pattern area
especially if it is a “Latent Print”. This prints are
made through the; 29. An additional formula which serves as reference
A. Ridge of the skin in case of doubtful prints. Place at the bottom of
B. Furrows of the skin classification formula.
C. Ridge formation a. Classification line
D. Perspiration on top of the finger b. Reference line
c. Classification formula
21. what is recovered in a crime scene that is d. Reference classification formula
important for identification purposes?
a. fingerprints 30. The space between shoulders of a loop, free of
b. impressions any appendage, and a butting at right angle.
c. fingertips a. appendage
d. sweat pores b. sufficient recurve
c. ridge hook
d. galton's details

Amici Review Center Page 2


31. What type of pattern in which it could be found b. Residence of the alien
on the lower box of the fingerprint card having a c. Occupation of the alien
delta and core with a recurving ridge flowing d. Port of entry of the alien
towards the no. 6 finger?
a. Ulnar loop 40. When the trace of the whorls is on the outside or
b. . Radial loop. core outside of right delta and there are three or
c. c Loop more ridges, the trace is determined to be;
d. d. Arches a. (I) Inner → INSIDE OR ABOVE
b. (O) Outer →OUTSIDE OR BELOW
32. In the final division, ridge counting of loop is the c. (M) Meet
usual process being done once it appears in the d. None of these
little finger. If there is no loop pattern in the
finger, a whorl pattern shall be ridge counter. 41. In his “Philosophical Transaction”, he presented
How will you treat a Plain or Central Pocket Loop his observation on the appearance of the ridges
for the purpose of getting its final classification? on the fingers and palms.
a. It represents a dash a. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
b. Treated as an Ulnar Loop b. Govard Bidloo
c. Getting the least ridge count c. Sir Francis Galton
d. By getting the ridge count of the loop d. Dr. Nehemiah Grew

33. Which of the following should be prioritized as the 42. . Govard Biloo presented the appearance and
core? arrangement of the ridges on a thumb in his
a. shoulder of the innermost recurve closer to the thesis entitled:
delta a. De externo Tactus Organo
b. shoulder of the innermost recurve farther b. Philosophical Transaction
from the delta c. Anatomia Humanis Corporis
c. rod rising as high as the shoulder d. None of these
d. rod which does not rise as high as the shoulder
43. . It is that part of a loop or whorl in which the
34. If the left thumb has 17 ridge counts, what is the core and delta appear which we are concerned in
classification of the right thumb with 17 ridge the classification process.
counts? a. Type lines
a. small b. Pattern Area
b. large c. Bifurcation
c. medium d. Delta
d. outer
44. It is a biometric Identification Methodology that
35. There are three (3) principles of Fingerprint uses digital imaging technology to obtain, store,
science. Which among the following is not and analyze fingerprint data.
included? a. AFIS
a. Principle of Individuality b. Automated Fingerprint Identification System
b. Principle of Permanency c. Digital Imaging System
c. Principle of Infallibility d. Both A & B
d. Principle of Uniqueness
45. It refers to the insertion on a fingerprint card the
36. The first forensic professional organization is results of the interpretation of all ten patterns.
a. DNA Represented by letters, symbols or numbers on
b. IAI the card required for each of the rolled prints.
c. FBI a. Blocking Out
d. NBI b. Ridge counting
c. Ridge tracing
37. There are ________ families of finger print d. None of these
pattern.
a. Two 46. . If the individual has a bandage or cast of a
b. Three finger, thumb or hand, place the notation,
c. Eight “Cannot be Printed” or CP in the appropriate
d. Four finger block.
a. True
38. To help identify a subject who is an alien, the b. False
most vital information to be obtained at the c. Partially True
Bureau of Immigration and Deportation is… d. Partially false
a. Educational attainment of the alien
b. Residence of the alien 47. If the Ridge count of the Ring finger is 16, what
c. Occupation of the alien is the symbol for purposes of the Sub-Secondary
d. Port of entry of the alien Classification?
a. I
39. . To help identify a subject who is an alien, the b. O
most vital information to be obtained at the c. M
Bureau of Immigration and Deportation is… d. L
a. Educational attainment of the alien

Amici Review Center Page 3


48. Complete this adage, “The neighboring fingers of
the same person have never been found to 57. It is the application of various sciences to answer
be________________.” questions relating to examination and
a. Similar in all respects comparison of biological evidence and scientific
b. Different in some respects evidences.
c. Different in every respects A. Criminalistics
d. Exactly identical in all respects B. Forensic Chemistry
C. Forensic Science
49. The inner layer of the skin is known as D. Evidence Examination
a. Dermis
b. Epidermis 58. Under the management of Lt. Darby during the
c. Scarf American occupation in the Philippines, a modern
d. Pores and complete fingerprint file has been
established for the Philippine commonwealth. In
50. He used his own thumb print on a document to 1937. Who is the first Filipino fingerprint
prevent forgery. This is the first known use of technician employed by the Phil. Constabulary?
fingerprints in the United States. A. Mr. Generoso Reyes
a. Bertillon B. Lucila Lalu
b. Francis Galton C. Mr. Augustin Patricio
c. Thompson D. None of these
d. Bidloo
59. The core and delta are essential ridges to be used
51. Conclusive evidence that the subject person is a as a basis in the counting of ridges once an
female. imaginary line was drawn in between. It is also
a. Possession of vagina termed as what?
b. Possession of estrogen A. Inner Terminus
c. Possession of ovaries B. Outer Terminus
d. Possession of progesterone C. Focal Point
D. Pattern Area
52. What ridge divides itself into two or more
branches that meet to form the original figure? 60. The bifurcation which does not remain open but
a. Island Ridge whose legs after a long side by side for short
b. Lake Ridge distance, come together to form a single ridge
c. Eyelet once more is referred to as…
d. All of the foregoing A. Enclosure
B. Converging ridges
53. It refers to the process of charting the ridge that C. Island ridge
originates from the lower side of the left delta D. Closed ridges
toward the right delta to see where it flows in
relation to the right delta. 61. Mr. A applies for a job, and as a requirement he
a. Ridge counting was advised to present his NBI Clearance. On the
b. Ridge Tracing way to the office of the NBI, he was apprehensive
c. Ridge ending that he will not be accommodated by the
d. Short Ridge personnel because of his two excess fingers in his
right hand. The appearance of his extra fingers is
54. There are two ways to identify people: one by anatomically known as_____.
comparison and the other is by ____________ A. Polydactylism
a. Ordinary means B. Extra ordinary fingers
b. Scientific means C. Excess Finger
c. Exclusion D. Deformities
d. Deduction
62. It is considered as simplest and traditional
55. What shall be the complete classification formula method in developing prints in the scene of the
if the right fingers are all radial loop, all with the crime.
ridge count of 10, and the left fingers are all A. Fuming Method
amputated. B. Laser Ion Argon
a. 10 1 OII rR3r 10 10 M III RRR 10 C. Rolling Method
b. 10 S 1 rR3r 10 M M MMM 10 D. Dusting Method
c. 10 S 1 OII rR3r 10 S 1 OII rR3R 10
d. 10 S 1 rR3r OII 10 10 S 1 rR3r OII 10 63. A 32 over 32 would indicate all _________
patterns in primary classification.
56. This is the most remarkable event happened on A. whorl
1964 according to the history of the study of B. loop
fingerprinting. C. tented arch
A. computerization of Scotland yard D. radial
B. creation of the FBI identification division
C. the Belper Committee in England was 64. A kind of fingerprint which is found on soft and
established sticky objects such as wax and tape?
D. The International association for Criminal A. Visible print
Identification was established

Amici Review Center Page 4


B. Semi-visible print 74. Is the distance of recognition in broad daylight of
C. Invisible print a person who is almost a stranger.
D. All of these
a. 100 yards
65. Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime b. 16-17 yards
scene which are not clearly visible. c. 25 yards
A. Plane impressions d. 10-13 yards
B. Visible fingerprints
C. Rolled impressions 75. A system of Identification best used in case of
D. Latent fingerprints burned body.
a. Fingerprint
66. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, b. Skeletal Identification
what pattern is not included in the c. Odontology
combination? d. Photography
A. Ulnar Loop
B. Plain Whorl 76. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which
C. Tented Arch gives recognition to the science of fingerprint?
D. Plain Arch
a. People Vs. Medina
b. Miranda Vs. Arizona
67. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots c. People Vs. Jennings
(called pores) in an inked finger impression? d. West Case
A. sweat pores
B. furrows 77. Known as the Father of Modern Fingerprint,
C. ridges whose system of classification was spread in
D. sweat duct almost all English speaking country.

68. What are the depressed portions or canal a. Juan Vucetich


structure of the friction skin found between b. Sir Edward Richard Henry
ridges? c. Francis Galton
A. Pores B. Indentions d. William Herschel
C. Furrows D. Duct
78. A new Mexico Geologist who adopted the first
individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882,
69. Located along the undersides of the fingers, by using his own thumb mark as a protection to
palms, toes, and soles appear corrugated skin prevent tampering with the pay order he issued.
structure known to the biologist as
A. friction skin →examiner B. handprints a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
C. fingerprints D. volar skin b. Capt James Parke
c. Gilbert Thompson
70. In 1905, the Stratton brothers was convicted d. Dr. Henry P. De Forest
after they were charged of murdering Farrow
couple. This accomplishment was a work of? 79. In China, fingerprint is called ___. It was valued
A. Henry B. Vecetich for purposes of identification since time
C. Faulds D. Herschel immemorial as found on a Chinese clay seal made
not later than the 3rd Century B.C.
71. Which of the following best describes a loop
pattern? a. Hua Chi
A. presence of 1 sufficient b. Mah Whang
recurving ridge c. Wong Cho
B. has a bifurcation as the delta d. Tiang Hin
C. 1 core at the point of divergence
D. all of these 80. What fingerprint pattern does not have ridge
count?
72. The right and left little fingers are used
exclusively for the Final Classification. However, a. Whorls
they are also considered in what classification? b. Arches
c. Radial loops
A. Primary d. Ulnar loops
B. Sub-secondary
C. Secondary 81. Can latent footprints be seen by naked eye?
D. Final
73. Fingerprints of two persons can be similar. Can A. No
DNA profile of two persons can be identical? B. Yes, at all times
A. Yes C. Yes but not at all times
B. No D. Once in a while
C. Probably
D. Possibly 82. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on
one side of the pattern and flow to the other side
with a rise in the center?

Amici Review Center Page 5


90. If a person have more than ten fingers, all ten
a. Loop fingers must be fingerprinted and any fingers left
b. Tented arch should__________.
c. Plain arch
d. Exceptional arch a. It should be cut because its not useful
b. It should be fingerprinted in a separate card
83. Is an instrument used for the spreading of the and proper annotation is indicated
fingerprint ink to the slab? c. It should be printed at the back of the
card with the proper notation
a. Fingerprint brush d. None of these
b. Fingerprint lifting tapes
c. Fingerprint roller 91. If a person has 2 or more fingers webbed grown
d. fingerprint card together such finger should not be completely
rolled because it is joined together, just a
84. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an notation at the back of the card that fingers are
uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics joined together and it is difficult to rolled the
of the loop? finger.

a. Plain arch a. True


b. Central pocket loop b. False
c. Tented arch c. Partially true
d. Accidental whorl d. Partially false
85. What is the rule where there are two or more
possible bifurcation deltas which conform to the 92. What are the little openings on the skin from
definition of delta? where sweat is excreted?
a. The one nearest the core should be A. Ridges
chosen B. Whorl
b. The one away from the core should be counted C. Pores
c. The one which does not open towards the core D. Loop
is counted
d. The one towards the core should be counted 93. In ridge tracing, the reference is on
A. upper side or point of the extreme right delta
86. It is an impression made or placed in the B. lower side or point of the extreme left
fingerprint card taken individually by rolling the delta
ten fingers of the subject, 180 degrees from the C. upper side or point of the moderate left delta
tip to the second joint and from one side of the D. upper side or point of the moderate right delta
nail to the other.
94. Which of the following personal Identification is
a. Plain impression not easy to change?
b. Rolled impression A. Hair
c. Latent impression B. Dress
d. All of these C. Speech
D. personal paraphernalia
87. What prints are plain finger impressions left in the
stomach surfaces unconsciously by a person 95. In reporting a missing person, which among the
committing an offense? following is the most vital information necessary
to locate the said person?
A. Accidental a. Clinical or medical history of the person
B. Visible b. Personal traits and habits
C. Strange c. Mental attitude and condition at the time of the
D. Standard disappearance
d. Physical description
88. What is that method of identification discovered
in 1985 by Prof. Alec Jeffreys in United Kingdom? 96. In determining the identity of an unknown dead
body found in a river, wherein no identifying
A. Mineralogical test papers are to be found, and the body is badly
B. Paraffin mutilated and swollen, which among the
C. DNA fingerprinting following means of identification is least
D. Ballistics dependable?
a. Fingerprints
89. What do you do with fingerprinting in case of b. Scars on the body
temporary disabilities?
c. Measurement of the body
A. Delayed until wounded finger is cleaned up d. Tattoo markings on the body
B. Done with care so that pressure shall not be
felt 97. In trying to obtain prints on fingers of a dead
C. Held back until injury is healed person which is stiff or when rigor mortis has set
D. Taken three days after in injection of a tissue, injection of a tissue builder
by a hypodermic needle at the joint of the finger
up to the tip of the finger is undertaken. Which

Amici Review Center Page 6


among the following is the most commonly C. Depth of field
utilized tissue builder? D. Focal Distance
A. Water
B. Saline Solution 5. The lens opening also known as the relative
C. Glycerin aperture is the indicator for light transmitting
D. Both A and C capability of the lens. Which of the following lens
opening will admit more light to pass through its
98. The identification of two impression can be medium?
established primary through: A. F-4 lens opening
A. Formation of the two terminus B. F-8 lens opening
B. Unexplained similarity of ridges C. F 5.6 lens opening
C. Formation of different types of pattern D. F-11 lens opening
D. Similarity of ridge characteristics in their
relative positions The lower the f-number, the bigger the lens opening
and the bigger the lens opening the greater the
99. Which of the following Presidential Decrees volume of air that will pass through the lends and
require practitioners of dentistry to make and reach the sensitized material.
keep accurate dental records of their patients for
6. The word “Photo” is derived from what word?
purposes of comparison with that of the person
A. Phos
to be identified? B. Latin Word
C. Greek Word
A. PD 1612 D. Light

B. PD 968 7. In 1947 Edwin H. Land introduced the one step


photography also known as polaroid. What will be
C. PD 1575
produce by LASER?
A. Polaroid
D. PD 1866
B. Holograms
C. . Digital Camera
100. The DNA testing technique currently used by the Board
D. DSLR
of Criminal Apprehension Laboratory, Minnesota, USA, is
referred to as ‘R F L P”, which means – 8. Refers to the range of illumination or the light
A. Regulated Fragment Length Polymorphism allowed to affect the sensitized material at a given
B. B. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism time.
A. Exposure
C. Reactivated Fragment Length Polymorphism
B. Aperture
D. all of the above C. Shutter
D. Shutter speed

FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY 9. It is a type of lens which characterized that it is


thicker at the center and thinner at the side and
1. The abbreviation of “LASER” means?
forms the image inversely.
A. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission
A. Convex Lens
of Radiation
B. Positive Lens
B. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Ray
C. Converging Lens
C. Light Amplify by Stimulation Emission of Radiation
D. All of the Above
D. Light Amplification by Stimulation Emitted of
Radiation
10.. Pedro was taking a snap shot and expecting it
to be sharp but an alteration happened to the
2. What lens system of the camera reflects the light
expected image because it can be seen in two
passing the lens and mirror making the image
viewpoints. What is that phenomenon?
possible to be viewed from the viewfinder?
A. out of focus
A. Pentaprism
B. coincidence
B. Mirror
C. parallax
C. Condenser
D. split image
D. Focusing system

11.It is the main fixing agent that dissolves


3. It is the bouncing of light once it hits a certain
unexposed silver halides.
object, which is the one recorded in photography. A.
A. Acetic Acid
Absorbed light
B. Sodium Sulfate
C. Transmitted light
C. Potassium Bromide
D. Reflected light
D. Sodium Thiosulfate
E. Refracted light

12.Photographic papers are classified into according


4. What is the range of distance from the nearest
to its emulsion speed, physical characteristics,
object to the farthest object that is sharp when the
surface texture, color, and contrast. What are the
lens is set or focused at a particular distance?
essential classifications of photographic paper which
A. Focal length
is considered as ideal to police work?
B. Hyper focal Distance

Amici Review Center Page 7


A. Silver bromide Paper, Single Weight, Glossy, d. d. scale bed
Cream, and Velox #2
B. Silver bromide Paper, Light Weight, Glossy, White, 21. Laser light is also referred to as _________?
and Velox #3
C. Silver bromide Paper, Single Weight, Glossy, a. ultraviolet
White, and Velox #2 b. coherent
D. Silver chloride Paper, Single Weight, Glossy, c. visible
White, and Velox #0 d. heat

13.The following are the essential parts of the 22. A photographic process of making enlarge image
camera EXCEPT: with the aid of microscope
A. Light Tight Box
B. Lens a. Macrophotography
C. Tripod b. Cinematography
D. Shutter c. Photomicrography
d. Pornography
14.The changes in direction of light are conclusive
whenever light process from one medium to another. 23. Which of the following lens opening that can give
This is known as the phenomenon of refraction. wider depth of field?
A. Reflection
B. Diffraction a. F-8
C. Transparent b. F-11
D. Refraction c. F-16
d. F 22
15.A British scientist who made the first miniature
cameras, the so-called “mouse trap” cameras. Note:
A. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
B. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre The lower the f-number, the bigger the lens opening
C. Willian Henry Fox Talbot
D. Sir John Herschel The wider the aperture/lens opening, the less depth
of field you capture. The smaller the aperture, the
16. Objects in open space cast no shadow and deeper the depth of field.
visiblity of distant objects is already limited.
A. Dull Sunlight 24. A photograph of the crime scene is a factual
B. Bright Sunlight reproduction and accurate record of the crime scene
C. Cloudy bright sunlight because it captures time, space and ___.
D. Cloudy dull Sunlight
a. Person
17. a form of over lapping thin metal leaves arranged b. event
in a circle, it can be made to expand or contrast and c. thing
thus to admit into the camera greater and smaller d. crime scene
amount of light.
A. Aperture 25. In police photography it can be use as
B. Diaphragm demonstration enlargements, individual photos,
C. Shutter projection slides, motion pictures during
D. Light tight box a. court proceedings
b. court exhibits
18. In taking photograph of evidence, what must be c. educational tour
done? d. crime prevention
A. Take photograph with measurements
B. Take photograph without measurements
C. Take photography without measurements, 26. ___ is a mechanical result of photography.
then with measurements a. camera
b. picture
D. Take photographs with measurements then
c. photograph
without measurements
d. film

27. The bending of light around an object gives rise


19. What problem is usually encountered by a
to the phenomenon called ___. This phenomenon is
photographer in using a flash unit?
responsible for the partial illumination of object parts
a. neutral density not directly in the path of the light.
b prospective a. detraction
b. synchronization b. refraction
d. parallax c. diffraction
d.defragmentation
20. Otherwise known as superimposed image
focusing.
28.What is the approximate wavelength of the
a. split image primary color red?
b. Coincidence
c. parallax a. 700 mu b. 450 mu c. 550 mu d. 590 mu

Amici Review Center Page 8


a. it distorts the focus
b. it distorts the magnification
29. Refers to the taking in of light by the material. c. it distorts the perspective
Following the law of conservation of energy, such d. it distorts texture
light taken in is not lost but merely transformed into
heat.
a. diffraction 38. The emulsion speed rating of a film that is both
b. somnambulism expressed in arithmetical and logarithmic value.
c. absorption a. ASA rating
d. convection b. ISO rating
c. DIN rating
30. What changes the size of the aperture of the lens d. BSI rating
and regulates the amount of light reaching the film?
a. diaphragm 39. The speed of light measured in a vacuum is
b. shutter approximately________?
c. lens a. 186, 281 miles/sec.
d. film b. 299, 792.5 km/sec
c. 299, 795.2 km/sec
d. Both A and B
31. What part of the film consists of silver compounds
which are light sensitive and halogens? 40. The maximum usable aperture of a lens is usually
a. top layer specified as the focal ration or f-number.
b. emulsion layer
a. The statement is correct
c. film base
b. . The statement is partially true
d. film surface
c. The statement is false
d. The statement is doubtful
32. Because of the fact that all negatives do not print
best on one kind of paper, and in order to permit
41. . A light sensitive material that is placed inside a
printing for special effects, photographic papers is
made in several different grades of contrast and camera to store any image the camera focuses.
surface texture. What is the paper made by Kodak a. Film
that offers six degrees of contrast and glossy b. Shutter
surface? c. Aperture
d. None of these
a. glossy paper
b. manila paper 42. It refers to the sensitivity of the film to
c. velox paper wavelength or color.
d. bond pape a. Speed
b. Spectral Sensitivity
c. Granularity
33. When was the birthyear of photography? d. Graininess
a. 1877
b. 1745 43. A black box sealed against light with a piece of
c. 1899 film in one end and a hole in the other end to let
d. 1839 certain amount of light to get in and strike the
chemically sensitized material.
a. Film
34. It is a kind of film that is sensitive to UV rays, b. Cartoon
blue and green colors, but not to red. c. Camera
a. infrared film d. Lens
b. orthochromatic film
c. monochromatic film
44. The complete range of electromagnetic radiation
d. panchromatic film
is called_____.
a. Electromagnetic Spectrum
b. Electromagnetic waves
35. How many degrees must you add to the DIN
c. Electromagnetic speed
rating to denote double emulsion speed?
a. 3 d. Heat
b. 5
c. 2 45. . It is mounted over the opening at the front of
d. 4 the camera body. Its function is to produce an image
on the film at the back of the camera by gathering
36. What is the correct sequence of sensitivity of the and focusing the rays of light from the object.
three emulsion layers of color film? a. Camera
a. red- green- blue b. Shutter
b. blue- green- red c. Lens
c. green- red- blue d. Apperture
d. blue- red- green
46. If the basic exposure for a given film in bright
sunlight is 1/125, f11, the exposure setting at dull
37. Why must the taking of photographs from an sunlight would be?
unusual camera position in crime photography be a. 1/125 f4
avoided?

Amici Review Center Page 9


b. 1/125 f5.6 D. Hyper focal distance
c. 1/125 f8
d. 1/125 f16 57. In night surveillance, what ISO film rating is
recommended?
47. The first practical photographic process. A. 100
a. Calotype B. 200
b. Daguerreotype C. 300
c. Collodion D. higher than 300
d. Dry Plate Process
58. When the prism breaks its light in its different
48. Light sensitivity of the film is also known as wavelength producing the colors of the _____.
a. Film Speed A. Primary colors
b. Film Grains B. Secondary colors
c. Film Emulsion C. Rainbow
d. Film Contrast D. Red, blue, green

49. Lenses with smaller aperture requires a slower 59. Primary colors when combined, produces ____
shutter speed and the depth of field is? color.
a. Wider a purple
b. Narrower B. black
c. Slower C. white
d. Fast D. gray

50. The process of converting the latent image into a 60. Fish-eye lens is a special type of camera having
visible and permanent image. a view angle of:
a. Chemical Process a. 60 degrees
b. Film b. .180 degree
c. Collodion Process c. 90 degrees
d. Calotype Process d. 360 degree

51. This refers to anyone/anything that can be 61. Digital Cameras at present has LCD which means
photographed. _____.
a. Photograph a. Lead Crystal
b. Subject b Low Color Device
c. View
d. Background c. Land Central Device

d. Liquid crystal display


52. The bigger the lens opening, _____
A. the more light to enter 62. . An investigator might find it necessary, prior to
B. the less light to enter photographing a fingerprint, to use iodine fumes to
C. the amount of light depends on the lens speed bring out;
D. the faster the photographer A. Visible prints
B. Faint prints
53. SLR uses one lens which is used for viewing and C. Latent prints
_____. D. Almost- visible prints
A. Imaging
B. Taking or recording 63. In photographing a crime scene, what view will
C. Reflecting best feature the physical evidence existing at the
D. Bending crime scene?
A. Medium
54. All lights are visible, but what eyes cannot see are B. Close-up
referred to as _____ C. General
A. Red light D. Extreme close-up
B. Wavelength
C. Radiation
D. White light 64. This provides extra exposure to an area of the
print to make it darker, while blocking light from the
55. Photographs are valuable in crime investigation rest of the print.
for it provides law enforcers an easier works in court: A. Dodging
A. duties B. Vignetting
B. function C. Printing-in →aka burning-in
C. Testimony D. Bracketing
D. Appearance
65. In photographing arson cases, which of the
56. The angle of view and size of the image that a following is not allowed?
lens will produce is determined by its…… a. photograph the manner of spreading the fire
A. Focal length b. photograph spectators every after 15
B. Lens opening minutes or so
C. Distance c. photograph color of the smoke

Amici Review Center Page 10


d. all of the above 77. Its actions starts from one side and closes on the
opposite side with amore faster shutter speed. The
66. What technique in photography is used to detect statement is referring to:
or clarify writing or marking on paper that is no A. central shutter B. leaf
longer visible due to age, exposure to weather, fire, shutter
water or alteration. C. focal plane shutter D. between
A. Infrared photography the lens shutter
B. Document photography
C. Ultraviolet photography 78. William Fox Talbot invented what particular
D. Forensic photography object which uses a paper impregnated with light
sensitive compounds.
67. The chemical and mechanical erasures are best A. Calotype B. wet plate
examined through _____.
A. Infrared C. Daguerreotype D. Camera Obscura
B. chemistry 79. Which of the following can photograph or record
C. Ultraviolet unseen objects?
D. laboratory A. X-ray photography
B. Infrared photography
68. Who invented the camera in 1685? C. Ultra-violet photography
a. Johann Zahn D. Night time photography
b. Ibn al-haytham
c. Talbot
80. The four major factors involved in photography
d. Niepce
are the following, except-
A. Light B. Camera
69. The circular “dome-like” image – B. Chemicals
A. curvature of field C. Film
B. spherical aberration D. . Processing
C. chromatic aberration
D. coma 81. .The energy wave produced by the oscillation or
acceleration of an electric charge is called-
70. A type of film that is sensitive to all colors. A. Wavelength
A. Infrared film B. Electro-magnetic spectrum
B. Orthochromatic film C. Frequency
C. Panchromatic film D. Visible spectrum
E. Photon-electromagnetic radiation
D. Chromatic film
82. When two crests meet, the crests of two waves
71. A systematic arrangement of colors to give a have combined to form a high crest, the
pleasant effect. phenomenon is called-
A. color perception A. Reinforcement
B. color sensitivity B. Fortify
C. color accuracy C. Integration
D. color harmony D. Annulment of Waves
E. None of these
72. What country is the first who use photograph of
crime scene in court presentation? 83. What is not true about refraction?
A. Germany B. US A. It is the bending of light rays when passing obliquely
C. Philippines D. France from one medium to another such as air through a
substance of different density is refracted or bent
B. It is a phenomenon occurring when waves of
73. In crime scene photography, what view tends to
light diverge/ separate as they pass the edge
show the extent damage on the subject? of opaque material or through a small hole
A. General View B. Medium View C. With greater density of medium, refraction is towards
C. Close-up shot D. Extreme Close- the normal
up shot D. With lesser density of medium at an oblique angle,
refraction is away from the normal
74. What is considered as the utmost used of E. When light hits a transparent medium at a
photography in police work? perpendicular angle, there is no reflection
A. For identification B. For preservation
C. For record purpose D. For court 84. How many percent of light passes through
presentation transparent objects?
A. 100% B. 95%
C. 90% D. 85% E. 80%
75. It is used in chemical analysis and in curing and
hardening of different items for industrial purposes.
85. In a camera, which one controls the amount of
A. long wave UV B. medium wave UV light that reaches the film?
C. short wave UV D. ultraviolet rays A. Shutter B. Photographer
C. Aperture D. A and or C only
76. In the additive color mixture process combining E. All of these
the color blue and green will produce cyan. What is
the complementary color of blue? 86. What are the usual shutters for Single Reflex
A. yellow B. cyan Cameras?
C. magenta D. Green A. Focal Plane Shutters

Amici Review Center Page 11


B. Leaf Shutter ‘ d. focal length
C. Leather Shutters
D. A and B 95.What holds the photographic papers flat during
E. Window Shutters exposure in the enlarging process?
a. billows
87. When photographing the corpse in the b. easel
scene, several pictures of the conditions at the c. head assembly
time of discovery including the environment of d. base board
the corpse must be taken from various
photographic directions in order to: 96.In photographing a crime scene, what view will
a. Photographs general view of the building, look best feature the nature of the crime scene?
into windows, and pathway a. Medium
b. Take close-up shots on the damaged area in two b. close- up
angles from a distance of 8 to 10 feet c. general
c. Show whether there is any evidence of struggle d. extreme close- up
and try to show what happen inside prior to the
crime 97.Colors made by combining the primary colors are
d. Show when photographing the general called:
conditions as being deformed as a whole, a. Sub-Primary Colors
photograph the damage parts and consider b. Secondary Colors
the range partly clearly c. Tertiary Colors
d. Elementary Colors
88. This type of photographic paper is a multi-
speed and could be used in both contacts printing 98.The maximum usable aperture of a lens is usually
and enlarging. specified as the focal ration or f-number.
a. Chloride paper b. Chloro-bromide paper a. The statement is correct
c. Bromide paper d. both a and b b. The statement is partially true
c. The statement is false
89. This refers to the size of the metallic silver grains d. The statement is doubtful
that formed after development of an exposed film.
a. Spectral Sensitivity 99.. The focal length determines the:
b. Granularity a. Depth of field
c. Emulsion Speed b. Angle of view
d. Reversal Film c. Color of the picture
d. Maximum aperture

90. Also referred to as lateral spherical aberration, it 100. Which among the following chemical is
is a lens defects in which the rays enters the lens use as neutralizer?
obliquely. a. Boric Acid
a. Coma b. Acetic Acid
b. Chromatic Aberration c. Potassium Alum
c. Astigmatism d. A or B
d. Curvature of Field
FORENSIC BALLISITICS
91.Generally, a lens have only one focal length,
however, there is a lens with variable focal length
1. It refers to the actual curved path of the bullet
and it is known as:
during its flight from the gun muzzle to the
a. wide angle lens
target.
b. telephoto lens
c. normal lens a. Velocity
d. zoom lens b. Trajectory
c. Muzzle energy
92.What type of camera that typically uses a mirror d. Penetration
and prism system that permits the photographer to
view through the lens what image to be captured? 2. It contains a compound at the base usually
a. double lens similar to barium nitrates, which is set on fire
b. compact camera when the bullet is projected. The flash of the
c. tri-lens smoke from the burning permits the light of the
d. single lens reflex bullet to be seen especially at night time.
a. Incendiary Bullets
93.What is also known as color dispersion a common
b. Tracer Bullets
problem which occurs when colors are incorrectly
refracted by the lens and the colors do not combine c. Explosive Bullets
as they should ? d. Armor Piercing Bullets
a. Chromatic
b. spherical 3. . It is equal to the height of the side of a land.
c. Geometrical a. Depth of Grooves
d. field curvature b. Twist
c. Rifling
94.. t is the distance at which a lens of a camera is d. land
focused with a given particular diaphragm opening
which will give the maximum depth of field. 4. It can be used in the close up examination of
a. hyperfocal distance tampered serial numbers.
b. subject distance
a. Gunsmith tool
c. focal distance
b. Taper Gauge

Amici Review Center Page 12


c. Stereoscopic Microscope 15. . It is the distance measured between two
d. Shadowgraph opposite lands inside the bore.
5. In this, the diameter or the base of the cartridge a. Caliber
is bigger than the body of the cartridge. b. Bore
a. Rimless type c. Grooves
b. Rimmed Type d. Lands
c. Semi-rimmed 16. Bore diameter is an example of class
d. None of these characteristic.
6. . The oldest propellant. a. True
a. Black Powder b. False
b. Pink powder c. Partially True
c. Yellow Green powder d. Maybe
d. Smokeless 17. The first priming mixture is composed of
7. It refers to the straight distance between the Potassium Chlorate, Charcoal, and _________.
muzzle and the target. a. Ground Glass
a. Trajectory b. Fulminate of Mercury
b. Velocity c. Barium Nitrate
c. Range d. Sulphur
d. Penetration 18. It is an ancient smooth-bore and muzzle loading
8. It is the hole in the web or the bottom of the military shoulder arm designed to fire a single
primer pocket through which the primer „flash” round lead ball.
provides ignition to the gunpowder. a. Musket
a. Flash holes b. Machine guns
b. Vents c. Shoulder Arms
c. Cannelures d. Revolver
d. A or B 19. It refers to a “Loaded Shell” for rifles, carbines,
9. . These are found in the anterior portions of the shotguns, revolvers and pistols from which a ball,
fired bullets and caused by the forward bullet, shot or other missile may be fired by
movement of the bullet from the chamber before means of a gun powder or other explosives.
it initially rotates due to the rifling inside the gun a. Bullet
barrel. b. Ammunition
a. Stripping Mark c. Primer
b. Skid Mark d. Ball
c. Firing pin Mark 20. Firearms that propel projectile of less than one
d. Shearing Mark inch in diameter.
10. The downward reaction of the bullet toward the a. Artillery
earth center due to its weight. b. Small Arms
a. Downfall of bullet c. Trigger
b. Pull of gravity d. Ejector
c. Air Resistance 21. Is the science of the motion of the projectile?
d. Penetration
11. . It is applied to that part of the cartridge case a. Forensic Ballistics
b. Trajectory
that is occupied by the bullet.
c. Ballistics
a. Base
d. Cartography22
b. Crimp 22. Father or percussion ignition (inventor of priming
c. Vents mixture).
d. Neck a. Horace Smith
12. This is especially designed to permit the firearm b. Berthold Schwarts
examiner to determine the similarity and c. Col. Calvin H. Goddard
dissimilarity between two fired bullets and slugs d. Alexander John Forsyth
or projectiles, or two fired shells by 23. The word “forensic” as used in conjunction with the
simultaneously observing their magnified image word ballistics means?
in a single microscopic instrument. a. Forum
a. Stereoscopic Microscope b. Market place
b. Bullet Comparison Microscope c. Legal
d. Public discussion
c. Onoscope
d. Shadowgraph 24. It refers to the motion of the projectile once it enters
13. . It refers to the characteristics markings peculiar a rifled barrel of a gun.
and not found in all firearms. a. Direct
a. Class Characteristics b. Rotary
b. Individual characteristic c. Transnational
c. Group Characteristics d. Twist
d. All of the above
14. These are generally found on bullets fired 25. It is the stillness or steadiness of the bullet in its flight
through “loose fit” barrels wherein the rifling is until it finally reaches the target?
a. Rifling
already worn out.
b. Gyroscopic action
a. Shearing Mark
c. Ricochet
b. Stripping Mark d. Trajectory
c. Breech Face Mark
d. Chamber Mark

Amici Review Center Page 13


26. Is the tumbling of the bullet in its flight and hitting the c. Zip gun
target sideways as a result of not spinning on its axis is d. Matchlock
known?
a. Ricochet
b. Misfire 37. A type of firearm which contains rifling a few inch from
c. Hang fire the muzzle point?
d. key-hole shot a. Smooth bore
b. rifled bore
27. Is the bouncing off or deflection of a bullet from its c. semi-rifled
original trajectory? d. paradox
a. Hang fire
b. ricochet 38. A type of an automatic weapon which is of lighter form
c. Key-hole shot designed to fire an ammunition used in hand gun:
d. Misfire a. Grease gun
b. sub-machine gun
28. Is the condition of firing whereby the cartridge took c. Machine gun
several seconds before it discharge (delay in the discharge d. a and b
of firearm).
a. Hang fire 39. What type of firearm is commonly used by cavalry.
b. Back fire (riding a horse)
c. Key-hole shot a. shotgun
d. Misfire b. rifle
29. A hand firearm in which a rotating cylinder successively c. musket
placer cartridges into position from firing? d. carbine
a. Revolver
b. Musket
c. Pistol 40. Is that part of the firearm in which the cartridge is
d. Carbine place when ready to be fire?
a. chamber
30. A type of weapon in which the mechanism is so b. bolt
arranged that it can fired continuously will trigger is press? c. magazine
a. Repeating arms d. cylinder
b. Single shot
c. Automatic weapon 41. The mechanism of a firearm which withdraws the
d. breech action weapon empty shells from the chamber?
a. Ejector
31. Is the farthest distance in which a bullet when fired b. Firing pin
can still be consider lethal? c. Extractor
a. Maximum range d. Extractor pin
b. Accurate range
c. Maximum effective range 42. Is that type of ammunition which does not have bullet
d. Effective range used in film-making:
a. dummy
32. It is the speed of the bullet per unit of time expressed b. blank
in feet per second: c. drill
a. trajectory d. live
b. pressure
c. air resistance
43. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of:
d. velocity
a. .730”
b. .729”
33. In the United States, crimes are committed by juvenile
c. .726”
using a homemade firearm known as:
d. .724”
a. Freakish gun
b. Flare gun
c. Zip gun 44. Is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical ball propelled
d. Matchlock by firearms?
a. Shots
34. Is the termed apply to a weapon in which pressure b. Bullet
upon the trigger both cocks and released the hammer. c. Casing
a. Repeating weapon d. Shell
b. Single action
c. Double action 45. Is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical container which
d. Automatic serves as the projector for the propellant against
moisture?
35. Is the term applied to denote a firearm designed for a. Bullet
extra power? b. Primer
a. Double Action c. Cartridge case
b. Magnum d. Paper disc
c. Automatic 46. Is that of the primer which serves as a protector for
d. Dum-dum the priming mixture not to be easily be penetrated by
moisture?
36. A tool in which a firearm mechanism is attached for a. Paper disc
purposes of not to be easily be identified: b. Primer cup
a. Freakish gun c. Anvil
b. Flare gun d. Flash hole

Amici Review Center Page 14


47. A fired bullet extracted from the body of the victim is
marked at the: 57. What is the bottom portion of the cartridge case which
a. Base contains the head stamp marking on the base of the shell
b. ogive containing the caliber, manufacturer and in some cases
c. Nose including the date, trade name, and batch number?
d. all of these a. rim
b. extracting grooves
48. Is the part of the cartridge case which holds the primer c. primer pocket
securely in a central position and providing a solid support d. base
for the primer anvil? 58. What are the elevated portion of the bore of the
a. Flash hole firearm?
b. Primer pocket a. Lands
c. Paper disc b. Grooves
d. Cannelure c. bore
49. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the d. rifling
right is fired from the barrel of a firearm with identical class 59. Another portion of the recoil action characterized as
characteristics as that of: the backward and upward movement of that takes place
a. Browning before the bullet leaves the muzzle.
b. Smith and Wesson a. recoil
c. Colt b. muzzle blast
d. Steyer c. energy generated
50. Is a condition in which two bullets or shells are d. jump
examined and compared under the comparison 60. What is the metallic or non-metallic tabular container
microscope at the same time, level and direction and usually of brass (70% copper and 30% zinc) designed to
magnification and same image? unite the bullet, primer and the gunpowder into one unit?
a. Pseudo match It is also known as shell or casing.
b. false match a. cartridge case
c. Juxtaposition b. firearm
d. Sodo match c. gunpowder
51. What is the forward motion of the bullet or shots out d. rifling
of the shell by the action of the expansive force of gases
from a burning gunpowder? 61. A smooth bore and a breech loading shoulder arms
a. Rotatory motion designed to fire a number of lead pellets or shots in one
b. Transnational motion charge.
c. Translational motion a. shotgun
d. Direct Motion b. rifle
52. The study of the motion of the projectile as applied to c. carbine
law or simply the science of firearm identification by means d. musket
of the ammunition fired through them. 62. What is the type of revolver that needs a manual
a. ballistics cocking of the hammer before squeezing the trigger?
b. forensic ballistics a. pistol
c. ballista b. revolver
d. ballo c. single action
53. What is the type of shotgun bore in which the bore d. double action
size is the same throughout the barrel?
a. Choke bored gun 63. What is the action of bullet once it hits a target and
b. Paradox gun subsequently ricocheted?
c. Cylinder bore type a. Rotatory motion
d. Smooth bore b. Transnational motion
54. The cylindrical groove on the mouth of the shell c. Translational motion
designed for two purposes: One (1) is to hold the bullet d. Direct Motion
and prevent it from being pull out from the shell and Two 64. Which of the following is used to measure Pitch of
(2) to offers resistance to the bullet out of the neck to rifling?
ensure burning of the gun powder. a. caliper
a. crimp b. chronograph
b. cannelure c. bullet comparison microscope
c. neck d. helixometer
d. body 65. What kind of primer has two flash holes?
a. Berdan
55. What is the mark generally found at the base portion b. Boxer
of the cartridge case more specifically near center of the c. Hiram
primer cup in a center fire cartridge or at the rim cavity of d. Edward
a rim-fire cartridge?
a. Firing Pin Mark 66. Which of the following may be used to measure
b. Extractor Mark velocity of the bullet?
c. Ejector mark a. caliper
d. Chamber Mark b. chronograph
56. What is the cylindrical groove in the outer surface of c. bullet comparison microscope
the cartridge case designed to secure the shell to the d. helixometer
chamber as well as prevent bullet from being push down
67. Type of rifling having four (4) lands and grooves, right
to the powder charge?
twist and the width of the lands grooves. (4 RG=L)
a. body
a. Carbine Type
b. shoulder
b. Smith and Wesson
c. vent or flash hole
c. Colt
d. cannelure
d. Steyer Type

Amici Review Center Page 15


68. What is written authority issued to any person by the D. parabolic like flight
Chief of PNP which entitles such person to carry his 80. It is the rearward movement of the firearm after
licensed or lawfully issued firearms outside of residence for explosion.
the duration and purpose specified therein? A. velocity of the bullet
a. firearm license B. recoil of the firearm
b. authority C. rotation of the bullet
c. franchise D. inside the barrel energy generated
d. permit to carry firearm outside residence 81. PINS Tina Moran was tasked to examine whether the
questioned bullet was fired from the suspected firearm and
69. The depth of entry of the bullet in the target. prepare her deductions for court testimony. The situation
a. Terminal Penetration was part of what branch of ballistics?
b. Terminal Energy A. Firearms Identification
c. Terminal Velocity B. Technical examination
d. Terminal Accuracy C. Legal proceeding
70. What is the type of bullet that is basically composed of D. Forensic ballistics
lead metal? Its used was due to its density; having a good 82. A field of forensic ballistics that includes the expert
weight is a small size and easy for casting. examination of firearms, bullets and shells that would
a. lead type determine whether or not a particular bullet is fired from
b. jacketed type a particular firearm, and whether or not a particular shell
c. bullet is loaded and ejected from the same firearm and it is
d. slug conducted in a forensic laboratory. What phase of forensic
ballistics best describes the statement?
71. What is the part of a cartridge which is also known as A. Field investigation
CAP? B. Technical examination
a. primer C. Legal proceedings
b body D. None of the above
c. base 83. He invented a submachine gun in the 1950’s which was
used by the Israeli Army during its Sinai campaign in 1956.
A. Alexander John Forsyth
72. Caliber .38 is equivalent to …
B. Uziel Gal
a. About 5.59 mm
C. Major Patrick Ferguson
b. About 11 mm
D. John C. Garand
c. About 9 mm
84. The very first self-exploding cartridges were invented
d. About 7.63 mm
on 1836 and it was called as the pin-fire cartridge which
came into realization through the invention of:
73. The Gunpowder was invented in_________.
A. Le Faucheux
a. 1413
B. Hiram Maxim
b. 1313
C. Flobert
c. 1350
D. Alexander John Forsyth
d. 1213
85. This refers to the classification of firearms wherein it
74. The muzzle velocity of a Rifle is________.
has no rifling inside their gun barrel.
a. 2, 600 feet per second
A. Rifled Bore Firearm
b. 2, 500 feet per second
B. Smooth Bore Firearms
c. 3, 000 feet per second
C. Machine guns
d. 2, 000 feet per second
D. Shotguns
75. What firearm has a muzzle velocity of not more than
86. A shooting incident was happened wherein five people
1,400 feet per second?
were found dead on the scene of the crime. During the
a. High Powered firearm
incident, it was found out that the firearm involve uses a
b. Low Power Firearm
pistol size ammunition but having contains a shoulder
c. Average power firearm
stock because it was fired in a distance. The scene was
d. None of these
filled by cartridge cases but there was only one empty
76. It refers to the mobility or the movement of the
magazine recovered. If you are the investigator, what type
projectile once it leaves the muzzle and until it reaches the
of firearm was used? A. machine gun
target or fall in the ground.
B. sub machine gun
A. Motion
C. automatic firearm
B. Ballistics
D. none of these
C. Ballista
87. Pistols were slowly developed throughout the time
D.Trajectory
form simple to a more sophisticated firearm. According to
77. What occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time
history, it was believed the word pistol was taken from the
or delayed in firing?
Italian word Pistoia which literally means:
A. Knocking Power
A. small gun
B. Hang fire
B. coin
C. Recoil
C. city
D. None of these
D. hand gun
78. The following conditions are NOT attributed to external
88. Handguns that can be fired several times by means of
ballistics, EXCEPT:
cartridge stored in the handle are called.
A. Firing pin hitting the primer.
A. Pistols
B. Ignition of the priming mixture.
B. Revolver
C. Energy generated at the muzzle point.
C. Self-loading pistol
D. Rotation of the bullet inside the muzzle.
D. Automatic Firearm
79. It is termed as the stability of the bullet in flight
89. Is that part of a firearm which houses all the other
particularly in the parabola, which was credited to the
parts.
construction of the rifling.
A. Housing
A. velocity
B. Frame
B. stability in flight
C. Casing
C. gyroscopic action

Amici Review Center Page 16


D. Chamber A. 75% potassium chlorate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.
90. The chemical eating away of the bore of a firearm due B. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal and 10%
to rusting of the action of salts deposited from the sulfur.
gunpowder is: C. 75% potassium chlorate, 10 % charcoal and 15 %
A. pressure sulfur.
B. corrosion D. 75% potassium nitrate, 10% charcoal and 15% sulfur.,
C. erosion
D. decomposition QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS
91. Technically speaking, the term ammunition refers to a
group of cartridges or to a single unit or single cartridge. 1. It is decorative stroke that finishes off the end of
What is now a cartridge? a letters stem.
A. the entire primer assembly consisting of primer cup, a. Serif
priming mixture, and the anvil b. Feet
B. a complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet, c. San Serif
cartridge case, gunpowder and primer
d. Loop
C. an entire cartridge case, including extracting groove,
shell head, and the crimp
D. the bullet consisting of the nose, the body and the 2. Questioned document examination used in
base. deciphering indented writings.
92. A type of a bullet designed to be fired at night which a. Video Spectral Comparator
emits a bright flame at its base and usually colored red- b. Electrostatic Detection Apparatus
tip. c. Red jumpsuit apparatus
A. Armor piercing d. Projection light examination
B. Tracer bullet
C. Incendiary bullet
D. Explosive 3. An examination to detect alterations made on
93. Smokeless powders were first invented by Paul Vielle inks.
making its way to become the very first satisfactory
Electrostatic Detection Apparatus
smokeless powder. It was first release in what place?
Oblique Light Examination
A. Italy
B. France Video Spectral Comparator
C. England Ink Eradicator
D. Rome
94. The most important single process in a barrel
manufacture from the standpoint of the identification 4. A person who is able to use the right and left
expert is: hands equally well.
A. reaming operation
Dextrous
B. rifling operation
Ambidextrous
C. lapping operation
D. drilling operation Pen lift
95. It refers to the measure of the twisting of the lands Hiatus
and grooves or one complete turn.
A. Pitch of rifling 5. Any material that contains a mark symbol or sign,
B. Bore diameter either visible, partially visible or invisible that may
C. Lands and grooves presently or ultimately convey a meaning or a message
D. Bullet twisting to someone.
96. A shaving marks on a bullet is due to: A. Document
A. Oversized barrel B. Standard Document
B. Poor alignment of the cylinder to the bore of the C. Questioned Document
barrel
D. Public Document
C. Oily barrel
D. Delayed combustion
6. A condensed and compact set of authentic
97. A device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to
muffle the sound of a gunshot. Most work by baffling the specimen which is adequate and proper should contain
escape of gases. a cross section of the material from known sources is:
a. Buffer A. Disguised document
b. Silencer B. Public Document
c. Magazine C. Standard document
d. Hanger D. Official document
98. The FP-45 (Liberator gun or Woolworth gun) was put
into service use by American troops during WWII against 7. It is a classification of document in which it is
insurgent, it could effectively in an 8 yards range. The issued by a public official in the exercise of the functions
Liberator gun use what caliber of ammunition? of his office.
a. Caliber .50
A. Public Document
b. Caliber .38
B. Official Document
c. Caliber .357
d. Caliber .45 C. Private Document
99. It is known as the smallest pistol commercially D. Commercial Document
available center fire cartridge and patented by Franz
Pfannl in 1914. 8. Majority of questioned document cases are
a. Kolibri concerned with _________?
b. Miniature Revolver C1ST A. Documents Age
c. Handgun Caliber .50 B. Disproving Alibis
d. UZ C. Proving Authorship
100. Black powder basically composed of: D. Counterfeiting

Amici Review Center Page 17


C. forgery; the signatory just want to deny the issuance
9. It is a type of standard document executed in the of the check
day to day activities and is being produced in the regular D. forgery; no signature is exactly the same in all
course of man’s activity. aspects when compared
A. Notarized Document
B. Contemporary Document 17. It is an introductory backward strokes found in
C. Collected/Procured Document most capital letters.
D. Requested/Dictated Document A. Hiatus
B. Hitch
10. In the history of questioned document C. Knob
examination, who was the British examiner of D. Loop
questioned document who said that an intelligent police
investigator can detect almost 75% of all forgeries by 18. PINSP. Dalisay is investigating a fraudulent
careful inspection of a document with simple magnifiers handwriting having clear cut strokes and an evident lack
and measuring tools was; of freedom. This is an indication that:
A. Alphonse Bertillion A. The writer is using his fingers in writing
B. Detective Allan Pinkerton B. The has intentionally slowing his writing speed to
C. Dr. Wilson Harrison disguise it
D. Richard Henry C. The writer has a very fine handwriting
D. All of these
11. Contemporary handwriting standards means that
the age of the standards should be within? 19. . It is the stroke which goes back over the
A. 8 years from the date of the question document previous writing strokes.
B. 10 years prior to the date of the questioned document A. Retracing
C. 5 years prior to the date of the questioned B. Retouching
document C. Patching
D. 15 years prior to the date of the questioned document D. Shading

12. It is a specimen of writing executed deliberately 20. . It refers to any form of changes either by
with an attempt of changing its usual writing habits to addition or deletion to the original document which is not
hide his/her identity. a content of its original preparation.
A. Natural Writing A. Erasure
B. Hand lettering B. Alteration
C. Guided/Assisted Writing C. Mechanical Erasure
D. Disguised D. Chemical Erasure

13. To be able to make a positive identification of a 21. Is a light examination in which the source of
person, document examiner must be able to observe the illumination strikes the surface of the paper from the
________. back or at the bottom, usually designed in identification
A. Characteristics of his handwriting of water markings?
B. Writing position of the writer A. Direct Light
C. Manner on how the writer moves the pain B. Side Light
D. Distinguishing individual features of his C. Oblique Light
handwriting D. Transmitted Light

14. It is a name of a person which represent as an 22. It is a type of mal-alignment wherein a character
identification in a document and serves as an is printed above or below its correct position. A.
acknowledgement of the document signed. Horizontal Mal-alignment
A. Evidential Signature B. Vertical Mal-alignment
B. Model Signature C. Twisted Letters
C. Signature D. Off-its-Feet
D. Fingerprint
23. It is a type of conventional typewriter in which
15. A genuine signature used to prepare an imitated the characters is 12 inch horizontal.
or traced forgery is known as A. Pica (10)
A. Evidential Signature B. Elite
B. Forged Signature C. Typewriter
C. Model signature D. Betamax
D. Repeated Signature
24. A document completely written and signed by
16. A signature in a check is suspected to have been one person is known as____________.
forged. The signatory does not remember categorically A. Holograpic document
whether he had issued the check. The signature was B. Questioned document
compared with a genuine signature but both were in the C. Standard document
same in size and shape. What will be your conclusion D. None of the above
about the signature?
A. genuine; the signatory only forgot the issuance of the 25. What was done, when one retouches or goes
check back over a defective portion of a writing stroke? A.
B. genuine; both signatures are exactly the same in size retracing
and shape B. Pen pressure

Amici Review Center Page 18


C. patching 34. What ancient writing material was made of
D. Pen shading goatskin or sheep skin?

26. It is one of the most expensive instruments used A. Papyrus


for examination of documents that would show three B. Parchment
dimensional enlargements? C. Vellum
A. stereoscopic microscope D. Venom
B. infrared gadget 35. Which of these is the oldest ink that was
C. ultraviolet light developed?
D. Electrostatic Detection Apparatus
A. Gallotanic ink
27. A type of abnormality/defects in typewriter that B. Logwood ink
can easily be corrected by simply cleaning the machine C. Indian ink
or replacing the ribbon? D. Nigrosine
A. temporary defect 36. Who is regarded as the Grandfather of Modern
B. clogged type face Graphology?
C. permanent defect A. Aristotle
D. actual breakage B. Albert Osborn
C. Jean Michon
28. The visible record of the written strokes resulting D. Camillo Baldi
from a combination of various factors associated to the
motion of the pen? Is the overall quality of the strokes? 37. He wrote a book entitled “Questioned
A. Obliteration Documents.” He was the most influential document
B. writing habits examiner in America and regarded as the Father of QDE?
C. line quality
D. significant writing habits A. Wilson Harrison
E. Decipherment “Process of making out” B. Alfred Dreyfus
C. Albert Osborn
29. The author of a typewritten document can be D. Abe Michon
identified through
A. his peculiar style of indention, grammar 38. The legal classification of documents are the
composition, and paragraphing following, except –
B. individual characteristics of the typewriter machine
C. design and style of the typewriter’s character A. Official document.
D. brand and model of the typewriter B. Questioned document.
C. Commercial and private document.
30. It is the identifying of similarities and D. Public document
dissimilarities, determination of likelihood of occurrence,
and weighing down of the significance of each factor. 39. Any instrument executed in accordance with the
A. Analysis mercantile law that contains disposition of trade rights
B. Comparison and obligations is classified as –
C. Evaluation
D. All of these A. Public document
B. Commercial document
31. Paleography came from the Greek word ‘palaios’ C. Notarized document
which means ____. D. Official document

A. Art writing 40. “The document examiner must decide within the
B. Writing limits of science” best means _____.
C. To write
D. Old writing a. The examiner must conduct examination immediately
b. The examiner must decide based from the
32. Which of the following is considered the earliest findings
material as to paper? c. The examiner must examine all specimens
d. The examiner must do fair examination
A. Vellum
B. Vegetable fiber 41. In typewriting probe the condition of a type face
C. Papyrus printing heavier on one side is:
D. Parchment
A. Irregular print
33. Paleographers study writings found on ancient C. Off its feet
documents made of papyrus, parchment, vellum, & wax- B. Guided face print
tablets. From what material is papyrus made of? D. None of these

A. Calf skin 42. 118. Which of these terms is used to describe a


B. Sheep skin line, sentence or paragraph that is inserted in between
C. Reed grass/Sedge lines or paragraphs written in a document?
D. Goatskin
A. Addition
B. Superimposition

Amici Review Center Page 19


C. Substitution C. Handwriting
D. Interlineations D. Steganography

43. When does official document becomes public 51. It is one of the most valuable tools of the
document? question document examiner which supplements any
visual examination of a document.
a. When a document was issued by an official and a. Magnifying glass
was notarized for legal purposes. b. Microscope
b. When a notarized document was issued by an official c. ESDA
of a government office. d. VSC
c. When a receipt was issued and was certified as true
copy. 52. Is a versatile tool that offers simple and effective
d. When a document is certified and notarized by a analysis throughout all stages of offset ink production
notary public. and printing
a. ESDA
44. How charred or burned documents are wrapped b. Spectrophotometer
and packed? c. Microscope
d. Magnifying glass
a. In between leaves of notebook.
b. In rigid container between layers of cotton. 53. When a document was examined, it was found
c. In a glass with water out that it lacks authenticity, claimed by another person
d. None and not by the real author, the examiner classifies this
as_______
45. What do you call the writings found on a paper a. special
pad after the top sheet has been removed? b. traced
c. disguised
a. Disguised writing d. spurious
b. Questioned writing
c. Invisible writing 54. what is the element of writing that is regular,
d. Indented writing recurrent and visually pleasing?
a. rhythm
46. Used to make the examiner discover or see b. restrained
minute physical details of the writings in a document c. regulated
which would not be possible by merely using his naked d. genuine
eye?
55. what is a brandish stroke which is naturally added
A. Transmitted light examination by the author to the capital letters in order to make them
B. Infra-red light examination attractive and may become the writer's identity or special
C. Microscopic examination features?
D. Ultra-violet light examination a. peculiarities
b. knot
47. What technique should be applied in recording c. beard
the original appearance of a charred document that was d. spur
discovered at the crime scene?
56. How do you call the ruled or imaginary line in
A. Microphotography which the letter rests?
B. Infrared photography a. stationed
C. Ultraviolet photography b. formed
D. The golden rule in crime scene investigation c. actual
d. baseline
48. Any document that has been darkened and brittle
through exposure to fire or excessive heat. 57. . During the entrance test in UP, an examinee
a. Paper document tends to remove her pens from teh answer sheet every
b. Charred document time the watcher looks at her. this is referring
c. Destroyed document to________
d. Burned document a. pen pressure
b. pen lift
49. 128. When did the Americans introduced the ball c. pen stop
point pen in the Philippines? d. pen emphasis

A. 1929 58. Handwritings exhibits identifying properties of


B. 1930 elements which are used by an examiner in order to
C. 1945 identify the author. This refers to ______
D. 1959 a. identifying characteristics
b. personal characteristics
50. The system of printing and writing for the blind. c. individualism
d. individual characteristics
A. Brainwriting
B. Braille

Amici Review Center Page 20


59. What kind of forgery wherein copying or a Complete
animation of a genuine signature or writing as to b Cursory or customary
resemble the model? c Formal
a. Simulated d Careless scribble
b. Traced
c. Natural 68. The rounded outside of the top of the curve or
d. Simple stroke in the small letters “n” and “m” is called the
a Shoulder
60. The application of intermittent force of a writing b Arch
instrument against the paper resulting to the widening c Hump
of the strokes to give special attention and importance is d Arc
called____
a. retracing 69. This kind of will is signed by the testator
b. pen emphasis acknowledged before the notary public with witnesses a.
c. pen lift Notarian
d. pen pressure b. Holographic
c. Stenographic
61. In writing a holographic will, all letters are in d. notarial
majuscule in order to make it clear and concise. In what
form is it written? 70. It represents the backbone or main stroke of the
a. Script style letters.
b. Cursive a Slant
c. Capitalized b Staff
d. Block style c Diacritics
d Foot
62. Which of the following can be legally used in
comparison with a questioned document since its origin 71. It refers to a specimen of a person’s handwriting
is known and can be proven? executed in the normal course of business, personal, or
a. forged social activity.
b. compared a Physical evidence
c. standard b Collected Standard
d. falsified c Dictated Standard
d Formal Standard
63. Police officer Bryant, a questioned document
expert, was assigned to investigate a public document 72. No two specimen writing prepared by any one are
by Councilor Martin. He concluded that the suspect tried identical in every detail since this is an integral part of
to retouch the portion on the amount of some materials natural writing.
to be purchased including the signature of Amici Review a. rhythm
Center Page 5 the councilor in order to look as perfect b. alignment
as the genuine. What is the technique did the suspect c. natural variation
apply? d. normal
a. retracing
b. patching 73. The red and blue security fibers scattered at
c. arranging random on both surface and can be picked off by a
d. restoring pointed instrument.
a. security thread
64. It refers to the added element used to complete b. security fiber
certain letters, and can either be a crossbar of a dot. c. watermark
a. Ligature d. seal
b. Blunt
c. Diacritic 74. A document is considered to
d. Hump be_______________ when it is more than 30 years kept
in a place where it is normally to be found it genuine and
65. Fraudulent Tampering with a document often not embellished by any alteration.
involves two kinds of erasures, namely: a. antique
a. Mechanical and Chemical b. ancient
b. Electronic and Chemical c. archaic
c. Electronic and Mechanical d. none of these
d. all of the above
75. It is a group of muscles that push the pen up to
66. An examination of documents wherein it is form the upward strokes.
viewed the source of light behind it, letting light pass a Extensors
through the paper. b Flexors
a Transmitted Light Examination c Intensors
b Infrared Light Examination d Reflexors
c Oblique Light Examination 76. It is committed by giving any payable instrument
d Ultraviolet Examination to bearer such as treasury or bank notes the appearance
of a genuine document.
67. Signatures used to acknowledge delivery, a. Estafa c. Forgery
purchase of goods and mail.

Amici Review Center Page 21


b. Falsification of document d. All of b. Rhythm d. Writing
these pressure
88. Which among the following is an indication of
77. The act of making it appears that persons have genuineness of handwriting?
participated in any proceeding or act when in fact they a. Continuity c. Skillful writing
have not participated in any document. b. Smoothness d. Tremor
a. Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. All of the 89. A class of signature for routine document or day
foregoing to day correspondence.
a. Formal c. Cursory
b. Complete d. Careless scribble
78. Iodine fumes is useful in questioned document
examination because: 90. A process by which a canal like outline is
a. It can be used to develop secret writings produced on a fraudulent document underneath the
b. It can be used to determine whether erasures have genuine and tracing it with the use of a pointed
been made instrument.
c. It can determine the kind of ink used in writing a. Carbon process c. Projection process
d. Both A and B b. Indention process d. Transmitted light
process
79. Which among the foregoing may be utilized as a
means to carry out mechanical erasures? 91. A writing instrument that makes detection of
a. Rubber eraser c. Blade hesitation and pen-lifts difficult.
b. Sharp knife d. All of these a. Ball point pen c. Iron nutgall ink
b. Fountain pen d. Markers
80. An erasure with the use of ink eradicators.
a. Mechanical erasure c. Electronic erasure 92. A distinctive design which is translucent
b. Chemical erasure d. All of the foregoing impressed on the paper during manufacture.
a. Water marks c. Paper design
81. To obtain conviction for the charge of possession b. Fiber marks d. Wire marks
of false bank or treasury notes this is an essential
requisite.
a. Intention to use it c. Intention to 93. In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph,
surrender it to authorities what particular condition is manifested?
b. Intention to keep it d. Intention to display a. Grainy image c. Overlapping image
it. b. Two image d. Three
dimensional image
82. A man who is unable to write may use this to
legally signify a signature.
a. Crude x c. Thumb mark 94. It is a signature signed at a particular time and
b. Cross mark d. Both A and B place, purpose and normal writing conditions.
a. Complete signature c. Evidential
83. It refers to any abnormality or maladjustment in signature
the typewriter which is reflected in its product. b. Standard signature d. Model signature
a. Defect c. Misalignment
b. Mal alignment d. Alteration
95. he most reliable criterion in judging the
84. Enlarged photographic court exhibit usually authenticity of paper money.
referred to as bromide enlargements of a document. a. Quality or sharpness of the engraving
a. Standard document c.Collected b. Color of the seal
documents c. Wet strength of the paper
b. Questioned documents d. Display exhibits d. Watermarks

85. The appearance of paper when viewed by 96. It is a deviation showing free connecting and
transmitted light, which discloses the formation and terminal strokes made by the momentum of the hand.
texture of the sheet. a. Tremor c. Genuine tremor
a. Lock-through of paper c. Cross b. Tremors of fraud d. Deterioration
marks
b. Watermarks d. Sidelight marks 97. A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the
horizontal inch.
86. Writing in which are for most part joined a. Pica c. Proportional spacing machine
together. b. Elite d. Adding machine
a. Natural writing c. Cursive
writing 98. An act of setting two or more items to weigh their
b. Disguised writing d. System of identifying characteristics.
writing a. Comparison c. Conclusion
b. Collation d. Examination
87. Visible record in the writing stroke of the basis
movement and manner of holding the writing
instrument. 99. An identifying typewriter characteristic which can
a. Line quality c. Baseline be eliminated by cleaning the machine or replacing the

Amici Review Center Page 22


ribbon. pressure were of greater value in detecting deception
a. Transitory defect c. Permanent defect than respiratory changes
b. Alignment defect d. Defect a. Harold Burtt
b. Sticker
c. Veraguth
100. Also known as “post litel motam” or dictated
d. Ruckmick
standards is a document which are executed and
prepared at one time upon request. 9. The term psychogalavanic reflex used by veraguth
a. Requested standards was repudiated by him and proposed the term
b. Collected standards “electrodermal response”
c. Standard documents a. Harold Burtt
d. Holographic documents b. Sticker
c. Veraguth
d. Ruckmick
LIE DETECTION TECHNIQUES
10. He used the word PSYCHOGALVANIC reflex. He
1. This is any deviation from the normal tracing of the believed that electrical phenomena are due to the
subject. activity of sweat glands, and such activity is known as
a. Deception “psychogalvanic
b. Lying a. Harold Burtt
c. Specific response b. Sticker
d. Normal tracing c. Veraguth
d. Ruckmick
2. It is an act of deceiving or misleading usually
accompanied by lying. 11. This premise states that specific nervous system
a. Deception component whose stimulation can thus be diagnosed are
b. Lying so stimulated by the involuntary and emotional
c. Specific response processes of the individual who is continuously
d. Normal tracing attempting concealment of deception.
a. Psychological leg basic premise
3. What is a tracing on the chart wherein the subject b. Physiological leg basic premise
answered in the irrelevant question? c. Mechanical leg basic premise
a. Deception d. None of these
b. Lying
c. Specific response
d. Normal tracing 12. This premise states that the polygraph is capable of
making graphic record containing reliable information
4. This ordeal is done to a man accused of sorcery was regarding physiological responses of the subject
to be submerged in a stream. a. Psychological leg basic premise
a. Ordeal of cold water b. Physiological leg basic premise
b. Ordeal of hot water c. Mechanical leg basic premise
c. Rice chewing ordeal d. None of these
d. Red hot iron ordeal

13. This states that among the physiological responses


5. judicium aquae ferventis), also known as the that may be recorded are those that automatically occur
“cauldron ordeal,”a large kettle of water would be heated only following the stimulation of specific nervous
to the boiling point and a ring or jewel placed at the component system
bottom. ... This form of ordeal was meant to ascertain a. Psychological leg basic premise
the guilt or innocence of a person accused of murder b. Physiological leg basic premise
a. Ordeal of cold water c. Mechanical leg basic premise
b. Ordeal of hot water d. None of these
c. Rice chewing ordeal
d. Red hot iron ordeal
14. his is a person who cannot distinguish between right
and wrong. also known as mythomania and pseudologia
6. What is the other term for polygraph examination? fantastica, is the chronic behavior of compulsive or
a. Psychophysiological detection of deception habitual lying. Unlike telling the occasional white lie to
b. Lie detector test avoid hurting someone's feelings or getting in trouble, a
c. Narcoanalysis pathological liar seems to lie for no apparent reason
d. None of these a. Pathological liar
b. Black liar
c. Ethnological liar
7. He was a Greek anatomist and Royal physician known d. Occupational liar
for the detection of detection by feeling the pulse.
(Quickening of the pulse)
a. Erasistratus
b. Galileo Galilei 15. This kind of lie would normally cause discord if
c. Hippocrates uncovered but offers some benefit to the liar and assists
d. None of the above in an orderly society therefore potentially beneficial to
others
a. White lie
b. Puffery lie
8. Determined that respiratory changes were indicative c. Noble lie
of deception and found out that changes in systolic blood d. None of these

Amici Review Center Page 23


16. This lie is an exaggerated claim typically found in 25. What is the size of the recording pen of a
advertising and publicity announcements cardiosphygmograph?
a. White lie a. 5
b. Puffery lie b. 6
c. Noble lie c. 7
d. None of these d. 8

17. The _______ nervous system works to restore things 26. This component is a motor that pulls or drives the
to normal when the conditions of stress have been chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at
removed. It is the dominant branch when the condition the rate of 6 or 12 inches per minute.
is normal and the subject is calm, contented and relaxed a. Keymograph
a. Sympathetic b. Cardiosphymograph
b. Parasymphatetic c. Pneumography
c. Central d. galvanograph
d. autonomic
27. What is the duration of the pre-test interview?
a. 12-30 minutes
18. What chemical is released by the brain during b. 10-30 minutes
situations of stress, shock and fear that will excite most c. 20-30 minutes
of his physiological responses and will give an increase d. 10-20 minutes
in heart rate and a rise in blood pressure
a. Epinephrine 28. Which of the following is the purpose of the pre-test
b. Norepinephrine interview?
c. Oxytocin a. To determine whether the subject has any medical or
d. endorphine psychiatric condition or has used drugs that will prevent
the testing.
b. To explain to the subject the purpose of the
19. This chemical is released by the brain to restore examination.
things to normal when the conditions of stress have been c. to prepare or condition the subject for the actual test
removed. d. all of the above
a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine 30. These are questions which have no bearing to the
c. Oxytocin case under investigation
d. endorphine a. Relevant questions
b. Irrelevant questions
c. Control questions
20. This machine records the tiny voice modulations of d. Weak relevant questions
the subject which is inaudible to the normal hearer.
a. Eye tracker 31. These are questions pertaining to the issue under
b. Nystagmys investigation. They must be unambiguous, unequivocal
c. Spectrography and understandable to the subject
d. Psychological stress evaluator a. Relevant questions
b. Irrelevant questions
c. Control questions
21. In this test, HYOSCINE HYDROBROMIDE is given d. Weak relevant questions
hypodermically in repeated doses until a state of delirium
is induced 32. These are questions which are unrelated to the
a. Truth serum matter under investigation but are of similar nature
b. Narcoanalysis/narco synthesis although less serious as compared to those relevant
c. Intoxication questions under investigation.
d. hypnosis a. Relevant questions
b. Irrelevant questions
c. Control questions
22. Psychiatric sodium amytal or sodium penthotal is
d. Weak relevant questions
administered to the subject. When the effects appear ,
questioning starts It is claimed that the drug causes
33. This test consists of a series of relevant and
depression of the inhibitory mechanism of the brain and
irrelevant questioned asked in a planned order
the subjects talk freely.
a. General question test
a. Truth serum
b. Peak of tension test
b. Narcoanalysis/narco synthesis
c. Guilt complex test
c. Intoxication
d. None of these
d. hypnosis
34. In cases where the subject is overly responsive, this
23. How many recording pens in a cardiosphygmograph?
test is given which consists of a test pertaining to a
a. 1
purely fictitious incident of a similar nature to the one
b. 2
under query. It is designed to compare the
c. 3
responsiveness on it with those that appeared on the
d. 4
actual test record wherein questions are those which
pertains to that which is under investigation. This test is
24. What is the size of the recording pen of a
designed for diagnostic purpose to aid in the post
cardiosphygmograph?
examination interrogation of a lying subject.
a. 5
a. Control question test
b. 6
b. Directed lie test
c. 7
c. Guilty knowledge test
d. 8
d. Guilt Complex Test

Amici Review Center Page 24


c. Hammurabi Code
35. How many cards are used in a card test? d. None of the above
a. 4
b. 5 44. He is considered as the first person to conceive the
c. 6 idea of lie detection and the first to apply the technique
d. 7 in actual criminal suspects
a. Angelo Mosso
36. What company is the leader in the manufacture of b. Daniel Defoe
polygraph? c. Cesare Lombroso
a. Lafayette instrument company d. Francis Galton
b. Axciton
c. Stoelting 45. Introduced the Word Association Test using series of
d. Limestone irrelevant questions and relevant question separated in
time
37. Its primary purpose of the ____ is to prepare or a. Angelo Mosso
condition the subject for the test. b. Daniel Defoe
a. Pre test c. Cesare Lombroso
b. Initial interview d. Francis Galton
c. Instrumental test
d. Preliminary preparations 46. Also called Neutral Question
a. Symptomatic Question
38. It concern some secondary element of the crime or b. Sacrifice Relevant Question
problem and deals with mostly in guilty knowledge and c. Irrelevant Question
partial involvement. d. Relevant Question
a. Weak Relevant Question
b. Evidence Connecting Question 47. 1923 in USA case that polygraph was NOT
c. Knowledge Question ADMITTED AS EVIDENCE
d. Strong Relevant Question a. States vs Frye
b. State vs corners
c. State vs garrofalo
39. The subject may be given this test if he is not yet d. State vs Jennings
informed of the details of the offense for which he is
being interrogated by the investigation, or by other 48. Conducted by an investigator handling the case,
persons or from other sources like the print media. This designed for the obtaining of pertinent information
valid test is only made possibly when there is no necessary for the conduct of the test
widespread publicity about a crime where intimate a. Post Interview/Interrogation
details as to the methods of commission or certain facts b. The Pre-test interview
of the case is known from the victim and investigator. c. The conduct of instrumental test
a. Guilt complex test d. Initial Interview
b. Control question
c. Peak of tension test
d. Psychological stress evaluator 49. When should the examiner perform chart probing?
a. After the polygraph test
40. How would you consider the First markings of the b. Anytime the examines decides
examiner on the chart? c. During the entire polygraph examination
a. X d. At the end of each particular polygraph test
b. XX
c. X / 60 / 1.5 A 50. An instrument for recording variations in pressure,
d. XX / 60 / 1.5 A e.g., in sound waves or in blood within blood vessels, by
the trace of a stylus on a rotating cylinder.
41. Lists of stimulus and non-stimulus word are read to a. Kymograph
the subject who is instructed to answer as quickly as b. Pheumograph
possible. The answers to the question may be “yes” or c. Galvanograph
“no”. Unlike the lie detector, the time interval between d. Cardiograph
the words uttered by the examiner and the answer to
the question is recorded 51. What is the act of uttering or conveying of falsehood
a. Guilt Complex Test or creating a false or misleading information with the
b. Word Association Test intention of affecting wrongfully the acts and opinion of
c. Use of padding question other?
d. Administration of Truth Serum a. Deception
b. Lying
c. Specific response
42. What do you call the alteration of consciousness and d. Normal tracing
concentration in which the subject manifests a
heightened of suggestibility while awareness is 52. What is the act of uttering or conveying of falsehood
maintained? or creating a false or misleading information with the
a. Hypnotism intention of affecting wrongfully the acts and opinion of
b. Narcoanalysis other?
c. Intoxication With Alcohol a. Deception
d. Use of Truth Serum b. Lying
c. Specific response
43. Considered as an earliest known reference to a d. Normal tracing
method of detecting deception
a. Ayur Vida
b. Ordeal

Amici Review Center Page 25


53. The term polygraph was first used in 1906 by James reputation, to protect someone’s feelings from getting
MacKenzie in his invention the “ink polygraph”, which hurt, or to avoid punishment.
was used for medical purposes. a. Lie
a. William Marston b. Liar
b. John Larson c. Either of the two
c. Cesare Lombroso d. None of the above
d. James Mackenzie
63. It is a lie that is told when it is obvious to all
54. Today, most polygraph test are administered with concerned that is a lie.
the digital equipment rather than the analog type. a. Lie to Children
a. True b. Bald Face Lie
b. False c. White Lie
c. Partially True d. Lying by Omission
d. Partially False
64. It is often a platitude that may use euphemism that
55. The nervous control of the human body includes the: is told to make an adult subject acceptable to children.
a. Central Nervous System a. Lie to Children
b. Autonomic Nervous System b. Bald Face Lie
c. Muscular System c. White Lie
d. Reproductive System d. Lie to adult
e. Both A & B
65. It is an strategic lie told when the truth may not be
56. The nervous control of the human body includes the: told because, for example, harm to a third party would
a. Central Nervous System come of it.
b. Autonomic Nervous System a. Perjury
c. Muscular System b. Emergency Lie
d. Reproductive System c. Bluffing
e. Both A & B d. Misleading

57. When the person is under the influence of physical 66. . It is the act of lying or making verifiably false
exertion or emotional stimuli, the sympathetic will statements on material matter under oath or affirmation
dominate and over-rid the parasympathetic, thus there in a court of law or in any of various sworn statements
will be changes in the heart rate, blood pressure, in writing.
respiratory pattern, psycho galvanic reflexes, time of a. Perjury
response to question, and voice tracing. b. Bluffing
a. True c. Dissembling
b. Partially True d. Misleading
c. False
d. Partially False 67. Which of the following is not a standard qualification
of a polygraph examiner?
58. In lie detector, the time interval between the words a. He must be free of prejudice
uttered by the examiner and the answer of the subject b. He is an impartial seeker of truth
is recorded. c. He must be a policeman
a. True d. He must be of good moral character
b. False
c. Doubtful 68. The examination room must be equipped with
d. I do not Know paintings, decorations or other ornaments.
a. True
59. When the subject is asked with reference to his b. False
name, address, civil status, nationality, ect., which has c. Partially True
no relation to the subject matter of the investigation, the d. Partially False
tendency is to delay the answer.
a. True 69. Permanent physical illness such as mental
b. Partially True derangement, certain heart condition and addiction to
c. Doubtful narcotic drugs are definite causes that makes a person
d. False unfit for a polygraph test.
a. True
60. When the person is under stress as when he is lying, b. False
the micro tremor in the voice utterance is moderately c. Partially True
and completely suppressed. d. Partially False
a. True
b. False 70. Questions formulated must be short, simple and
c. Partially True multiple choice type.
d. Doubtful a. True
b. False
61. The Latin maxim which means that in wine there is c. Partially True
truth. d. Partially false
a. In Vino San Miguel
b. In Vino Matador 71. These are questions which are unrelated to the
c. InVino Veritos matter under investigation but of similar nature although
d. In Vino Veritas less serious as compared to those relevant questions
under investigation.
62. It is also called Prevarication. A type of deception in a. Relevant Question
the form of untruthful statements with the intention to b. Irrelevant Question
deceive, often with the intention to maintain a secret of c. Control Question

Amici Review Center Page 26


d. Supplementary Question a. Peak of Tension Test

72. Which among the following is not a required b. Silent Test


qualification for a polygraph examiner?
a. Criminology Graduate c. Narrative
b. Honesty
d. Guilt Complex Test
c. Technical Know How
d. Integrity and Morals

73. . Which among the forgoing is not a part in the 80. It refers to the composite records of pneumograph,
conduct of a polygraph examination? galvanograph, and cardiosphygmograph tracings
a. Pre-test Interview recorded from series of question.
b. Instrumental Test
c. Post-Test Interview a. Polygrams
d. Psychological Test
b. Chart

74. . Which among the following is not included in c. Subject


recording the psycho-physiological response of the
d. A & B
subject?
81. . It is any deviation from the normal tracing of the
a. Use of Water therapy
subject.
b. Psychological Stress Evaluator
a. Normal Response
c. Word Association Test
b. Specific Response
d. Polygraph Machine
c. Polygrams
75. A person who is capable of detecting deception with
d. Response
the use of instrumentation or mechanical device.
82. A subject must have at least how many hours of
a. Interrogator
sleep to be considered fit for polygraph examination.
b. Detective
a. 5
c. Medico-legal Officer
b. 6
d. Polygraph Examiner
c. 7
76. . Which among the following statement is not among
d. 8
the limitations of the polygraph?
83. He states that FEAR influenced the heart and could
a. It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent.
be use as a basis for detecting deception.
b. It is admissible as evidence.
a. Marston
c. It is an aid and not a substitute for investigation.
b. Larson
d. It is a scientific diagnostic instrument which records
c. Mosso
responses.
d. Verguth
77. An invaluable aid in investigation and an instrument
in the detection of deception.

a. Photography 84. An act of discovery that is indicative of the fact that


something is hidden or obscure.
b. Chemistry
a. Fear
c. Lie Detection
b. Deception
d. Medicine
c. Detection

d. Reaction
78. A test usually administered as part of the standard
test to draw a better conclusion. 85. An inhibition of a previous activity of an organism as
a result of stimulation.
a. Relevant Question
a. Response
b. Supplementary
b. Reaction
c. Control
c. Stimuli
d. Irrelevant
d. Fear

79. A test conducted wherein the subject is instructed


not to produce verbal response.

Amici Review Center Page 27


86. It refers to an emotional response to a specific c. John Larson
danger which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive
power. d. Leonard Keeler

a. Response

b. Deception 93. He is known as the first man who used the word
“Polygraphy”?
c.Stimuli
d. Fear A. Francis Galton

B. Isaac Newton

87. This component drives the chart paper under the C. Thomas Jefferson
recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 D. Henry Fox Talbot
inches per minute.

a. Cardiosphygmograph
94. Ordeal is a term of varying meaning closely related
b. Kymograph in the Medieval Latin “Dei Indicum” which means –
c. Stimuli A. Divine intervention
d. Fear B. Miraculous decision
88. A part of the galvanograph attached to the left C. God’s hand
fingers of the subject.
D. God’s favor
a. Finger electrode plate
95. When the subject is highly nervous, what should the
b. Diacritic notch examiner do?
c. Rubber convoluted tube A. Reschedule the examination
d. Kymograph B. Prolong the period of the pre-test interview
89. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small C. Call for a doctor or request for an ambulance
amount of electricity.
D. Do not continue with the pre-test and ask the subject
a. Cardiosphygmograph for his available date for reschedule
b. Sphygmomanometer

c. Galvanograph 96. What is the first step to be done in a pre-test


d. Pneumograph interview?

A. ask the subject regarding all information the


circumstances surrounding the commission of the crime
90. . What is the primary objective of the posttest B. examiner tells the nature and characteristics of the
interview? polygraph examination to the subject

a. To thank the subject C. you are informed of your rights against self
incrimination and your right to a counsel
b. To obtain confession
D. facts of the case must be prepared prior to the
c. To make the subject calm questioning of the subject to monitor response
d. To explain polygraph test procedures

97. The following should be taken onto consideration


91. Test undertaken when both relevant and control during the pre-test, EXCEPT:
questions are similar in degree and consistency. A. appraisal of the subject's constitutional rights
a. Guilt complex test B. Obtain subject's consent to undergo examination
b. Silent answer Test C. taking history record of the subject
c. Peak of Tension Test D. evaluating the psychological preparations of the
d. None of the Above subject

92. He developed the systolic blood pressure method for 98. 7. In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he
detecting deception. is involved in a crime the examiner should report it to
the?
a. William Marston
A. Investigator
b. Harold Burtt

Amici Review Center Page 28


B. Object relative a. Lungs’s reagent
C. Prosecutor b. Parrafin agent
c. Nitrates
D. Judge
d. Stabilizing agent

99. What is the most important thing to consider in a 6. The following can affect the presence of powder
polygraph result? residues, except,
A. the competence of the examiner a. Humidity
b. Parrafin
B. the knowledge of the examiner
C. Direction of firing
C. the training of the examiner
D. Wind velocity
D. the experience of the examiners

7. Who is the first person who used the paraffin test


for the purpose of collecting residues from
100. Under backster zone comparison test technique,
color zones are applied in identifying so many questions discharge firearm?
used during the test. If the color zone for irrelevant a. Capt. Schultz
question is yellow, what then is the color zone for strong
b. Lt. R.P. Strong
relevant questions?
c. Dr. Iturriouz
A. Red d. None of the above
B. Black

C. Green 8. It refers to a rapid combustion, decomposition of


gases and consequent/violent increase of
D. Orange
pressure, usually causing a loud report.
a. Explosive
FORENSIC CHEMISTRY b. Explosion
c. Detonation
1. How many percent is the NaNO3 composition of black d. Dynamite
powder?
a. 15 9. The compositions of black powder are the following?
b. 20 a. Charcoal
c.75 b. Carbon
d. 35 c. both a and b
d. a only
2. DPA and determining gunpowder means?
A. Diphenylamine 10. It refers to low explosive which make up the charge to
B. Detrothilamine fire the projectile from weapon.
c. Dythalamide a. Charcoal
d. None of the above b. Gunpowder
c. propellant

3. DPA is also known as? d. both b and c

a. Lung’s reagent
b. Detrothylamide reagent 11. How many percent is the carbon composition of black
powder?
c. Chemical reagent
a. 15
d. None of the above
b. 10
c. 75
4. Balistite, axite and ambertite are example of?
d. 100
A. Smokeless powder
B. Blackpowder
12. How many percent is the sulfur composition of black
c. nitrate sulfate
powder?
d. All of the above
a. 15
b. 10
5. Smokeless powder was improves by adding another
c.85
substance with is so called?

Amici Review Center Page 29


d. 95 c. STD
d. All of the above
13. Red Blood Cells contains antigen or the so called?
a. Lanstenier 21. How many percent is the KNO3 composition of black
b. Agglutinogen powder?
c. Precipition a. 25
d. Agglutination b. 10
c. 85
14. Glycerol Nitrates and cellulose nitrates are the d. 75
component of?
a. Residue
b. Paraffin 22. How many percent is the NaNO3 composition of black
c. black powder powder?
d. Smokeless powder a. 15
b. 20
15. Smokeless powder was first used by? c.75
A. Capt. Schultz d. 35
B.Gen. Crame
c. Capt. Allen 23. What is the normal quantity of seminal fluid in a
d. None of the above single ejaculated.
A. 1.5-3.5 cc
16. Smokeless powder was first used in what year? B. 2.5-4.5 cc
a. 1984 C. 2.5- 5cc
b. 1864 D. 3.5- 5cc
c. 1898
d. None of the above 24. It is the major component of a glass.
a. lime
17. This test is to determine the presence of nitrates and b. soda
the wax is applied on hand causing the pores of the skin
c. silica
to open and exudes gunpowder residues.
d. gel
a. MBA
b. DPA
25.It is a super cooled liquid which possesses high
c. MPA
viscosity and rigidity
d. DBA
a. Carbon
b. Glass
18. In blood grouping, if anti serum A and anti serum B
c. Fracture
has a reaction or clump with the sample blood,
d. None of the above
the blood group is?
a. Group B
b. Group AB 26. Glass is usually composed of SiO2 and B2O3. SiO2
means?
c. Group O
a. Charcoal
d. Group A
b. Soda
c. Carbon
19. It refers to the fluids produced by the male sex organ
a. Semen d. Silica

b. Testes
c. Testoseterone
d. Vagina 27. Al2O2 is a chemical composition of?
a. Alumina
b. Lime
20. It is a condition especially to very young men
that there is a presence of semen without c. Silica

spermatozoa. d. Soda

a. Aspermia
b. UTI

Amici Review Center Page 30


28. This refers to analysis of glass in which the
effectiveness lies on the trace elements, this is done by 35. If blood is positive in the application of benzidine test,
analyzing two sample of glass whether it is common. it gives what color?
a. X-ray diffraction Analysis a. Red
b. Spectographic Analysis b. Blue
c. Physical activities. c. Green
d. None of the above d. Black

29. This refers to analysis of glass in which it is done 36. If in the application of benzidine test to the blood it
through the determination of its pattern and gives blue color in phenolphalein test it give what color?
composition. a. Red
a. X-ray diffraction Analysis b. Blue
b. Spectographic Analysis c. pink
c. Physical activities. d. Black
d. None of the above
37. Phenolphtalein test is also know as?

30. An average man has _____ amount of blood a. Kastle-meyer test

a. 6 meters b. Nakayama test

b. 6 quartz c. Drug test

c. 5 gallon d. Sugar test


d. 1 drum
38. Extensive studies have been made to glass
establish the relationship between refractive index and?
a. Polish Mask
31. Is the amount of blood found in the crime scene can
determine the length of time that the victim b. Spectographic

survived the attack? c. Glass

a. Yes, because when person is dead blood d. Composition


pressure falls to zero and bleeding ceases
b. No, it depends on the wound of the victim 39. Refractive index of glass can be measured by what
method?
c. It depends upon the situation
a. Immersion
d. All of the above
b. Ability
c. Glass
d. Durability
32. This test for blood may be made by the policeman on
the crime scene.
40. The most sensitive method of determining
a. Preliminary test
differences of composition in glass samples depends
b. Secondary Test
upon the study of?
c. Teichman Test
a. Chemical
d. Drug Test
b. X-ray difraction
c. Physical properties of Glass
33. This type of test is very delicate and never fails to d. Durability
detect blood.
a. Preliminary test
41. It refers to the clear liquid of blood that separates
b. Benzidine Test when the blood is allowed to clot.
c. Nakayama test a. Cells
d. Teichman Test b. Serum
c. WBC
34. Benzidine solution used in benzidine test is composed d. Platelets
of?
a. Dry chemical
42. Blood is red in color due to the presence of?
b. Benzidine solution and hydrogen peroxide
a. Bacteria
c. Benzidine solution and water
b. Serum
d. both b and c
c. Hemoglobin

Amici Review Center Page 31


d. Platelets blood, the blood group is?
a. Group B
43. The following are the importance of the study of blood b. Group AB
except, d. Group A
a. For disputed parentage c. Group O
b. As circumstantial
c. As conclusive evidence 51. is the relationship between the diameter of the
d. As corroborative evidence medulla and the diameter of the whole hair? Its
determination is performed under a microscope with
44. 65% of blood of human is composed of? micrometer eyepiece.

a. Plasma A. medullary index

b. Serum B. medullar radius

c. WBC C. medullary ratio

d. RBC D. none of these

52. Which of the following is the race determinant part of


45. 90% of plasma is composed of?
the hair?
a. Serum
a. medulla
b. Water
b. cortex
c. Platelets
c. cuticle
d. RBC
d. none of these

46. The following are the confirmatory test for blood


53. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere.
except;
a. Red
a. Microscopic test
b. Clay
b. Benzidine test
c. Reddish-brown
c. Microchemical test
d. Black
d. Spectroscopic test

47. This examination for blood is the most delicate and


54. Rate of growth of human hair.
reliable test for determining the presence of blood in
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm./day
both old and recent stains.
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm./day
a. Microscopic test
c. 0.6 to 0.6 mm./day
b. Spectroscopic test
d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm./day
c. Microchemical test
d. Teichman
55. He introduced chemical methods in toxicology.
a. Paulus Zacchias
b. Imhotep
48. This test determine the protein content of the blood.
c. Orfilla
a. Haemin Test
d. Severin Pineau
b. Spectroscopic test
c. Precipitin test 56. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of
d. Teichman serial numbers?
A. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate
49. Under this process, if human red cells is mixed with B. colloidal magnesium
its own serum or the serum of a similar group, C. etching solution
the cells remain even. If the cells are mixed with the D. borax solution
serum of another group, cell clumps.
a. Putrefaction 57. It is a biological test for blood?
b. Deviation A. benzidine test
d. Agglutination B. blood grouping/typing
c. Precipition C. takayama test
D. precipitin test
50. In blood grouping, if anti serum A and anti serum B
has a no reaction or clump with the sample 58. The cuticle of the animal hair is:

Amici Review Center Page 32


A. Rounded 66. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged
interval which allowed the development of serious
B. serrated
suquelae which becomes the cause of death. It is usually
C. oblong common to cases involving stab wounds.
D. circular a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of
death
b. Immediate or primary cause of death
59. Police Capt. X conducts a test that will possibly identify c. Cardio-respiratory arrest
blood or determines whether the blood stains really contained d. Nocturnal death
blood. This test is called?
67. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that
a. Precipitin test death has occurred more than 24 hours hence are useful
b. confirmatory test to proximate the time of death.
a. Flies
c. blood grouping test b. Earthworms
d. preliminary test c. Bees
d. Butterflies

60. ___ was the 1st poison for which the analytical test called a 68. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken by a
Marsh test was developed by british chemist James Marsh trained physician.
a. Autopsy
a. Arsenic
b. Embalming
b. Atropine c. Medical examination
c. Acetic Acid d. Post-mortem examination
d. acetone 69. Painful spasm of the vagina during sexual act.
a. Dyspareunia
61. A german Swiss physician/alchemist who 1st stress the b. Sexual Anesthesia
c. Vaginismus
chemical nature of poison and its experimentation. He d. Old Age
introduced the dose concept.
a.Orfila
70. After death, the metabolic process inside the body
b.Paracelsus ceases, heat is no longer produced and the body slowly
c.Hippocrates loses its temperature.
a. Algor mortis
d.Swartz
b. Rigor mortis
c. Cadaveric spasm
62. A posion found in a rugby and has been described as a d. Suspended animation
colorless and inflammable liquid that burns with smoky flame
71. Transient loss of consciousness with temporary
a. Toulene cassation of the vital functions of the body.
b.Quinine a. Death
b. Coma
c.Protamaine
c. Suspended animation
d. Picrotoxin d. Rigor mortis

72. Hair on the body surface is usually:


63. In what mode of administration that poison can be a. Thick
absorbed rapidly? b. Tapering gradually to fine points
a. oral c. Fine
d. all of the above
b. anal
c. inhalation 73. Characterized by no breathing and heart action, chill
in the body and non-existent reflexes.
d.injection
a. Death
b. Coma
64. A person who fired a gun would be positively identified c. Suspended animation
d. Rigor mortis
when DPA solution is used and the visible result is
a. Blue specs with tailing 74. If the length of the fetus is 45 cm., the age of the
b. Bluish florescence fetus is______ months.
a. 8 months
c. Green specs b. 9 months
d.Orange spec c. 6 months
d. 5 months

65. A branch of science that treats of the form and quantity of 75. Death occurs when there is deep irreversible coma,
medicine to be administered within a certain period absence of electrical brain activity and complete
cessation of all the vital functions without possibility of
a. toxicology
resuscitation.
b. serology a. Cardio-respiratory Death
c. biology b. Somatic Death
c. Brain death
d. Posology
d. Molecular Death

Amici Review Center Page 33


d. Stage of Caloricity
76. It occurs when there is a continuous and persistent
cessation of heart action and respiration. It is a condition 84. The muscles become flaccid, and no longer capable
in which the physician and the members of the family of responding to mechanical and chemical stimulus and
pronounce a person to be dead. the reaction become alkaline.
a. Cardio-respiratory Death a. Stage of Primary Flaccidity/Period of Muscular
b. Somatic Death Irritability
c. Brain death b. Stage of Post Mortem Rigidity or Cadaveric Rigidity or
d. Molecular Death Rigor Mortis
c. Stage of Secondary Flaccidity/Secondary
77. This is the state of the body in which there is Relaxation
complete, persistent and continuous cessation of the vital d. Stage of Caloricity
functions of the brain, heart and lungs which maintain
life and health. 85. The whole body becomes rigid due to the contraction
a. Cardio-respiratory Death of the muscles. This develops three to six hours after
b. Somatic Death death and may last from twenty-four to thirty-six hours.
c. Brain death a. Stage of Primary Flaccidity/Period of Muscular
d. Molecular Death Irritability
b. Stage of Post Mortem Rigidity or Cadaveric
78. After cessation of the vital functions of the body Rigidity or Rigor Mortis
there is still animal life among individual cells. About c. Stage of Secondary Flaccidity/Secondary Relaxation
three (3) to six (6) hours later there is death of individual d. Stage of Caloricity
cells. This is known as________.
a. State of Suspended Animation 86. The stoppage of the heart action and the loss of
b. Molecular Death blood vessels cause the blood to be under the influence
c. Clinical Death of gravity. It begins to accumulate in the most dependent
d. Somatic Death portion of the body.
a. Rigor Mortis
79. This condition is not really death but merely a b. Livor Mortis
transient loss of consciousness or temporary cessation of c. Algor Mortis
the vital function of the body on the account of disease d. None of this
or external stimulus or other forms or influence.
a. State of Suspended Animation 87. The blood merely gravitated into the most dependent
b. Molecular Death portion of the body but still inside the blood vessels and
c. Clinical Death still fluid in form.
d. Somatic Death a. Hypostatic Lividity
b. Diffusion Lividity
80. In this test, a ligature is applied around the base of a c. Caloricity
finger with moderate tightness. In a living person there d. None of this
appears a bloodless zone at the site of the application of
the ligature. If such ligature is applied to the finger of a 88. This appears during the later stage of its formation
dead man, there is no such change in color. when blood has coagulated inside the blood vessels or
a. Diaphanus Test has diffused into the tissues of the body.
b. Icard,s Test a. Hypostatic Lividity
c. Magnus Test b. Diffusion Lividity
d. None of these c. Caloricity
d. None of this
81. After death the metabolic process inside the body
ceases. No more heat is produced but the body loses 89. It is the breaking down of the complex proteins into
slowly its temperature, evaporation or by conduction to simpler components associated with the foul smelling
the surrounding atmosphere. The progressive fall of the gases and accompanied by the change of color.
body temperature is one of the most prominent signs of a. Caloricity
death. This is known as_______. b. Lividity
a. Post-mortem Rigidity c. Putrefaction
b. Livor-mortis d. None of these
c. Algor-Mortis
d. None of these 90. The dehydration of the whole body which results in
the shivering and preservation of the body.
82. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death a. Putrefaction
due to rapid and early putrefactive changes or some b. Caloricity
internal changes. c. Mummification
a. Post-mortem Rigidity d. Maceration
b. Livor-mortis
c. Post-mortem Caloricity 91. This s a condition wherein the fatty tissues of the
d. Algor Mortis body are transformed to soft brownish white substance
known as adipocere.
83. The muscles are relaxed and capable of contracting a. Saponification
when stimulated. The pupils are dilated, the sphincters b. Mummification
are relaxed, and there is incontinence of urination and c. Maceration
defecation. d. Caloricity
a. Stage of Primary Flaccidity/Period of Muscular
Irritability 92. This is the softening of the tissues when in a fluid
b. Stage of Post Mortem Rigidity or Cadaveric Rigidity or medium is the absence of putrefactive microorganism
Rigor Mortis which is frequently observed in the death of fetus or
c. Stage of Secondary Flaccidity/Secondary Relaxation utero.

Amici Review Center Page 34


a. Maceration
b. Saponification
c. Mummification
d. Caloricity

93. An injury, disease or the combination of both injury


and disease responsible for initiating the trend or
physiological disturbance, brief or prolonged, which
produce the fatal termination.
c

94. This applies to cases when trauma or disease kill


quickly that there is no opportunity for sequel or
complication to develop.
a. Mechanism of Death
b. Manner of Death
c. Immediate Cause of Death
d. Secondary Cause of Death

95. The injury or disease was survived for a sufficiently


prolonged interval which permitted the development of
serious sequel which actually causes death.
a. Mechanism of Death
b. Manner of Death
c. Immediate Cause of Death
d. Secondary Cause of Death

96. It refers to the physiological derangement or


biochemical disturbance incompatible with life which is
initiated by the cause to death.
a. Mechanism of Death
b. Manner of Death
c. Cause of Death
d. None of the above

97. It is the explanation as to how the cause of death


came into being or how the cause of death arose.
a. Mechanism of Death
b. Manner of Death
c. Cause of Death
d. None of the above

98. The fatality is caused solely by disease.


a. Natural Death
b. Violent Death
c. Unnatural death
d. None of the above

99. Death due to injury of any sort such as gunshot


wound, stab, fracture, traumatic shock, etc.
a. Natural Death
b. Violent Death
c. Unnatural death
d. B or C

100. The so-called Sudden Infant Death Syndrome.


a. CRIB Death
b. SUND
c. Bangungot
d. None of these

Amici Review Center Page 35

You might also like