CLUSTER 5

Radiologic Sciences

1. IDA compounds are used to label with Technetium 99m (Tc99m) for biliary
A. Isosordide acid

B. Imminodiacetic acid

C. Aminodiacetic acid
D. Immunodiacetate

2. Determine what produces microwaves to oscillate electrons in a linear

accelerator.
A. Waveguide

B. Electron gun
C. Magnetron

D. Klystron

3. As defined by the International Commission on Radiological Units (ICRU),

what does the term clinical target volume mean?
A. Tissue volume that contains a demonstrable GTC and /or subclinical
microscopic malignant disease, which has to be eliminated

B. Gross palpable/visible/demonstrable tumor extent and location of malignant

growth
C. Tissues to be irradiated to specified dose according to specified time-
dose pattern

D. Primary tumor, metastatic lymphadenopathy or other matastasis

4. The uptake of Technitium-methylendiphosphonate (Tc-MDP) in bone tissue is

based on ___.

A. Phagocytosis by the bone matrix

B. Surface absorption of labeled phosphate on hydroxyapatite crystals

C. Passive diffusion and exchange with hydroxide ions

D. Metabolic trapping
5. Horeshoe kidneys may be confused sonographically with which of the
following entities?
A. Tumor growth
B. Hypernephroma
C. Lymphadenopathy
D. Carcinoma of head of pancreas

6. Point out a condition that is caused by inhalation of irritating

dusts which leads to chronic inflammation and pulmonary fibrosis.
A. Silicosis
B. Asbestosis
C. Anthracosis
D. Pneumoconiosis

7. Which uncertainties is the reason why margins are always added

around a tumor when treatment fields are designed by radiation
oncologists?
A. Determining tumor extent, patient motion and changes of tumor
during course of treatment
B. Penumbra of beam, patient motion and changes due to weigh_treatment
C. Determining tumor extent, penumbra of beam and patient motion
D. Penumbra of beam, respiration and weight gain during the course of
treatment

8. The unit used for expressing the ratio of two quantities of

electrical signal or sound energy is __.
A. Hertz
B. Decibel
C. Density
D. Attenuation
9. The cephalic index is defined as the ratio of biparietal diameter
(BPD) to __.
A. Binocular distance
B. Occipito-frontal diameters
C. Femur length
D. Abdominal circumference

10. Select the interaction in the clinical range that is the MOST
predominant for megavoltage photon beams.
A. Pair production
B. Photoelectric effect
C. Photodisintegration
D. Compton effect

11. A pituitary tumor is considered a macro adenoma if its size is

___.
A. Less than 2 cm
B. More than 1 cm
C. More than 2cm
D. Less than 1 cm

12. Sound production occurs when piezoelectric crystals (PEC) __.

A. Are deformed with acoustic oscillations
B. Respond to applied voltage
C. Respond to frequency
D. Are deformed with applied mechanical pressure

13. Select the MOST definitive test for esophageal tumor.

A. Complete blood count
B. Barium swallow
C. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
D. Are deformed with applied mechanical pressure

14.The radiopharmaceuticals used for dual tracer gastric emptying

study are __.
A. Tc99m sulfur colloid labeled eggs and Gallium 67 in water
B. Indium 11 labeled eggs and Tc99m DTPA in water
C. Tc99m sulfur colloid labeled eggs and Tc99m tin colloid in water
D. Tc99m DTPA in water and Tc99m sulfur colloid labeled eggs

15. Which of the following are characteristics of first-generation

computed tomography unit?
I. Pencil beam
II. Translate rotate mode
III. Bow tie filter
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. I and III

16. Which does is the result of electron contamination of the incident

beam as well as the backscattered radiation (both electrons and
photons) from the medium?
A. Depth
B. Percent
C. Electron
D. Surface

17. What is the MOST definitive test for esophageal tumor?

A. Computed tomography
B. Barium swallow
C. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
D. Complete blood count
18. Determine an injury of the brain that is caused
by severe impact.
A. Conversion
B. Convulsions
C. Contusion
D. Encephalitis

19. Lefort's method for classification of fracture

involving the craniofacial bones is _.
A. Type 3
B. Type 2
C. Type 1
D. Type 4

20. Dose calibrators are usually __ type of detectors.

A. NaI (Sodium Iodide)
B. Geiger counters
C. Ionization chambers
D. Solid state

21. Choose the modality that is considered as the gold standard for
noninvasive diagnosis of appendicitis.

A. Computed tomography
B. Magnetic resonance imaging
C. Radiography
D. Ultrasound

22. Which of the following conditions is characterized by dilated

calyces and renal pelvis?
A Hydronephrosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Hypernephroma
D. Nephrosis

23. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration to

avoid radiation-induced pneumonitis?
A. Daily fractionation schedule and the patient’s weight
B. Total dose, fractionation schedule and the patient’s weight
C. Total dose and also which portion of the lung was irradiated
D. The patient’s smoking history and the total dose

24. Which of the following quantifies the degree that a structure

attenuates an X-ray beam?
A. Hounsfield unit
B. Heat unit
C. Linear attenuation coefficient
D. Absorption efficiency

25. The linear attenuation coefficient is directly related to __.

A. Hounsfield unit
B. Projections
C. Heat unit
D. Absorption efficiency

26. A well-defined structure with increased echogenicity is a

description of _.
A. Liver cyst
B. Abscess
C. Solid tumor
D. Multiple cysts
27. What is the computation of an unknown value using known values on
either side?
A. Interpolation
B. Z-axis reformation
C. Extrapolation
D. Z-axis resolution

28. Select the gold standard in evaluation and diagnosis of renal

abscess.
A. Ultrasound
B. Computed tomography
C. Radiography
D. Magnetic resonance

29. Point out the coincidence resulting from two photons detected at
the same time but originate from two independent events in a positron
tomography (PET).
A. Random
B. Recoiled
C. Scatter
D. Multiple

30. In a Nuclear Medicine hepatobiliary imaging, the gallbladder

normally will appear in _.
A. 2 2 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 10 minutes
D. 30 minutes

31. Which is an abnormal permanent enlargement of the air spaces

distal to the terminal bronchioles?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Bronchitis
D. Emphysema

32. A flattening filter is used to __.

A. Remove all of the electrons from the beam
B. Determine the dose rate
C. Reduce the dose rate in the center of
unfiltered beam
D. Cause the dose rate to be increased

33. Which of the following conditions shows a appearance as having

numerous thicker folds of the stomach above the diaphragm in a
gastrointestinal series examination?
A. Achalasia
B. Esophageal varices
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Hiatal hernia

34. Which of the following is a hospital acquired infection and

inflammation of the alveoli?
A. Nosocomial pneumonia
B. Community acquired pneumonia
C. Community acquired upper respiratory tract infection
D. Upper respiratory tract infection

35. The maximum dose of 6MV photon beam occurs approximately __ cm

depth.
A. 2.0
B. 1.5
C. 3.0
D. 0.5
36. Which imaging modality would BEST demonstrate the posterior fossa,
cerebellum and brainstem?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging
B. Positron emission tomography
C. Single photon emission computed tomography
D. Computed tomography

37. Which of the following is a common cause of cystitis/urinary tract

infection?
A. Infection from the ureter and kidneys
B. Complete bladder emptying after voiding
C. Descending infection from the ureters
D. Ascending infection from the urethra

38. In the Larmor equation, B equals the __.

A. Gyromagnetic ratio
B. Magnetic dipole
C. Frequency of precession
D. Static magnetic field

39. Computed tomography equipment must be frequently calibrated so

that water is consistently represented by CT number zero and other
tissues with their appropriate CT number.
This is referred to as __.
A. Image reconstruction
B. Uniformity
C. Noise
D. Linearity
40. What is the MOST popular radiofrequency pulse sequence which
reduces scan time consisting of a 90-degree pulse initiating partial
saturation sequence followed by a 180-degree pulse at 50% of the echo-
time?
A. Partial saturation
B. Gradient echo
C. Spin-echo
D. Inversion recovery

41. Which of the following is the MOST sensitive and specific

noninvasive method of diagnosing mitral stenosis?
A. Ultrasonography
B. Cardiac arteriography
C. Computed tomography
D. Echocardiography

42. On a sagittal scan, the portal vein is seen as a circular anechoic

structure __.
A. Medial to the head of the pancreas
B. Posterior to the aorta
C. Inferior to the head of the pancreas
D. Anterior to the inferior vena cava

43. The main pathologic problem brought about by embolism is __.

A. Edema
B. Obstruction
C. Inflammation
D. Infection

44. The process by which protons release the energy that is absorbed
from the radiofrequency pulse is __.
A. Precession
B. Refraction
C. Relaxation
D. Ionization

45. Select the radiation therapy unit that operates at approximately

50 to 120 kvp.
A. Superficial
B. Orthovoltage
C. Betatron
D. Linear accelerator

46. Identify the part of the brainstem that appears as hear-shaped or

circular-shaped structure on axial computed tomography scans of the
brain
A. Tectum
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Midbrain

47. What is the PRIMARY advantage of magnetic resonance imaging

compared with other imaging modalities?
A. Spatial resolution
B. Fast imaging time
C. Low cost
D. Contrast resolution

48. The original A-mode technique were used evaluate:

I. Hydrocephalus
II. Mass lesions
III. Midline shift
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III

49. What radiopharmaceuticals are used for dual tracer gastric

emptying study?
A. Indium 111 labeled eggs and Tc99m DTPA in water
B. Tc99m DTPA in water and Tc99m sulfur colloid labeled eggs
C. Tc99m sulfur colloid labeled eggs and Gallium 67 in water
D. Tc99m sulfur colloid labeled eggs and Tc99m tin colloid in water

50. Which of the following is the hallmark of the radiographic

appearance of emphysema?
A. Honey comb pattern off fibrosis and areas of dilation
B. Hour glass sign
C. Presence of Humptons sign
D. Pulmonary over-inflation with flattening of domes of diaphragm

51. What is the main goal of radiation therapy in patients with bone
metastasis?
A. Prevent fractures and reduce the pain
B. Prevent fractures and reduce nausea
C. Prevent tumor from spreading further
D. Eradicate the tumor

52. An important used to detect frequency shift is called __.

A. Doppler
B. Real-time
C. A-mode
D. Static scanner

53. Point out the condition that would MOST likely cause acoustic
enhancement
A. Gallstone
B. Solid mass
C. Fluid-filled mass
D. Calcified scanner

54. In a Nuclear Medicine liver scanning, the colloid shift refers to

__.
A. Increased uptake of colloid in spleen and bone marrow relative to
liver
B. Redistribution of colloid within the liver over time
C. Small Colloid particles clumped together to form large particles
and localizes in lungs
D. Tc99m sulfur colloid changing to albumin colloid

55. Choose the BEST radiographic examination for an adult patient with
pleural effusion.
A. An apicolordotic view, antero-posterior and lateral
B. An ateroposterior projection and lateral position
C. A posteroanterior projection and lateral decubitus on the affected
side
D. A chest PA and lateral decubitus on the unaffected side

56. Which of the following are the common areas of the body that are
radiographed to determine bone age?
A. Pelvis and hips
B. Skull and neck
C. Hand and foot
D. Hand and wrist

57. Computed tomography is the BEST imaging procedure for screening

patients with blunt trauma for presence of splenic injury. Splenic
lacerations will result in a computed tomography scanning appearance
of __.
 I. A splenic enlargement
II. An irregular cleft or defect in the splenic border
III. Free blood in the peritoneal cavity
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

58. Which of the following is the process by which the entire data set
is used for high-quality, 3D images?
A. Image matrix
B. Surface rendering
C. Skin rendering
D. Volumetric rendering

59. The unit of measure of radiation in air is __.

A. Curie
B. Gray
C. Roentgen
D. Sievert

60. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is used for the “hot-

spot” myocardial imaging?
A. Tc-99m Tetrofosmin
B. Tc-99m PYP (pyrophosphate)
C. Tc-99m Sestamibi
D. Tc-99m MDP (Methylendiphosphonate)

61. Which of the following is the MOST commonly used positron emission
tomography (PET) radiopharmaceutical worldwide?
A. F-18 FDG (Fluorodeoxyglucose)
B. C-11 labeled C02
C. O-15 H20
D. N-13 ammonia

62. The major factor in determining the acoustic power output of the
transducer is the __.
A. Amount of gain
B. Size of the transducer
C. Magnitude of the voltage spike
D. Amount of amplification at the receiver

63. Wavelength is a measure of __.

A. Time
B. Distance
C. Voltage
D. Pulse duration

64. Which analytical technique is used to reconstruct most computed

tomography images?
A. Fourier transformation
B. Filtered back projection
C. Iterative reconstruction
D. Repetitive back projection

65. Which of the following technology made spiral computed tomography

possible?
A. Fast reconstruction
B. Slip rings
C. Carbon fiber table
D. X-ray detectors
66. With advances chronological age, the pancreas unrestricted
A. Becomes less echogenic and grossly enlarged
B. Increases in size with decrease in echogenicity
C. Increases in size with no change in echogenicity
D. Decreases in size with increased echogenicity

67. Determine the imaging modality that would BEST demonstrate the
posterior fossa, cerebellum and brainstem.
A. Single photon emission computed tomography
B. Computed tomography
C. Magnetic resonance
D. Positron emission tomography

68. Which of the following is referred to as the gray matter

appearance on computed tomography?
A. White
B. Midbrain
C. Hypodense
D. Hyperdense

69. Identify the type of hyperparathyroidism often detected in

parathyroid imaging.
A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
B. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
C. Parathyroid neoplasm
D. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

70. Which of the following systems aims to plan and deliver a uniform
dose (+/- 10% from the prescribed or stated dose) throughout the
volume to be treated?
A. Manchester
B. Patterson-Parker
C. Paris
D. Quimby

71. Which of the following is the main pathologic problem brought

about by embolism?
A. Inflammation
B. Obstruction
C. Infection
D. Edema

72. The MOST common bacterial pneumonia is a __.

A. Pneumococcal pneumonia
B. Staphylococcal pneumonia
C. Legionnaires disease
D. Streptococcal pneumonia

73. What term is used for abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in the
peritoneal cavity?
A. Abscess
B. Hemochromatosis
C. Hemorrhage
D. Ascites

74. Identify the factor that determines the amount of reflection at

the interface of two dissimilar materials.
A. Index of refraction
B. Frequency of ultrasonic wave
C. Specific acoustic impedance
D. Young’s modulus

75. Which of the following is a radiographic appearances of

atelectasis
A. Compensatory under infiltration of the remainder of the ipsilateral
lung
B. Airless lung, which may vary from thin plate-like streaks to lobar
collapse
C. Displacement of heart, mediastinum and hilum toward the
nonatelectatic segment
D. Elevation of the contra-lateral hemi diaphragm

76. Attenuation is __.

A. The density of tissue and the speed of wound in the tissue
B. The bending of the transmitted wave after crossing an interface
C. A progressive weakening of the sound beam as it travels
D. The redirection of the ultrasound back to the transducer

77. What area of the spine is involved in a day-shoveler’s fracture?

A. Lumbar only
B. Lower thoracic and upper lumbar
C. Lower cervical and upper thoracic
D. Cervical only

78. Which of the following increases scanning time?

A. Increase in echo train length
B. Decrease in matrix
C. Increase in number of excitations
D. Decrease in repetition time

79. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of noise in

computed tomography scan?
A. Quantum noise
B. Beam hardening artifact
C. Streak artifact
D. Blurring
80. Determine the pathology that is diagnosed in a MAG3
(mercaptoacetyltriglycine) renal scan with Lasix (Furosemid)
A. Transplant rejection
B. Renal vascular hypertension
C. Obstructive uropathy
D. Renal tumors

81. Which of the following positions is the protocol for routine head
computed tomography which involves the acquisition of a scout to set
up the scans at the appropriate angle?
A. Lateral
B. Oblique
C. Postero-anterior
D. Antero-posterior

82. In an ultrasound examination, the BEST approach for the evaluation

of the left kidney is _.
A. Right anterior oblique
B. Supine
C. Prone
D. Coronal

83. The depth of the maximum dose of 4 MV x-rays is at __.

A. 0.5 cm
B. 1.0 cm
C. 2.0 cm
D. The surface

84. What component of the collimator in a computed tomography imager

controls patient dose profile?
A. Post detector
B. Post patient
C. Pre patient
D. Pre detector

85. Which of the following devices measures the radiation exiting the
patient and feeds back the information to the host computer?
A. Data acquisition system
B. X-ray tube
C. Collimator assembly
D. Detector assembly

86. Which of the following radionuclides are used in

radiosynoviorthesis?
I. Rhenium 187
II. Strontium 89
III. Erbium 169
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I and II
D. I, II and III

87. Point out which will provide a visual representation of the dose
at various positions across the radiation field.
A. Phantom
B. Isodose curve
C. Tissue maximum ratio (TMR) data
D. Percentage depth dose (PDD) curve

88. Primary mechanisms that produce sound changes in cells and tissues
are __.
A. Direct and indirect
B. Thermal and cavitational
C. Absorption and reflection
D. Oscillations and radiation

89. Determine which of the following quantitate radiochemical

impurities
A. Gamma ray spectral analysis
B. Calorimetry
C. Chromatography
D. Dose calibration

90. Which of the following ultrasound displays is seen in bowel

intussusception?
A. Trident sign
B. Horeshoe sign
C. Robert’s sign
D. Spalding sign

91 Choose the medical term used to describe the entry of air into the
pleural space.
A. Pneumothorax
B. Asthma
C. Silicosis
D. Empyema

92.The characteristic of sound propagation that depends on the density

of the medium it travels, is called the __.
A. Acoustic impedance
B. Distance/time
C. Velocity
D. Density

93. In an ultrasound examination, which of the following would

describe a simple cyst?
A. Contains fluid-fluid levels
B. Smooth, well-defined borders, anechoic and increased transmission
C. Irregular borders, internal echoes, decreased transmission
D. Has the characteristics of both cyst and solid

94. Which of the following is medically considered a “symptom”?

A. Humeral fracture seen on x-ray
B. Vertigo
C. Facial hematoma
D. Leukocytosis

95. Point out what is assessed in a captopril renal scan.

A. Obstruction
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Chronic renal failure

96. Which of the following is an inflammation of the small fluid-

filled sacs that are located around the joints that reduce friction?
A. Bursitis
B. Arthritis
C. Tendinitis
D. Osteoarthritis

97. Which of the following processes is used for different tissue

attenuation values that are different tissue attenuation values that
are averaged to produce one less accurate pixel reading?
A. Partial volume effect
B. Beam hardening
C. Multiplanar imaging
D. Linear attenuation coefficient

98. Ultrasonographically, which of the following structure

classifications are gallstone, renal calyx, bone, fats, fissures and
ligaments
A. Hypoechoic
B. Anechoic
C. Hyperechoic
D. Isoechoic

99. Determine the MAIN goal of radiation therapy in patients with bone
metastasis.
A. Reduce nausea and prevent fractures
B. Prevent tumor from spreading further
C. Reduce the pain and prevent fractures
D. Eradicate the tumor

100. Choose the process by which the entire data set is used for high-
quality, 3D images.
A. Surface rendering
B. Volumetric rendering
C. Image matrix
D. Skin rendering