1.
What is the first portion of the
kidney to become visible after
injection of a contrast agent?
❖ Nephron
2. Which of the following statements
refer to cardiac studies with
barium?
❖ The barium used is
thicker than that used for
the stomach examination.
❖ Barium solution is thicker
for a slow descend and
allowing the barium to
adhere to the esophageal
walls.
❖ The exposure is made
with the patient
swallowing the bolus of
barium.
3. Which of the following statements
refer to contrast arthrography of the
knee?
❖ An examination of the
soft tissue structure of
joint after injection of
contrast agents.
❖ Combination of gaseous
and water soluble
iodinated media for
double-contrast
❖ Contrast studies may be
made on any
encapsulated joint but
the knee is the most
frequent site of
investigation.
4. What are the procedures performed
to demonstrate the cruciate
ligament after radiography of the
menici is completed in a double-
contrast arthrography of the knee?
❖ Patient is seated over the
side of the x-ray table with
knee flexed 90 degrees
❖ A firm cotton pillow is
placed under the knee so
that forward pressure is
applied to the leg
5. What are the primary indications for
performing hip arthrography?
❖ To detect a loose hip
prosthesis or to confirm
presence of infection in
adults
❖ To evaluate congenital
hip dislocation before
and after treatment for
children
6. What will be the visceral and
peripheral angiography
examination performed to rule out
an aortic aneurysm or to evaluate
congenital or postsurgical
conditions?
❖ Thoracic aortography
7. Which of the following is an
indication for cardiac
catheterization procedures?
❖ Performed to Identify
anatomic and physiologic
condition of the heart
8. What are the conditions in which
depends the speed of the barium
mixture passing through the
alimentary canal?
❖ The motile function of the
alimentary canal
❖ The preparation
consistency of
suspending medium
❖ The temperature of the
medium
9. What are the mechanisms in which
antegrade filling techniques are
accomplished?
❖ Introducing the contrast
material directly into the
kidney through
percutaneous puncture of
renal pelvis
❖ Through physiologic
technique wherein the
contrast agent is
 generally administered
intravenously.
10. What is the gas displacement
effects of prone position in adult
patients during urogram
procedures?
❖ Gas in the antral portion
of stomach is displaced
into its fundic portion
❖ Gas in the transverse
colon shifts into the
ascending and
descending segments
11. What are the image quality and
exposure technique applied in
urogram procedures?
❖ Urograms should have
same contrast, density,
and degree of soft tissue
density as abdominal
radiographs
❖ Radiographs must show
sharply defined outline of
kidneys, lower border of
the liver, and lateral
margin of psoas muscles
❖ Amount of bone detail
visible varies according
to the thickness of the
abdomen.
12. Which of the following are the
indications for an intravenous
urography examination?
❖ Evaluation of abdominal
masses, renal cysts, and
renal tumors
❖ Pyelonephritis,
hydronephrosis, and
effects of trauma
13. Which of the following is the range
of the degree of rotation so that the
bladder neck and entire urethra are
free of bony superimposition?
❖ 35-40
14. What are the rationales of
employing the "metallic bead chain
technique" in performing
cystourethrography to investigate
anatomic abnormalities causing
stress incontinence in women?
❖ To delineate anatomic
changes that occur in the
shape and position of
bladder
❖ To delineate anatomic
changes that occur in the
position of the proximal
urethral orifice
❖ To delineate anatomic
changes that occur in the
posterior urethrovesical
angle
15. In typical clubfoot, what is the
deviation resulting in the elevation
of the medial border of the foot?
❖ Supination
16. Which of the following is the
deviation resulting in plantar flexion
and inversion of the calcaneus in a
typical clubfoot?
❖ Equinus
17. Which of the following methods
recommended for the inclusion of a
dorsoplantar axial projection for
congenital clubfoot examination?
❖ Kandel
18. What is the central ray direction in
an axial (plantodorsal) projection
for the demonstration of the
calcaneus?
❖ Directed 40 degrees
cephalad
19. What is the degree of flexion of the
knee as recommended by Fodor,
Malott, and Merchant to
demonstrate the patella and
patellofemoral joint in tangential
projection?
❖ 45
20. Which of the following degree of
flexion of the knee is recommended
by Laurin for easier demonstration
of patellar subluxation?
❖ 20
21. Which anatomic structure is not
clearly shown in an oblique
projection of the lumbosacral
vertebrae?
❖ Intervertebral foramen
22. What is the average degree of
angulation of the central ray in an
AP axial proiection to demonstrate
the lumbosacral and sacroiliac
joints?
❖ 30-35
23. Which of the following statements
is true to a PA projection to
demonstrate the anterior ribs?
❖ A PA projection will best
demonstrate the ribs
above the diaphragm
24. Schuller method in a the petromastoid
submentovertical projection to
demonstrate the cranial base
requires placing as nearly parallel
with the plane of the cassette as
possible the _____ line
❖ Infraorbitomeatal
25. Which of the following statements
refers to a reverse Waters?
❖ Head is extended to
position the mentomeatal
line perpendicular to
cassette
26. Which of the following statements
is true to a tangential projection of
zygomatic arch?
❖ The central ray is
directed perpendicular to
the infraorbitomeatal line
27. Which of the following radiographic
projections is not employed to
demonstrate the zygomatic
arches?
❖ Parietoacanthial - Waters
28. Which of the following statements
are true to a parietoacanthial
projection, Waters method, to
demonstrate the maxillary sinuses?
❖ Radiograph will show the
petrous pyramids lying
inferior to the floor of
maxillary sinuses
❖ Beam is directed
perpendicular to cassette
exiting at the acanthion
❖ Radiograph will clearly
demonstrate symmetric
orbits and maxillary
sinuses on each side
29. Which of the following methods
suggested a 15 degree caudad
angulation of the central
❖ ray in an axiolateral
projection to demonstrate
portion?
❖ Henschen
30. What will be demonstrated in a PA
projection of the wrist in ulnar
flexion?
❖ Navicular not
foreshortened
31. What central ray direction is
utilized if patient's body cannot be
rotated for a RPO position for
cervical vertebrae?
❖ 45 degrees toward the
right
32. What is primarily demonstrated in
a Kuchendorf method in an oblique
axial projection of the knee?
❖ Patella
33. What is the radiographic line of the greater and lesser curvatures and
cranium used in positioning for an duodenal bulb?
axial projection of the nasal bones?
❖ Hypersthenic
❖ Glabelloalveolar
42. Which anatomic structure will be
34. Hallux valgus is best demonstrated demonstrated in an oblique position
in for the stomach?
❖ An AP axial weight
bearing of the foot ❖ Duodenal loop
❖ Fundus
35. Which of the following central ray ❖ Duodenal bulb
directions is employed to
demonstrate the inferior orbital 43. Which of the statements would
fissure? refer to radiography of the large
bowel?
❖ 20-25 ° cephalad
❖ Double contrast studies
36. Which of the following elbow help demonstrate
positions will the coronoid process intraluminal lesions
can best be projected free of ❖ Large bowel needs to be
superimposition? emptied prior to
examination
❖ Internal oblique
44. Which of the following views would
37. "Bow" leg and "knock" knee can be best show radiographic
demonstrated by performing a demonstration of the filled bladder
and mobility of the kidney?
❖ Weight-bearing AP
projections ❖ AP erect

38. Which of the following oblique 45. An orbit radiography requiring no

projections is performed to special apparatus that would show
demonstrate the zygapophyseal whether the foreign body is located
joint of the left thoracic? within eyeball is the

❖ LAO ❖ parallax method

39. The apophyseal articulation of the 46. Which of the following procedures
lumbosacral spine can be is employed in the demonstration of
examined in a the mucosal pattern of the large
intestine with residual barium
❖ 30° RPO sulphate to show small polyps and
other defects?
40. What is the structure that is best
demonstrated in a PA axial ❖ Post evacuation
projection in a barium enema
examination? 47. Which of the following is the
recommended technique to better
❖ Rectosigmoid demonstrate contrast-filled distal
ureters during an intravenous
41. Which type of body habitus will be urography procedure?
demonstrated in a PA projection
developed by Gordon to project the
 ❖ Position patient in 15- 54. What is the structure demonstrated
degree supine in an oblique position of the cervical
Trendelenburg spine?

48. What are the common ❖ Intervertebral foramina

contraindications for intravenous
urography examination? 55. Which positions can be used to
demonstrate the sternoclavicular
❖ Kidneys ability to filter articulations?
contrast medium from
blood ❖ PA
❖ History of allergies ❖ RAO
❖ Elevated creatinine level
56. Which of the following statement
49. Which of the following are the that refers to a PA position to better
conditions to perform hypotonic demonstrate the mandibular rami?
duodenography examination of the
stomach? ❖ Central ray is angled
cephalad
❖ For detection of
pancreatic diseases 57. Which of the following
❖ To evaluate postbulbar positions/projections would
duodenal lesions demonstrate the right axillary ribs?

50. What is the central ray direction in ❖ LAO

an AP projection of the sacrum?
58. Which of the following criteria are
❖ 15° cephalad required for visualization of the
greater tubercle in profile?
51. What is the position/projection that
would best demonstrate arthritic ❖ Humerus in AP position
changes in the knees? ❖ Epicondyles parallel to
the image receptor
❖ AP erect ❖ Arm in external rotation

52. What chest radiographic 59. What is the central beam angle and
position/projection requires that the direction in an axial projection of the
ribs posterior to the vertebral clavicle with the patient in PA
column should superimpose? position?

❖ Lateral ❖ 15° to 30° caudad

53. Which of the following are true 60. Which of the following principles is
regarding Waters method applied in a true lateral position of
(parietoacanthial projection) of the the skull?
skull?
❖ Interpupillary line
❖ Maxillary should be perpendicular to the
projected above the image receptor
petrous ridges
❖ Head is resting on an 61. What is the position/projection that
extended chin. will demonstrate the sesamold
bones of the foot free of
superimposition with the
metatarsals or phalanges?
 ❖ Tangential
metatarsals/toes
62. What structure would best be
demonstrated with the patient
sealed at the end of x-ray table,
elbow flexed 80°, central ray
directed 45° laterally from the
shoulder to the elbow joint?
❖ Coronoid process
63. Which of the following procedures
can be applied to demonstrate
better the carpal scaphoid?
❖ Central ray angled 20°
toward the fingers
❖ Elevate the hand and
wrist at 20°
64. Which method is employed to
visualize the profile of the olecranon
process as well as superimposed
outlines of bones of forearm and
arm?
❖ Jones
65. Which of the following structures
are demonstrated in a lateral
projection of the thoracic spine?
❖ Apophyseal joint
❖ Intervertebral foramina
66. What position/projection would best
demonstrate the tarsal navicular
free of superimposition?
❖ AP oblique, medial
rotation
67. Which of the following statements
refers to demonstration of the
pulmonary apices with the patient in
the AP position?
❖ Central ray is directed 15°
to 20° cephalad
68. Which of the following statements
refer to radiography of the shoulder
in inferosuperior projection
(nontrauma, Lawrence method)?
❖ Coracoids process and
lesser tubercle are seen
in profile
❖ Arm is abducted about
90° from the body
69. Which of the following bony
landmark is in the same transverse
plane as the symphysis pubis?
❖ Prominence of the
greater trochanter
70. What are the vertebral groups that
form lordotic curves?
❖ Lumbar
❖ Cervical
71. Which position will demonstrate the
coronoid process in profile?
❖ Medial oblique elbow
72. What are the projections of the
abdomen may be used to
demonstrate air or fluid levels?
❖ Lateral decubitus
❖ Dorsal decubitus
73. Which skull position will
demonstrate the cranial base,
sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and
odontoid process?
❖ Submentovertical
74. What is the position used to
demonstrate vertical fractures and
patellofemoral articulation?
❖ Tangential - patella
75. What is the position that would best
demonstrate the proximal
tibiofibular articulation?
❖ 45° internal rotation
76. Which functional study is used to
demonstrate the degree of AP
motion present in the cervical
spine?
 ❖ Flexion and extension in
lateral
77. Which part of the head is positioned
in contact with the image receptor
to demonstrate the optic foramen
employing Bertel method?
❖ Forehead and nose
78. What is the structure demonstrated
when employing Twining method?
❖ Cervicothoracic region
79. Which exposure technique should
be employed to best visualize the
lower ribs?
❖ Expiration
80. Which positioning method would
best demonstrate the fovea capitis,
particularly the superoposterior
walls of acetabulum?
❖ Teufel
81. What position/projection would best
demonstrate acromioclavicular
separation?
❖ AP erect, both shoulders
82. Which of the following structures
are demonstrated in an AP
projection of the cervical spine?
❖ C3-7 cervical bodies
❖ Intervertebral disk spaces
83. What are the conditions that should
be included in a preliminary patient
history to decide whether to deliver
ionic or nonionic contrast media?
❖ History of respiratory
disease
❖ History of cardiac
disease
❖ Patient age
84. Which position will most effectively
move the gallbladder away from the
vertebrae in an asthenic patient?
❖ LAO
85. What condition/structure is
demonstrated if an erect position is
requested as part of an intravenous
urography?
❖ Kidney mobility
86. Which position/projection would
demonstrate the esophagus
between the heart and vertebra in a
barium swallow examination?
❖ Oblique
87. What is the structure demonstrated
in a barium enema examination
with the patient in supine position,
the central ray angled 30°-40°
cephalad directed two inches
inferior to the ASIS?
❖ Rectosigmoid
88. What is the action that the
Radiologic Technologist should
perform to prevent the stomach or
duodenum from pressing against
the vertebra which may cause
pressure filling defects on thin
patients during an upper
gastrointestinal series procedure?
❖ Put padding under the
thorax and pelvis
89. Fluoroscopic imaging of the
ileocecal valve is generally part of
❖ A small bowel series
90. Which of the following carpal canal
bones can best be demonstrated in
the Stecher position with a 20-
degree angulation of the wrist?
❖ Scaphoid
91. Which of the following structures
will be demonstrated in an AP
projection of the forearm?
❖ Proximal row of slightly
distorted carpal bones
 ❖ Radius and ulna
92. Which of the following
positions/projections in an x-ray
examination of the foot would best
demonstrate the cuboid, sinus tarsi,
and tuberosity of the fifth
metatarsal?
❖ Medial oblique
93. A dorsoplantar projection of the foot
will clearly demonstrate the joint
space between the metatarsals and
midfoot if the tube is angled
❖ 10° posteriorly
94. The angles between the eyelids
used as reference points are the
❖ Canthi
95. The ribs posterior to the vertebral
column should superimpose in
which of the following chest
projections?
❖ Lateral position
96. A lateral projection of the paranasal
sinuses will demonstrate which of
the following sinuses?
❖ All four paranasal sinuses
97. When modifying the PA axial
projection of the skull to
demonstrate the superior orbital
fissures, the central ray is directed
❖ 20 to 25° caudad
98. Which of the following
examinations will require close-
beam restriction?
❖ Sella turcica – lateral
99. Which of the following methods
suggests both AP and PA axial
oblique projections for suspected
acromioclavicular subluxation or
dislocation?
❖ Alexander
100. Which of the following statements is
not an evaluation criterion in a PA
projection of the hand?
❖ Close
metacarpophalangeal
and interphalangeal
joints
101. An axial projection of the knee is
performed to demonstrate the
❖ Intercondyloid fossa
102. The suprapatellar effusion would best
be demonstrated in which of the following
knee positions/projections?
❖ Lateral
103. Which line of the skull is used as the
baseline in an axial projection of the nasal
bones?
● Glabelloalveolar
104. Which of the following methods is an
AP apical oblique axial projection to best
demonstrate the scapulohumeral
dislocations of the shoulder?
● Garth
105. Which of the following central ray
directions is employed to demonstrate the
outlet view of the pelvis in male patients?
● 20-35 degrees cephalad
106. Which of the following projections
would demonstrate "bow" leg and "knock"
knee?
● Weight-bearing AP projections
107. How many degrees cephalad
angulation of the beam is used in an AP
axial projection (Taylor method) for anterior
pelvic bones in male patients?
● 25
108. Which of the following would best be
visualized in a trendelenburg position in an
upper gastrointestinal series examination?
● Diaphragmatic hernia
109. Which of the following structures is
best demonstrated in PA axial projection in
a barium examination?
● Rectosigmoid
110. Routine excretory urography usually
includes a post-micturation radiograph of
the bladder to demonstrate
● Residual urine
● Hypoplasia
● Tumor Masses
111. The preferred site for an arterial
puncture for angiographic studies is
● Femoral
112. Which of the following is referred to as
a condition that is often the result of
ureteral obstruction or stricture?
● Hydronephrosis
113. Which of the following are considered
the most common allergic reactions to
contrast media?
● Metallic taste in the mouth
● Temporary hot flush
114. Routine excretory urography usually
includes a post-micturation radiograph of
the bladder. This is done to demonstrate
● Tumor masses
● Residual urine
● Hypoplasia
115. In radiographic studies of the stomach
and duodenum, the patient is generally
positioned in
● Recumbent
116. The technical requirements in
cholangiography procedure include the use
of % a small focal spot
● short exposure time
117. In an interventional pyelography
examination, which of the following organs
is demonstrated in an erect position?
● Kidney mobility
118. Which of the following is true in a
lateral projection of the stomach during an
upper gastrointestinal series examination?
● Anterior and posterior aspect of
stomach is visualized
● Best demonstrate the
retrogastric space
119. Which of the following statements
refer to an oblique projection (Wolf method)
for the stomach in an upper gastrointestinal
series examination?
● Will demonstrate possible hiatal
hernia
● Central ray directed 10-20
degrees caudad
120. Which of the following is best
demonstrated if a patient is placed in a
RPO position during a barium enema
examination?
● Splenic flexure
121. Which of the following positions would
best demonstrate a double contrast of the
hepatic and splenic flexures during a
barium enema examination?
● AP erect
122. Which of the following statements
is/are true regarding lower extremity
venography?
● Patient is often examined in the
semi-erect position
● Tourniquets are used to force
contrast medium into the deep
veins
123. Which of the following special
radiographic examinations is used to
demonstrate vesico-ureteral reflux?

● Voiding cystourethrogram
124. Which of the following remains as the
most common imaging examination of the
system even with current technological
advancements?
● Radiographic contrast studies
125. Which of the following urography
techniques is used in examination of the
upper urinary tracts in infants and children?
● Excretory
126. The location of gallbladder in
hypersthenic patient is
● Higher and more lateral than
average
127. In a barium enema examination,
which position would best demonstrate the
"up" medial side of ascending colon when
the colon is inflated with air?
● Lateral decubitus
128. Which positioning maneuver is
performed to project the symphysis pubis
away from the base of an opacified urinary
bladder in a cystogram procedure?
● Central beam is angled caudally
129. In sialography, at the conclusion of the
procedure the patient is
● Given secretory stimulant to
purge salivary gland
130. Which of the following antero-
posterior projections of the shoulder will
demonstrate the region of subdeltoid
bursa?
● Internal rotation
131. Which of the following are the
advantages of employing air gap technique
in performing chest radiography?
I. No grid lines will be appreciated
II. No chest structures are seen in
greater detail
● l and II
132. Which of the following will describe a
radiographio examinalion of the abdomen?
III. Compared with AP, PA
projection greatly reduces patient
gonadal dose
● III
133. What type of drug should be made
readily available for patients who may
develop hives several minutes after
ingestion of iodinated contrast media?
● Antihistamine
134. An endoscopic fluoroscopic
procedure that is used to diagnose biliary
and pancreatic pathology is called?
● Endoscopic retrograde
cholangiopancreatography
135. Select the duct used as the site where
the T-tube in left is placed in T-tube
cholagiogram.
● Common bile
136. Select the examination that can be
used to evaluate renal function.
● Intravenous urogram
137. Which of the following structures is
demonstrated in a Kemp Harper method in
a submentovertical axial projection?
● Jugular foramina projected at or
near the level of the angles of
mandible
138. Which of the following is performed to
demonstrate the fetus in utero as well as
detect suspected developmental
abnormalities or confirm suspected fetal
death?
● Fetography
139. Which of the following structures will
be demonstrated in an antero-poster
projection of the shoulder in internal
rotation?
II. The region of subdeltoid
bursa
● II
140. Which of the following projections is a
Bertel method in x-ray examination of optic
foramen?
● PA axial
141. Clements-Nakayama method is a
postero-anterior axial oblique projection is
primarily performed to demonstrate which
of the following wrist bones?
● Trapezium and articulations with
adjacent carpal bones
142. In an antero-posterior projection of the
scapula, the patient's
● Arm is abducted at right angle to
the body
143. Choose the require x-ray tube
angulation in an axial plantodorsal
projection of the Os calcis.
● 40 degrees cephalad
144. Which position would BEST
demonstrate the superior intervertebral
foramina of the lumbar spine?
● Lateral
145. The central ray direction in a Betel's
PA axial projection for the demonstration of
inferior orbital fissure is _____ through the
nasion.
● 20-25 degrees cephalad
146. Which of the following characteristics
refers to the non-ionic contrast media?
● Hydrophelic
147. Examinations of the paranasal
sinuses are taken in erect position for the
following reasons:
I. To differentiate between shadows
due to fluid or other pathologic
conditions
III. To demonstrate presence of
absence of fluid
● Il and III
148. Which of the following methods is a
submentovertical (Subbasal) mastoid
projection with the supraorbitomeatal line
placed parallel with the cassette?
● Taylor
149. Which one of the following steps
should be performed first during a
positioning routine?
● Patient and part positioning
150. To project the thoracic zygapophyseal
joint. how many degrees will the body be
rotated from the lateral position?
● 20
151. Which of the following is performed to
verify presence of a ligamentous tear
following inversion or eversion injury of the
ankle?
● AP stress study
152. Which breathing instruction is given to
a patient when performing an antero-
posterior projection of the abdomen?
● Expiration
153. Determine the position/projection that
would BEST visualize pacified stomach
and duodenum, especially the anterior and
posterior walls of the stomach, in an upper
gastrointestinal series examination
● Left lateral
154. The region of subdeltoid bursa of the
shoulder will be demonstrated in which of
the following positions of the arm in
anteroposterior projection?

● Internal rotation
155. To avoid irritation of the bowel in a
barium examination, the ideal temperature
level of the water and barium sulfate
contrast medium is_____?
● Degrees Fahrenheit
156. Identify the part of a barium-filled
colon that would BEST be demonstrated in
the left anterior oblique position.
● Splenic flexure
157. A lateral position to demonstrate the
facial bones requires
● Placing the interpapillary line
perpendicular to the film
158. To accomplish a double contrast study
of the upper gastrointestinal series, barium
mixed with is administered to patient.
● Gas producing tablets
159. Which of the following projections is
performed to demonstrate vertical patellar
fracture and femoropatellar articulation?
● Axial patella
160. Which of the following method will
demonstrate a bilateral view of the
zygoma?
● Titterington
161. Which of the following methods would
be employed when obtaining a radiograph
of a patient with suspected hip fracture?
● Danelius-Miller
162. Which of the following projections
would demonstrate the left thoracic
zygapophyseal joint?
I. Left posterior oblique
III. Left Anterior oblique
● I and III
163. Which of the following projections of
the hand will show the anterior and
posterior displacement of fracture
fragments and foreign bodies
● Lateral position
164. In an X-ray examination to
demonstrate the rotundum foramina, the
central ray is directed.
● 45° caudad
165. Which of the following will describe the
expanded superior and most lateral
portions of the scapular spine?
● Acromion process
166. Which of the following mastoid
projections will place the supraorbitomeatal
line parallel with the cassette?
● Submentovertical (subbasal) -
Taylor
167. Which of the following lines of the skull
is placed parallel to the cassette in a
submento-vertical projection?
● Infraorbitomeatal
168. Which of the following techniques is
used in arteriography procedure?
● Seldinger
169. Well positioned anter-posterior
projection of the skull will demonstrate
which of the following structures on the
lower third of the orbits?
● Petrous ridges
170. Which of the following is a
requirement in positioning patient for a
poster-anterior projection of the hand?
● Rest patient forearm on the table
171. When ureteral reflux is suspected
during a voiding cystourethrogram
examination, it is necessary to include a
radiograph with the patient is the act of
 ● urinating
172. Which of the following are criteria for
an optimal quality abdominal radiograph?
I. Sharply defined outlines of the
psoas muscles
II. Sharply defined lower border of the
liver, kidneys, and ribs
III. Sharply defined transverse
processes of the lumbar
● I, Il and III
173. The Kemp Harper method in a
submentovertical axial projection is useful
in demonstrating
● the jugular formina projected at
or near the level of the angles of
mandible
174. Which of the following projections
would BEST demonstrate calcaneal spur?
● Lateral
175. What will be the barium and air
distribution in the stomach if patient is
positioned in left posterior oblique during
an upper gastrointestinal series
examination?
● Barium in the fundus and air in
the pylorus
176. Which of the following is a
contraindication for introduction of barium
sulfate as contrast medium for
gastrointestinal tract examination?
● Gastrointestinal perforation
177. Which of the following bony landmarks
is in the same transverse plane as the
symphysis pubis?
● Most prominent part of greater
trochanter
178. Which position/projection would BEST
visualize pacified stomach and duodenal
especially the anterior and posterior walls
of the stomach in an upper gastrointestinal
series examination?
● Left posterior oblique
179. In a barium enema procedure, if post-
evacuation radiograph shows evacuate to
be inadequate, patient is given _____ to
stimulate further evacuation
● hot tea or coffee
180. Which position/projection would BEST
visualize pacified stomach duodenum,
particularly the pyloric canal, duodenal bulb
and profile in an upper Gl series
examination?
● Prone position
181. The MOST common contraindications
for intravenous urography are related to the
1. Ability of the kidneys to filter
contrast medium from blood
2. Patient's history of allergies
3. Patient's elevated creatinine level
● 1, 2 and 3
182. Which of the following is the MOST
accurate evaluation criteria in determining
rotation in a chest postero-anterior
radiograph?
● Number of ribs above the
diaphragm
183. Which of the following is NOT
considered as major reaction to contrast
media?
● Burning sensation
184. An AP/AP axial projection of the foot
is used for
1. Localizing foreign bodies
2. Determining location of
fracture fragments of the metatarsals
and anterior tarsal
3. Performing general surveys of
the bones of the foot
● 1, 2, and 3
185. Which of the following patellar
projection requires tube angulation of 25-
30 degrees caudad to the joint spaces
between the patella and femoral condyles?

● Kuchendorf method
186. In intravenous cholagiography, after
injection/introduction of contrast medium,
maximum pacification will occur in
approximately
● 30-40 minutes
187. Gordon developed the PA axial to
"open-up" the high, horizontal stomach for
demonstration of greater and lesser
curvatures and duodenal bulb for which
type of body habitus?
● Hypersthenic type
188. Which specific term refers to
radiographic study of the biliary ducts?
● Cholangiography
189. Which of the following special
radiographic examination is used to
demonstrate vesico-ureteral reflux?
● Voiding cystourethrogram
190. Which of the following statements is
TRUE regarding the distance between the
vertebral column and the outer margin of
the ribs in an oblique position of the chest?
● The dependent side is two times
compared to the remote side
191. A radiographic procedure which is
used to investigate the blood vessels of the
kidneys and the suprarenal glands.
● Angiographic procedure
192. Which of the following statements
refers to a lateral position (Lauenstein and
hickey methods) of the hip?
● Used to demonstrate the hip joint
and the relationship of femoral
head to the acetabulum
193. Noorgard method is employed to
detect early rheumatoid arthritis to an AP
oblique examination of the
● Hand
194. The standard level of the container
attached to the drip stand in sialography
examination via hydrostatic pressure is
approximately how many inches?
● 28 inches from the level of the
patient
195. The central ray direction in a Hickey
method for the hip joint.
● 20-25 degrees cephalad
196. In an AP projection of the scapula, the
patient's
● Arm is raised upward, forearm
resting over the head
197. Which of the following
positions/projection is NOT employed in
the demonstration of the sternoclavicular
articulations?
● Weight-bearing position
198. Which of the following techniques
does NOT describe a change negative
contrast media?
● Appears white in the finish
radiograph
199. Which articulation should be seen in
profile with the AP medial oblique
projection with 15-20 degrees' medial
rotation of the ankle?
● Talofibular
200. Which of the following evaluation
criteria indicates that the knee is properly
positioned for the lateral projection?
● Femoral condyles are
superimposed
201. For the lateral projection of the patella,
which positioning maneuver reduces the
femoropatellar joint space?
● Flexing the knee more than 10
degrees
202. What is the major disadvantage of the
Settegast method?
● Requires overflexion
203. A radiograph of an AP mortise
projection reveals that the lateral joint
space is not open but the distal tibiofibular
joint space. What positioning error lead to
this outcome?
❖ Excessive medial rotation
204. "Scotty-dog sign" in an oblique
position of the lumbar spine indicates
demonstration of
❖ Articular processes
205. What is the reference point for PA
axial projection for occipital bone?
❖ Inion
206. A well-positioned AP projection of the
skull will demonstrate which of the following
structures on the lower third of the orbits?
❖ Petrous ridges
207. Which of the following positions will
demonstrate the right cervical
intervertebral foramina and pedicles?
1. Left posterior oblique
2. Right anterior oblique
❖ 1 and 3
208. Which of the following statements is
NOT an evaluation criteria projection of the
hand?
❖ Close metacarpophalangeal and
interphalangeal joints
209. What type of drug should be made
readily available for patient who may
develop hives several minutes after
injection of iodinated contrast media?
❖ Antihistamine
210. Which of the following is the
radiographic examination of choice
evaluation of esophagogastic reflux?
❖ Water test
211. Which of the following axiolateral
projections of the mastoid with position the
mastoid away from the film lying inferior
and slight anterior to the mastoid being
examined?
❖ Law method
212. What is the central ray for the
demonstration of the inferior orbit fissure?
❖ 20-25 degrees cephalad
213. An air contrast study of the duodenum
performed after injection of antispasdomic
drug
❖ Air contrast duodenography
214. Which of the following is TRUE
regarding a lateral decubitus chest
examination?
❖ A frontal projection of the chest
in lateral recumbent position
215. Which of the following techniques will
help to obliterate the rib shadows and
vascular markings when obtaining a lateral
position of the thoracic vertebrae?
❖ Employing a soft breathing
technique
216. The air contrast study of the
duodenum after injection of antispasmodic
drug is referred to as
❖ Air contrast duodenography
217. Which of the following structures is
BEST demonstrated with a lateral oblique
projection of the elbow?
❖ Trochlea
218. Study of the large intestine requires
preparation of the patient prior to the
procedure. This will generally involve
II Gastric lavage
Ill. dietary restrictions
❖ Il and III

219. Intravenous administration of contrast
medium will reach the liver through
circulation.
❖ Systematic
220. An antero-posterior (open-mouth)
projection of the cervical vertebrae will
demonstrate the ______
❖ axis and odontoid
221. What degree of obliquity from lateral
position is required to visualize the
apophyseal articulations of the thoracic
spine?
❖ 20
222. Which of the following projections will
demonstrate hallux valgus?
❖ AP axial weight bearing foot
223. In retrograde cystography, which of
the following would BEST demonstrate an
axial image of the posterior surface of the
bladder and the lower end of the ureter?
❖ Squat shot
224. The central ray direction in an antero-
Posterior projection to cervical vertebrae is
❖ 15 - 20° cephalad
225. 9When iodinated contrast medium is
employed, the maximum kilovoltage (KVp)
that should be used is
❖ 110
226. Which of the following methods is a
trans-oral axial view that demonstrate the
sphenoids?
❖ Pirie
227. Expiratory chest radiograph may be
taken to_______
❖ demonstrate excursion of
diaphragm
228. Which central ray cephalad direction
would BEST demonstrate the gastro-
duodenal surfaces situated in the frontal
plane in an upper gastrointestinal series
examination of an infant?
❖ 20 - 25°
229. When positioning Mortise method of
the ankle, insufficient dorsiflexion will result
in which of the following radiographic
demonstration?
❖ Distal tibiofibular joint is not well
demonstrated
230. Which of the following statements is
true to upper gastrointestinal series
radiographic examination?
❖ Examination usually leads to
accurate evaluation of
esophagus, stomach, and
duodenums
231. Which of the following would BEST be
demonstrated in an axial projection of the
knee?
❖ Intercondyloid fossa
232. Which of the following statements is
TRUE regarding the distance between the
vertebrae column and the outer margin of
the ribs in an oblique position of the chest?
❖ The dependent side is two times
compared to the remote side
233. Which of the following methods is a
special projection to demonstrate the first
carpometacarpal joint in an antero-
posterior projection?
❖ Burman
234. Which of the following patellar
projections requires tube angulations of 25
- 30° degrees caudad to the joint spaces
between the patella and femoral condyles?
❖ Kuchendorf
235. Which of the following evaluation
criteria will indicate full extension of the
neck in schuller method in
submentovertical projection?
❖ Asymmetric images of foramina
ovale and spinosum
236. Which of the following is the principal
route of elimantion of most aqueous iodine
contrast media?
❖ Urinary tract
237. Which of the following shoulder
rotation demonstrates the humerus in the
true lateral position?
III. Antero-posterior internal
❖ III
238. Which of the following is a common
side effects following intake of barium
sulfate after barium study?
❖ Constipation
239. In a smell bowel series examination,
demonstration of the entire small intestine
is assured when the barium sulfate passed
into the
❖ cardiac orifice
240. Which of the following structures is of
primary interest is a patient is positioned
supine with the bod rotated approximately
35°-45° toward the affected side and the
central ray is directed to the shoulder joint?
❖ Glenoid cavity
241. In performing an antero-posterior
projection of the abdomen, which of the
following is the proper breathing instruction
that the patient will execute?
❖ Full exhalation
242. If the head is in true lateral position
and the central ray enters at a point ¾-inch
anterior and ¾-inch superior to the external
auditory meatus, which structure would be
demonstrated?
❖ Sella turcica
a 243. Which of the following elbow positions
would BEST demonstrate the coronoid
process projected free of superimposition?
❖ Internal Oblique
244. Which of the following methods is a
unilateral x-ray examination of the hip in
axiloateral projected with central ray at 35
degrees cephalad directed to fermoral
neck?
❖ Friedman
245. Which of the following statements
refer to positioning the patient in an antero-
posterior projection of the scapula?
I. Arm is abducted at right angle
with the body
II. Elbow is flexed with hand
supinated
❖ I and lI
246. Which of the following barium/ air-
filled large colon is BEST demonstrated in
right anterior oblique position?
❖ Ileocecal valve
247. Which of the following statements
refer to a postero-anterior axial projection
(Haas method) of the skull?
I. The petrous pyramids of the
temporal bone are projected
symmetrically
II. The dorsum sellae is projected
within the shadow of foramen magnum.
III. It is essentially a reversed AP
axial (Townes method) position
❖ I, Il and ill
248. Which of the following positions are
performed in a lateral position to
demonstrate the facial bones?
I. The Beam is centered to the
upper molar
III. Interpupillary line is
perpendicular to the film
❖ I and III
249. Which of the following methods will
demonstrate a frontal projection of the
entire cervical
Vertebrae?
❖ Ottonello
250. Which of the following is the MOST
accurate evaluation criteria in determining
rotation in a chest postero-anterior
radiograph?
❖ Symmetric sternoclavicular
joints
251. Which projection opens the
intervertebral disk spaces of the cervical
spine?
❖ AP with 15-20 degrees cephalad
angulation
252. When performing the PA Oblique
projections (Grashey Method) to
demonstrate the interspace between the
1st and 2nd metatarsal, the heel is rotated?
❖ 30 degrees medially
253. In foot Grashey method, the navicular
bone is best demonstrated in profile. what
is the rotation of the heel?
❖ 30 degrees medially
254. All are true regarding Judet's view for
acetabulum projection except?
❖ Central ray directed at 40
degrees cephalad to symphysis
pubis
255. Long-Bone measurement frequently
requires radiography of the?
❖ Lower limbs only
256. What is the purpose of abducting the
femur for the cleaves method?
❖ to position the femoral neck
parallel with the cassette
257. What are the proper breathing
instructions for a lateral projection of the
thoracic spine?
❖ Continued breathing
258. Which of the following method in orbit
radiography uses device that determine the
exact location of foreign body using
geometric calculation and a localizing
device.
❖ Sweet method localizer
259. If the foramen magnum is not
visualized on a Towne's radiograph what
must be done to correct it?
❖ Increase CR angle caudally
260. A radiograph of PA oblique of the
hand reveals that the midaspect of the
third, fourth, and fifth metacarpals is slightly
superimposed. What must be done to
correct this positioning problem on the
repeat exposure?
❖ Decrease obliquity of hand
261. Which of the following projection
would be best for demonstrating a possible
dislocation of the proximal humerus?
❖ Scapular Y
262. Which of the following projection is a
breathing technique preferred?
❖ Neer method
263. A radiograph of the Greashey method
reveals that the anterior and posterior
glenoid rims are not superimposed. The
following positioning factors were used:
erect position, body rotate 35° toward the
affected side, central ray perpendicular to
scapulohumeral joint space, and affected
arm slightly abducted in neutral rotation.
Which one of the following modifications
will superimpose the glenoid rims during
the repeat exposure?
❖ Rotate body more toward
affected side
264. AN AP oblique projection (medial
rotation) of the wrist will
❖ Separate the pisiform from
adjacent carpal bones
265. Which of the following intercondyloid
fossa projections requires flexion of the
knee so the long axis of the femur is at an
angle of degrees from the table?
❖ Holmblad method
266. Which of the following projections will
demonstrate the C3 to T3 with the beam
angled 3-5 degrees caudad?
❖ Pawlow method
267. Which of the following method would
be employed when obtaining a radiograph
of patient with suspected hip fracture?
❖ Danelius-Miller method
268. What is the average range of obliquity
required to demonstrate the sternum free
fom vertebral superimposition in a RAO
position?
❖ 15 to 20 degrees
269. In a contrast examination of the
urinary system, what is the normal time
period for intravenous injection to
radiographic appearance of contrast media
in the pelvicalyceal system?
❖ 2 to 8 minutes
270. What position will best demonstrate
polyp on the left side of the large colon?
❖ Right lateral decubitus
271. In the lateral projection for the skull,
the radiologist noted that the orbital plate of
the frontal bone is not superimposed on the
radiograph. What is the positioning error for
this examination?
❖ Midsagittal plane is tilted
272. A patient was requested with x-ray to
rule out separation or dislocation of the
acromio-clavicular joint. The RT on duty
should do the following to properly
demonstrate this condition.
1. patient must be in erect position
3. 5-8 pounds of weight attached to
each wrist of patient
4. both joints included on the
radiograph
❖ 1, 3 and 4 only
273. Which of the following is the MOST
accurate evaluation criteria in determining
rotation in a chest postero-anterior
radiograph?
❖ Symmetrical distance from the
lateral border to the side of the
film
274. "Scotty-dog sign" in an oblique
position of the lumbar spine indicates
demonstration of :
❖ Articular processes
275. A dorsoplantar projection of the foot
will clearly demonstrate the joint space
between the metatarsals and midfoot if the
tube is angled
❖ 10 degrees posteriorly
276. A lateral projection of the knee, the
knee is preferably flexed 20 degrees
because this
❖ Position relaxes the muscles and
shows the maximum volume of
joint cavity
277. Generally, x-rays of the upper limb
require that the following positioned
preferable resting on the table:
❖ Forearm and arm
278. A medial oblique position of the foot
requires rotation of the leg and foot
❖ Medially
279. The Lilienfeld method, weight-bearing
position, is employed demonstrate the
 ❖ Pubic symphysis
280. Which projection of the foot best
demonstrates the cuboid and its
articulations?
❖ AP medial oblique
281. Which two projections comprise the
typical series that best demonstrates the
calcaneus?
❖ Axial plantodorsal and lateral
282. Which articulation should be seen in
profile with the AP medial oblique
projection with 15-20 degrees medial
rotation of the ankle?
❖ Talofibular
283. How many degrees difference exist
between the medial and lateral condyle of
the femur?
❖ 5-7 degrees
284. Which projection of the knee best
demonstrates the proximal tibiofibular joint
without superimposition?
❖ Medial oblique
285. When performing the AP projection of
the foot to demonstrate better the
tarsometarsal joint space of the midfoot the
central ray is directed:
❖ 10° towards the heel to the base
of the 3rd metatarsal
286. What projection best demonstrate the
degree of lower extremity varus and valgus
deformity?
❖ Knee PA weight bearing
287. What knee projection is best for
evaluating split and displaced cartilage in
ostechondritis and flattening or
underdevelopment of the lateral and
femoral condyle?
❖ Camp-Coventry method
288. All are true regarding patella PA
Oblique Axial projection (Kuchendorf
method) EXCEPT?
❖ Central ray enters at posterior
surface of patella
289. Failure to dorsiflex the patient's ankle
during an A medial oblique projection of the
ankle will result in:
❖ Inaccurate demonstration of the
distal tibiofibular articulation
290. A lateral transcranial projection
demonstrates the?
❖ TMJ
291. In the Rhese method for orbits study
is used properly, the optic foramen can be
seen in the:
❖ Upper outer quadrant
292. For a lateral skull survey the CR is
directed perpendicularly to AM at what
location?
❖ 2 inches above EAM
293. For the PA projection of the skull to
image the frontal bone:
1. The CR is directed
perpendicularly and exit at glabella
2. OML is perpendicular to IR
❖ 1 and 2
294. When radiographing the mandibular
body with the patient in SMV position
❖ IOML is parallel with plane of
film, head resting on vertex and
MSP is perpendicular to IR.
295. In the posterior profile projection
(Stenvers method) of the petrous
pyramids, the:
1. Central ray is directed 12°
cephalad
2. MSP is 45° to the film
❖ 1 and 2 only
296. If the patient's zygomatic arch has
been traumatically depressed or the patient
has flat cheekbones, the arch may be
demonstrated by modifying the SMV
projection and rotating the patient's head:
❖ 15° toward the side being
examined
297. When modifying the PA axial
projection of the skull to demonstrate
inferior orbital fissures, the central ray is
directed:
❖ 20 to 25° cephalad.
298. A radiograph of an AP elbow
projection demonstrates total separation
between the proximal radius and ulna.
What must be done to correct this
positioning error on the repeat exposure?
❖ Rotate upper limb laterally
299. Which one of the following structure is
considered to be the most posterior?
❖ Acromion
300. Which basic projection of the shoulder
requires that the humeral epicondyles be
parallel to the cassette?
❖ External rotation
301. Which of the following is the
radiographic examination of choice
evaluation of esophagogastric reflux?
• Water test
302. A sella turcica projection which will
demonstrate superimposed anterior clinoid
processes as well as the posterior cliniod
processes
• Lateral
303. The Merchants method is an x-ray
examination for which of the following
structures?
❖ Patella
304. What is the central ray for the
demonstration of the inferior orbital
fissure?
•20-25 degrees cephalad
305. Which of the following intercondyloid
fossa projections requires flexion of the
knee so the long axis of the femur is at an
angle of degrees from the table?
* Holmblad method
306. What is the other name for the Os
magnum?
* Capitate
307. Which of the following is primarily
useful in demonstrating each orbital floor
and inferior orbital fissure between the
shadows of the lateral pterygoid lamina of
the sphenoid bone and the condylar
process of the mandible?
•Bertel method
308. During arthrography, which of the
following is the MOST common reaction to
the contrast medium used?
* Anaphylactic response
309. When performing the Hickey method
to demonstrate the hip joint, the central ray
is directed:
•Perpendicular to the hip joint
310. Which of the following statement is
NOT true regarding functional studies of
the cervical spine in later position?
• To demonstrate antero-lateral
movement or absence of movement
311. What position will best demonstrate
polyp on the left side of the large colon?
• Left lateral decubitus
312. What contrast media used in OCG will
permit rapid visualization of the biliary
ducts and gallbladder?
• Sodium Ipodate
313. What position will separate the
superimposition of the gallbladder for thin
patients?
* RPO
314. In the lateral projection for the skull,
the radiologist noted that the orbital plate of
the frontal bone is not superimposed on the
radiograph. What is the positioning error for
this examination?
•OML not parallel to the cassette
315. In the AP odontoid projection, which
evaluation criteria is used?
• The lower jaw bone is seen below the
odontoid process
316. Which of the following positioning
technique is not employ in Wolf method?
•the compression device is place under
the abdomen and above the costal
margin
317. Degree of obliquity of patient position
performed to demonstrate the glenoid
fossa in profile.
•45° affected side down
318. Structure demonstrated if the
radiographic image indicates an "scotty-
dog sign" in an oblique position of the
lumbar spine.
• articular processes
319. Central beam angle and direction in
an axial projection of the clavicle with the
patient in PA position
•15° to 30° caudad
320. The procedure that should be
performed to rule out subluxation or
fracture of the cervical spine.
• horizontal beam - lateral
321. Positions/projections that are routine
for radiographic examination of the
forearm.
• AP and lateral
322. Patient is recumbent and the central
ray is directed horizontally, the position is
•decubitus
323. Central ray direction in an AP
projection of the sacrum.
•15° cephalad
324. Statements referring to demonstration
of the pulmonary apices with the patient in
the anteroposterior position
•central ray is directed 15° to 20°
cephalad
325. Patient's position in PA that will
demonstrate the sternoclavicular joints.
* in a slight oblique position, affected
side adjacent to image receptor
326. Patient position in an x-ray
examination of the thoracic spine to
demonstrate the apophyseal articulations.
•coronal plane at 700 to the image
receptor
327. Position/projection that requires
placing the shoulder in internal rotation.
• lateral humerus
328. Part of the mandible that would be
visualized with the patient head in
posteroanterior position and the central ray
directed 20° cephalad.
• rami
329. Position/projection that would
demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees.
● AP erect
330. Projection that would demonstrate a
lateral deviation of the nasal septum
• parietoacanthial - Waters' method
331. Patient position that will obtain
functional studies of the cervical spine.
• lateral position while flexing and
extending the head
332. Degree of obliquity that will properly
position the cervical spine for an oblique
position.
•45°
333. Central ray direction in a lateral
projection of the nasal bones.
• ¾ inch distal to the nasion
334. Chest radiographic position/projection
that requires the ribs posterior to the
vertebral column should superimpose
• lateral
335. Determine the position of the palm of
the hand in a routine lateral projection of
the elbow.
• in lateral position
336. The structure that will be
demonstrated with the patient seated at the
end of x-ray table, elbow flexed 80°, central
ray directed 45° laterally from the shoulder
to the elbow joint.
• coronoid process
337. The method employed to visualize the
profile of the olecranon process as well as
superimposed outlines of bones of forearm
and arm
• Jones
338. The reason why the patient's chin is
elevated during a chest x-ray examination.
•to avoid superimposition of the apices
339. Position/projection that would
demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of
superimposition.
• AP oblique, medial rotation
340. Rotation required of the leg and foot in
a medial oblique position of the foot.
•medially
341. Degree of flexion of the knee when
positioning the knee in lateral on patient
with new or unhealed patellar fracture.
•not more than 100
342. Position/projection that would
demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular
articulation.
•45° internal rotation
343. The technique that the Radiologic
Technologist may employ to help obliterate
the rib shadows and vascular markings in a
lateral position of the thoracic vertebra
•employ soft breathing technique
344. Structure demonstrated in May
method.
•zygoma
345. Projection that would demonstrate
talofibular joint.
•medial oblique
346. The essential position in radiography
of the parañasal sinuses.
• erect
347. Position/projection that will visualize
the talocalcaneal joint.
• plantodorsal projection of Os calcis
348. Projection of the foot that would
demonstrate the longitudinal arch.
•lateral weight-bearing
349. Position of the cassette when
performing an axiolateral (horizontal beam)
projection of the hip.
•top edge slightly above the iliac crest
350. Structure demonstrated in a skull AP
axial projection (Towne method) with the
central ray directed 30° caudad to the
orbitomeatal line passing midway between
the external auditory meati.
•occipital bone
351. The technique on how to control
patient voluntary motion.
• careful explanation of procedure
352. Structure demonstrated in an oblique
position of the cervical spine.
• intervertebral foramina
353. Chest examination that should be
obtained on patient having traumatic
injuries to rule out air-fluid levels.
• perform a dorsal decubitus lateral
chest projection
354. Procedure performed with the patient
lying prone recumbent on the radiographic
table and the central ray directed
horizontally to the iliac crest is a
• ventral decubitus position
355. Position performed to demonstrate
small amounts of fluid in the pleural cavity
• lateral decubitus with affected side down
356. Projection/position that will
demonstrate the carpal scaphoid bone
• ulnar flexion/deviation
357. What statement refers to a PA position
to better demonstrate the mandibular rami.
•central ray is angled cephalad
358. Position/projection that will separate
the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from
superimposition on the ulna.
• lateral oblique
359. Position/projection that will
demonstrate the sesamoid bones of the
foot free of superimposition with the
metatarsals or phalanges
•tangential metatarsals/toes
360. The patient rotation that will
demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid
fossa with the patient in anteroposterior
recumbent and in oblique at 45°?
•toward the affected side
361. The positions/projections that would
demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid
dislocation.
• PA oblique scapular Y
362. Position/projection of the abdomen
that would demonstrate the size and shape
of liver and kidneys
•AP
363. Position/projection that would
demonstrate the right axillary ribs.
•left anterior oblique
364. The position/projection of the foot that
would demonstrate the sinus tarsi, cuboid,
and tuberosity of the 5h metatarsal.
•medial oblique
365. The projection of the ankle that would
demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint.
• 45° medial oblique
366. The position of the patient to obtain an
AP projection of the right ilium.
• left side is elevated 40°.
367. Structure demonstrated when
employing Twining method.
• cervicothoracic region
368. The surface landmark used for
radiographic examination of the first
cervical vertebra
• mastoid tip
369. Degree of body rotation necessary to
demonstrate the sternoclavicular joint.
• 10°-15°
370. Exposure technique that should be
employed to visualize the lower ribs.
•expiration
371. Positioning method that can
demonstrate the fovea capitis, particularly
the superoposterior walls of acetabulum.
• Teufel
372. The position that would demonstrate
the left apophyseal articulations of the
lumbar vertebra.
• left posterior oblique
373. Projection that would demonstrate
blowout fractures of the orbit.
•parietoacanthial projection - Waters
method
374. Common reference to a Danelius-
Miller method in an axiolateral projection of
the hip,
• cross-table lateral
375. The technique recommended to better
demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a
dorsoplantar projection of the foot.
• central ray is angled 10° posteriorly
376. The bony landmark that is in the same
transverse plane as the symphysis pubis.
•prominence of the greater trochanter
377. Position that will demonstrate the
coronoid process in profile.
• medial oblique elbow
378. Skull position that will demonstrate the
cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas,
and odontoid process
•submentovertical
379. The projection that would
demonstrate a posterior displacement of
tibial fracture.
• lateral
380. Position that is used to demonstrate
vertical fractures and patellofemoral
articulation.
•tangential - patella
381. The choice for a right shoulder
examination to rule out fracture.
•AP and scapular Y
382. Position that would demonstrate the
proximal tibiofibular articulation
•45° internal rotation
383. The position that will demonstrate the
lumbosacral apophyseal articulation.
•30° right posterior oblique
384. The central ray direction in a posterior
oblique position of the cervical spine
• 15° cephalad to 4th cervical vertebra
385. The functional study used to
demonstrate the degree of AP motion
present in the cervical spin.
• flexion and extension in lateral
386. Structure demonstrated with the
patient in a 25° right posterior oblique
position, central ray entering 1-inch medial
to the elevated anterior superior iliac spine.
• left sacroiliac joint
387. Commonly employed projection to
demonstrate vertical fracture of the patella.
•Settegast (tangential)
388. Carpal canal projections employed by
Burman.
•superoinferior
389. Reason for performing a lateral
(weight-bearing) position of the foot.
• demonstration of structural status of
longitudinal arch
390. Position/projection that would BEST
demonstrate acromioclavicular separation.
•AP erect, both shoulders
391. Condition that would be demonstrated
with the patient in an AP erect with left and
right bending images of the thoracic and
lumbar vertebrae to include one inch of iliac
crest.
•Scoliosis
392. Part of the head that is positioned in
contact with the image receptor to
demonstrate the optic foramen employing
Bertel method.
• forehead and nose
393. Central ray direction employed in a
modified PA axial projection of the skull to
demonstrate the superior orbital fissures.
• 20° to 25° caudad
394. Patient position employed in an AP
projection of the scapula
•arm is abducted at right angle to the
body
395. Statement that refers to positioning of
patient in an anterosuperior projection of
the scapula
•arm is raised upward, forearm resting
over the head
396. Reference point in a barium enema
examination in an AP axial projection with
the central ray directed 30°-40° cephalad?
• inferior margin of symphysis pubis
397. Position/projection that would
demonstrate air-filled funds and duodenum
in an upper gastrointestinal series
examination.
•PA
398. Structure demonstrated in a barium
enema examination with the patient in
supine, the central ray angled 30°-40°
cephalad directed two inches inferior to the
ASIS
•rectosigmoid
399. Position used for the radiographic
studies of the stomach and duodenum.
• Recumbent
400. The site for an arterial puncture for
angiographic studies.
• Femoral
401. Radiologic procedure that is
performed to dilate a stenotic vessel.
• percutaneous angioplasty
402. Patient position/projection that would
visualize the hepatic flexure during barium
enema procedure
• left posterior oblique
403. Patient position that allows the
gallbladder to fall toward the dependent
side without superimposition of the spine.
•right lateral decubitus
404. Position of the gallbladder in asthenic
patient.
• inferior and medial
405. What is the position done in examining
a patient to demonstrate esophageal
varices?
• Recumbent
406. Radiograph used to demonstrate
tumor masses or prostatic enlargement in
an intravenous urography procedure.
• post void
407. The projection that will demonstrate
the right common carotid artery and its
bifurcation with internal and external
carotid arteries
• Lateral
408. Condition/structure demonstrated if
an erect position is requested as part of an
intravenous urography
•kidney mobility
409. Position/projection that would
demonstrate the esophagus between the
heart and vertebra in a barium swallow
examination.
•Oblique
410. Structure that would be shown in a
barium enema examination with the patient
lying on its side, midaxillary portion of the
abdomen centered to table and central ray
directed perpendicular to the anterior
superior iliac spine
•rectum
411. Anatomy that is demonstrated in an
upper gastrointestinal series with the
patient prone and rotated 40°-70 degrees
to the left side
• duodenal bulb
412. Structure demonstrated in a UGIS
examination with the patient lying
recumbent on the right side, midcoronal
plane and anterior of abdomen centered to
midline of table, the central ray is directed
perpendicular to L1-L2.
• duodenal bulb in hypersthenic patient
413. The position that will effectively move
the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in
an asthenic patient.
* left anterior obligue
414. Technique that would provide a PA
projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces
of the barium-filled, high and transverse
stomach.
•angle the central ray 35° to 45°
cephalad
415. Central ray direction in a lateral
projection of a barium-filled stomach for an
average patient.
• midway between the midcoronal line
and anterior surface of abdomen
416. The proiection that shows the right
common carotid artery.
• PA
417. How will the contrast medium
introduced when performing myelography
procedure.
* subarachnoid space
418. The position that would provide
double-contrast visualization of both colic
flexures in a double-contrast barium
enema examination.
* AP/PA erect
419. The modality that replaced
lymphography in demonstrating excellent
pacification of lymph nodes due to its
superior contrast resolution?
•MRI
420. The length of time that the barium
solution reach the ileocecal valve in a
barium follow through for children.
• one hour
421. Positioning technique that would
demonstrate a high transverse stomach for
hypersthenic patient.
• patient is placed in prone with the
central ray angled 35°-45° cephalad.
422. Study that refers to a patient placed in
an upright position for study of the
stomach.
• fundus is filled with air, barium in the
pylorus
423. The procedure performed requiring an
introduction of a contrast medium through
a uterine cannula
• Hysterosalpingogram
424. What is the reason in performing •Coalition method
double-contrast examinations of the
stomach or large bowel. 435. What is the central ray for the
demonstration of high, transverse stomach
•to better visualize the gastric or bowel in hypersthenic patient?
mucosa
• 35-45 degrees cephalad
425. What is the central ray for the
demonstration of the inferior orbital 436. What structures are best
fissure? demonstrated in medial oblique foot?

• 20-25 degrees cephalad • 1st-2nd digits

426. The following are used for the • 3rd-5th metatarsals

demonstration of tangential view of the
sesamoid boned of the foot. except. • Cuboid

• Fuch 437. What is the central ray for the

demonstration of posterior talar articulating
427. What structure is best demonstrated surface?
in Kuchendorf method?
* 10 degrees cephalad to 1 inch distal to
• Patella medial malleolus

428. What projection will best demonstrate 438. What projection will demonstrate
the talofibular joint? hallux valgus?

• Ankle Mortise •AP axial weight bearing foot

429. What line is placed perpendicular 439. The following method will
when performing Rhese method? demonstrate the inlet of the pelvis, except?

• Acanthiomeatal line • Taylor

430. What is the central ray for the 440. What method will demonstrate fovea
demonstration of rotundum foramina? capitis?

•25-30 degrees caudad • Teufel

431. What is best demonstrated for medial 441. Which inlet view is performed in the
oblique foot Isherwood method? sitting position?

• Anterior talar articulating surface •Lilienfield

432. What is best demonstrated for medial
oblique ankle Isherwood method?
* Middle talar articulating surface
433. What is best demonstrated for lateral
oblique ankle Isherwood method?
• Posterior talar articulating surface
442. The following shoulder projection are
performed in the anterior oblique
projection, except?
•Alexander
443. The following shoulder projection are
performed in the posterior oblique
projection; except?

434. What projection will demonstrate the * Blacket-Healy

calcaneotalar joint?
444. What transaxillary projection is 454. What projection will demonstrate the
performed in the lateral recumbent sphenoid strut?
position?
* Hough
•Clements
455. What method will demonstrate a
445. What projection will best demonstrate frontal projection of all cervical vertebrae?
atlas and axis zygapophyseal joint?
• Ottonello
• Open-mouth
456. What is the most simplest
446. What method will best demonstrate an compensating filter?
axial view of the sphenoid?
• Wedge
• Pirie
457. What filter is used for the AP
447. What is best demonstrated in projection of the hips, knees and ankles?
Clements-Nakayama for the wrist?
• Supertech
• Trapezium
458. What type of filter is used for
448. What positions will demonstrate the swimmers view and Danelius-Miller
hepatic flexure? method of the hip?

• LPO •Ferlic collimator mounted filter

•RAO 459. Type of filter used for thoracic AP?

449. What positions will demonstrate the • Through collimator mounted Al filter
splenic flexure?
460. Type of filter used for shoulder AP and
• RPO facial bones?

• LAO • Boomerang contact filter

450. What central ray will demonstrate the 461. Which of the following projection will
anterior clinoid process? not demonstrate Bennett's type of fracture?

• 30 degrees caudad • Folio

•10 degrees cephalad 462. What knee projection will demonstrate

suprapatellar effusion?
451. What line is place parallel to the
cassette in submento vertico projection? • Lateral

• IOML

452. What is the central ray for Hickey

method for the hip joint?

• 20-25 degrees cephalad

453. The following are used to demonstrate

the scaphoid, except?

• Clements-Nakayama