NEUROANATOMY

1. Describe the origin, course and distribution of the pyramidal tract. Add
notes on presentation of lesions affecting the tracts in the internal capsule
2. Discuss the surgical anatomy of the Sylvian fissure. Add notes on the
anatomical structures encountered in the peritoneal approach to the sylvian
fissure (20)
3. Describe the boundaries and contents of the cerebellopontine angle
4. Explain the anatomical basis of the features seen in conus medullaris
syndrome
5. Discuss the differences seen in the grey matter on the cross section of
thoracic and cervical spinal cord
6. Describe the cerebral cortex under the following subheadings:
a. Embryonic origin and histiogenesis
b. Growth
c. Columnar microscopic and functional organization
d. Localization of vascular lesions
7. Give the anatomical basis of the clinical features seen in tumors of the
cerebellopontine angle (15)
8. Describe the general and surgical anatomy of the petrous temporal
bone under the:
a. Position, articulations, relations, contents (20)
b. Blood supply (10)
c. Development and defects (5)
9. Write brief notes on the mastoid antrum (15)
10. Short notes on general and surgical anatomy of the
spinothalamic tract (12)
11. State the position, relations and communication of the
sympathetic chain in the neck. What is the anatomical basis for the
symptoms in Horner’s syndrome (5)
12. Name the structures affected in the medial medullary
syndrome (4)
13. State the mechanism behind a black eye resulting from injury
to the scalp or forehead (3)
14. State the anatomical basis and surgical significance of the
danger area of the scalp (4)
15. Ojiambo is diagnosed to have an arteriovenous fistula within
cavernous sinus as a result of fracture of the skull base.
a. Using your anatomy knowledge, list the clinical features seen in this
condition
b. State the anatomical basis of the development of this fistula
16. State the skeletal characteristics that differentiate a child’s
skull from that of the adult (5)
17. Difference between sensory and cerebellar ataxia (3)
18. State the anatomical basis of the symptomatology of ​tic
douloureux ​(Paroxysmal trigeminal neuralgia) (3)
19. Outline the abnormal findings in injury of the facial nerve
following a fracture of the temporal bone (5)
20. Name, in order, the arrangement of the contents of the jugular
foramen and state five challenges one faces in excision of paragangliomas
in this area (glomus jugulare) (5)
21. State the reasons behind the similarity in clinical features
between glomus jugulare and glomus tympanicum (3)
22. State the pattern of blood supply to 10​th​ thoracic vertebrae
relevant to excision of tumors. (4)
23. State the clinical significance of the main hormone secreted by
the pineal gland (2)
24. Write short notes on surgical anatomy of:
a. Sciatic nerve (12)
b. Lateral ventricle (12)
c. Tracts of the spinal cord (13)
d. Vertebral venous plexus (13)
25. Describe the surgical anatomy of the cerebellum under:
a. Topography and pattern of blood supply (12)
b. Microscopic organization and functional connections (14)
26. Outline the cross sectional, vascular and applied anatomy of
the midbrain (24)
27. Describe the medulla oblongata under:
a. External features including the relations (15)
b. Internal organization of nuclei and tracts (10)
c. Main connections of the nuclei in b above (10)
d. Some aspects of applied anatomy (15)
28. Name three fasciocutaneous flaps that can be made on the
scalp when performing a craniotomy and name one artery each is based on
29. State the site and direction of scalp incision to best access the
cerebellar midline
30. Name four modifications of the dura
31. Name two veins/sinuses that drain into the cavernous sinus
32. Name two signs associated with eccentric cerebellar lesion
33. State two ways you differentiate a cerebellar from a cerebral
cortical motor lesion
34. State the anatomical principles behind a safe spinal
anesthesia
35. Name four functional areas of the cerebral cortex that are
supplied by the middle cerebral artery
36. State what you understand by the Kellie-Monroe doctrine
37. Name four types of brain herniation syndromes. State the
anatomical basis of false lateralizing sign in one of the herniation syndrome
38. State the anatomical basis of the following in raised
intracranial pressure:
a. Early morning headaches
b. Blurred vision
39. Name two craniovertebral anomalies
40. An eight month old infant presents to the neurosurgery clinic
with an enlarged head. His eyes have a sun setting appearance and he is
in addition has one day history of vomiting and irritability.
a. Name two imaging modalities useful in diagnosis of his condition
b. State the reason behind:
i. Sun setting eye appearance
ii. Vomiting
c. Name two sites of safe placement in the lateral ventricle of the
ventricular catheter of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt and the anatomical
basis of the choice
d. If on one of the imaging types in (a) above, he was found to have lateral
and third ventriculomegaly,
i. Name two possible causes of this
ii. State the anatomical basis for third
ventriculostomy
41. State the anatomical basis for the difference in presentation
between a patient with a schwanomma of the 8​th​ cranial nerve and a
sphenoid ridge meningioma yet both have cerebellopontine angle tumor
42. Short notes on surgical relevance of spinal cord
43. Write briefly on:
a. Intervertebral disc
b. Lattisimus dorsi
c. Spinal nerves
d. Cauda equina
44. Describe surgical anatomy of spinal cord under:
a. Extent, protection and support (10)
b. Pattern of blood supply (10)
c. Internal structure (10)
d. Developmental disorders (10)
45. State the relations, communications, extracranial
communications and surgical relevance of cavernous sinus (10)
46. State the distribution and effect of occlusion of:
a. Middle cerebral artery
b. Anterior cerebral artery
c. Labyrinthine artery
47. Name the structures that traverse the various orbital foramina,
and indicate surgical relevance
48. Describe the general and surgical anatomy of the pituitary
gland under the following:
a. Position and relations (20)
b. Pattern of blood supply (10)
c. Microscopic organization (15)
d. Hypothalamic control (5)
e. Development and malformations (5)
49. Write brief general and surgical anatomy notes on:
a. Position, relations and connections of the cerebellum (25)
b. Boundaries, relations and communications of the 4​th​ ventricle (25)
50. Give an account of alternating hemiplegias (15)
51. Sources of blood supply to midbrain
52. State projections of optic tract (3)
53. State visual defects observed in lateral compression of optic
chiasm (3)
54. State 3 possible causes of communicating and
non-communicating hydrocephalus. State the anatomical basis of
sunsetting eyes in hydrocephalus
55. State anatomical basis of :
a. Neck stiffness in meningitis
b. Dissociative anesthesia in syringomyelia
56. Name and state the clinical relevance of the nerves that
innervate the dura in :
a. Anterior cranial fossa
b. Middle cranial fossa
c. Posterior cranial fossa
57. Name the structures guarded during decompression of
Arnold-chiari syndrome
58. State four differences between upper and lower motor facial
nerve lesions
59. Outline the variations and significance of the anterior cerebral
artery (5)
60. State two vascular factors that influence occurrence of
cerebral aneurysms (2)
61. Write short notes including clinical relevance of the internal
capsule (25)
62. Name the parts of the occipital bone
63. Outline the pattern of arterial blood supply to the scalp and
indicate their clinical relevance
64. Name the branches of the facial nerve before the stylomastoid
foramen
65. Name the parts of the midbrain
66. Name the main afferents of the neostratum afferents of the
neostratum
67. Briefly describe the mechanism of production, flow of pathway
of CSF, site of reabsorption and state its surgical relevance
68. State the extents of the adult spinal cord, and indicate their
surgical relevance
69. Name three main areas of origin of the corticospinal tract
70. Outline the parasympathetic pathway along the occulomotor
nerve
71. Name two sensory thalamic relay nuclei
72. Name the major connections of the cerebellum through the
inferior peduncle
73. Name the branches of the basilar artery
74. Name in order from exterior , the first 5 layers of the retina
75. State the anatomical basis of the term “danger area of the
scalp”
76. Name the tracts affected in tabes dorsalis
77. Name the nerves the traverse the middle cranial fossa
78. Lateral medullary syndrome results from occlusion of which
artery? State the symptoms
79. Cerebrospinal fluid reaches the superior sagittal sinus via?
80. Name two sites of a physiologically defective blood brain
barrier
81. State the mechanisms of disruption of the blood brain barrier in
head trauma
82. Name two nuclei present in lamina VII of the spinal grey
83. Name two spinal cord syndromes with combined sensory and
motor lesions (2)
84. State how proprioceptive impulses from the upper limb reach
the cerebellum (3)
85. State the difference between tremors of cerebellar origin and
those of basal ganglia origin (1)
86. State the anatomical basis of central cord syndrome (2)
87. State the blood supply to the spinal cord (4)
88. Name four features of eccentric cerebellar lesions indicating
the anatomical basis of each (4)
89. Outline the ‘papez’ circuit (4)
90. State the anatomical considerations in 3​rd​ ventriculostomy (4)
91. Write notes on:
a. Dural reflections and their surgical relevance (10)
b. The anatomy of the superior sagittal sinus and its neurosurgical
relevance (10)
c. State the anatomical considerations in
i. Third ventriculostomy (5)
ii. Trans-sphenoidal approach to the pituitary
gland (5)
92. 58 year old presents with unilateral nasal obstruction,
occasional epistaxis, pressure and pain sensation in the nose, rhinorrhea
and epiphora. This is a suspected inverted papilloma. On an endoscopic
exam, the polyp is found to originate from the medial maxillae, and the
patient is scheduled for a medical maxillectomy.
a. What is the anatomical basis for the epiphora noted? (2)
b. Outline extents of the preferred skin incision for excising the tumor (2)
c. Give the anatomical basis for the following possible surgical
complications :
i. Transient diplopia (1)
ii. CSF leakage (1)
93. Name two association cells of the retina (2)
94. State the anatomical basis of retinal detachment (2)
95. State the characteristics of the cerebral module (2)
96. Name the pathways of spread of infection to the cavernous
sinus (3)
97. State the indications and effect of division of the largest
commissural fiber (3)
98. State the anatomical basis of signs seen in temporal
extra-dural hematoma (5)
99. Name crucial nerve motor nuclei found in periaqueductal grey
(2)
a. State the anatomical basis of dysdiadochokinesia in cerebellar lesions
(2)
100. State the anatomical basis for presentation of cervical
syringomyelia.
101. State four differences between upper and lower motor neuron
lesions
102. Anatomical basis of performing a lumbar puncture around L4
103. Name two components of hippocampal formation
104. State the projections of the optic tract
105. Name four pathways that may spread infection to cavernous
sinus thrombosis
106. Define tentorial conning
107. State clinical relevance of the anterior perforated substance
108. State the embryological basis and surgical relevance of the
transverse sinus
109. Name the communications of the internal vertebral plexus and
state their clinical relevance
110. State two causes of nerve root compression
111. Name the communications of the superior sagittal sinus and
state the clinical relevance
112. State 5 key differences between midline and eccentric
cerebellar lesions
113. Name the intracranial structures associated with causation of
headaches
114. Other than ventriculoatrial shunt, name three other techniques
of cerebrospinal fluid shunting.
115. Name the group of muscle groups would test to determine a
lesion suspected at the following spinal cord levels:
a. T10
b. L5
c. S1
d. S3
116. State the anatomical basis of isthmic spondylolisthesis
117. State the pattern of blood supply to this area of the spinal cord
relevant to the excision of this tumor.
118. Surgery has been used to control the symptoms in Parkinson’s
disease
a. State the principal behind these surgical procedures
b. Name two materials used during transplantation surgery in treatment of
this disease.
c. State the anatomy that makes third ventriculostomy feasible
119. Account for the difference between sensory and cerebellar
ataxia
120. Name areas in the brain without the blood brain barrier and
state the basis for such privileged sites
121. State the main adaptive features of the receptive field of the
pyramidal neuron
122. Write shorts notes on general and surgical anatomy of
spinothalamic tract
123. State the attachments and functions of the denticulate ligament
124. State the sources of aminergic afferents to the cerebral cortex
125. Define thalamic syndrome
126. State the surgical significance of blood supply to the dorsal root
ganglion
127. Name the arteries that supply the corpus callosum
128. State the anatomical basis of
a. Pupillary dilatation in brainstem death
b. Consensual pupillary reflex
129. State the relations of the parahippocampal gyrus
130. Account for the difference in motor deficits seen in occlusion of
middle cerebral artery and in internal capsule lesions
131. Give the factors that contribute to stability of the spine (13)
132. Give the anatomical basis of clinical presentation in burst
fracture at T6 with anterior cord syndrome (10)
133. Describe the pattern of venous return from the spine(7)
134. Account for the size of the pupils as seen in:
a. Brainstem hemorrhage
b. Brainstem death
135. State the anatomical basis of :
a. Argyl-Robertson pupil
136. Describe the arteries that form the circle of Willis, giving
branches of the anterior, middle and posterior cerebral artery respectively.
137. Account for signs in transection of the corticospinal tract in the
cervical spinal cord
138. Describe Brown-Seqquard syndrome
139. Altanto-axial dislocations are associated with neurological
deficit in less than 30% of the cases. State why.
140. Name the main factors that influence the effect of occlusion of
a cortical artery
141. State the role of the thalamus in sensory pathways
142. State the anatomical basis and rationale of treatment of
Parkinson’s disease
143. State four features of a cerebellopontine lesion
144. State four features of the hypothalamic syndrome
145. State four possible consequences of an interpenduncular fossa
tumor
146. State two local effects of an enlarging pituitary tumor
147. State the anatomical basis of the following features seen in a
right-sided temporoparietal extradural hematoma:
a. A dilated pupil
b. Right sided hemiplegia
c. Loss of consciousness
148. Name three midline structures of the brain of neurosurgical
relevance
149. State the anatomical basis of the features seen in inferior
alternating hemiplegia
150. Outline the connections of the basal ganglia
151. Describe the surgical anatomy of the cervical spinal cord under:
a. Relations and internal microanatomy
b. Development and associated congenital anomalies
c. Blood supply
152. Describe the surgical anatomy of the cerebellopontine angle
under the following:
a. Boundaries, relations and contents
b. Anatomical basis gradenigo syndrome
c. Surgical approaches to CP angle tumors
153. Write short notes on:
a. Position, relations and neurovascular supply of the carotid body
b. External features and relations of the midbrain
c. Anatomical considerations in anterior approach to lumbar vertebrae
154. Name the layers of substansia nigra and state two anatomical
changes that occur in it, in Parkinson’s disease.
155. State three features of
a. Anterior spinal artery syndrome
b. Posterior spinal artery syndrome

UPPER LIMB QUESTIONS

1. Outline the surgical anatomy of the axillary lymph node dissection of
the breast (10 marks)
2. State the anatomical considerations in augmentation mammoplasty (10
marks)
3. Write short notes on the surgical anatomy of the breast (12 marks)
4. Outline the pattern of blood supply and lymphatic drainage of the
breast, and add notes on clinical relevance of these features (20 marks)
5. Sites and features of nerve entrapment (5 marks)
6. Stability and blood supply of the shoulder joint and its surgical
relevance (10 marks)
7. Describe the boundaries and contents of the carpal tunnel (5 marks)
8. State the anatomical basis for preference of an anterolateral approach
to the proximal humerus in a proximal humeral fracture and precautions
taken in this approach (4 marks)
9. State the landmarks for protection of the radial nerve in humeral
surgery (3marks)
10. State the causes of a winging scapula (3 marks)
11. State the anatomical basis of a winging scapula citing
examples in surgical practice (4marks)
12. Explain the biomechanics behind the commonest site of
fracture clavicle (4 marks)
13. Differentiate between the positions of rest and function of the
hand and state the basis of the ‘intrinsic plus’ position in immobilization of
the hand after surgical procedures (4 marks)
14. State the blood supply to the scaphoid and its relevance in the
management of wrist fracture (3 marks)
15. State the anatomical landmarks and precautions in open
carpal tunnel release (3 marks)
16. State the possible anatomical basis for delayed rapture of
extensor pollicis longus following a distal radial fracture (2 marks)
17. State the organization of the distal radio-ulnar joint and the
meaning of ulna pus deformity (6 marks)
18. Name three causes of a claw hand and state how they can be
anatomically differentiated (6 marks)
19. Outline the pattern of
a) Sensory innervation of the hand and indicate its clinical importance (5
marks)
b) Arterial supply of the hand and indicate its clinical importance (10
marks)
20. State the following about the breast
a) Extent
b) Blood supply
c) Oncologic classification of lymphatic drainage
21. Outline the formation, course and potential causes of injury to
the median nerve (8 marks)
22. Name four possible sites of entrapment of the median nerve
23. About the gleno-humeral joint, state
a) adaptation to function
b) anatomic basis of recurrent shoulder dislocation
c) structures encountered in deltopectoral approach
24. name the components of the rotator cuff and their surgical
significance (3 marks)
25. state the anatomic basis and features of erb’s palsy (6 marks)
26. state the anatomic basis for the site and displacement seen in
monteggia and galleazi fractures and colle’s fractures (10 marks)
27. briefly outline pattern of blood supply to the hand (6 marks)
28. indicate the potential routes of infection spread from
mid-palmar space (4 marks)
29. state the anatomical basis for avascular necrosis in the stated
pathologies involving
a) scaphoid in wrist fractures
b) distal phalanx of a finger in pulp space abscesses
30. state the pattern of blood supply to the distal phalanx of the
finger and its surgical relevance (4marks)
31. name four sites of possible entrapment of median nerve
32. state the boundaries, contents and surgical significance of the
anatomical snuffbox (5 marks)
33. branches and distribution of the first part of subclavian artery
34. name the branches of the supraclavicular part of the brachial
plexus
35. outline the pattern of venous drainage of the breast and state
the clinical significance
36. name the branches of the radial artery and outline their
distribution
37. state the probable complications, and their anatomical basis of
supracondylar fracture of the humerus (4 marks)
38. state the anatomical basis of displacement of fragments of the
humerus in a completely displaced supracondylar fracture in a child
(4marks)
39. name two muscles that form the “mobile wad of three”
40. name the potential sites of nerve entrapment around the
shoulder (2marks)
41. state anatomical factors that explain wide range of shoulder
movement (10 marks)
42. state the anatomical basis for the clinical features of klumpke’s
palsy (10 marks)
43. state the clinical significance of the knowledge of the timing of
the ossification of the distal humerus
44. define the “no man’s land” in the hand and state is importance
45. state the anatomical basis for the deformity of the hand in
Volkmann’s contracture
46. state the sources of blood supply to the acromioclavicular joint
47. state the boundaries of the mid-palmar space and indicate
surgical relevance
48. Give the attachments of the flexor retinaculum of the wrist. Add
a note on the clinical importance (5 marks)
49. state the anatomical basis for the sites of dye/colloid injection
during axillary sentinel node mapping
50. In distal fractures of the forearm, in what position is the
forearm splinted? Why?
51. State the boundaries and contents of the cervico-axillary canal
(6 marks)
52. Name the structures that must be guarded during axillary
dissection for breast cancer (4 marks)
53. State the neurological considerations in the anterolateral
approach to the humerus (4 marks)
54. State the clinical significance of the palmaris longus muscle
(4marks)
55. State the pathoanatomy of impingement at the shoulder joint
(4 marks)
56. State the differences in clinical presentations following ulnar
nerve injury at elbow and wrist (7 marks)
57. State the anatomical basis of a claw hand in ulnar nerve
injuries (4marks)
58. Trace the course of the ulnar nerve from the supracondylar
part of the elbow to its terminal branches (5 marks)
59. Describe the venous drainage of the upper limb and its
surgical relevance (7 marks)
60. State the anatomical basis for frequent occurrence of
clavicular fractures in the middle third area (4marks)
61. State two dynamic shoulder joint stabilizers (2marks)
62. State the role of static stabilizers in shoulder function (4 marks)
63. State the anatomical considerations in posterior approach to
the humerus (4 marks)
64. State the factors that affect the severity of brachial plexus
injuries (10 marks)
65. State the factors that are associated with bad prognosis
following brachial plexus injury (4 marks)
66. State the clinical significance of the erb’s point
67. State the surgical importance of close nerve relations to the
humerus (10 marks)
68. State the anatomical basis of
a) a pulled elbow (2 marks)
b) hand position in displaced distal radio-ulnar joint
69. state
a) How the variable innervation of the thenar muscles by the thenar motor
branch of the median nerve influences the surgical approach to the carpal
tunnel release (15 marks)
b) Four sites and mechanisms of possible median nerve entrapment other
than in the carpal tunnel (7 marks)
70. Write short notes on surgical relevance of the median nerve
71. Give four differential diagnosis of a swelling in the femoral
triangle
72. What is the anatomical basis of the greater incidence of
supracondylar humeral fractures in under sevens compared to adults
73. State the anatomical considerations in fashion in a
deltopectoral flap (4 marks)
74. Describe the organization of the ductal-lobular system of the
breast (2 marks)
75. State the anatomical basis of the signs and symptoms in
carpal tunnel syndrome (4 marks)
76. State the pattern of innervation of brachialis and indicate its
surgical relevance (2 marks)
77. State the pattern of innervation of the skin and nail of the ring
finger and indicate the surgical relevance of this (4 marks)
78. Outline the classification, articulating surfaces, stability factors
and relations of the elbow joint (25marks)
79. Give the structures that form the various boundaries and
contents of the cubital fossa (8marks)
80. Name the muscle that constitutes the transversospinalis
muscle groups
81. State the pattern of blood supply to latissimus dorsi muscle
indicating the surgical relevance of this pattern (5 marks)
82. State the anatomical considerations in the anterior approach to
the elbow joint (5marks)
83. In colle’s fracture, state the anatomical basis for
a) Carpal tunnel syndrome
b) Dinner fork deformity
84. State two features of a sprengel’s shoulder (4marks)

LOWER LIMB QUESTIONS

1. The anatomical considerations in the surgical posterior approach to
the knee (10 marks)
2. Describe the general and surgical anatomy of the great saphenous
vein (12 marks)
3. Describe the stability of the knee joint and indicate the surgical
relevance of this (10 marks)
4. State how the pattern of blood supply to the head of the femur of a
10-year-old male with a slipped upper femoral epiphysis will influence the
fixation of the slip (4 marks)
5. Give the pattern of blood supply to the head of the femur
6. After being involved in a motor traffic accident and sustaining a
comminuted fracture of the tibia, a patient was feared to be developing
compartment syndrome
a) Give the anatomical basis for compartment syndrome
b) State the role of the periosteum in bone fracture healing
7. Name the pillars and summit of the longitudinal arch of the foot (3
marks)
8. Name and give the functions of the three arches of the foot
9. State the pattern of blood supply to the talus and its surgical
relevance (4 marks)
10. Name the components of the extensor mechanism of the knee and
state the role of quadriceps femoris in the stability of the joint (10 marks)
11. State the precautions during anatomical dissections in posterior
approach to the knee (6 marks)
12. State the anatomical considerations in decompression of the leg in
compartment syndrome
(4marks)
13. Account for four of the symptoms and signs of the anterior
compartment syndrome of the leg (4 marks)
14. State the pattern of blood supply to the gluteus maximus and state its
surgical significance (3 marks)
15. State the anatomic basis for femoral displacement in fractures of
neck and midshaft of the femur (4 marks)
16. State the side of safety of the sciatic nerve and the surgical
significance (3 marks)
17. Name the ligaments of the medial foot involved in CTEV (5 marks)
18. State the boundaries of the femoral ring and indicate their surgical
significance (5 marks)
19. Describe the surgical anatomy of the knee under the following
subheadings
a) Articular facets and ligaments
b) Blood supply
c) Disorders
20. Outline the lymphatic drainage of the lower limb (10 marks)
21. Write short notes on osteofacial compartments of the leg and clinical
relevance
22. State the surgical significance of psoas muscle (3 marks)
23. state the anatomical basis for avascular necrosis in the stated
pathologies involving
a) femoral head in neck fractures
b) Talar trochlear surface in neck fractures
24. Outline the pattern of blood supply to the tibia, indicating the surgical
significance (6 marks)
25. State the intracapsular parts of the distal femur and indicate its
surgical significance (2 marks)
26. State the pattern of blood supply to the intracapsular structures of the
knee joint and indicate the clinical significance (5 marks)
27. Outline the organization of the knee joint and highlight the clinical
relevance of the intracapsular structures of the knee joint (25 marks)
28. Write notes on popliteal fossa (7 marks)
29. Name structures encountered in anterolateral approach to the hip
joint (3 marks)
30. Following mid-shaft fractures of the femur, state the anatomical
features of the thigh that predispose to compartment syndrome (4 marks)
31. In fractures of the neck of the femur, state the anatomical basis for
shortening and lateral rotation of the limb (2 marks)
32. State the anatomical considerations in fixing a fractured calcaneus
(2marks)
33. State the clinical significance of the of the radiological interphase
between the talus and the tibia plafond
34. Name the branches of posterior tibia artery distal to the flexor
retinaculum
35. State the superior and inferior relations of the hip joint
36. Indicate the use of Bryant’s triangle
37. State the anatomical reasons for the development of compartment
syndrome following tibia fractures
38. Define hammer toe and provide the anatomical basis
39. List the structures encountered during anterior approach to the to the
hip joint
40. State the components of the midtrial joint
41. State the range of normal knee extension. What is the effect of
patellectomy on this movement?
42. State the anatomical basis for the corrective surgery in talipes
equinovarus
43. Name the medial structures affected in congenital talipes equinovarus
(3 marks)
44. State the surgically relevant aspects of the anatomy of the fibula
45. What is the significance of kite’s angle?
46. State the anatomical basis for March’s fracture
47. state the mechanisms involved in venous return in the lower limb (6
marks)
48. state two reasons why a completely displaced intracapsular fracture
of the femoral neck delays or fails to unite (2 marks)
49. state the mechanisms of hip joint stability (4 marks)
50. state the functions of menisci in the knee joint (5 marks)
51. write notes on the following
a) anatomical considerations in posterior approach to the hip joint (10
marks)
b) anatomical basis of fasciotomy in the compartment syndrome of the
leg (7marks)
52. give an account of the anatomical organization of the ankle joint,
including clinical relevance of these features (50 marks)
53. Describe the formation, relations and distribution of the sciatic nerve
(9 marks)
54. Write short notes on the surgical anatomy of the sciatic nerve (12
marks)
55. Name two muscles that cause inversion at the subtalar joint complex
56. State the components of the subtalar joint complex (4 marks)
57. State the anatomical considerations in the placement of incisions for
fasciotomy in the foot compartment syndrome (4 marks)
58. State the anatomical basis for symptoms in piriformis syndrome (2
marks)
59. State the pattern of blood supply to gastrocnemius and indicate one
surgical relevance of this (2 marks)
60. State the pattern of blood supply to the diaphysis of the tibia and
indicate the surgical relevance of this (4 marks)
61. State the anatomical basis of the physiological mechanism of the
locking of the knee (4 marks)
62. Name three conditions around the hip that may give a positive
Trendelenburg’s sign
63. State the anatomical basis non-union in open distal tibial fracture (4
marks)
64. List four theories of lubrication possible at a synovial joint (4 marks)
65. Name the boundaries of the boundaries of the femoral ring and
indicate the surgical relevance (4marks)
66. Name the arteries and pattern of blood supply to tendo-achilles and
surgical relevance (4 marks)
67. State the role played by muscles and ligaments in the stability of the
medial longitudinal arch of the foot (4marks)
68. State the phases of the gait cycle and name one abnormal gait
associated with painful heel (4 marks)
69. Name the lateral and medial boundaries of the femoral canal and
state the surgical relevance (4 marks)
70. State the pattern of blood supply to the medial meniscus of the knee
and the surgical relevance of this (4marks)
71. Name four components of the distal lower extremity syndesmosis (4
marks)
72. State the anatomical considerations in repair of a strangulated
femoral hernia (4 marks)
73. State the surgical significance of the anatomy of the sub sartorial
canal (4marks)
74. Define antalgic and waddling gaits (2 marks)
75. Outline briefly the course of the common peroneal nerve (3 marks)
76. Name the intracapsular ligaments of the knee and state the role
played by each (5 marks)
77. Name the structures related to the knee capsule posteriorly (3 marks)
78. State the structures encountered in the lateral approach to the femur
(3 marks)
79. State the anatomical basis for recurrent patella dislocation
80. State the following about the great saphenous vein
a) Origin
b) Sites of communication with deep veins
c) Two common surgical/clinical uses
81. Outline the anatomical organization of the hip joint. Add notes on the
clinical significance of the capsule and the effect of ageing on the joint
(10marks)
82. State four possible causes of a failed extensor mechanism at the
knee
83. State the anatomical considerations in the ilioinguinal approach to the
acetabulum
84. State 4 structural differences between the pelvis of a male and
female (4marks)
85. State the role of dynamic knee stabilizers in rehabilitation of the knee
after ACL reconstruction (4 marks)

ABDOMEN
1. ​Name two muscles found in the rectus sheath.
2. ​State the anatomical basis for and against use of a midline longitudinal
abdominal incision.
3. ​State the following boundaries of the epiploic foramen;
(a) Anterior
(b) Superior
(c) Posterior
(d) Inferior
4. ​State the pattern of blood supply to the gall bladder and its surgical
significance.
5. ​Describe briefly the relations and microscopic anatomy of the liver.
6. ​Describe the anterolateral abdominal wall under the following;
(a) The general arrangement of fascia.
(b) The pattern of blood supply and its surgical relevance.
7. ​Describe the stomach under the following headings;
(a) Its visceral relations.
(b) The pattern of blood supply and its surgical relevance.
8. ​State the anatomic reasons for potential site of fluid drainage in a
perforated duodenal ulcer.
9. ​State 4 possible origin of the cystic artery.
10. ​Define a hepatic segment and state its surgical importance.
11. ​Name 4 parts/recesses of the lesser omental sac (Omental bursa)
12. ​State the surgical importance of the omental bursa.
13. ​Define the term “Criminal Nerve”.
14. ​State 2 posterior relations to the caecum.
15. ​State 3 sites of internal herniation around the terminal ileum and
caecum.
16. ​State the innervations of the ileocaecal valve.
17. ​Name 3 sites of anatomical constrictions of the ureter.
18. ​State the sources of arterial blood supply to the ureter as follows;
(a) Upper 1/3​rd
(b) Middle 1/3​rd
(c) Lower 1/3​rd
19. ​Name the structures that form the anterior wall of the superior
duodenal recess.
20. ​State 2 important surgical conditions that may be associated with
the paraduodenal recesses.
21. ​State 2 possible causes of pelvi-ureteric junction obstruction.
22. ​State 2 anatomical features that may assist in differentiation the
ileum from the jejunum.
23. ​Concerning Merkel’s diverticulum state;
(a) Its distance from the ileocaecal junction.
(b) Types of mucosa found within.
24. ​List the structures that form the stomach bed.
25. ​State the anatomical basis of referred pain to the left tip of the
shoulder in rapture of the spleen.
26. ​State the clinical significance of the free margin of the lesser
omentum.
27. ​State the surgical significance of the pars flaccid (Kuster’s ligament)
component of the gastrohepatic ligament.
28. ​State the boundaries of the myopectineal orifice.
29. ​State the common mode of formation and surgical significance of
the gastrocolic vein (of Henle)
30. ​State the anatomical differences between the rectum and colon.
31. ​State the boundaries and surgical significance of the “Quadrangular
of disaster” in endoscopic groin anatomy.
32. ​State the surgical significance of the intersigmoid peritoneal recess
of the sigmoid mesocolon.
33. ​Name the lymph node stations resected in R3 (D3) distal partial
gastrectomy.
34. ​State the anatomical antirefux mechanisms of the lower esophageal
sphincter.
35. ​Name the anatomical components of the anal canal continence
mechanism.
36. ​Name two peritoneal recesses around the termination of the
duodenum.
37. ​State the anatomical basis and surgical relevance of the avascular
line of Brodel.
38. ​Name the structures that form the posterior wall of the inguinal
canal.
39. ​State the pattern of blood supply to the rectus abdominis muscle
and indicate surgical relevance.
40. ​State the surgical landmarks for identification of the common bile
duct.
41. ​State the blood supply of the rectum.
42. ​State the peritoneal reflections of the spleen indicating the contents
of each.
43. ​Name the components of the gastro-esophageal reflux barrier.
44. ​Name the structures that are found at the root of the sigmoid
mesocolon.
45. ​State the avascular plane around the large intestine.
46. ​Outline the supracolic distribution of the vagus nerve in the
abdomen and its surgical relevance.
47. ​Name two vessels closely related to the lateral rectal ligaments.
48. ​Name the structures that form the following boundaries of the
inguinal triangle of Hesselbach.
(a) Medial
(b) Base
Indicate the clinical relevance of this triangle
49. ​State any two functions of the spleen and indicate the surgical
relevance of each.
50. ​With a clearly labeled diagram, illustrate the termination of the
common Bile duct and pancreatic ducts into the duodenum.
51. ​Name the structures that transverse the diaphragm at the following
levels;
(a) T12
(b) T10
(c) T8
52. ​Name the structures that form the boundaries of CALOT’S triangle.
(a) Superior
(b) Inferior
(c) Medial wall
53. ​Write short notes on the surgical anatomy of the right colon.
54. ​State the pattern of blood supply to the stomach as relevant to its
mobilization in esophagectomy.
55. ​State the anatomical features that dictate where the donor kidney is
placed in a recipient.
56. ​Name the posterior relations of the right kidney.
57. ​State the following boundaries of the epiploic foramen (of Winslow)
(a) Superior
(b) Posterior
58. ​State the surgical significance of the omental bursa.
59. ​Name two muscles found in the rectus sheath.
60. ​Name two sources of blood supply to the abdominal ureter.
61. ​Give the anatomical reason for the occurrence of volvulus in the
sigmoid colon.
62. ​Name the two anterior structures found in the free margin of the
lesser omentum.
63. ​State the boundaries and surgical significance of the retroinguinal
space (of Bogros).
64. ​State the pattern of blood supply to the spleen and its surgical
relevance.
65. ​State the boundaries and significance of Lumbar triangle.
66. ​State the surgical significance of vascular segments of the liver.
67. ​State the surgical significance of the peritoneal relations of the
duodenum.
68. ​Outline the blood supply of the abdominal esophagus and indicate
the clinical significance of the pattern.
69. ​Name the contents of the lesser omentum.
70. ​Name the layers traversed during retroperitoneal approach to the
kidney.
71. ​State the surgical significance of psoas major muscle.
72. ​State the boundaries of;
(a) Myopectineal orifice
(b) Triangle of doom at laparascopic repair of inguinal hernia.
73. ​Name the parts and the surgical significance of the greator
omentum.
74. ​Name the vessels related to the following hernia orifices.
(a) Paraduodenal fossa.
(b) Speghelian hernia.
75. ​State the anatomical basis for the presentation of right colonic
cancer.
76. ​State the anatomical basis of the ‘nutcracker syndrome’ syndrome.
77. ​State the anatomical basis of shunting procedures in portal
hypertension surgery.
78. ​Name one content of the following ligaments.
(a) Gastrosplenic
(b) Hepatoduodenal
79. ​State the surgical significance of the epiploic foramen of winslow.
80. ​State the guiding anatomical principles in surgery through the linea
alba.
81. ​Name the structures that form the following
(a) Inferior wall of the inguinal canal.
(b) Lateral wall of the femoral ring.
(c) Medial wall of the inguinal triangle.
82. ​Name the boundaries of the triangle of ‘doom’ and state its surgical
relevance.
83. ​Describe the anatomy of pancreatectomy for head of the pancrease
tumor under the following subheadings.
(a) Location and relations.
(b) Blood supply to the pancrease.
84. ​Describe the histology of the vermiform appendix and its clinical
significance.
85. ​State 4 sites of porto-systemic anastomosis.
86. ​Name 3 areas where normal air fluid levels occur in an erect plain
abdominal x-ray.
87. ​Concerning the diaphragm;
(a) State the sensory nerve supply to the diaphragm.
(b) State the surface landmark of the dome of the diaphragm.
(c) State the surgical significance of this knowledge.
88. ​With a clearly labeled diagram illustrate the arterial blood supply to
the stomach.
89. ​Define R​2​ gastrectomy.
90. ​State the components, and functions of the gastroenteropancreatic
endocrine system,
91. ​State three complications of heparocyte dysfunction.
92. ​State the anatomical basis for the efficacy of the construction of
distal splenorenal shunt.
93. ​State the attachments of Scarpa’s fascia and indicate its surgical
relevance.
94. ​State the modifications of the ventral mesogastrium occasioned by
the development of the liver.
95. ​Name the liver segments to the left of the falciform ligament.
96. ​Define the meandering artery of Gonzalez and state its clinical
relevance.
97. ​State the following about the superficial perineal pouch
(a) Boundaries
(b) Contents
(c) Surgical significance
98. ​ Name three organs that may contain pancreatic tissue and indicate
surgical importance.
99. ​Define pancreas divisum and suggest clinical significance of this
malformation.
100. ​With a diagram, illustrate the organization of the rectus sheath at the
level of the umbilicus.
101. ​Briefly outline the modifications of fascia transversalis and indicate
their surgical relevance.
102. ​State the attachments of the sigmoid colon and indicate clinical
significance.
103. ​State the adaptations of the kidney for electrolyte balance.
104. ​Relations and blood supply of duodenum.
105. ​After an abdominal procedure a man present with fever and is
diagnosed to have an abdominal abscesses.
(a) Name the potential spaces in the abdomen around the liver.
(b) Explain how drainage from the lesser sac may reach the pouch of
Douglas.
106. ​Illustrate the organization of the lumbar plexus of nerves.
107. ​State any two functions of the spleen and indicate the surgical
relevance of each.
108. ​Name the sources of blood supply to the liver.
109. ​Describe the position, relations, blood supply and lymphatic
drainage of the pancreas. Add briefly notes on the microscopic anatomy
and development including anomalies of this organ.
110. ​Write short notes of surgical relevance on;
(a) Neurovascular anatomy of anterior abdominal wall.
(b) Inguinal canal.
111. ​State the components and functions of the juxtaglomerular
apparatus.
112. ​State the clinical significance of the free margin of the lesser
omentum.
113. ​State the important collateral circulation borne in mind during ligation
of iliac vessels.
114. ​Name the layers of adrenal cortex and state the clinical relevance of
each.
115. ​In the pancreas, name the cells which produce;
(a) Digestive enzymes
(b) Insulin
116. ​Name the type of capillary predominant in the liver.
117. ​State the gross anatomical findings encountered in a laparotomy for
intestinal malrotation.
118. ​State the pattern of blood supply to the rectus abdominis muscle
and indicate surgical relevance.
119. ​State the surgical landmarks for the identification of the common bile
duct.
120. ​State the blood supply of the rectum.
121. ​State the peritoneal reflections of the spleen indicating the contents
of each.
122. ​Name the components of the gastro-esophageal reflux barrier.
123. ​Name the structures that are found at the root of the sigmoid
mesocolon.
124. ​State the avascular planes around the large intestines.
125. ​Name two vascular contents of hepatoduodenal ligament.
126. ​Describe the segmentation of the left liver.
127. ​State two common positions of the vermiform appendix.
128. ​State the relations of the right adrenal gland and indicate the
surgical significance.
129. ​State the relations of the paraduodinal fossae.
130. ​State the pattern of blood supply to spleen and indicate its surgical
relevance to splenectomy.
131. ​Name two posterior relations of the descending colon.
132. ​Outline the vessels that influence pancreaticoduodenectomy.
133. ​State the blood supply of the prostate gland and its surgical
relevance.
134. ​State the surface landmarks for the liver, spleen and abdominal
aorta and indicate relevance.
135. ​State the surgical importance of the fascia of Scarpa.
136. ​Define the mesorectum and indicate the surgical utility of this
knowledge.
137. ​State the anatomical details appreciable during the procedure of
proctoscopy.
138. ​State the anatomical considerations during surgical treatment of a
high anal fistula.
139. ​State the variations in the pattern of blood supply to the spleen
indicating the significance.
140. ​State the differences in the histological features of the body and
pylorus of the stomach.
141. ​State the basis for postsplenectomy venous thrombosis.
142. ​State the functional significance of the space of Disse.
143. ​State the imaging ‘anatomy’ of insulinoma.
144. ​State the blood supply and venous drainage of the caudate lobe of
the liver.
145. ​State the oncologic classification of the lymphatic drainage of the
stomach upon which gastroectomy.
146. ​State the structures encountered in the lumbar approach to the left
kidney.
147. ​Name the structures to be mobilized in approach to supracolic aorta.
148. Describe the surgical anatomy of the blood supply to the colon (6)
149. Describe the influence of boundaries of femoral ring in femoral hernia
disease (8)
150. Describe the surgical anatomy of the gastroduodenal hiatus (10)
151. Describe the general and surgical anatomy of lumbar spine

PELVIS AND PERINEUM

1. Other than neurovascular ones, name two structures that pierce the
perineal membrane in males.
2. State the organization and innervation of the distal sphincter
mechanism in males.
3. Name the lymph node groups that drain
(a) Labia majora
(b) Ovary
4. State the anatomical factors in mechanisms of stool continence.
5. State the anatomic basis of rectocele and urethrocele.
6. Apart from the testicular artery, name two sources of blood supply to
the testes.
7. Name two nerves that supply the perineum.
8. Name 4 muscles attached to the perineal body.
9. Give the fascia that forms the outer limit of the superficial perineal
pouch.
10. Names two veins in which blood may be shunted in the treatment of
priapism.
11. Give the structures that form the boundaries of the ischio-rectal
(Ischio-ano) fossa.
12. List the components that form the pelvic diaphragm.
13. Give the root value for the nerves that supply the pelvic diaphragm.
14. Name the primary lymph node groups the vagina drains into.
15. State the course of the left pelvic ureter in males.
16. Outline the peritoneal relations of the rectum and indicate the surgical
relevance.
17. State the innervations of the scrotum.
18. State the anatomical basis of differential clinical presentation of
perianal and ischioanal abcesses.
19. State the blood supply to the pelvic ureter.
20. Describe the organization of the recto-vaginal septum.
21. State the lateral and inferior boundaries of the ischioanal fossa.
(a) Lateral
(b) Inferior
22. Name the contents of the spermatic cord.
23. Write the anatomical basis of testicular torsion.
24. Outline the surgical anatomy of the pelvic diaphragm.
25. Write short notes on the surgical anatomy of the prostate gland.
26. State 4 structural differences between the pelvis of a male and
female.
27. State the arterial blood supply to the ovary.
28. State the innervations of the urinary bladder and indicate the
relevance of this in neurological diagnosis.
29. State the surgical significance of the fascia of Denonvilliers.
30. State 2 adaptations of the penile shaft to the function of tumescence.
31. State the pattern of blood supply of the rectum and indicate the
surgical significance.
32. State the pattern of lymphatic drainage of the vagina and its surgical
significance.
33. Name two arteries found in the spermatic cord.
34. Other than neurovascular structures, name two structures that pierce
the perineal membrane in males.
35. State the organization and innervation of the distal sphincter
mechanism in males.
36. State the boundaries and surgical significance of the retropubic space
(of Retzius)
37. Name two structures that open into the vestibule of the vulva.
38. Name two contents of the ischioanal fossa.
39. Outline the cellular basis of the presentation of tumours of the ovary.
40. Describe the zonal distribution of predilection to disease in the
prostate.
41. Name the nerves that supply the penis.
42. State the anatomical basis of fracture penis and its clinical relevance.
43. State the common side of location of a scrotal varicocele and indicate
the reason for this side.
44. Name the contents of the deep perineal pouch.
45. Write a brief account of the ischioanal fossa, including its clinical
relevance.
46. Name then vessels located on the posterior wall of the myopectineal
orifice.
47. Name two posterior relations of the head of the pancrease.
48. Regarding the anal canal
(a) Outline the arrangement of the sphincters.
(b) Outline the lymphatic drainage.
(c) State the arterial blood supply.
(d) Name the similarities of the anal epithelium and cervical epithelium.
(e) State the sensory innervations.
49. State the anatomical significance of Bucks fascia.
50. State the anatomical basis of the extent of the extravasated urine in
rupture of membranous urethra.
51. List the contents of deep perineal pouch in the male.
52. State the anatomical significance of the perineal (central tendon)
body.
53. Outline the lymphatic drainage of the vulva.
54. State the arterial supply of the urogenital triangle in the male.
55. State the following about the superficial perineal pouch
(a) Boundaries
(b) Contents
(c) Surgical significance
56. State the root values of the pudendal nerve and indicate its areas of
distribution.
57. State the anatomical basis of the ease of performing open internal
lateral sphincteroctomy.
58. State two factors that are responsible for obstruction in urinary flow in
benign prostatic enlargement.
59. Using a well labeled diagram, illustrate a cross-section of the penile
shaft.
60. Position, relation and surgical approaches to the prostate gland.
61. Name the anatomical difference between an indirect and a direct
inguinal hernia.
62. Name the structures traversed in a transverse subcostal incision
when performing a cholecystectomy.
63. Explain why incisional hernia are more common in subumbilical
position than in supraumbilical area.
64. Briefly describe the transabdominal access to the vertebrae at the
lumbosacral junction and describe how you would secure the structure at
risk.
65. A 3 year old with a ventriculo-peritoneal shunt protruding through the
vagina.
(a) Explain the possible pathways by which the shunt reached the
vagina.
66. Give a brief account of the support, relations and peritoneal coverings
of the uterus. Name the anomalies due to defective fusion of the
paramesonephric ducts.
67. Name two parts of the pelvic fascia.
68. State in order from the outside, the structures traversed during a
suprapubic cystostomy for acute urinary retention.
69. Name two anterior relations of the rectum palpable on digital rectal
exam.
70. State the surgically relevant relations of the pelvic ureter.
71. State two clinical conditions that may be associated with weakening
of the pelvic floor.
72. Name two endocrine components of the ovary.
73. Outline the likely systemic effects of an ovarian tumor, indicating the
respective basis.
74. State the innervations of the urinary bladder and its surgical
significance.
75. Name two vessels closely related to the lateral rectal ligaments.
76. Name the nerves that supply the penis.
77. State the anatomical principles that guide the decision on whether a
pelvic fracture is considered stable or unstable.
78. Name the pelvic peritoneal recesses and state their clinical
relevances.
79. State the lymphatic drainage of the vaginal wall.
80. Outline the structures that form the pelvic floor.
81. Outline the relations of the female pelvic ureter.
82. Name the lymph nodes that drain the caecum.
83. Name the nerves at risk in prostectomy and state their complications.
84. State the termination of the following vessels;
(a) Left gonadal vein
(b) Inferior mesenteric vein.
85. State the anatomical basis of the blood-testis barrier.
86. State two adaptations of the epididymis to its function.
87. State the fasciae associated with the rectum and indicate their
surgical significance.
88. State the mechanism preventing vesico-ureteric reflux.
89. State stability factors of the uterus.
90. Indicate the lymphatic drainage of labia majora and minora and
indicate their significance.
91. Illustrate with a diagram the cross-sectional anatomy of the penis.
HEAD AND NECK
1. State the embryological basis of unilateral cleft lip
2. Define the fascial layers of the neck
3. Describe the anatomical zones of the neck relevant to neck dissection
4. Describe landmarks for identification of facial nerve in superficial
parotidectomy
5. Describe the structures on the lateral wall of the nasal cavity
6. Describe the blood supply to the pinna
7. Outline the internal anatomy of the larynx as visualized at direct
laryngoscopy
8. Outline the surgical anatomy relevant to tonsillectomy
9. Describe the general and surgical anatomy of the thyroid cartilage
10. Describe the surgical anatomy of the nasopharynx
11. Describe the surgical anatomy of the lymph nodes of the neck
12. Write brief notes on:
a. Congenital neck masses
b. Microscopic organization of palatine tonsils
13. Describe the development of the trachea and associated
malformations
14. Describe the organization and neurovascular supply of the soft
palate
15. Describe the organization of the nerves in the posterior triangle
of the neck
16. Describe the general and surgical anatomy of the epiglottis
under:
a. Position and relations (20)
b. Blood supply, lymphatic drainage and innervation (10)
c. Microscopic organization (10)
d. Development and defects (10)
17. Write short notes on general and surgical anatomy of hyoid
bone (13)
18. Write short notes on general and surgical anatomy of
formation of cleft palate, indicating structures involved (15)
19. State four anatomical reasons that may explain an abnormal
tympanometric test (2)
20. Illustrate the components of Waldeyer’s ring of lymphoid tissue
21. State the blood supply to the palatine tonsil
22. Outline the spread of infection in the nasal cavity
23. List the associated clinical findings when tumors of the maxilla
involve the terminal branch of maxillary nerve (3)
24. Laryngomalacia is a congenital condition involving the larynx.
State its anatomical basis and clinical significance (4)
25. State the anatomical basis of auto phony (2)
26. State the pathway of parasympathetic innervation of the
sublingual gland (3)
27. State four precautions one should take when performing a
tracheostomy (4)
28. Halima presented to the surgical clinic with a two-hour history
of a painless midline neck swelling. During examination, the swelling could
move with the protrusion of the tongue. Ultrasound evaluation of the
swelling showed a cystic mass arising from a gland:
a. Name the anomaly presented and give an account of the normal
development of the gland in question (10 marks)
b. State the anatomical principles required in safe surgical excision of this
swelling (10 marks)
c. Briefly describe the organization of the muscles of the tongue and their
actions. State the nerve supply of this organ. (10 marks)
29. Write short notes on relations and embryological origins of the
pituitary gland (4 marks)
30. Discuss the topographic anatomy, histological organization
and development of the thyroid gland. Add short notes on the surgical
importance of this gland. (10 marks)
31. Describe the extent and anatomical organization of the
pharynx. Add notes on the clinical relevance of the anatomy of the
nasopharynx (50 marks)
32. Describe the topographic organization, microscopic and
developmental anatomy of the submandibular gland, indicating the clinical
relevance of these features. Add notes ont eh course and relations of the
submandibular duct (50 marks)
33. Give an account of the relational and neurovascular anatomy
of the maxillary sinus ( 30 marks)
34. Give an account of the relational anatomy of the contents of
the superior thoracic inlet. Add notes on the thoracic inlet syndrome (20
marks)
35. Give an account t of the facial vein, including its clinical
anatomy (15 marks)
36. Describe the gross anatomy of the maxilla. Include an account
of the muscles attached to it and the related nerves and blood vessels. (5
marks)
37. Outline the structure and development of the maxillary air
sinus. Discuss the applied anatomy of the maxillary air sinus. (5 marks)
38. Give an account of the structures in the midline of the neck:
anteroposterior and superoinferior plane. Add a note in the applied
anatomy of this region (10 marks)
39. Describe the course, distribution and applied anatomy of the
laryngeal nerve. (10 marks)
40. Describe the attachments, relations and functions of the
scalene anterior muscle. (4 marks)
41. Give an account of the anatomical position of the thyroid gland
under the following: (10 marks)
a. Position
b. Blood supply
c. Developmental (embryological) and histological organization
42. Write short notes on the relations of the esophagus (10 marks)
43. Name two sites of communication between the external and
internal carotid arteries (2 marks)
44. State the anatomical basis of the so called ‘danger area of the
face’ (5 marks)
45. Describe the surgical anatomy of the facial region under the
facial region under the subheadings: skeleton, blood supply, lymphatic
drainage and innervation. (10 marks)
46. State the anatomical basis of a plunging ranula (2 marks)
47. State the mechanisms that prevent against choking (5 marks)
48. State 4 clinical disorders of the thyroid gland indicating their
cellular basis (4 marks)
49. State signs of injury to the zygomaticofacial component of the
facial nerve (6 marks)
50. Describe the general and surgical anatomy of thyroid cartilage
(12 marks)
51. State the surgically relevant anatomical features of the face (6
marks)
52. State the cause and features of the scalenus anterior
syndrome (5 marks)
53. State the relations and significance of the sphenoidal air sinus
(4 marks)
54. State 3 differences between a baby’s and adult auditory tube,
and indicate the surgical significance (4marks)
55. State the areas drained by the retropharyngeal lymph nodes (3
marks)
56. State the probable anatomical basis of death in hanging (4
marks)
57. State 3 causes of conduction deafness (3 marks)
58. Outline the variable anatomical location of the carotid body (3
marks)
59. Name the arteries that anastomose at Little’s area in the nose
and indicate its surgical significance (4 marks)
60. Name 2 nerves related to various parts of the mandible (4
marks)
61. State the anatomical basis of the presentation of dislocation of
the temporomandibular joint (3 marks)
62. Outline the course and variation of facial artery (6 marks)
63. State the relational anatomy and its surgical relevance of the
parotid gland (6 marks)
64. State the formation, tributaries and surgical significance of the
external jugular vein (6 marks)
65. State the defects observed in the lateral compression of the
optic chiasma (3 marks)
66. Name the structures that pass through the optic foramen (2
marks)
67. State the action and nerve supply of the superior oblique
muscle of the eyeball (2 marks)
68. State possible causes and complications of retrobulbar
hemorrhage (4 marks)
69. State the location and clinical significance of the hyoid bursa (2
marks)
70. State the boundaries and clinical significance of vallecular (4
marks)
71. State the probable consequences of a fall on the chin (4
marks)
72. Name the areas drained by the submental lymph nodes and
state their surgical significance (2 marks)
73. State the relations of the walls of the tympanic cavity and for
each, state their importance (8 marks)
74. State the basis of diabetes mellitus secondary to
hyperparathyroidism (2 marks)
75. Name two local effect of an enlarging pituitary tumor (2 marks)
76. State the clinical relevance of the pterion (2 marks)
77. 25-year-old Janet came to the clinic complaining of inability to
see objects in the lateral eye fields. She said that the problem started 6
months ago and was slowly progressive. She reported that her menstrual
cycle in the past months was not as regular as they used to be. MRI of the
skull revealed ballooning of the hypophyseal fossa. Outline the anatomical
relations of the gland affected and explanation for the presenting symptoms
(6 marks). In the case of a tumor of the above gland, what would be the
surgical approaches to the gland? (5 marks)
78. Describe the anatomy of the maxillary sinus under the
following headings: post-natal development (5marks) and topographic
anatomy of the medial wall and floor, and surgical relevance (10 marks).
79. A 50-year-old woman presents with a history of dizziness,
tinnitus and inability to close her left eye. Answer the following: the most
probable location of the lesion causing these problems (1 mark), the side
you expect the angle of the mouth to deviate and why (2 marks), the
anatomical basis for the loss of corneal reflex found in this patient (1mark)
80. State the anatomical basis of the clinical presentation of the
antrochoanal polp (4 marks)
81. About uruloplatopharyngoplatsty (UPPP), state 4 anatomical
complications associated with it (4 marks)
82. Account for the symptoms of unilateral vocal cord paresis (4
marks)
83. Name the muscles that maintain the patency of the Eustachian
tube (2 marks)
84. State the sensory innervation of the larynx (2 marks)
85. Give the embryological basis for high arched palate (4 marks)
86. Name two muscles that adduct the larynx (2 marks)
87. State the anatomical basis of the following after radical neck
dissection: chylous cheek and frozen shoulder (4 marks)
88. State the vertebral levels corresponding to the extents of the
larynx (2 marks)
89. State the innervations of the larynx (4 marks)
90. What is the boundary of faucial isthmus (2 marks)
91. What is the anatomical basis for pharyngeal diverticulum
(2marks)
92. Name 4 muscles associated with the pharyngotympanic tube
(2 marks)
93. Name the boundaries of the laparoscopic triangle of Down and
its significance (4 marks)
94. State the surgical landmarks for the identification of the
recurrent laryngeal nerve (2 marks)
95. The relations of the parotid gland and indicate significance of
this during parotidectomy (10 marks)
96. Relations of the middle ear and the surgical relevance of this
(10 marks)
97. Describe the surgical anatomy of the zygomatic bone under
the following subheadings: parts and articulations (10 marks), relations (10
marks), fractures (10 marks)
98. Describe the surgical anatomy of the iliac crest under the
headings: parts and structures attached (10 marks), structure and relations
(10 marks)
99. State the relations and microscopic organization of the trachea
(12 marks)
100. Anatomical considerations in surgical airway creation (5 marks)
101. Name two paranasal sinuses that drain into the middle meatus
(2 marks)
102. State the surgical significance of the pterion and the anterior
fontanelle (6 marks)
103. Name 2 contents of the optic canal (2 marks)
104. State the innervation of pharyngeal muscles (2 marks)
105. State the mechanisms behind the formation of a traumatic
pneumothorax (4 marks)
106. State the reasons why blood leaving the left ventricle is not
100% oxygenated (2 marks)
107. Name the 3-extra cardiac-coronary anastomoses and indicate
the surgical significance of these (4 marks)
108. 10 anatomical entities are found at the level of the 6​th​ cervical
vertebra, name at least 5 ( 5 marks)
109. State the carefree and the careful areas of the neck (5 marks)
110. State the attachments of the prevertebral fascia and the clinical
relevance (4 marks)
111. State the branches of the superior thyroid artery (2 marks)
112. Briefly describe the skeletal framework of the larynx (3 marks)
113. State the anatomical factors involved in hoarseness (2 marks)
114. State the position and communication of the ciliary ganglion (5
marks)
115. Outline the course of the chorda tympani nerve (5 marks)
116. State the anatomical reasons why it is easier to surgically
remove the inferior turbinate (4 marks)
117. State the anatomical basis of approaches in typanoplasty (4
marks)
118. State the motor innervation of the soft palate (2 marks)
119. State the innervation of the sublingual gland (4 marks)
120. State the areas of drainage of the ethmoidal and frontal
paranasal air sinuses (4 marks)
121. State the landmarks for the opening of the parotid duct (2
marks)
122. Name the branches of the facial artery (4 marks)
123. State the pattern of blood supply of the parathyroid glands and
indicate the surgical relevance of this
124. Use a diagram to illustrate the contents of the internal auditory
meatus (4 marks)
125. State the anatomical basis of facial appearance in the upper
and lower facial nerve palsy (4 marks)
126. State the anatomical basis of profuse bleeding following scalp
laceration (4 marks)
 THORAX
1. Describe the anatomical considerations in the surgical anterior
approach to the body of C5 vertebrae
2. Explain the embryological basis of the lesion seen in classical
advanced tuberculosis of thoracic spine
3. Describe the general and surgical anatomy of the first rib
4. Describe how the thoracic spine is stabilized statically
5. Describe the lymphatic drainage of the lung
6. Describe the pleural recesses and indicate their clinical relevance
7. Describe the parts and modifications of the pericardium
8. Describe the general and surgical anatomy of the cervical spine under
these subheadings:
a. Vertebrae and ligaments (15)
b. Joints and movements (15)
c. Relations (10)
d. Development and disorders (10)
9. Write notes on general and surgical anatomy of bicuspid valve (10)
10. State the anatomical basis of isthmic spondylolisthesis (2)
11. Outline the late events in development of the lung key to their
function of gaseous exchange(6)
12. During a tension pneumothorax, state the anatomical basis on
inserting a needle on the 2​nd​ intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line to
evacuate air (2)
13. State the precautions related to relational anatomy taken when
performing a median sternotomy (3)
14. State the surgical significance of the innervation of the pleura
(3)
15. Indicate anatomical basis of the following lesions seen in
coarctation of the aorta (4)
a. Rib notching
b. Pulsatile scapula
16. Describe the general and surgical anatomy of thoracic
diaphragm under: (35)
a. Attachments and relations
b. Development and malformations
c. Neurovascular supply
17. Write short notes on surgical anatomy of aortic arch (12)
18. Write short notes on:
a. Endoscopic anatomy and significance (5)
b. Significance of laryngeal compartments (4)
c. Cervical part of trachea – relations, microscopic organization (12)
d. Anatomical considerations in surgical airway creation (5)
19. Omondi presented to the thoracic and cardiovascular clinic
with a 3 week history of facial puffiness. He had distended neck, chest and
upper limb veins. He also exhibited difficulty in breathing. CT scan of the
chest showed a mass in the superior mediastinum.
a. Briefly describe the anatomy of the thoracic outlet under boundaries
and contents (10)
b. Name two possible causes of the mass, indicating the surgical
approach and precautions in excision of this mass. (10)
c. Outline the pattern of venous drainahe of the chest wall (10)
20. State:
a. The histological changes that occur in the wall of the trachea following
chronic irritation for instance cigarette smoking (4)
b. The pathoanatomy behind respiratory distress syndrome in a premature
baby and indicate the new trends behind this treatment. How does it
compare with the adult respiratory distress syndrome (6)
21. State what you understand by spinal unit (2)
22. Using the three column model of spinal stability (Denis 1983),
name three fractures of the vertebral column that make the spine unstable
23. Outline the distribution of left and third coronary artery,
indicating surgical relevance
24. Write briefly on triangle of safety in thorax
25. State landmarks, parts , innervation and their surgical
relevance of parietal pleura
26. Give an account of the relational anatomy of the contents of
the superior thoracic inlet. Add notes on thoracic inlet syndrome (20)
27. Name the sites of anatomical considerations of the esophagus
and state their surgical significance
28. State the surgical significance of apical pleura
29. State anatomical basis of presentation of angina pectoris
30. State tributaries and regions of drainage of azygous vein
31. Name sites of anatomical constrictions of esophagus and
indicate clinical significance
32. List the structures that may be injured in a penetrating injury
through the left 9​th​ intercostal space mid axillary line
33. State the structures that form the boundaries of the
intervertebral foramen
34. State the anatomical defects in prolapsed intervertebral disc
35. Other than axillary lymph nodes, name two lymph node groups
that drain the breast (2 marks)
36. State the organization of the lymph nodes of the breast using
oncologic principles (2 marks)
37. State the vertebral level of bifurcation of the common carotid
artery and state its significance (1 mark)
38. State the surgical relevance of the sites of anatomical
constrictions of the esophagus (4 marks)
39. State the vertebral extents from superior to inferior of the
trachea (2 marks)
40. State four surgically relevant features of the parietal pleura (4
marks)
41. Outline the blood supply to the interventricular septum and
state its clinical relevance (4 marks)
42. State two methods used in pathological diagnosis of breast
diseases (2 marks)
43. Name the sites where different parts of the aorta communicate
and indicate the arteries involved (3 marks)
44. What are the components of the superior mediastinal
syndrome (6 marks)
45. Write briefly on Pukynje system of the heart (3 marks), cardiac
valves (3 marks), innervation of the heart ( 4 marks)
46. Define the 3​rd​ coronary artery and its clinical significance (4
marks)
47. Name two sites of constriction of the thoracic part of the
esophagus (2 marks)
48. State the anatomical basis of the signs and symptoms in the
subclavian steal syndrome (4 marks)
49. State the basis of the omega shaped epiglottis and indicate its
treatment options (4 marks)
50. State the structures that penetrate the thoracic diaphragm at
T8 vertebral level (2 marks)
51. State the inferior relations of the aortic arch and state their
clinical significance (4 marks)
52. Name the parts of the conducting system, past the A-V node
(2 marks)
53. Outline the surgical anatomy of the thoracic aorta (20 marks)
54. State the surgical histology of the esophageal cancer (10
marks)
55. State the immediate posterior relations of the angle of louis (2
marks)
56. State the nerve supply to various parts of the esophagus (5
marks)
57. State the landmarks of the valves of the heart (5 marks)
58. Define the spinal unit and state the gross changes in the
structure of its components with age (4 marks)
59. Describe the general and surgical anatomy of each of the
following: lumbar spine (12 marks), first rib (14 marks), thyroid cartilage (12
marks).
60. Define a bronchopulmonary segment (2 marks)
61. State the anatomical basis for a trachea-esophageal fistula (4
marks)
62. State the lymphatic drainage of the thoracic esophagus (4
marks)
63. Indicate the anatomical basis for the occurrence of various
congenital diaphragmatic hernia (4 marks)
64. Name two structures that constitute the tension apparatus of
the atrio-ventricular valve (2 marks)
65. Write short notes on the following:
the course and distribution of the 3​rd​ part of the maxillary artery
thoracic inlet
66. Give an account of the anatomical organization of the thyroid
gland. Add short notes on
development of the same gland
surgical relevance of the important relations and the malformations
67. Give a short account of the gross anatomy, microscopic
organization and development of the tympanic membrane
68. Discuss briefly the anatomical organization of laryngopharynx
and laryngeal inlet including clinical relevance of this region
 EMBRYOLOGY
1. Describe the embryological origins, development and congenital
anomalies of the thoracic diaphragm (8 marks)
2. Briefly describe the development of the spinal cord (8 marks)
3. Write short notes on the development of the kidney (6 marks)
4. Name two bones that ossify both intramembranously and
endochondrally (2 marks)
5. State the embryological basis for polydactyl and syndactyl (2 marks)
6. Name two derivatives of the sclerotome other than the vertebrae and
their ligaments (2 marks)
7. Name two derivatives of the metencephalon (2 marks)
8. State the fate and associated defects of the hyaloid artery (2 marks)
9. State the origin of the utricle and Eustachian tube (2 marks)
10. State the origin of tongue muscles and primary palate (2
marks)
11. State the embryological basis of brachial sinus and
hypoglossal duct cyst (2 marks)
12. State the embryological origin and probable congenital defect
of the adenohypophysis (2 marks)
13. Name the derivatives of the mesonephric in the male (2 marks)
14. Name two variants of hypospadias (2 marks)
15. State the embryological basis of polar renal arteries and the
horseshoes kidneys (2 marks)
16. Outline the development and congenital defects of thoracic
diaphragm indicating the surgical relevance (10 marks)
17. Describe the development, malformations and their surgical
relevance of the breast (10 marks)
18. Outline the embryological basis and surgical significance of
various defects of small intestine (10 marks)
19. Outline the embryological basis and surgical relevance of brain
birth defects (10 marks)
20. Name two craniovertebral anomalies (2 marks)
21. State 4 differences between an adult and pediatric spine and
the significance of these (8 marks)
22. Outline the migratory pathway of the thyroid gland (3 marks)
23. Name two congenital anomalies of the thyroid gland and their
basis (3 marks)
24. State the fate of the notochord (2 marks)
25. List the embryological origins of the components of the kidney
(4 marks)
26. State the anatomical basis and components of Katargener’s
syndrome (2 marks)
27. Outline the development of the upper limb (5 marks)
28. State the components of Poland syndrome (5 marks)
29. State the role of the notochord in the formation of the nervous
system (3 marks)
30. Briefly outline the embryologic basis for causation and location
of a sacrococcygeal teratoma (3 marks)
31. Name malformations of skin related to cell migration (4 marks)
32. Name two malformations that cause hydrocephaly (2 marks)
33. State the structural changes that cause increase in brain
weight and those that positively influence post-natal brain development (10
marks)
34. State 4 causes of neonatal cyanosis (4marks)
35. State the likely complications of congenitally short esophagus
(2 marks)
36. State the development of the lateral third of the clavicle (4
marks)
37. Outline the steps in development of the lumbar vertebra (5
marks)
38. State the principles of surgical treatment of Hirshprung’s
disease (2 marks)
39. With a clearly labelled diagram illustrate the various types of
congenital trachea-esophageal fistula (10 marks)
40. State the embryological basis of retinal attachment (3 marks)
41. State two possible causes of tubal obstruction that are of
surgical interest (2 marks)
42. Define a lithopedion and state its surgical relevance (2 marks)
43. Name 3 varieties of Siamese twins and state the embryological
basis for this twinning (3 marks)
44. Write short notes on the derivatives and anomalies of the
pharyngeal arches and clefts
45. Give an account of the development, growth and factors
influencing; frontal bone
46. Describe briefly, the development, anomalies and blood supply
of the palate.
47. State the embryological basis of torticollis, trachea-esophageal
fistula, merkel’s diverticulum, ectopia vesicae (4 marks)
48. State the fate of the notochord and indicate the surgical
relevance (4 marks)
49. State the embryological basis of: a) club foot b) hirschsprung’s
disease (4 marks)
50. State the embryological basis of any two anterior abdominal
wall congenital anomalies (8 marks)
51. Describe the anatomical considerations in the repair of
syndactyly anomaly (6 marks)
52. Describe the embryological basis of any two congenital
anomalies of the stomach (8 marks)
53. State the main events in the development of the thalamus
54. Write notes on anatomical and biochemical aspects of
testicular feminization syndrome (4 marks)
55. Name four congenital malformations of the central nervous
system that may cause hydrocephaly
56. State two characteristics of decidua (2 marks)
57. State the features (Studdiform’s criteria) used to distinguish
primary from secondary abdominal pregnancy (4 marks)
58. Name two structures in the neck that derive from embryonic
endoderm (2 marks)
59. State the clinical features and embryologic mechanism of
Potter syndrome (4 marks)
60. State the embryological basis of: a) fraternal twins b)
congenital amputation of digits (2 marks)
61. State the following regarding chordomas: a) evidence of origin
from notochord b) genetic aberrations (4 marks)
62. State two clinical features of osteogenesis imperfecta (2
marks)
63. State four common congenital skull defects involving its
midline (4 marks)
64. State the embryonic origins of the components of the
hypophysis cerebri a) neurohypophysis b) adenohypophyis (2 marks)
65. Name the varieties of cleft lip deformity and indicate respective
mechanisms (4 marks)
66. Name the last two stages of lung development (2 marks)
67. State the embryonic basis of the following: a) azygos lobe b)
tracheoesophageal fistula (2 marks)
68. State the major anatomical anomalies associated with
Bochdalek hernia (4 marks)
69. Name two congenital defects associated with formation of the
interartrial septum (2 marks)
70. Name two congenital malformations associated with the
division of the truncus (2 marks)
71. State the mechanism that causes persistence of ductus
arteriosus (2 marks)
72. Name two derivatives of mesonephric duct in males (2 marks)
73. Outline 4 mechanisms for paedriatric vesticoureteric reflux (4
marks)
74. Name 4 tongue congenital malformations and indicate the
basis of each (4 marks)
75. State how the lateral mass of a cervical vertebra is formed and
indicate the surgical significance of its abnormal development (4 marks)
76. State the surgical significance of yolk sac (4 marks)
77. State two functions of sertoli cells (2 marks)
78. State the fate of the allantois and indicate surgical significance
of these (4 marks)
79. State two functions of the notochord (2 marks)
80. State the anatomical considerations in separation of Siamese
twins (4 marks)
81. Name two derivatives of the basal plate of the spinal cord (2
marks)
82. State the embryological basis of a cervical rib and torticollis (2
marks)
83. Name 4 congenital causes of neck swellings and state the
embryological basis (4 marks)
84. Name two cutaneous stigmata they may indicate presence of
lumbar spina bifica occulta (2 marks)
85. Outline four congenital disorders associated with defective
differentiation of the neural crest and the mechanism of each (4 marks)
86. Name two umbilcal cord anomalies
87. State the surgical significance of gastrulation (4 marks)
88. Name two congenital malformations of the trachea and
indicate the basis of each (2 marks)
89. Name two congenital causes of acute neonatal urinary
retention and indicate the basis of each (4 marks)
90. State the karyotype of the following syndromes a) Klinefelter’s
b) Turner’s
91. State the embryological basis of the following: a) Turricephaly
b) Horse shoe kidney c) Syndactyly d) Ankyloglosia (4 marks)
92. Name two congenital anomalies of the thyroid gland and the
embryological basis (3 marks)
93. State the fate of the notochord (2 marks)
94. Outline the late events in the development of the lungs key to
their function of gaseous exchange (6 marks)
95. List the embryologic origins of the components of the kidney (4
marks)
96. State the gross anatomical findings encountered in laparotomy
for intestinal malrotation (4 marks)
97. Name four congenital causes of non-communicating
hydrocephalus (4 marks)
98. Name three congenital defects that cause constipation in a
newborn
99. State embryonic sources of intervertebral disc
100. State the abnormal fate of the primitive streak and indicate the
embryologic basis for its location
101. Name one muscle derived from the epimere and one muscle
derivd from mesoderm
102. State the indications for amniocentesis
103. State two embryonic anomalies associated with abnormal
melanocyte migration
104. State the properties of a mesenchymal cell
105. State two causes of polyhydramnios
106. Classify syndactyly and indicate its embryologic basis
107. Name two derivatives of basal plate of the midbrain
108. Name the anomalies that constitute Poland’s syndrome. State
the anomalies seen in congenital hip dislocation
109. State the embryologic basis of hemivertebrae and its result
110. State the embrylogic basis and basis for location for
craniopharyngioma
111. State the embryolgic basis of anomalies seen in Arnold Chiari
malformation.
112. Name the ovarian follicles found at these stages of female
reproductive development a) pre-natal b) at ovulation
113. Name two causes of anovulatory cycles in a fertile female (1
mark)
114. State the surgical relevance of ectopic pregnancy (3 marks)
115. State the embryological basis of aganglionic megacolon (4
marks)
116. State two postnatal changes in fetal circulation (1 mark)
117. State two contributing factors to testis descent
118. State three consequences of amniotic band syndrome (3
marks)
119. Name two anomalies resulting from failure of degeneration of
the thyroglossal duct (2 marks)
120. State two congenital anomalies of the parathyroid glands (2
marks)
121. Name the respective malformations that are associated with
respective stages of midgut development (6 marks)
122. State the likely complications of congenitally short esophagus
(2 marks)
123. Name three embryonic shunts in the cardiovascular system
that close after birth
124. Name four factors that influence brain growth
125. Name three intraembryonic structures involved in fetal
haemopoiesis
126. State the molecular basis of the two methods of ossification
127. State the surgical aspects of ectopic pregnancy
128. State an example of a) chemical teratogen b) physical
teratogen
129. State the method of transport across the placenta of the
following a) immunoglobulins b) amino acids
130. Name the anomalies resulting from: a) defective alveolar type 2
cell b) trisomy 21
131. Name two 1​st​ arch syndromes stating a characteristic feature of
each (4 marks)
132. Outline the varieties of spinal dysraphism (4 marks)
133. State the embryological basis of: a) microtia b) anorectal
malformations
134. State the role of secondary neurulation in the development of
the nervous system (4 marks)
135. State the embryological basis of gastric volvulus
136. State the embryological basis of: a) preaxial and postaxial
polydactyly b) club foot c) radial club hand
137. State the developmental basis of oxycephaly (turricephaly)
138. List 2 vascular congenital defects of the CNS
139. What is the embryological basis of a polycystic kidney
140. Name surgically important malformations associated with faulty
partiotioning of the cloaca
141. State the embryological basis of Chiari I vs Chiari II
malformations 93 marks0
142. Outline the partitioning of the right atrium (3 marks)
143. What malformations constitute the tetralogy of fallot and state
the embryologic basis (3 marks)
144. Name embryological disorders that may cause duodenal
obstruction (3 marks)
145. Briefly describe the development of thoracic diaphragm (3
marks)
146. State the physical factors necessary for lung development (3
marks)
147. Classify the types of cleft palates and for each indicate their
embryological basis (6 marks)
148. Name four midline abdominal congenital anomalies
149. State the embryologic basis of coarctation of the aorta
150. State the embryologic origins of a) ejaculatory ducts b) seminal
vesicles
151. State the embryological basis for conjoined twins and name
three common varieties of this malformation
152. State the anatomical considerations in separation of conjoined
twins
153. State the fate of Rathke’s pouch
154. State the role of retinoic acid in embryonic development (4
marks)
155. Name two causes of congenital deafness (2 marks)
156. State the functions of the zone of polarizing activity (ZPA) and
molecules involved (4 marks)
157. Name three sources of tissue that contribute to the
development of the indifferent gonad
158. State three developmental events that are responsible for the
rapid increase in foetal brain weight in the 3​rd​ trimester
159. Define and give possible mechanism(s) for the following
anomalies a) congenital coloboma b) cleft palate c) ankyloglossia d)
auricular appendages e) Pierre Robin syndrome f) congenital
hydrocephalus g)thyroglossal cyst h) rachischisis i) scoliosis
160. Outline the main differences in the development of the medulla
oblongata and the spinal cord (5 marks)
161. Describe the developmental steps of the cerebellum
162. State the mesodermal derivatives of the 1​st​ pharyngeal arch
163. State briefly the main features of the following anomalies a)
achondroplasia b) neurofibromatosis
164. Outline the development of the spinal curvatures
165. State the embryological basis, and possible complication of
annular pancreas
166. Name postnatal changes in the fetal circulation
167. Name two sequelae due to rotation of the stomach
168. Name two anomalies which can result in neonatal jaundice
169. Name two foregut anomalies that may cause neonatal vomiting
170. Name three anomalies that may cause blindness at birth

HISTOLOGY
1. Describe the organization of an intervertebral disc and age-related
changes in its structure (13 marks)
2. Osteoblast osteoclast interaction in bone healing and remodeling (12
marks)
3. Histology of articular cartilage and changes in osteoarthritis (10
marks)
4. Describe the histological features of the pituitary gland (10 marks)
5. Describe the microscopic features of the testis (5 marks)
6. Outline the surgical microanatomy of bone (10 marks)
7. Outline the factors that affect the synthesis of tropocollagen and state
their surgical relevance (10 marks)
8. State the molecular mechanisms in the osteoblastic control of
osteoclast activity (6 marks)
9. Use a labelled diagram to illustrate the functions of an intercalated
disc (4 marks)
10. Name the cofactors required in hydroxylation of proline in collagen
synthesis (2 marks)
11. Name two examples of epithelial metaplasia indicating their
significance ( 4 marks)
12. Name two functions of ground substance in supporting tissues (2
marks)
13. Name two hormones that act on bone indicating clinical disorders in
disruption of each (2 marks)
14. State the differences in structure between elastic and hyaline
cartilage (4 marks)
15. State the factors that influence the synthesis of collage and indicate
their surgical significance (5 marks)
16. Describe the microscopic organization and functional connections of
the cerebellum (14 marks)
17. Outline the cross-sectional anatomy of the midbrain (6 marks)
18. Describe the development, histological organization and gross
anatomy of the pancreas. Detail the clinical relevance. (10 marks)
19. Enumerate the phases of repair of a fractured bone (5marks)
20. Other than parathyroid and calcitonin, state 3 other hormones that
affect bone (3 marks)
21. Enumerate the classes of general receptors found in the skin (5
marks)
22. Name 3 categories of cell types found in connective tissue and give
one example of each (3 marks)
23. State one disorder associated with lysosome enzyme deficiency (1
mark)
24. Name the cell type in the secretory portion of sweat glands (1 mark)
25. Briefly describe the microscopic organization of bone
26. State the function of the following cells: goblet cell in colon, gastric
parietal cell, melanocyte, (4 marks)
27. State two differences in the myelination between the central and
peripheral nervous systems and indicate clinical relevance (4 marks)
28. State two adaptations of the following to their functions. I) Epithelium
of the urinary bladder ii) epithelium of the ilium (4 marks)
29. State two adaptations of the lining of the external auditory meatus to
its functions and indicate surgical relevance
30. State: a) two structural differences between hyaline and fibrocartilage
b) two sites where fibrocartilage is found. (4 marks)
31. Describe the histological organization of the respiratory mucosa (7
marks)
32. Describe the events in the healing of a second degree skin burn (6
marks)
33. Describe the histological organization of the nasal septum and
indicate surgical relevance (6 marks)
34. State two histological antireflux mechanisms at the gastroesophageal
junction (4 marks)
35. Name four cell types in the gastric mucosa (2 marks)
36. Compare the regenerative capacities of the different types of muscle
(3 marks)
37. Name the components and functions of the juxtaglomerular
apparatus (2 marks)
38. Illustrate the cell cycle indicating the steps of two check points (4
marks)
39. Compare the trophoblastic and metaplastic theories of malignant
transformation (2 marks)
40. Name two surgical conditions associated with sweat glands (2 marks)
41. Illustrate the terminal ductal lobular unit of the mammary gland (2
marks)
42. Give an account of the histological arrangement of the tongue
43. Distinguish between olfactory and respiratory mucosa
44. Discuss the histological organization of the parotid gland
45. Name the layers of the adrenal cortex and state the clinical relevance
of each (4 marks)
46. In the pancreas, name the cells which produce: a) digestive enzymes
b) insulin (2 marks)
47. State the basis of a) diabetes mellitus secondary to
hyperparathyroidism b) peptic ulcer disease in islet of langerhan tumors (4
marks)
48. State the ageing microanatomical changes that occur in the aortic
wall and indicate their effects (4 marks)
49. In lymph nodes, state where T lymphocytes are found (1 mark)
50. Name the type of lymphocyte destroyed by HIV (1 mark)
51. State the effects of thymic deficiency (4 marks)
52. In the gastric epithelium, name the cell types that produce a) intrinsic
factor b) pepsinogen
53. Name components and state the surgical significance of
gastroenteropancreatic endocrine system (4 marks)
54. Name two cell organelles directly involved in detoxification (2 marks)
55. Name the epithelium which lines the following a) urinary bladder b)
esophagus
56. Name the glandular zones of prostate usually involved in a) benign
hypertrophy b) malignant change (2 marks)
57. Name two endocrine components of the ovary (2 marks)
58. Outline the likely systemic effects of an ovarian tumor, indicating the
respective basis (4 marks)
59. Name the predominant collagen in a) Kidney glomerular basement
membrane b) articular cartilage (2 marks)
60. State the role of the mitochondrion in apoptosis (4 marks)
61. State the role of p53 in cell cycle dynamics (2 marks)
62. Distinguish between epithelial-mesenchymal transition and
metaplasia (4 marks)
63. State the nodes of secretion of the following glands a) sebaceous b)
forehead sweat glands (2 marks)
64. State the mechanisms of healing in hyaline cartilage (4 marks)
65. Name the predominant intermediate filament found in a) Muscle b)
Astrocyte (2 marks)
66. State the role of adipose tissue in weight regulation (4 marks)
67. State four ways a hepatocyte is adapted to its functions (4 marks)
68. State two functions of glomerular mesangial cells (2 marks)
69. State the surgical significance of hyaluronic acid (4 marks)
70. State two light microscopic features unique to cardiac muscle (2
marks)
71. State four characteristics of a cerebral module (4 marks)
72. Name the epithelia that line the following structures a) ependymal b)
colon
73. State the changes in the soma of a neuron following neurotmesis of
its axon (4 marks)
74. State two factors that are responsible for obstruction in urinary flow in
benign prostatic enlargement (2 marks)
75. State two functions of the gastric parietal cell (2 marks)
76. Name two hormones that act on bone indicating clinical disorders in
disruption of each (2 marks)
77. Name the predominant type of collagen found in a) nucleus pulposus
b) menisci
78. State two functions of the basement membrane
79. State the functional adaptations of stratified squamous epithelium
80. State two ultrastructural features of smooth muscle
81. State two clinically relevant effects of collagen synthesis and indicate
the related anomaly
82. Apart from the pyramidal cell, name two neurons found in the
cerebral cortex
83. Name the migratory immune cells of connective tissue and indicate
their functions
84. Name one congenital anomaly associated with lysosomes and
peroxisomes
85. Relate cellulitis to the components of connective tissue
86. Relate spread of bone infection (osteomyelitis) with structure of bone
87. Name two cells with contractile ability
88. State the mechanisms a) of osteoclast stimulation by parathyroid
hormone b) responsible for osteopetrosis
89. Other than a continuous basement membrane, state two components
of the blood brain barrier
90. Name four common skin malignancies and relate them to various skin
components
91. Define metaplasia and hyperplasia
92. Name the two types of cilia
93. State the age related changes in the intervertebral disc
94. State the changes that occur in the epithelium of chronic smokers (3
marks)
95. Name the type of capillary predominant in a) liver b) brain
96. Name two cell organelles directly involved in detoxification (2 marks)
97. Name the glandular areas of the prostate usually involved in: benign
hypertrophy b) malignant change
98. Name two nuclei present in lamina VII of the spinal gray (2 marks)
99. Name one area where the following epithelia are found in the body a)
simple cuboidal b) stratified columnar
100. State the role of the liver in bone metabolism
101. State the changes in the organization of the wall of a muscular artery
in chronic hypertension (4 marks)
102. State the mechanisms involved in healing of skeletal muscle following
trauma (4 marks)
103. State two adaptations of the colonic epithelium to its function (2
marks)
104. State the changes in the mucosa of the trachea following chronic
smoke irritation (4 marks)
105. State the functions of the mesangial cells in the kidney corpuscles (4
marks)
106. State the histological features of the thyroid gland of a 14 year old
female with raised TSH and normal T3 and T4 levels. (4 marks)
107. Name the two outer layers of the cerebral cortex (2 marks)
108. Relate the histological organization of the duodenum to its function (4
marks)
109. State the secretory product of: a) zona reticularis of the adrenal
cortex b) parafollicular cells of the thyroid
110. State the imaging ‘anatomy’ of insulinoma
111. State the connective tissue fibre associated with the following
disorders: a) marfan syndrome b) alport syndrome
112. Name the cells that perform the following functions in the tissue
shown: a) synthesis b) breakdown
113. State four differences between mature and immature bone (4 marks)
114. Name the B-cell areas of the spleen and indicate their surgical
significance
115. Using a diagram, illustrate the structure of a liver acinus (2 marks)
116. State four functions of an astrocyte
117. Using a well labelled diagram, illustrate the layers of the wall of the
gall bladder
118. State the histological basis of medical treatment of benign prostatic
enlargement (4 marks)
119. Name the components of the alveolar air blood barrier (2 marks)
120. State four functions of the retinal pigment epithelium
121. Describe the adaptive features of the urothelium to its functions
122. State four factors that regulate apoptosis (4 marks)
123. State the components and functions of blood testis barrier
124. Name the different histological regions of the epiphyseal plate
125. With a large labelled diagram, illustrate the ultrastructure of an
osteoclast
126. State two functions of the myofibroblast
127. Describe the role of periosteum in healing of bone
128. State two electron microscopic features of the neurohypophysis
129. State four aging changes which occur in skeletal muscles
130. Name two clinical vessel conditions associated with abnormal
collagen synthesis
131. State the basis of contractures following incisions made perpendicular
to skin creases
132. Describe the microscopic organization of the rectum
133. State two areas where fibrous cartilage is found
134. State two epithelial premalignant changes giving examples (4 marks)
135. Name the zone and histological basis of the slipped upper femoral
epiphysis (SUFE)
136. State two ultrastructural features of a Kuppfer cell
137. State the histologic basis of the changes in untreated contralateral
testicular torsion
138. State the histological basis of androgen secreting ovarian tumor
139. Name two cell types in fallopian tube epithelium
140. State two types of acidophils pituitary gland
141. State the main changes that occur in a neuron during aging and two
ways of retarding neuronal aging
142. Name two features common to all receptors of special sensation
143. State two reasons why hyaline cartilage forms suitable embryonic
skeleton
144. State four features of the microanatomy of the mammary gland, that
are of surgical relevance
145. State the two functional components of the intermediate horn of the
thoracic spinal cord (2 marks)
146. Name four functions of the sertoli cell (4 marks)
147. Name two conducting neurons in the retina (2 marks)
148. State the anatomical basis of the current therapeutic strategies in
decreasing prostatic volume (2 marks)
149. State the epithelial transition of the urethra in males (4 marks)
150. State two epithelial functional adaptations of the trachea (2 marks)
151. State bthe functional adaptations of the vas deferens (4 marks0
152. State the anatomical basis of mucosal protection in the stomach (2
marks)
153. State how the gall bladder mucosa is adapted to its functions (2
marks)
154. State the adaptations of the proximal convoluted tubular cell to its
functions (4 marks)
155. State the changes in the structure of the soma following axonotemsis
(4 marks)
156. Name two multiadhesive proteins found in the ground substance of
bone (2 marks)
157. Distinguish between sinusoidal and fenestrated capillaries and
indicate where each is found in the body (4 marks)
158. State two structural adaptations of the cornea
159. State the components and surgical relevance of the pilosebaceous
unit (4 marks)
160. State the factors that facilitate implantation
161. Differentiate totipotent and multipotent stem cells (4 marks)
162. Outline the development of the pancreas
163. Define twin-twin transfusion syndrome and indicate clinical
significance (4 marks)
164. State the fate of processus vaginalis in females (4 marks)
165. Write brief notes on the microscopic organization of the palatine
tonsils (12 marks)
166. Describe the histological organization of the anterior pituitary gland
and indicate relevant surgical aspects of abnormal secretions (10 marks)
167. Describe the microscopic organization of the epiglottis