RADIOGRAPHIC PROCEDURES AND TECHNIQUES
1. What is the first portion of the kidney to become visible
after injection of contrast agent during an intravenous
pyelography procedure?
− Nephron
2. Which of the following statements refer to cardiac studies
with barium?
− The barium used is thicker than that used for
the stomach examination.
− Barium solution is thicker for a slow descend
and allowing the barium to adhere to the
esophageal walls.
− The exposure is made with the patient
swallowing the bolus of barium.
3. Which of the following statements refer to contrast
arthrography of the knee?
− An examination of the soft tissue structures of
joints after injection of contrast agents
− A combination of gaseous and water-soluble
iodinated media for double-contrast
− Contrast studies may be made on any
encapsuled joint but thee knee is most
frequently of investigation
4. What are the procedures performed to demonstrate the
cruciate ligaments after radiography of the menici is
completed in a double-contrast arthrography of the knee?
− Patient is seated over the side of the x-ray table
with knee flexed 90 degrees
− A firm cotton pillow is placed under the knee so
that forward pressure is applied to the leg
5. What are the primary indications for performing hip
arthrography?
− To detect a loose hip prosthesis or to confirm
presence of infection in adults
− To evaluate congenital hip dislocation before
and after treatment for children
6. What will be the visceral and peripheral angiography
examination performed to rule out an aortic aneurysm or to
evaluate congenital or postsurgical conditions?
− Thoracic aortography
7. Which of the following is an indication for cardiac
catheterization procedures?
− Performed to identify anatomic and physiologic
condition of the heart.
8. What are the conditions in which depends on the speed of
the barium mixture passing through the alimentary canal?
− The motile function of the alimentary canal
− The preparation consistency of suspending
medium
− the temperature of the medium
9. What are the mechanisms in which antegrade filling
techniques are accomplished?
− Introducing the contrast material directly into
the kidney through percutaneous puncture if
renal pelvis
− Through physiological technique wherein the
contrast agent is generally administered
intravenously
10. What is the gas displacement effects of prone position in
adult patients during urogram procedures?
− Gas in the antral portion of the stomach is
displaced into its fundic portion
− Gas in the transverse colon shifts into the
ascending and descending segments
11. What are the image quality and exposure technique applied
in urogram procedures?
− Urograms should have same contrast, density,
and degree of soft tissue density as abdominal
radiographs
− Radiographs must show sharply defined outline
of kidneys, lower border of the liver, and lateral
margin of psoas muscles
− Amount of bone detail visible varies according
to the thickness of the abdomen
12. Which of the following are indications for an intravenous
urography examination?
− Evaluation of abdominal masses, renal cysts,
and renal tumors
− Pyelonephritis, hydronephrosis, and effects of
trauma
13. Which of the following is the range of degree of rotation so
that the bladder neck and entire urethra are free of bony
superimposition?
− 35 – 40
14. Which are the rationales of employing the “metallic bead
chain technique” in performing cystourethrography to
investigate anatomic abnormalities causing stress
incontinence in women?
− To delineate anatomic changes that occur in the
shape and position of bladder
− To delineate anatomic changes that occur in the
position of the proximal urethral orifice
− To delineate anatomic changes that occur in the
posterior urethrovesical angle
15. In typical clubfoot, what is the deviation resulting in the
elevation of the medial border of the foot?
− Supination
16. Which of the following is the deviation resulting in plantar
flexion and inversion of the calcaneus in a typical clubfoot?
− Equinus
17. Which of the following methods recommended for the
inclusion of a dorsoplantar axial projection for congenital
clubfoot examination?
− Kandel
18. What is the central ray direction in an axial (plantodorsal)
projection for the demonstration of the calcaneus?
− Directed 40 degrees cephalad
19. What is the degree of flexion of the knees as recommended
by Fodor, Malott, and Merchant to demonstrate the patella
and patellofemoral joint in tangential projection?
− 45
20. Which of the following degree of flexion of the knee is
recommended by Laurin for easier demonstration of patellar
subluxation?
− 20
21. Which anatomic structure is not clearly shown in an oblique
projection of the lumbosacral vertebrae?
− Intervertebral foramen
22. What is the average degree of angulation of the central ray
in an AP axial projection to demonstrate the lumbosacral
and sacroiliac joints?
− 30 – 35
23. Which of the following statements is true to a PA projection
to demonstrate the anterior ribs?
− A PA projection will best demonstrate the ribs
above the diaphragm
24. Schuller method in a submentovertical projection to
demonstrate the cranial base requires placing as nearly
parallel with the plane of the cassette as possible the
_______ line.
− Infraorbitomeatal
25. Which of the following statements refers to a reverse
Waters?
− Head is extended to position mentomeatal line
perpendicular to cassette
26. Which of the following statements is true to a tangential
projection of zygomatic arch?
− The central ray is directed perpendicular to the
infraorbitomeatal line
27. Which of the following radiographic projections is not
employed to demonstrate the
− Zygomatic arches?
− Parietoacanthial – waters
28. Which of the following statements are true to a
parietoacanthial projection, Waters
− Method, to demonstrate the maxillary sinuses?
− Radiography will show the petrous pyramids
lying inferior to the floor of the maxillary
sinuses
− Beam is directed perpendicular to cassette
exiting at the acanthion
− Radiograph will clearly demonstrate symmetric
orbits and maxillary sinuses on each side
29. Which of the following methods suggested a 15 degree
caudad angulation of the central
− Ray in an axiolateral projection to demonstrate
the petromastoid portion?
− Henschen
30. What will be demonstrated in a PA projection of the wrist in
ulnar flexion?
− Navicular not foreshortened
31. What central ray direction is utilized if patients body cannot
be rotated for a RPO position for cervical vertebrae?
− 45 degrees toward the right
32. What is primarily demonstrated in a Kuchendorf method in
an oblique axial projection of the knee?
− Patella
33. What is the radiographic line of the cranium used in
positioning for an axial projection of the nasal bones?
− Glabelloalveolar
34. Hallux valgus is best demonstrated in
− An AP axial weight bearing of the foot
35. Which of the following central directions is employed to
demonstrate the inferior orbital fissure?
− 20 - 25 degree cephalad
36. Which of the following elbow positions will the coronoid
process can best be projected free of superimposition?
− Internal oblique
37. “Bow” leg and “knock” knee can be demonstrated by
performing a
− Weight bearing AP projections
38. Which of the following oblique projections is performed to
demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint of the thoracic?
− LAO
39. The apophyseal articulation of the lumbosacral spine can be
examined in
− A 30 degree RPO
40. What is the structure that is best demonstrated in a PA axial
projection in a barium enema examination?
− Rectosigmoid
41. Which type of body habitus will be demonstrated in a PA
projection developed by Gordon to project the greater and
lesser curvatures and duodenal bulb?
− Hypersthenic
42. Which anatomic structure will be demonstrated in an
oblique position for the stomach?
− Duodenal loop
− Fundus
− Duodenal bulb
43. Which of the statements would refer to radiography of the
large bowel?
− Double contrast studies help demonstrate
intraluminal lesions
− Large bowel needs to be emptied prior to
examination
44. Which of the following views would best show radiographic
demonstration of the filled bladder and mobility of the
kidney?
− AP erect
45. An orbit radiography requiring no special apparatus that
would show whether the foreign body is located within
eyeball is the
− Parallax method
46. Which of the following procedures is employed in the
demonstration of the mucosal pattern of the large intestine
with residual barium sulphate to show polyps and other
defects?
− Post evacuation
47. Which of the following is recommended technique to better
demonstrate contrast-filled distal ureters during an
intravenous urography procedure?
− Position patient in 15° supine Trendelenburg
48. What are the common contraindications for intravenous
urography examination?
− Kidneys ability to filter contrast medium from
blood
− History of allergies
− Elevated creatinine level
49. Which of the following are conditions to perform hypotonic
duodenography examination of the stomach?
− For detection of pancreatic diseases
− To evaluate postbulbular duodenal lesions
50. What is the central ray direction in an AP projection of the
sacrum?
− 15 degree cephalad
51. What is the position/projection that would best
demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?
 − AP erect
52. What chest radiographic position/projection requires that
the ribs posterior to the vertebral column should
superimpose?
− Lateral
53. Which of the following are true regarding Waters method
(parietoacanthial projection) of the skull?
− Maxillary should be projected above the
petrous ridges
− Head is resting on extended chin
54. What is the structure demonstrated in an oblique position
of the cervical spine?
− Intervertebral foramina
55. Which positions can be used to demonstrate the
sternoclavicular articulations?
− PA
− RAO
56. Which of the following statement that refers to a PA position
to better demonstrate the mandibular rami?
− Central rays is angled cephalad
57. Which of the following positions/projections would
demonstrate the right axillary ribs?
− LAO
58. Which of the following criteria are required for visualization
of the greater tubercle in profile?
− Humerus in AP position
− Epicondyles parallel to the image receptor
− Arm in external rotation
59. What is the central beam angle and direction in an axial
projection of the clavicle with the patient in PA position?
− 15° to 30° caudad
60. Which of the following principles is applied in a true lateral
position of the skull?
− Interpupillary line perpendicular to the
image receptor
61. What is the position/projection that will demonstrate the
sesamoid bones of the foot free of superimposition with the
metatarsals or phalanges
− Tangential metatarsals/toes
62. What structure would best be demonstrate with the patient
seated at the end of x-ray table, elbow flexed 80°, central
ray directed 45° laterally from the should to the elbow?
− Coronoid process
63. Which of the following procedures can be applied to
demonstrate better the carpal scaphoid?
− Central ray angle 20° toward the fingers
− Elevate the hand and wrist at 20°
64. Which method is employed to visualize the profile of the
olecranon process as well as superimposed outlines of
bones of forearm and arm?
− Jones
65. Which of the following structures are demonstrated in a
lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
− Apophyseal joint
− Intervertebral foramina
66. What position/projection would best demonstrate the tarsal
navicular free of superimposition?
− AP oblique, medial rotation
67. Which of the following statements refers to demonstration
of the pulmonary apices with the patient in the AP position?
− Central ray is directed 15° to 20° cephalad
68. Which of the following statements refer to radiography of
the should in inferosuperior projection (non trauma,
Lawrence method)?
− Coracoids process and lesser tubercle are
seen in profile
− Arm is abducted about 90° from the body
69. Which of the following bony landmark is in the same
transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?
− Prominence of the greater trochanter
70. What are the vertebral groups that form lordotic curves?
− Lumbar
− Cervical
71. Which position will demonstrate the coronoid process in
profile?
− Medial oblique elbow
72. What are the projections of the abdomen may be used to
demonstrate air or fluid levels?
− Lateral decubitus
− Dorsal decubitus
73. Which skull position will demonstrate the cranial base,
sphenoid sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?
− Submentovertical
74. What is the position used to demonstrate vertical fractures
and patellofemoral articulation?
− Tangential-patella
75. What is the position that would best demonstrate the
proximal tibiofibular articulation?
− 45° internal rotation
76. Which functional study is used to demonstrate the degree
of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
− Flexion and extension in lateral
77. What part of the head is positioned in contact with the
image receptor to demonstrate the optic foramen
employing Bertel method?
− Forehead and nose
78. What is the structure demonstrated when employing
twining method?
− Cervicothoracic region
79. Which exposure technique should be employed to best
visualized the lower ribs?
− Expiration
80. Which positioning method would best demonstrate the
fovea capitis, particularly the superoposterior walls of
acetabulum?
− Teufel
81. What position/projection would best demonstrate
acromioclavicular separation?
− AP erect, both shoulders
82. Which of the following structures are demonstrated in an
AP projection of the cervical spine?
− C3-7 cervical bodies
− Intervertebral disk spaces
83. What are the conditions that should be included in a
preliminary patient history to decide whether to deliver ionic
or nonionic contrast media?
− History of respiratory disease
− History of cardiac disease
− Patient age
84. Which position will most effectively move the gallbladder
away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?
 − LAO − Close metacarpophalangeal and
85. What condition/structure is demonstrated if an erect interphalangeal joints
position is requested as part of an intravenous urography? 101. An axial projection of the knee is performed to demonstrate
− Kidney mobility the
86. Which position/projection would demonstrate the − Intercondyloid Fossa
esophagus between the heart and vertebra in a barium 102. The suprapatellar effusion would best be demonstrated in
swallow examination? which one of the following knee positions/projections?
− Oblique − Lateral
87. What is the structure demonstrated in a barium enema 103. Which line of the skull is used as the baseline in an axial
examination with the patient in supine position, the central projection of the nasal bones?
ray angled 30°-40° cephalad directed two inches inferior to − Glabelloalveolar
the ASIS? 104. Which of the following methods is an AP apical oblique axial
− Rectosigmoid projection to best demonstrate the scapulohumeral
88. What is the action that the Radiologic Technologist should dislocations of the shoulder?
perform to prevent the stomach or duodenum from − Garth
pressing against the vertebra which may cause pressure 105. Which of the following central ray directions is employed to
filling defects on thin patients during an upper demonstrate the outlet view of the pelvis in male patients?
gastrointestinal series procedure? − 20-35 degrees cephalad
− Put padding under the thorax and pelvis 106. Which of the following projections would demonstrate
89. Fluoroscopic imaging of the ileocecal valve is generally part “bow” leg and “knock” knee ?
of − Weight-bearing AP projections
− A small bowel series 107. How many degrees cephalad angulation of the beam is used
90. Which of the following carpal canal bones can best be in an AP axial projection (Taylor method) for anterior pelvic
demonstrated in the stecher position with a 20-degree bones in male patients?
angulation of the wrist? − 25
− Scaphoid 108. Which of the following would be best visualized in a
91. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated in trendelenburg position in an upper GI series examination?
an AP projection of the forearm? − Diaphragmatic hernia
− Proximal row of slightly distorted carpal 109. Which of the following structures is best demonstrated in
bones PA axial projection in a barium examination?
− Radius and ulna − Rectosigmoid
92. Which of the following positions/projections in an x-ray 110. Routine excretory urography usually includes a post-
examination of the foot would best demonstrate the cuboid, micturition radiograph of the bladder to demonstrate
sinus, tarsi, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal? − Residual urine
− Medial oblique − Hypoplasia
93. A dorsoplantar projection of the foot will clearly 111. The preferred site for an arterial puncture for angiographic
demonstrate the joint space between the metatarsals and studies is
midfoot if the tube is angled? − Femoral
− 10° posteriorly 112. Which of the following is referred to as a condition that is
94. The angles between the eyelids used as reference points often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?
are the − Hydronephrosis
− Canthi 113. Which of the following are considered the most common
95. The ribs posterior to the vertebral column should allergic reactions to contrast media?
superimpose in which of the following chest projections? − Metallic taste taste in the mouth
− Lateral position − Temporary hot flush
96. A lateral projection of the paranasal sinuses will 114. Routine excretory urography usually includes a post-
demonstrated which of the following sinuses? micturition radiograph of the bladder. This is done to
− All four paranasal sinuses demonstrate
97. When modifying the PA axial projection of the skull to − Tumor masses
demonstrate the superior orbital fissures, the central ray is − Residual urine
directed − Hypoplasia
− 20 to 25° cephalad 115. In radiographic, studies of the stomach and duodenum, the
98. Which of the following examinations will require close-beam patient is generally positioned in
restriction? − Recumbent
− Sella turcica-lateral 116. The technical requirements in cholangiography procedure
99. Which of the following methods suggests both AP and Pa include the use of
axial oblique projections for suspected acromioclavicular − a small focal spot
subluxation or dislocation? − short exposure time
− Alexander 117. In an interventional pyelography examination, which of the
100. Which of the following statements is not an evaluation in a following organs is demonstrated in an erect position?
PA projection of the hand? − Kidney mobility
118. Which of the following is true in a lateral projection of the
stomach during an upper gastrointestinal series
examination?
− Anterior and posterior aspect of stomach is
visualized
− Best demonstrate the retrogastric space
119. Which of the following statements refer to an oblique
projection (Wolf method) for the stomach in an upper
gastrointestinal series examination?
− Will demonstrate possible hiatal hernia
− Central ray directed 10-20 degrees caudad
120. Which of the following is best demonstrated if a patient is
placed in a RPO position during a barium enema
examination?
− Splenic flexure
121. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate a
double contrast of the hepatic and splenic flexures during a
barium enema examination?
− AP erect
122. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding
lower extremity venography?
− Patient is often examined in the semi-erect
position
− Tourniquets are used to force contrast medium
into the deep veins
123. Which of the following special radiographic examinations is
used to demonstrate vesico-ureteral reflux?
− Voiding cystourethrogram
124. Which of the following remains, as the most common
imaging examination of the system even with current
technological advancements?
− Radiographic/contrast studies
125. Which of the following urography techniques is used in
examination of the upper urinary tracts in infants and
children?
− Excretory
126. The location of gallbladder in hypersthenic patient is
− Higher and more lateral than average
127. In a barium enema examination, which position would best
demonstrate the “up” medial side of the ascending colon
when the colon is inflated with air?
− Lateral decubitus
128. Which positioning maneuver is performed to project the
symphysis pubis away from the base of an opacified urinary
bladder in a cystogram procedure?
− Central beam is angled caudally
129. In sialography, at the conclusion of the procedure, the
patient is
− given secretory stimulant to purge salivary
gland
130. Which of the following antero-posterior projections of the
shoulder will demonstrate the region of subdeltoid bursa?
− Internal rotation
131. Which of the following are the advantages of employing air-
gap technique in performing chest radiography?
I. No grid lines will be appreciated
II. No chest structures are seen in greater detail
− I and II
132. Which of the following will describe a radiographic
examination of the abdomen?
III. Compared with AP, PA projection greatly reduces
patient gonadal dose
− III
133. What type of drug should be made readily available for
patients who may develop hives several minutes after
ingestion of iodinated contrast media?
− Antihistamine
134. An endoscopic fluoroscopic procedure that is used to
diagnose biliary and pancreatic pathology is called?
− Endoscopic retrograde
cholangiopancreatography
135. Select the duct used as the site where the T-tube in left is
placed in T-tube cholangiogram
− common bile
136. Select the examination that can be used to evaluate renal
function .
− Intravenous urogram
137. Which of the following structures is demonstrated in a Kemp
Harper method in a submentovertical axial projection?
− Jugular foramina projected at or near the level
of the angles of mandible
138. Which of the following is performed to demonstrate the
fetus in utero, as well as detect suspected developmental
abnormalities or confirm suspected fetal death?
− Fetography
139. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated in
an anterior posterior projection of the shoulder in internal
rotation?
II. The region of subdeltoid bursa
− II
140. Which of the following projections is a Bertel method in x-
ray examination of optic foramen?
− PA axial
141. Clements-Nakayama method is a postero-anterior axial
oblique projection primarily performed to demonstrate
which of the following wrist bones?
− Trapezium and articulations with adjacent
carpal bones
142. In an antero-posterior projection of the scapula, the
patient’s
− Arm is abducted at right angle to the body
143. Choose the required X-ray tube angulation in an axial
plantodorsal projection of the Os calcis
− 40 degrees cephalad
144. Which position would BEST demonstrate the superior
intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine?
− Lateral
145. The central ray direction in a Bertel's PA axial projection for
the demonstration of inferior orbital fissure is ______
through the nasion
− 20-25 degrees cephalad
146. Which of the following characteristics refers to the non-ionic
contrast media?
− Hydrophilic
147. Examinations of the paranasal sinuses are taken in erect
position for the following reasons:
II. To differentiate between shadows due to fluid or
other pathologic conditions
III. To demonstrate presence of absence of fluid
 − II and III
148. Which of the following methods is a submentovertical
(Subbasal) mastoid projection with the supraorbitomeatal
line placed parallel with the cassette?
− Taylor
149. Which one of the following steps should be performed first
during a positioning routine?
− Patient and part positioning
150. To project the thoracic zygapophyseal joint, how many
degrees will the body be rotated from the lateral position?
− 20
151. Which of the following is performed to verify presence of a
ligament tear following inversion or eversion injury of the
ankle?
− AP stress study
152. Which breathing instruction is given to a patient when
performing an antero-posterior projection of the abdomen?
− Expiration
153. Determine the position/projection that would BEST visualize
opacified stomach and duodenum, especially the anterior
and posterior walls of the stomach, in an upper
gastrointestinal series examination.
− Left lateral
154. The region of subdeltoid bursa of the shoulder will be
demonstrated in which of the following positions of the arm
in anteroposterior projection?
− internal rotation
155. To avoid irritation of the bowel in a barium examination, the
ideal temperature level of the water and barium sulfate
contrast medium is
− Degrees Fahrenheit
156. Identify the part of a barium-filled colon that would BEST
be demonstrated in the left anterior oblique position.
− Splenic flexure
157. A lateral position to demonstrate the facial bones requires
− Placing the Interpapillary/line perpendicular to
the film
158. To accomplish a double contrast study of the upper
gastrointestinal series, barium mixed with ____ is
administered to the patient.
− Gas producing tablets
159. Which of the following projections is performed to
demonstrate vertical patellar fracture and femoropatellar
articulation?
− Axial patella
160. Which of the following method will demonstrate a bilateral
view of the zygoma?
− Titterington
161. Which of the following methods would be employed when
obtaining a radiograph of a patient with suspected hip
fracture?
− Danelius-Miller
162. Which of the following projections would demonstrate the
left thoracic zygapophyseal joint?
I. Left posterior Oblique
II. Left Anterior oblique
− I and III
163. Which of the following projections of the hand will show the
anterior and posterior displacement of fracture fragments
and foreign bodies
− Lateral position
164. In an x-ray examination to demonstrate the rotundum
foramen, the central ray is directed
− 45 degrees caudad
165. Which of the following will describe the expanded superior
and most lateral portions of the scapular spine?
− Acromion process
166. Which of the following mastoid projections will place the
supraorbitomeatal line parallel with the cassette?
− Submentovertical (subbasal) - Taylor
167. Which of the following lines of the skull is placed parallel to
the cassette in a submento-vertical projection?
− Infraorbitomeatal
168. Which of the following techniques is used in an
arteriography procedure?
− Seldinger
169. Well positioned antero-posterior projection of the skull will
demonstrate which of the following structures on the lower
third of the orbits?
− Petrous ridges
170. Which of the following is a requirement in positioning a
patient for a poster-anterior projection of the hand?
− Rest patient forearm on the table
171. When ureteral reflux is suspected during a voiding
cystourethrogram examination, it is necessary to include a
radiograph with the patient in the act of
− Urinating
172. Which of the following are criteria for an optimal quality
abdominal radiograph?
I. Sharply defined outlines of the psoas muscles
II. Sharply defined lover border of the liver, kidneys,
and ribs
III. Sharply defined transverse processes of the
lumbar
− I,II,III
173. The Kemp Harper method in a submentovertical axial
projection is useful in demonstrating
− The jugular foramina projected at or near the
level of the angles of mandible
174. Which of the following projections would best demonstrate
calcaneal spur?
− Lateral
175. What will be the barium and air distribution in the stomach
if the patient is positioned in the left posterior oblique
during an upper gastrointestinal series examination?
− Barium in the fundus and air in the pylorus
176. Which of the following is a contraindication for introduction
of barium sulfate as contrast medium for gastrointestinal
tract examination?
− Gastrointestinal perforation
177. Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same
transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?
− Most prominent part of greater trochanter
178. Which position/projection would best visualize opacified
stomach and duodenal especially in the anterior and
posterior walls of the stomach in an upper gastrointestinal
series examination?
− Left posterior oblique
179. In a barium enema procedure, if a post-evacuation
radiograph shows evacuation to be inadequate, patient is
given ____to stimulate further evacuation.
− Hot tea or coffee
180. Which position/projection would best visualize opacified
stomach duodenum, particularly the pyloric canal, duodenal
bulb and profile in an upper GI series examination?
− Prone Position
181. Themost common contraindications for intravenous
urography are related to the
1. ability of the kidneys to filter contrast medium
from blood
2. patient’s history of allergies
3. patient’s elevated creatinine level
− 1,2,3
182. Which of the following is the most accurate evaluation
criteria in determining rotation in a chest postero-anterior
radiograph?
− Number of ribs above the diaphragm
183. Which of the following is not considered a major reaction to
contrast media?
− Burning sensation
184. An AP/AP axial projection of the foot is used for
1. localizing foreign bodies
2. determining location of the fracture fragments of
the metatarsals and anterior tarsal
3. performing general surveys of the bones of the
foot
− 1,2,3
185. Which of the following patellar projection requires tube
angulation of 25-30 degrees caudad to the joint spaces
between the patella and femoral condyles?
− Kuchendorf method
186. In intravenous cholangiography, after injection/introduction
of contrast medium, maximum opacification will occur in
approximately
− 30-40 minutes
187. Gordon developed the PA axial to “open up” the high,
horizontal stomach for demonstration of greater and lesser
curvatures and duodenal bulb for which type of body
habitus?
− hypersthenic type
188. Which specific term refers to radiography study of the
biliary ducts?
− Cholangiography
189. Which of the following special radiographic examinations is
used to demonstrate vesico-ureteral reflux?
− Voiding cystourethrogram
190. Which of the following statements are true regarding the
distance between the vertebral column and the outer
margin of the ribs in an oblique position of the chest?
− The dependent side is two times compared to
the remote side
191. A radiographic procedure which is used to investigate the
blood vessels of the kidneys and the suprarenal glands.
− Angiographic procedure
192. Which of the following statements refers to a lateral position
(Lauenstein and hickey methods) of the hip?
− used to demonstrate the hip joint and the
relationship of femoral head to the acetabulum
193. Norgaard method is employed to detect early rheumatoid
arthritis to an AP oblique examination of the
− Hand
194. The standard level of the container attached to the drip
stand in sialography examination via hydrostatic pressure is
approximately how many inches?
− 28 inches from the level of the patient
195. The central ray direction in a hickey method for the hip joint
− 20-25 degrees cephalad
196. In an AP projection of the scapula, the patient’s
− Arm is raised upward, forearm resting over the
head
197. Which of the following positions/projection is not employed
in the demonstration of the sternoclavicular articulations?
− Weight-bearing positions
198. Which of the following techniques does NOT describe a
change in negative contrast media?
− appears white in the finished radiograph
199. Which articulation should be seen in profile with the AP
medial oblique projection with 15-20 degrees medial
rotation of the ankle?
− Talofibular
200. Which of the following evaluation criteria indicates that the
knee is properly positioned for lateral projection?
− Femoral condyles are superimposed
201. For the lateral projection of the patella, which positioning
maneuver reduces the femoropatellar joint space?
− Flexing the knee more than 10 degrees
202. What is the major disadvantage of the Settegast method?
− Requires overflexion
203. A radiograph of an AP mortise projection reveals that the
lateral joint space is not open but the distal tibiofibular joint
space. What positioning error lead to this outcome?
− Excessive medial rotation
204. "Scotty-dog sign" in an oblique position of the lumbar spine
indicates demonstration of:
− Articular processes
205. What is the reference point for PA axial projection for
occipital bone?
− Petrous ridges
206. A well- positioned AP projection of the skull will
demonstrate which of the following structures on the lower
third of the orbits?
− Petrous ridges
207. Which of the following positions will demonstrate the right
cervical intervertebral foramina and pedicles?
1. Left posterior oblique
2. Right anterior oblique
− 1 and 3
208. Which of the following statements is NOT an evaluation
criteria projection of the hand?
− Close metacarpophalangeal and
interphalangeal joints
209. What type of drug should be made readily available for
patient who may develop hives several minutes after
injection of iodinated contrast media?
− Antihistamine
210. Which of the following is the radiographic examination of
choice evaluation of esophagogastric reflux?
− Water test
211. Which of the following axiolateral projections of the mastoid
with position the mastoid away from the film lying inferior
and slight anterior to the mastoid being examined?
− Law method
212. What is the central ray for the demonstration of the inferior
orbit fissure?
− 20-26 degrees cephalad
213. An air contrast study of the duodenum performed after
injection of antispasdomic drug.
− Air contrast duodenography
214. Which of the following is TRUE regarding a lateral
decubitus chest examination?
− A frontal projection of the chest in lateral
recumbent position
215. Which of the following techniques will help to obliterate the
rib shadows and vascular markings when obtaining a lateral
position of the thoracic vertebrae?
− Employing a soft breathing technique
216. The air contrast study of the duodenum after injection of
antispasmodic drug is referred to as:
− Air contrast duodenography
217. Which of the following structures is BEST demonstrated
with a lateral/oblique projection of the elbow?
− Trochlea
218. Study of the large intestine requires preparation of the
patient prior to the procedure will generally involve
_________.
II. Gastric lavage
III. Dietary restrictions
− I and III
219. Intravenous administration of contrast medium will reach
the liver through ________ circulation.
− Systematic
220. An antero-posterior (open-mouth) projection of the cervical
vertebrae will demonstrate the __________.
− Axis and odontoid
221. What degree of obliquity from lateral position is required to
visualize the apophyseal articulations of the thoracic spine?
− 20
222. Which of the following projections will demonstrate hallux
valgus?
− AP axial weight bearing foot
223. In retrograde cystography, which of the following BEST
demonstrate an axial image of the posterior surface of the
bladder and the lower end of the ureter?
− Squat shot
224. The central ray direction in an antero-Posterior projection
to cervical vertebrae is _________.
− 15 - 20° cephalad
225. When iodinated contrast medium is employed, the
maximum kilovoltage (KVp) that should be used is
_________.
− 110
226. Which of the following methods is a trans-oral axial view
that demonstrate the sphenoids?
− Pirie
227. Expiratory chest radiograph may be taken to ___________.
− Demonstrate excursion of diaphragm
228. Which contrast cephalad direction would BEST demonstrate
the gastro-duodenal surfaces situated in the frontal plane
in an upper gastrointestinal series examination of an infant?
− 20 - 21°
229. When positioning Mortise method of the ankle, insufficient
dorsiflexion will result in which of the following radiographic
demonstration?
− Distal tibiofibular joint is not well demonstrated
230. Which of the following statements is true to upper
gastrointestinal series radiographic examination?
− Examination usually leads to accurate
evaluation of esophagus, Stomach, and
duodenums
231. Which of the following would BEST be demonstrated in an
axial projection of the knee?
− Intercondyloid fossa
232. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the
distance between the vertebrae column and the outer
margin of the ribs in an oblique position of the chest?
− The dependent side is two times compared to
the remote side
233. Which of the following methods is a special projection to
demonstrate the first carpometacarpal joint in an antero-
posterior projection?
− Burman
234. Which of the following patellar, projections requires tube
angulations of 25 - 30° degrees caudad to the joint spaces
between the patella and femoral condyles?
− Kuchendorf
235. Which of the following evaluation criteria will indicate full
extension of the neck in Schuller method in a
submentovertical projection?
− Asymmetric images of foramina vale and
spinosum
236. Which of the following is the principal route of elimination
of most aqueous iodine contrast media?
− Urinary tract
237. Which of the following shoulder rotation demonstrates the
humerus in the true lateral position?
III. Antero-posterior internal
− Antero-posterior internal
238. Which of the following is a common side effects following
intake of barium sulfate after barium study?
− Constipation
239. In a small bowel series examination, demonstration of the
entire small intestine is assured when the barium sulfate
passed into the _________.
− Cardiac orifice
240. Which of the following structures is of primary interest is a
patient is positioned supine with the body rotated
approximately 35-45° toward the affected side and the
central ray is directed to the shoulder joint?
− Glenoid cavity
241. In performing an antero-posterior projection of the
abdomen, which of the following is the proper breathing
instruction that the patient will execute?
− Full exhalation
242. If the head is in true lateral position and the central ray
enters at a point ¾ inch anterior and ¾-inch superior to
the external auditory meatus, which structure would be
demonstrated?
− Sella turcica
243. Which of the following elbow positions would BEST
demonstrate the coronoid process projected free of
superimposition?
− Internal Oblique
244. Which of the following methods is a unilateral x-ray
examination of the hip in axiolateral projected with central
ray at 35 degrees cephalad directed to femoral neck?
− Friedman
245. Which of the following statements refer to positioning the
patient in an antero-posterior projection of the scapula?
I. Arm is abducted at right angle with the body
II. Elbow is flexed with hand supinated
− I and II
246. Which of the following barium/ air-filled large colon is BEST
demonstrated in right anterior oblique position?
Ileocecal valve
247. Which of the following statements refer to a postero-
anterior axial projection (Haas method) of the skull?
 I. The petrous pyramids of the temporal bone are
projected symmetrically
II. The dorsum sellae is projected within the shadow of
foramen magnum
III. It is essentially a reversed AP Axial (Townes method)
position
− I, II and III
248. Which of the following positions are performed in a lateral
position to demonstrate facial bones?
I. The beam is centered to the upper molar
III. Interpupillary line is perpendicular to the film
− I and III
249. Which of the following method will demonstrate a frontal
projection of the entire cervical vertebrae?
− Otonello
250. Which of the following is the MOST accurate evaluation
criteria in determining rotation in a chest postero-anterior
radiograph?
− Symmetric sternoclavicular joints
251. Which projection opens the intervertebral disk spaces of
the cervical spine?
− AP with 15-20 degrees cephalad angulation
252. When performing the PA Oblique projections (Grashey
Method) to demonstrate the interspace between the 1st and 2nd
metatarsal, the heels rotated?
− 30 degrees medially
253. In foot Grashey method, the navicular bone is best
demonstrate in profile, what is the rotation of the heel?
− 30 degrees medially
254. All are true regarding Judet's view for acetabulum
projection except?
− Central ray directed at 40 degrees cephalad to
symphysis pubis
2651 Long-Bone measurement frequently requires radiography
of the?
− Lower limbs only
256. What is the purpose of abducting the femur for the Cleaves
method?
− To position the femoral neck parallel with the
cassette
257 What are the proper breathing instructions for a lateral
projection of the thoracic spine?
− Continued breathing
273. Which of the following is the MOST accurate evaluation
criteria in determining rotation in a chest postero-anterior
radiograph?
− Symmetrical distance from the lateral border to
the side of the film
274. "Scotty-dog sign' in an obligue position of the lumbar spine
indicates demonstration of:
− Articular processes
275. A dorsoplantar projection of the foot will clearly
demonstrate in joint space between the metatarsals and midfoot
if the tube is angled:
− 10 degrees posteriorly
276. A lateral projection of the knee, the knee is preferably
flexed 20 degrees because this
− Position relaxes the muscles and shows the
maximum volume of joint cavity
277. Generally, x-rays of the upper limb require that the
following positioned preferable resting on the table:
− Forearm and arm
278. A medial oblique position of the foot requires rotation of
the leg and foot
− Medially
279. The Lilienfeld method, weight-bearing position, is
employed demonstrate the
− Pubic symphysis
280. Which projection of the foot best demonstrates the cuboid
and its articulations?
− AP medial oblique
281. Which two projections comprise the typical series that best
demonstrates the calcaneus?
− Axial plantodorsal and lateral
282. Which articulation should be seen in profile with the AP
medial oblique projection with 15-20 degrees medial rotation of
the ankle?
− Talofibular
283. How many degrees difference exist between the medial
and lateral condyle of the femur?
− 5-7 degrees
284. Which projection of the knee best demonstrates the
proximal tibiofibular joint without superimposition?
− Medial oblique
285. When performing the AP projection of the foot to
demonstrate better the tarsometarsal joint space of the midfoot
the central ray is directed:
− 10° towards the heel to the base of the 3rd
metatarsal
286. What projection pest demonstrate the degree of lower
extremity varus and vagus deformity?
− Knee PA weight bearing
287. What knee projection is best for evaluating split and
displaced cartilage in osteochondritis and flattening or
underdevelopment of the lateral and femoral condyle?
− Camp-Coventry method
288. All are true regarding patella PA Oblique Axial projection
(Kuchendorf method) EXCEPT?
 − Central ray enters at posterior surface of patella 301. Which of the following is the radiographic examination of
choice evaluation of esophagogastric reflux?
289. Failure to dorsiflex the patient's ankle during an AP medial
oblique projection of the ankle will result in: − Water test

− Inaccurate demonstration of the distal 302. A sella turcica projection which will demonstrate
tibiofibular articulation superimposed anterior clinoid processes as well as the posterior
clinoid processes.
290. A lateral transcranial projection demonstrates the?
− Lateral
− TMJs
303. The Merchants method is an x-ray examination for which
291. In the Rhese method for orbits study is used properly, the of the following structures?
optic foramen can be seen in the:
− Patella
− Upper outer quadrant
304. What is the central ray for the demonstration of the inferior
292. For a lateral skull survey the CR is directed perpendicularly orbital fissure?
to EAM at what location?
− 20-25 degrees cephalad
− 2 inches above EAM
305. Which of the following intercondyloid fossa projections
293. For the PA projection of the skull to image the frontal bone: requires flexion of the knee so the long axis of the femur is at
an angle of degrees from the table?
1. The CR is directed perpendicularly and exit at glabella
− Holmblad method
2. OML is perpendicular to IR
306. What is the other name for the Os magnum?
− 1 and 2
− Capitate
294. When radiographing the mandibular body with the patient
in SMV position. 307. Which of the following is primarily useful in demonstrating
each orbital floor and inferior orbital fissure between the
− IOML is parallel with plane of film, head resting
shadows of the lateral pterygoid lamina of the of the sphenoid
on vertex and MSP is perpendicular to IR
bone and the condylar process of the mandible?
295. In the posterior profile projection (Stenvers method) of the
− Bertel method
petrous pyramids, the:
308. During arthrography, which of the ff. is the MOST common
1. Central ray is directed 12° cephalad. reaction to the contrast medium used?
- Anaphylactic response
2. MSP is 45° to the film
309. When performing the Hickey method to demonstrate the
− 1 and 2 only hip joint, the CR is directed:
- Perpendicular to the hip joint
296. If the patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically
depressed or the patient has fat cheekbones, the arch may be
310. Which of the ff statement is NOT true regarding functional
demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating
studies of the cervical spine in lateral position?
patient's head:
- To demonstrate antero-lateral movement or
− 15° toward the side being examined absence of movement

297. When modifying the PA axial projection of the skull to 311. What position will best demonstrate polyp on the left side
demonstrate inferior orbital the central ray is directed: of the large colon?
- Left-lateral decubitus
− 20 to 25° cephalad

298. A radiograph of an AP elbow projection demonstrates total 312. What contrast media used in OCG will permit rapid
separation between the proximal radius and ulna. What must be visualization of the biliary ducts and gallbladder?
done to correct this positioning error on the repeat exposure? - Sodium ipodate

− Rotate upper limb laterally 313. What position will separate the superimposition of the
gallbladder for thin patients?
299. Which one of the following structure is considered to be - RPO
the most posterior?
314. In the lateral projection for the skull, the radiologist noted
− Acromion that the orbital plate of the frontal bone is not
300. Which basic projection of the shoulder requires that the superimposed on the radiograph. What is the positioning
humeral epicondyles be parallel the cassette? error for this examination?
- OML not parallel to the cassette.
− External rotation
315. In the AP odontoid projection, which evaluation criteria is
used?
- The lower jaw bone is seen below the odontoid
process.
316. Which of the following positioning technique is not employ
in Wolf method?
- The compression device is place under the
abdomen and above the costal margin.
317. Degree of obliquity of patient position performed to
demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile.
- 45O, affected side down
318. Structure demonstrated if the radiographic images indicate
an “scotty-dog sign” in an oblique position of the lumbar
spine.
- Articular process
319. Central beam angle and direction in an axial projection of
the clavicle with the patient in PA position.
- 15O to 30O caudad
320. The procedure that should be performed to rule out
subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine.
- Horizontal beam – lateral
321. Positions/projections that are routine for radiographic
examination of the forearm.
- AP and Lateral
322. Patient is recumbent and the CR is directed horizontally,
the position is:
- Decubitus
323. Central ray direction in an AP projection of the sacrum.
- 15O cephalad
324. Statements referring to demonstration of the pulmonary
apices with the patient in the anteroposterior position.
- Central ray is directed 15O to 20o cephalad
325. Patient’s position in PA that will demonstrate the
sternoclavicular joints.
- In a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent
to image receptor
326. Patient position in an x-ray examination of the thoracic
spine to demonstrate the apophyseal articulations.
- Coronal plane at 700 to the image receptor
327. Position/projection that requires placing the shoulder in
internal rotation.
- Lateral humerus
328. Part of the mandible that would be visualized with the
patient head in postero-anterior position and the central
ray directed 20O cephalad.
- Rami
329. Position/projection that would demonstrate arthritic
changes in the knees.
- AP erect.
330. Projection that would demonstrate a lateral deviation of
the nasal septum.
- Parietoacanthial – Water’s method
331. Patient position that will obtain functional studies of the
cervical spine.
- Lateral position while flexing and extending the
head.
332. Degree of obliquity that will properly position the cervical
spine for an oblique position.
- 45O
333. Central ray direction in a lateral projection of the nasal
bones.
- ¾ inch distal to the nasion
334. Chest radiographic position/projection that requires the
ribs posterior to the vertebral column should superimpose.
- Lateral
335. Determina the position of the palm of the hand in a routine
lateral projection of the elbow.
- In lateral position
336. The structure that will be demonstrated with the patient
seated at the end of x-ray table elbow flexed 80O, central
ray directed 45O laterally from the shoulder to the elbow
joint.
- Coronoid process
337. The method employed to visualize the profile of the
olecranon process as well as superimposed outlines of
bone of forearm and arm.
- Jones
338. The reason why the patient’s chin is elevated during a
chest x-ray examination.
- To avoid superimposition of the apices.
339. Position/projection that would demonstrate the tarsal
navicular free of superimposition.
- AP oblique, medial-rotation
340. Rotation required of the leg and foot in a medial oblique
position of the foot.
- Medially
341. Degree of flexion of the knee when positioning the knee in
lateral on patient with new or unhealed patellar fracture.
- Not more than 100
342. Position/projection that would demonstrate the proximal
tibiofibular articulation.
- 45O internal rotation
343. The technique that the Radiologic Technologist may
employ to help obliterate the rib shadows and vascular
markings in a lateral position of the thoracic vertebra.
- Employ soft breathing technique
344. Structure demonstrated in May method
- Zygoma
345. Projection that would demonstrate talofibular joint.
- Medial oblique
346. The essential position in radiography of the paranasal
sinuses.
- Erect
347. Position/projection that will visualize the talocalcaneal
joint.
- Plantodorsal projection of Os calcis.
348. Projection of the foot that would demonstrate the
longitudinal arch.
- Lateral weight-bearing
349. Position of the cassette when performing an axiolateral
(horizontal beam) projection of the hip.
- Top edge slightly above the iliac crest
350. Structure demonstrated in a skull AP axial projection
(Towne method) with the CR directed 30O caudad to the
orbitomeatal line passing midway between the external
auditory meati.
- Occipital bone
351. The technique on how to control patient voluntary motion.
- Careful explanation of procedure
352. Structure demonstrated in an oblique position of the
cervical spine
- Intervertebral foramina
353. Chest examination that should be obtained on patient
having traumatic injuries to rule our air-fluid levels.
- Perform a dorsal decubitus lateral chest
projection.
354. Procedure performed with the patient lying prone
recumbent on the radiographic table and the central ray
directed horizontally to the iliac crest is a
- Ventral decubitus position
355. Position performed to demonstrate small amounts of fluid
in the pleural cavity.
- Lateral decubitus with affected side down
356. Projection/position that will demonstrate the carpal
scaphoid bone.
- Ulnar flexion/deviation
357. What statement refers to a PA position to better
demonstrate the mandibular rami.
- Central ray is angles cephalad.
358. Position/projection that will separate the radial head, neck,
and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna.
- Lateral oblique
359. Position/projection that will demonstrate the sesamoid
bones of the foot free of superimposition with the
metatarsals or phalanges.
- Tangential metatarsals/toes
360. The patient rotation that will demonstrate a profile view of
the glenoid fossa with the patient in antero-posterior
recumbent and in oblique at 45O?
- Toward the affected side
361. The positions/projection that would demonstrate
subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation.
- PA oblique scapular Y
362. Position/projection of the abdomen that would
demonstrate the size and shape of liver and kidneys.
- AP
363. Position/projection that would demonstrate the right
axillary ribs.
- Left anterior oblique (LAO)
364. The position/projection of the foot that would demonstrate
the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal.
- Medial oblique
365. The projection of the ankle that would demonstrate the
distal tibiofibular joint.
- 45O medial oblique
366. The position of the patient to obtain an AP projection of
the right ilium.
- Left side is elevated 40O
367. Structure demonstrated when employing Twining method.
- Cervicothoracic region
368. The surface landmark used for radiographic examination
of the first cervical vertebra.
- Mastoid tip
369. Degree of body rotation necessary to demonstrate the
sternoclavicular joint.
- 10O - 15O
370. Exposure technique that should be employed to visualize
the lower ribs.
- Expiration
371. Positioning method that can demonstrate the fovea capitis,
particularly the superoposterior walls of acetabulum.
- Teufel
372. The position that would demonstrate the left apophyseal
articulations of the lumbar vertebra
- Left posterior oblique (LPO)
373. Projection that would demonstrate blowout fractures of the
orbit.
- Parietoacanthial projection – Water’s method
374. Common reference to Danelius-Miller method in an
axiolateral projection of the hip.
- Cross-table lateral
375. The technique recommended to better demonstrate the
tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the
foot.
- Centra; ray is angled 10O posteriorly
376. The body landmark that is in the same transverse plane as
the symphysis pubis.
- Prominence of the greater trochanter
377. Position that will demonstrate the coronoid process in
profile.
- Medial oblique elbow
378. Skull position that will demonstrate the cranial base, 393. Central ray direction employed in a modified PA axial
sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process. projection of the skull to demonstrate the superior orbital
- Submentovertical fissures.
- 20O to 25O caudad
379. The projection that would demonstrate a posterior
displacement of tibial fracture. 394. Patient position employed in an AP projection of the
- Lateral scapula.
- Arm is abducted at right angle of the body.
380. Position that is used to demonstrate vertical fractures and
patellofemoral articulation. 395. Statement that refers to positioning of patient in an
- Tangential – patella anterosuperior projection of the scapula.
- Arm is raised upward, forearm resting over the
381. The choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out head.
fracture
- AP and Scapular Y 396. Reference point in a barium enema examination in an AP
axial projection with the central ray directed 30O – 40O
382. Position that would demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular cephalad?
articulation. - Inferior margin of symphysis pubis
- 45O internal rotation
397. Position/projection that would demonstrate air-filled
383. The position that will demonstrate the lumbosacral fundus and duodenum in an upper gastrointestinal series
apophyseal articulation. examination.
- 30O right posterior oblique - PA

384. The central ray direction in a posterior oblique position of
the cervical spine.
- 15O cephalad to 4th cervical vertebra
385. The functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP
motion present in the cervical spine
- Flexion and extension in lateral
386. Structure demonstrated with the patient in a 25 O right
posterior oblique position, central ray entering 1-inch
medial to the elevated anterior superior iliac spine.
- Left sacroiliac joint
398. Structure demonstrated in a barium enema examination
with the patient in supine, the central ray angled 30-40O
cephalad directed two inches inferior to the ASIS.
- Rectosigmoid
399. Position used for the radiographic studies of the stomach
and duodenum.
- Recumbent
400. The site for an arterial puncture for angiographic studies.
- Femoral

387. Commonly employed projection to demonstrate vertical 401. Radiologic procedure that is performed to dilate a stenotic
fracture of the patella. vessel.
- Settegast (tangential) - Percutaneous angioplasty

388. Carpal canal projections employed by Burman.
- Superoinferior
389. Reason for performing a lateral (weight-bearing position of
the foot.
- Demonstration of structural status of longitudinal
arch
402. Patient position/projection that would visualize the hepatic
flexure during barium enema procedure.
- Left posterior oblique
403. Patient position that allows the gallbladder to fall toward
the dependent side without superimposition of the spine.
- Right lateral decubitus

390. Position/projection that would BEST demonstrate 404. Position of the gallbladder in asthenic patient.
acromioclavicular separation - Inferior and medial
- AP erect, both shoulders
405. What is the position done in examining a patient to
391. Condition that would be demonstrated with the patient in demonstrate esophageal varices?
an AP erect with left and right bending images of the - Recumbent
thoracic and lumbar vertebrae to include one inch of iliac
crest. 406. Radiograph used to demonstrate tumor masses or
- Scoliosis prostatic enlargement in an intravenous urography
procedure.
392. Part of the head that is positioned in contact with the - Post void
image receptor to demonstrate the optic foramen
employing Bertel method 407. The projection that will demonstrate the right common
- Forehead and nose carotid artery and its bifurcation with internal and external
arteries.
- Lateral
408. Condition/structure demonstrated in an erect position is
requested as part of an intravenous urography.
- Kidney mobility
409. Position/projection that would demonstrate the esophagus
between the heart and vertebra in a barium swallow
examination.
- Oblique
410. Structure that would be shown in a barium enema
examination with the patient lying on its side, midaxillary
portion of the abdomen centered to table and central ray
directed perpendicular to the anterior superior iliac spine.
- Rectum
411. Anatomy that is demonstrated in an upper gastrointestinal
series with the patient prone and rotated 40-70 degrees to the
left side
− duodenal bulb
412. structure demonstrated in a UGIS examination with the
patient lying recumbent on the right side, mid coronal plane and
anterior of abdomen centered in the midline of the table, the
central ray is directed perpendicular to L1-L2
− duodenal bulb in hypersthenic patient
413. the position that will effectively move the gallbladder away
from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient
− left anterior oblique
414. technique that would provide a PA projection of the
gastroduodenal surfaces of the barium-filled, high and
transverse stomach
− angle the central ray 35 to 45 degrees cephalad
415. Central ray direction in a lateral projection of a barium filled
stomach for an average patient
− midway between the midcoronal line and
anterior surface of abdomen
416. the projection that shows the right common carotid artery
− PA
417. How will the contrast medium introduced when performing
myelography procedure
− Subarachnoid space
418 The position that would provide double-contrast
visualization of both colic flexures in an double-contrast barium
enema examination
− AP/PA erect
419. The modality that replaced lymphography in demonstrating
excellent opacification of lymph nodes due to its superior
contrast resolution
− MRI
420. The length of the time that the barium solution reach the
ileocecal valve in a barium follow through for children
− One hour
421. Positioning technique that would demonstrate a high
transverse stomach for hypersthenic patient
− Patient is placed in prone with the central ray
angled 35-45 degrees cephalad
422. Study that refers to a patient placed in an upright position
for study of the stomach
− Fundus filled with air, barium in the pylorus
423. The procedure performed requiring an introduction of a
contrast medium through a uterine cannula
− Hysterosalpingogram
424. What is the reason in performing double-contrast
examination of the stomach or large bowel
− to better visualize the gastric or bowel mucosa
425. What is the central ray for the demonstration of the inferior
orbital fissure
− 20-25 degrees cephalad
426. the following are used for the demonstration of tangential
view of the semamoid boned of the foot, except
− Fuch
427. What structure is best demonstrated in Kuchendorf joint
− Patella
428. What projection will best demonstrate the talofibular joint
− Ankle Mortise
429. what line is placed perpendicular when performing rhese
method
− Acanthiomeatal line
430. What is the central ray for the demonstration of rotundum
foramina
− 25-30 degrees caudad
431. What is best demonstrated for medical oblique foot
Isherwood method
− Anterior talar articulating surface
432. What is best demonstrated for medical oblique ankle
Isherwood method
− Middle talar articulating surface
433. What is best demonstrated for lateral oblique ankle
Isherwood method
− Posterior talar articulating surface
434. What projection will demonstrate the calcaneotalar joint
− Coalition method
435. What is the central ray for the demonstration of high,
transverse stomach in hypersthenic patient
− 35-45 degrees cephlad
436. what structures are best demonstrated in medial oblique − 30 degrees caudad
foot − 10 degrees cephalad

− 1st-2nd digits 451. What line is place parallel to the cassette in submento
− 3rd-5th metatarsals vertico projection
− Cuboid
− IOML
437. What is the central for the demonstration of posterior talar
articulating surface? 452. What is the central ray for Hickey method for the hip joint

− 10 degrees cephalad to 1 inch distal to medial − 20-25 degrees cephalad

malleolus
453. The following are used to demonstrate the scaphoid,
438. What projection will demonstrate hallux valgus except

− AP axial weight bearing foot − Clements-Nakayama

439. The following method will demonstrate the inlet of the 454. What projection will demonstrate the sphenoid strut
pelvis, except
− Hough
− Taylor
455. What method will demonstrate a frontal projection of all
440. What method will demonstrate fovea capitis cervical vertebrae

− Teufel − Ottonello

441. Which inlet view is performed in the sitting position 456. What is the most simplest compensating filter

− Lilienfield − Wedge

442. The following shoulder projection are performed in the 457. What filter is used for the AP projection of the hips, knees,
anterior in the anterior oblique projection, except and ankles

− Alexander − Supertech

443. The following shoulder projection are performed in the 458. What type of filter is used for swimmers view and Danelius-
posterior oblique projection; except Miller method of the hip

− Blacket-healy − Ferlic collimator mounted filter

444. What transaxillary projection is perfomed in the lateral 459. Type of filter used for thoracic AP
recumbent position
− Through collimator mounted AI filter
− Clements
460. Type of filter used for shoulder AP and facial bones
445. What projection will best demonstrate atlas and axis
− Boomerang contact filter
zygapophyseal joint
461. Which of the following projection will not demonstrate
− Open mouth
Bennet’s type of fracture
446. What method will best demonstrate an axial view of the
− Folio
sphenoid
462. What knee projection will demonstrate suprapatellar
− Pirie
effusion
447. What is best demonstrate in Clements-Nakayama for the
− Lateral
wrist

− Trapezium

448. What position will demonstrate the hepatix flexure

− LPO
− RAO

449. What positions will demonstrate the splenic flexure

− RPO
− LAO

450. What central ray will demonstrate the anterior clinoid

process