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3. Which layer of the atmosphere is closest to the Earth’s surface, extending up to about 8 to 15
kilometers above the surface and containing 75% of the atmosphere’s mass?
A. Troposphere C. Mesosphere
B. Thermosphere D. Stratosphere
4. In the geological timetable, what do the Hadean, Archean and Proterozoic represent?
A. Eras of the Phanerozoic Time
B. Eons that collectively comprises the Precambrian
C. Epochs of the Quarternary Period
D. Periods of the Paleozoic Era
5. Approximately, how many kilometers is the start of the Earth’s inner core from the Earth’s
surface?
A. 5,150 C. 2,890
B. 6,378 D. 3,960
6. Which of these is the uppermost layer of the Earth’s atmosphere, located directly above the
thermosphere where the atmosphere thins out and merges with the interplanetary space?
A. Mesosphere C. Exosphere
B. Stratosphere D. Troposphere
7. What is the approximate radius of our planet Earth’s inner core layer in kilometers?
A. 2,900 C. 3,340
B. 2,180 D. 1,200
8. This is an area of sheltered seawater, almost out-off from the open ocean by a sand bar or a by a
reef.
A. Delta C. Lagoon
B. Estuary D. Tidal Flats
9. Which of these main types of unconformity is easiest to identify since the younger strata overlie
an erosional surface on tilted of folded layers?
A. Nonconformity C. Angular Unconformity
B. Paraconformity D. Disconformity
11. Tectonic plates are sometimes subdivided into three arbitrary categories based on its area. What
category are plates that have area less than one million square kilometers?
A. Major Plates C. Microplates
B. Minor Plates D. Secondary Plates
12. Which of these fundamental principles of stratigraphy states, that fragments of rock that are
contained (or included) within a host rock are older than the host rock?
A. Principle of Superposition
B. Principle of Cross-Cutting Relationships
C. Principle of Lateral Continuity
D. Principle of Inclusion
13. Pedologists have many ways of classifying soils. What type of soils are often waterlogged or
frozen, with a peaty upper layer and bluish mud below?
A. Alfisols C. Tundra soils
B. Mountain soils D. Ferrasols
14. This Plate Margin occurs where plates slide past each other in opposite directions, or in the same
direction but at different speeds.
A. Transform Plate Margin C. Convergent Plate Margin
B. Tensional Plate Margin D. Divergent Plate Margin
15. How many percent of the Earth’s land surface is covered by glacial ice today?
A. 8 C. 14
B. 10 D. 6
16. Clastic sedimentary rocks are formed by weathering processes which break down rocks into
pebble, sand or clay particles. Which of these is NOT a clastic sedimentary rock?
A. Conglomerate C. Sandstone
B. Breccia D. Chlorite
18. Dull luster minerals exhibit little to no luster, due to coarse granulations which scatter light in all
directions. What is dull luster sometimes called?
A. Silky C. Earthy
B. Resinous D. Waxy
19. This is one of the seven crystal systems that is usually included in the Hexagonal crystal family.
A. Tetragonal C. Monoclinic
B. Triclinic D. Trigonal
21. Non-clastic sedimentary rocks are formed from chemical reactions, chiefly in the ocean. Which of
these is NOT a non-clastic sedimentary rock?
A. Limestone C. Breccia
B. Rock salt D. Chert
22. Which of these copper bearing minerals has a lowest copper percentage when pure?
A. Chalcocite C. Enargite
B. Bornite D. Azurite
23. Pyrrhotite is an iron sulfide mineral with a metallic luster. What is it also called?
A. Magnetic Pyrite C. Iron Pyrite
B. White Iron Pyrite D. Copper Pyrite
25. Which of these most common elements accounts for 5% by weight of the Earth’s crust?
A. Iron C. Silicon
B. Oxygen D. Aluminum
26. Which of these common minerals is an important constituent of Phosphorite, a rock mined for its
phosphorus content and used to produce fertilizers?
A. Olivine C. Gypsum
B. Feldspar D. Apatite
27. What is the classification of an igneous rock that contains less than 45 percent silica and mixed
with magnesium, iron, aluminum and calcium?
A. Ultramafic C. Mafic
B. Felsic D. intermediate
28. What typical ore deposit is formed in the Theory of Residual Processes where leaching of the
soluble elements of a rock takes place, leaving concentrations of insoluble elements in the
remaining material?
A. Gold deposits C. Tin Placer
B. Nickel Laterites D. Copper Porphyry
29. What type of ore deposit is formed at shallow depths, at moderate pressures, comparatively low
temperature and occurring in the form of veins, irregular branching fissures, stockworks or
breccia pipes?
A. Hypothermal C. Hydrothermal
B. Mesothermal D. Epithermal
30. Non-minerals are classified amorphous since they do not have crystalline structure. Which of
these is NOT a non-mineral?
A. Sugar C. Pearl
B. Halite D. Coal
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31. Which of these countries has the largest proven oil reserves in 2017?
A. Saudi Arabia C. Venezuela
B. Canada D. Iran
32. In the mining industry, which of these metals belong to the fissionable metals group?
A. Nickel C. Cobalt
B. Manganese D. Uranium
33. In 2017, what was our country’s production of direct shipping nickel ore in Dry Metric Tons
(DMT)?
A. 26.42 Million C. 24.97 Million
B. 28.74 Million D. 23.35 Million
34. Who was the top primary gold producer in the Philippines in 2017?
A. Philippine Gold Processing and Refining Corporation
B. Lepanto Consolidated Mining Company
C. Apex Mining Company Inc.
D. Mindanao Mineral Processing and Refining Corporation
35. Which among these factors that causes hydrothermal alteration controls the access of thermal
fluids?
A. Temperature C. Permeability
B. Pressure D. Fluid Composition
36. This is the simplest type of fold where the rock layers are bent only a little.
A. Anticline C. Syncline
B. Dome D. Monocline
38. Which of these tectonic plate boundaries is also known as the “Destructive Plate Boundary”?
A. Divergent C. Transform
B. Conservative D. Convergent
39. What do you call this type of Geologic Structure that developed in rock after their formation as a
result of their subjection to external forces?
A. Secondary Structure C. Compound Structures
B. Sedimentary D. Primary Structures
40. Strike-slip Faults are vertical fractures where the rock strata are displaced mainly in a horizontal
direction parallel to the line of the fault. Which of these faults is NOT known as a strike-slip Fault?
A. Normal Fault C. Wrench Fault
B. Transcurrent Fault D. Tear Fault
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41. What do you call this type of fault which has the component of both the dip-slip and the strike-
slip motion?
A. Oblique-slip C. Thrust
B. Listric D. Ring
42. What is this type of fold where the strata dip toward center in all directions with the youngest
rock layers in its center?
A. Syncline C. Dome
B. Basin D. Monocline
43. The Continental crust is made of the less dense minerals. Which of these is one of the minerals?
A. Pyroxine C. Amphibole
B. Quartz D. Olivine
44. What do you call an anticline that is in the form of an elongated dome?
A. Overfold C. Nappe
B. Pericline D. Monocline
45. In the petroleum industry, what do they call an impermeable formation that may trap oil, gas or
water and preventing it from migrating beyond its reservoir or to the surface?
A. Aquitard C. Aquiclude
B. Aquifuge D. Caprock
47. Which of these is the final recovery step in the hydrometallurgical process?
A. Adsorption C. Precipitation
B. Solvent Extraction D. Sedimentation
49. What is a common type of electrometallurgical process used in the purification of metals by
dissolving an impure metallic anode and produce a high purity cathode?
A. Electroforming C. Electro-refining
B. Electroplating D. electrowinning
50. What is this chemical which is either a non-surface-active polymer or a surface-active substance
added to a suspension usually a colloid to improve the separation of particles and to prevent
settling or clumping?
A. Flocculant C. Precipitant
B. Agglomerate D. Dispersant
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52. Which among these different types of roasters is used only for oxidizing roasts?
A. Chlorinators C. Flash
B. Multiple-Hearth D. Precipitant
53. Which of these chemical causes’ colloids and other suspended particles in liquids to aggregate
and settle quickly to improve the sedimentation or filterability of small particles?
A. Agglomerant C. Flocculant
B. Dispersant D. Precipitant
54. What do you call this arsenic compound or a mixture or arsenic compounds resulting from the
smelting of iron, cobalt, nickel and copper?
A. Dross C. Speiss
B. Flue Dust D. Matte
58. What do you call the width of the receiving opening of a jaw crusher?
A. Spindle
B. Set
C. Gape
D. Concaves
59. What equipment in a CIL plant will the stripping solution be heated up to raise its temperature?
A. Heat Exchanger
B. Elution Column
C. Electrowinning cell
D. Boiler
62. A copper mine’s annual production reached 50,000 metric tons of concentrate. What is its annual
gold production in ounces if the average grade of gold in the concentrate is 40g/t Au?
A. 65,705 C. 64,300
B. 60, 430 D. 62,220
63. If a copper concentrator produces 12,500 kilograms of concentrate with grade of 22% copper
after processing 1000 tonnes per day of ore with a grade of 2.0% copper. What is its recovery in
percentage?
A. 62.50% C. 81.20%
B. 74.30% D. 59.70%
64. What is the required temperature in Celsius in regeneration of carbon in a CIL Operation?
A. 1000 to 1170 C C. 820 to 980 C
B. 550 to 630 C D. 680 to 700 C
65. How many ounces of gold is produced from a 1000 tonnes per day CIL Plant if the ore is assaying
12 g/t gold and the tails contains 0.80 g/t gold?
A. 327 C. 373
B. 360 D. 345
66. This data is generated in the Assay laboratory which will show the size distribution of a crushed
material.
A. Mineral Analysis C. Screen Analysis
B. Assay D. Sizing
67. A copper concentrator is milling 20,000 tonnes per day of chalcopyrite ore assaying 0.65%
copper. The concentrate and tailings produced an average 24.5% and 0.05% copper respectively.
Determine the concentration ratio?
A. 20.02 C. 40.75
B. 53.16 D. 37.69
69.
70. What type of crusher is used for secondary and tertiary crushing?
A. Gyratory
B. Impact
C. Jaw
D. Cone
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72. What is a small porous bowl made of bone ash in which gold and silver are recovered form a lead
button during assaying?
A. Crucible C. Mould
B. Capel (Kung typo ni nya cupel jud ni sya mao ni answer pero ug dili,crucible)
D. Melting Pot
73. What do you call a liquid that dissolves other solid substances and to be made into liquid form for
ease of use?
A. Dilutant C. Solvent
B. Diluent D. Reducer
75. What do you call this artificial undesirable product of fusion consisting of metallic arsenide or
antimonide?
A. Matte C. Slag
B. Lead Button D. Speiss
76. When the lead button is separated from the slag then treated to separate the gold and silver
from the lead, in what form is the gold and silver in the cupel?
A. Wire-like C. Bead
B. Cube D. Flaky
77. In ore beneficiation, what is referred to as the weight percentage of solids contained in the ore-
water slurry?
A. Pulp Density C. Dilution Ration
B. Ratio of Concentration D. Specific Gravity of Ore
78. Fire assaying is a three-step process. Which of these refers to the process where a sample is
mixed with fluxing agent, heated in a furnace and the slag containing the unwanted elements and
a lead button containing the gold and silver are formed?
A. Parting and weighing C. Cupelling
B. Fusion D. Inquartation
80. Some reagents have several different properties. Which of these is NOT a property of litharge?
A. Sulphurizing Agent C. Basic Flux
B. Acid Flux D. Oxidizing Flux
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82. Which of these is NOT a classification equipment that is used in the sizing operation in mineral
dressing?
A. Vibrating Screen C. Apron Feeder
B. Hydroclones D. Rake Classifier
83. There are five (5) steps in Fire Assaying. What step follows after the separation of the slag from
the button?
A. Weighing and Instrumental finish
B. Parting
C. Fluxing and Fusion of the sample
D. Cupellation
85. Which is the correct assay in percent of gold, if one-assay ton yielded a gold bead weighing 430
milligrams?
A. 1.47 C. 1.84
B. 1.38 D. 1.76
86. What do you call the end product of composting which in some instances is used as fertilizer?
A. Rubbish C. Garbage
B. Night soil D. Humus
87. What DENR Department Administrative Order (DAO) superseded DENR DAO 34 and 35 series of
1990 and stipulated a new water quality guidelines and effluent standards?
A. DAO 2016 – 08 C. DAO 2017 – 10
B. DAO 2013 – 22 D. DAO 2014 – 02
88. The unsaturated Zone is where the intergranular pores and fissures are unsaturated with water
contain air at atmospheric pressure. What is this zone also called?
A. Aeration Zone C. Capillary Zone
B. Phreatic Zone D. Saturated Zone
89. Which among these recyclable materials containing hazardous substances may be imported to
our country but with the corresponding limiting conditions that the alloys do not contain Mercury
and its compound?
A. Electronic Assembles and Scrap
B. Solid Plastic Materials
C. Used oil
D. Scrap Metals
(Dili, sure kay naa na tanan. Para walay lalis pagbasa mo, kasabot?
https://www.trade.gov/knowledge-product/philippines-prohibited-restricted-import)
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90. What is referred to as the comprehensive and strategic environmental management plant for the
life-of-life mining project from which annual environmental work programs are based and
implemented to achieve the environmental objectives, criteria and commitments including
protection and rehabilitation of the disturbed environment?
A. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)
B. Environmental Work Program (EWP)
C. Environmental Protection and Enhancement Program (EPEP)
D. Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)
91. In the revised Effluent Regulations of DAO 35, Series of 1990, what is the acceptable level for
Total Dissolved Solids in a Class “A” Protected Water for New/Proposed Industry (NPI)?
A. 1000 Mg/L C. 1500 Mg/L
B. 2000 Mg/L D. 500 Mg/L
92. It is a term used to define the natural or intentional restocking of existing forests and woodlands
that have been depleted?
A. Forestation C. Restoration
B. Reforestation D. Rehabilitation
93. This referred to the Permit that may be granted to a Contractor, accredited dealer, retainer,
processor or and other Permit Holder to transport minerals/mineral products.
A. Mineral Processing Permit C. Permit Holder
B. Ore Transport Permit D. Mining Permit
94. In the Philippines Clean Air Act of 1999, which of these is NOT considered a “Greenhouse Gas”?
A. Nitrous Oxide C. Carbon Dioxide
B. Water Vapor D. Nitrogen
95. Which of these is NOT a significant parameter to be considered for monitoring wastewater from
mineral ore processing plants in the mining industry?
A. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
B. Arsenic
C. Heavy Metals (such as chromium, cadmium, mercury)
D. Total Suspended Solids (TSS)
96. These are surface areas where development/ construction and utilization activities are on-going
or have been conducted.
A. Surface Mining C. Mine-out Areas
B. Disturbed Areas D. Pier Stockyard
97. What is referred as a comprehensive study of the significant effect of a project to the
environment and it includes an environmental management plan/program that the proponent
will fund and implement to protect the environment?
A. Environmental Protection and Enhancement Program (EPEP)
B. Environment Impact Assessment (EIA)
C. Environmental Risk Assessment (ERA)
D. Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)
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98. In the Implementing Rules and Regulation of the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act, what
is referred to as household hazardous wastes such as paints, thinners, household batteries. Lead-
acid batteries, spray canisters and the like?
A. Bulky Wastes C. Yard Wastes
B. Specials Wastes D. White Goods
99. Under what Republic Act was the “Toxic Substance, Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Control Act of
1990” created?
A. RA 6969 C. RA 7459
B. RA 9275 D. RA 8371
100.