MNPS

62.6.5.
0 (4898)
What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to
maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not
available?
a) The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systems
b) The flight has to be continued under VFR conditions
c) A constant heading and speed must be flown until the required number of satellites are
again available
d) The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites are available and the pilot
monitors the GPS-System manually
62.6.5.0 (4899)
Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS
satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor
system?
a) The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and operational
b) The prescribed IFR-equipment must be in working correctly and the navigation information
continuously displayed
c) The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to monitor all prescribed navigation
systems
d) Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions
62.6.5.0 (4900)
Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, on a flight under IFR
conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver, the position
fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position of conventional
navigation systems by an unacceptable amount?
a) It may be continued using conventional navigation systems
b) It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS, prior to the next flight all systems must be
checked
c) It must be continued under VFR conditions
d) The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error or switch off
the faulty system
62.6.5.0 (4901)
What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision
approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
a) Barometric altitude
b) If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS, otherwise
barometric altitude
c) Radar altitude
d) GPS altitude
62.6.5.0 (4902)
Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting
flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
navigation system?
a) Barometric altitude
b) The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude
c) GPS altitude
d) GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric altitude 812
71.1.1.0 (4903)
Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently
long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft,
dry runway) within:
a) 60% of the landing distance available.
b) 70% of the landing distance available.
c) 80% of the landing distance available.
d) 50% of the landing distance available.
71.1.1.0 (4904)
Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
a) while at their station.
b) only during take off and landing.
c) only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest
of safety.
d) from take off to landing.
71.1.1.0 (4905)
Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also
issue the amendments to keep it up to date?
a) Aircraft operator.
b) Aircraft producer.
c) Owner of the aircraft.
d) ATS authority of the state of registry.
71.1.1.0 (4906)
The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by
an operator must not be less than :
a) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the
last 90 days
b) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90
days
c) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6
months
d) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6
months
71.1.1.0 (4907)
The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be
operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers
during at least :
a) 30 minutes.
b) 60 minutes.
c) 15 minutes.
d) 2 hours.
71.1.1.0 (4908)
A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from
the shore by more than :
a) 50 NM
b) 100 NM 813
c) 200 NM
d) 400 NM
71.1.1.0 (4909)
On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance
away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than
that corresponding to :
a) 400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed.
b) 300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed.
c) 200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed.
d) 100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed.
71.1.1.0 (4910)
The minimum time track is a track defined for :
a) a given travel
b) a period of 12 hours
c) a period of 24 hours
d) aircraft flying in MNPS airspace
71.1.1.0 (4911)
The term decision height (DH) is used for :
a) a precision approach.
b) a conventional approach.
c) an indirect approach.
d) a conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.
71.1.1.0 (4912)
Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely
made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex
6, Part I)
a) The captain.
b) The operator.
c) The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.
d) The company's cargo technicians.
71.1.1.0 (4913)
For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance
that : (Annex 6, Part I)
a) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with
only one engine operative.
b) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one
engine operative.
c) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
operating.
d) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
operating.
71.1.1.0 (4914)
One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules
unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of
814 6,
predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex
Part I)
a) At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions
required for aerodrome use.
b) At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required
for aerodrome use.
c) At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a
predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
d) At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome
use.
71.1.1.0 (4915)
When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking
the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)
a) Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified
personnel on board.
b) The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.
c) Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
d) All the flight crew be on board.
71.1.1.0 (4916)
The operator will include in the operations manual a list of minimum required
equipment approved by : (Annex 6, Part I)
a) The country of the operator.
b) The country where the aircraft was manufactured.
c) The country where the aircraft is operated.
d) It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation authorities.
71.1.1.0 (4917)
Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6,
Part I)
a) As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight
rules.
b) Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights.
c) With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects icy conditions).
d) As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such aircraft must also possess
indicators of attitude and course, along with a precise barometric altimeter.
71.1.1.0 (4918)
The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :
a) the operator
b) the manufacturer
c) the aircraft manufacturer's list
d) the aircraft state of registry
71.1.1.0 (4919)
The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :
a) the manufacturer.
b) the operator.
c) the aircraft manufacture'rs list.
d) the aircraft state of registry.
815
71.1.1.0 (4920)
The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a
coverage angle of :
a) 110°.
b) 140°.
c) 70°.
d) 220°.
71.1.1.0 (4921)
Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least
the last :
a) 25 hours of operation.
b) 30 hours of operation.
c) flight.
d) 48 hours of operation.
71.1.1.0 (4922)
For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the
conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last :
a) 30 minutes of operation.
b) 25 hours of operation.
c) flight.
d) 48 hours of operation.
71.1.1.0 (4923)
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed
with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is
greater than :
a) 13 000 ft
b) 12 000 ft
c) 11 000 ft
d) 10 000 ft
71.1.1.0 (4924)
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with
oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the
pressure altitude is between :
a) 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft
b) 10 000 ft and 12 000 ft
c) 11 000 ft and 13 000 ft
d) 11 000 ft and 12 000 ft
71.1.1.0 (4925)
On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is
provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the
passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization,
throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than :
a) 10 000 ft.
b) 11 000 ft.
c) 12 000 ft.
d) 13 000 ft.
816
71.1.1.0 (4926)
For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board
any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than :
a) 25 000 ft
b) 13 000 ft
c) 29 000 ft
d) 10 000 ft
71.1.1.0 (4927)
A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified
take-off gross weight is greater than :
a) 5 700 kg
b) 14 000 kg
c) 20 000 kg
d) 27 000 kg
71.1.1.0 (4928)
The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight
and located at the rear of the aircraft, is :
a) 140°
b) 110°
c) 70°
d) 220°
71.1.1.0 (4929)
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming
from the front left, will first see the :
a) green steady light
b) red steady light
c) white steady light
d) green flashing light
71.1.1.0 (4930)
The JAR-OPS is based on :
a) ICAO Appendix 6
b) The air transport rules
c) The Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)
d) A JAA guideline
71.1.1.0 (4931)
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming
from the front right right, will first see the :
a) red steady light
b) green steady light
c) white steady light
d) green flashing light
71.1.1.0 (4932)
The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight
and located at the tip of the left wing is :
817
a) 110°
b) 140°
c) 70°
d) 220°
71.1.1.0 (4933)
For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the
scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance
multiplied by a factor of :
a) 0.6
b) 0.7
c) 0.5
d) 0.8
71.1.1.0 (4934)
For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on
at alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied
by a factor of :
a) 0.7
b) 0.6
c) 0.5
d) 0.8
71.1.1.0 (4935)
The validity period of a ""certificate of airworthiness"" varies with the conditions
under which the aircraft is maintained.If the maintenance is carried out according
to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved by the
Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:
a) three years.
b) three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the others.
c) three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the others.
d) three years if the aircraft has not undergone major modifications.
71.1.2.0 (4936)
The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:
a) the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial transport
aircraft.
b) the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them.
c) the aircraft used by police, customs and defense departments.
d) the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil aircraft.
71.1.2.1 (4937)
Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the :
a) operation manual.
b) flight manual.
c) journey logbook.
d) operational flight plan.
71.1.2.1 (4938)
An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the
ground a copy of the :
a) operation flight plan. 818
b) ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.
c) flight plan processing.
d) flight route sheet.
71.1.2.1 (4939)
An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the
ground, if required:
a) a copy of the weight and balance sheet.
b) a copy of the calculated take-off performances.
c) the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.
d) the aircraft equipment report (logbook).
71.1.2.1 (4940)
After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder must
keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
a) 60 days.
b) 30 days.
c) 90 days.
d) 45 days.
71.1.2.1 (4941)
During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a
portable device suspected to disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:
a) must not authorize any person to use such a device on board.
b) authorizes its use except during take-off and landing phases.
c) authorizes its use during the whole flight phase.
d) may authorize the use of this device, as an exception.
71.1.2.1 (4942)
Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of
information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It contains more
particularly:1 - the weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast
at destination,2 - one copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the
weight and balance sheet,3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's materiel
report,4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the
operator,5 - notification for special loadings,6 - for each flight, details of the day's
performances and limitations with completed charts.The combination regrouping
all the correct statements is:
a) 2,3,4,5
b) 1,2,3,4,5,6
c) 1,3,5
d) 2,4
71.1.2.1 (4943)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant
operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground
for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the
operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least :
a) 3 months
b) 12 months
819
c) 15 months
d) 24 months
71.1.2.1 (4944)
The captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the aircraft. He
a) must do so, within a reasonable period of time.
b) can request a delay of 48 hours.
c) can refuse to present them.
d) can only do so after having consulted the operator.
71.1.2.3 (4945)
The ""NO SMOKING"" sign must be illuminated :
a) when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.
b) during climb and descent.
c) in each cabin section if oxygen is being carried.
d) during take off and landing.
71.1.2.4 (4946)
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :
a) a decision height of at least 100 ft
b) a decision height of at least 200 ft
c) a decision height of at least 50 ft
d) no decision height
71.1.2.4 (4947)
A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with :
a) no runway visual range limits
b) a runway visual range of at least 50 m
c) a runway visual range of at least 200 m
d) a runway visual range of at least 350 m
71.1.2.4 (4948)
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out
with a runway visual range of at least :
a) 550 m
b) 350 m
c) 800 m
d) 500 m
71.1.2.4 (4949)
A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be
carried out with a runway visual range of at least :
a) 200 m
b) 100 m
c) 250 m
d) 50 m
71.1.2.4 (4950)
A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be
carried out with a runway visual range of at least :
820
a) 75 m
b) 150 m
c) 250 m
d) 200 m
71.1.2.4 (4951)
A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :
a) a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.
b) a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.
c) a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.
d) no decision height.
71.1.2.4 (4952)
A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual
maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :
a) 3600 m
b) 2400 m
c) 1600 m
d) 1500 m
71.1.2.4 (4953)
A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual
maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :
a) 2400 m
b) 3600 m
c) 1600 m
d) 1500 m
71.1.2.4 (4954)
A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual
maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
a) 1600 m
b) 1500 m
c) 3600 m
d) 2400 m
71.1.2.4 (4955)
A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual
manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :
a) 1500 m
b) 2400 m
c) 1600 m
d) 3600 m
71.1.2.4 (4956)
During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to
the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway
threshold is at more than :
a) 2 m (7 ft) below the airdrome altitude
b) 2 m (7 ft) above the airdrome altitude
821
c) 4 m (14 ft) below the airdrome altitude
d) 4 m (14 ft) above the airdrome altitude
71.1.2.4 (4957)
The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the
following into account :1. equipment available for navigation2. dimensions and
characteristics of the runways3. composition of the flight crew4. obstacles in the
vicinity of approach and missed approach areas5. facilities for determining and
communicating the weather conditionsThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is :
a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 1,2,4,5
c) 2,4,5
d) 2,3,5
71.1.2.4 (4958)
When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories
according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal
to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing
weight multiplied by a factor of:
a) 1.3
b) 1.45
c) 1.5
d) 1.15
71.1.2.4 (4959)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest
minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are :
a) MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m
b) MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m
c) MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m
d) MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m
71.1.2.4 (4960)
JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure
about VFR flights, that :
a) special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km
b) for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least
c) for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least
d) for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is
5 km at least (clear of cloud)
71.1.2.4 (4961)
In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category
III A Operation, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS
with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR (runway visual range) no less
than :
a) 200 m
b) 250 m
c) 230 m
d) 300 m 822
71.1.2.4 (4962)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operationg Minima), an operator
must ensure that system minima for ""non-precision approach procedures"", which
are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and
VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:
a) NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
b) ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft
c) VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft
d) VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
71.1.2.4 (4963)
In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B operations, is a precision
instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower
than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200 m but
no less than :
a) 75 m
b) 150 m
c) 100 m
d) 50 m
71.1.2.4 (4964)
The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots.
The aircraft is flown by a single pilot.The usable runway has edge lights, high
intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold mid and end of
runway.The approach minimums for runway 06 are : DH = 300 feet, Horizontal
visibility (HV) = 800 metres.The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV)
900 metres and ceiling 200 feet.Is take-off possible?
a) Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM.
b) No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure.
c) No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.
d) Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure.
71.1.2.4 (4965)
The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre
line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR
qualified on type. The minimum horizontal visibility required for take-off is:
a) 150 m.
b) 200 m.
c) 300 m.
d) 150 m if a threshold RVR is available.
71.1.2.4 (4966)
The information to consider for a standard straight-in approach is :1 - the
horizontal visibility2 - the ceiling3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA)4 - the
decision altitude (DA)Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?
a) 03-Jan
b) 04-Jan
c) 2001-02-03
d) 2001-02-04
823
71.1.2.4 (4967)
For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be
used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
a) 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
b) 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
c) 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
d) 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
71.1.2.4 (4968)
During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services
and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational
minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
a) the outer marker (OM).
b) the FAF.
c) the middle marker.
d) the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
71.1.2.4 (4969)
The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with
the following operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR
for threshold, mid and end of the runway are given by the controller...
a) the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750
metres.
b) the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and mid-runway RVR are higher than
750 metres.
c) the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are higher than 750 metres.
d) flying a non-precision approach, the pilot may start the final approach only if he has a
meteorological visibility higher than 750 metres. RVR are to be taken into account only for
precision approaches.
71.1.2.4 (4970)
An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are :
MDH = 360 feet, horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres :Visibility given by ATC and
received by the crew is 2 500 metres :The pilot may start the final approach...
a) whatever the ceiling given by ATC.
b) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 360 feet.
c) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet.
d) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet during
the day and 360 feet at night.
71.1.2.4 (4971)
In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is
established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account
of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of
Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is
equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by
1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is :
a) D
b) B
c) C
d) E
824
71.1.2.5 (4972)
Supplemental oxygen is used to :
a) provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation
b) protect a crew who fights a fire
c) provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation
d) assist a passenger with breathing disorders
71.1.2.8 (4973)
The minimum flight crew for night transport of passengers or according to the
Instrument flight rules is :
a) 2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with more than 9 passenger
seats
b) 2 pilots for any aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or having more than 9 passenger seats
c) 1 pilot for any aircraft weighing less than 5.7 tons, provided that the maximum certified
number of passenger seats is less than 9
d) 2 pilots for any turbo-prop aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or for any turbo-jet aircraft
71.1.2.8 (4974)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not
operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless :
a) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an
aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding
90 days
b) he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or an approved
flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
c) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in any type of
aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding
60 days
d) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane
or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days
71.1.2.8 (4975)
JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight
controls during take-off and landing unless :
a) he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the controls during take-
off and landing of the type to be used in the preceding 90 days.
b) he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three
landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 90
days.
c) he has carried out as-pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at lest three take-off and three
landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 30
days
d) he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command or as a co-pilot at the controls
of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days.
71.1.2.8 (4976)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot
engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be :
a) 5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the
preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
b) 3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days
825
on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
c) 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days
on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
d) 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days
on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
71.1.2.8 (4977)
An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants
(including pilot).The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5
and 6 years old).The boarding of all passengers is:
a) forbidden.
b) authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat
belt. No other particular precautions are necessary.
c) authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt
with an adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary.
d) authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and
using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to relase thir
seat bel
71.1.2.8 (4978)
In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual inidicates a
minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a
second pilot ?
a) never.
b) if the aircraft is a twin-engine.
c) if part or all the flight is done at night.
d) if the flight lasts more than 3 hours.
71.1.2.8 (4979)
The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:1 - the training2 - the test
results3 - a log of flying hours4 - a summary of the training by reference
periodWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?
a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
b) 2001-02-03
c) 03-Fev
d) 04-Mar
71.1.3.0 (4980)
An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft planned for the flight is a
performance class B aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its
alternate route scheduled from this initial route, to reach a climb rate of at least :
a) 300ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous power.
b) 300 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous
power.
c) 500 ft/min with all engines operating at maximum cruise power.
d) 500 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous
power.
71.1.3.1 (4981)
When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone
to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a
vector KK' which is equal to: 826
a) mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone.
b) wind at K'.
c) wind at K.
d) mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.
71.1.3.1 (4982)
A minimum time track is a :
a) track determined according to weather conditions
b) great circle track
c) rhumb line
d) spherical capable flight segment
71.1.3.1 (4983)
On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily
have a quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :
a) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
b) 45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
c) 30 minutes at cruising speed
d) 45 minutes at cruising speed
71.1.3.1 (4984)
On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must
mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying
during :
a) 2 hours with normal cruising consumption
b) 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
c) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
d) 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
71.1.3.1 (4985)
When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on
take-off, the latter shall be located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent
distance not exceeding :
a) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine
b) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines
c) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine
d) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
71.1.3.1 (4986)
When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on
take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an
equivalent distance not exceeding :
a) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative
b) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating
c) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative
d) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all enginesoperating
71.1.3.1 (4987)
According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twin-engined aircraft with a
maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved
seating configuration of more than 19 passagers must be planned in such a way 827
that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within :
a) 60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
b) 30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
c) 90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
d) 120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
71.1.3.1 (4988)
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can
be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the
regulations are effective for at least :
a) 1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
b) 2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival
c) 3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
d) 3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival
71.1.3.1 (4989)
A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have :
a) reduced range
b) increased manoeuvring limits
c) increased flight envelope
d) increased Mach number stability
71.1.3.1 (4990)
For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the
lock-on altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of chosing
cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to fly :
a) about the optimum altitude
b) about the lock-on altitude
c) between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude
d) just below the optimum altitude
71.1.3.2 (4991)
If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed
to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device
which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the
aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:
a) great circle.
b) rhumb line.
c) curve of some type or other.
d) spherical flight segment.
71.1.3.2 (4992)
An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the
gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfecly and without an hourly
rate corrector unit, indicates 000°.The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on
a true heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass
remains in free gyro mode.If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading
at Q will be :
a) 328°.
b) 345°.
828
c) 003°.
d) 334°.
71.1.3.2 (4993)
A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero
meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.In polar
regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6
microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial
navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to ""magnetic mode"", the
compass heading is 220°. The INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The
magnetic variation on the chart is 10°E.The compass shift on this heading at this
point in time is:
a) -5°.
b) +5°.
c) -15°.
d) +15°.
71.1.3.2 (4994)
(For this question use annex 071-2070A)On the diagram where :Nt = True
NorthNm = Magnetic NorthNg = Grid NorthIf the magnetic variation is equal to
65°W and if the grid variation is equal to 4°E, the correct arrangement of the
different north is :
a) 3
b) 4
c) 1
d) 2
71.1.3.2 (4995)
You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B (60°N 020°E).The gyro North
of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction
device, is aligned with the true North of point A.The constant gyro heading to be
followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min
with a zero wind, is equal to :
a) 076°.
b) 080°.
c) 066°.
d) 085°.
71.1.3.2 (4996)
A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the
meridian 054°W, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.An
aircraft is following a true course of 330°.At position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading
(GH) with this system will be :
a) 136°.
b) 276°.
c) 316°.
d) 164°.
71.1.3.2 (4997)
On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian
in the direction of the true North pole, the ""true"" orientation of the great circle
829
linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The grid route at the
starting point of this great circle is :
a) 295°.
b) 298°.
c) 301°.
d) 292°.
71.1.3.2 (4998)
The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid,
printed over it, its aligned with meridian 180°, the grid North in the direction of the
geographic North (non standard grid).The grid course followed by the aircraft is
Rg=280°, the position is 80°S 100°E.The true course followed at this moment is :
a) 000°.
b) 260°.
c) 080°.
d) 100°.
71.1.3.2 (4999)
(For this question use annex 071-2084A)The inertial navigation system (INS)
indicates:Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'WDrift: 6°L (left)The route followed in
order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station
used:RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local
geographic meridian.The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart
used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the
direction of geographic North Pole).The correct representation of the RMI
VOR/DME is at this moment:(the distance DME is in the box)
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
71.1.3.2 (5000)
The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the
zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The
gyro does not comprise a rate correction device.The gyro-magnetic compass of an
aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free
gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the
gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take off until 16.30 UTC.
The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off.The
error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be :
a) +32.5°.
b) +13°.
c) +73.5°.
d) -32.5°.
71.1.3.2 (5001)
On a polar stereographic chart where the earth convergence between 2 points
located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track
difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is :
a) 30 NM.
b) 4.0 NM.
830
c) 9.2 NM.
d) 4.0 NM.
71.1.3.2 (5002)
In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose
printed over grid is parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction
of geographic North along this meridian.The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true
route is 110°, the grid route at this moment is :
a) 240°.
b) 060°.
c) 110°.
d) 340°.
71.1.3.2 (5003)
At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial systems of an aircraft flying on
the LONDON- ANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole region. The
wind is nil, the grid heading at this moment is 315°. The crew then uses the Sun to
continue the flight. The bearing of the Sun on occurence of the failure is :NOTE:
The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar stereographic chart whose grid is
parallel with the zero meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographic
North pole.
a) 325°.
b) 035°.
c) 180°.
d) 000°.
71.1.3.2 (5004)
With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS), you
can read the following information :- Desired track (DTK) = 100°- Track (TK) =
120°You can conclude that the :
a) Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R)
b) Track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)
c) Aircraft is converging towards its ideal course
d) Aircraft is diverging from its ideal course
71.1.3.2 (5005)
In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft
would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a :
a) great circle line
b) rhumb line
c) spherical flight segment
d) straight map line
71.1.3.2 (5006)
Posit :g, the longitude differenceLm, the average latitudeLo, the latitude of the
tangentThe transport precession is equal to :
a) g.sin Lm
b) 15°/h.sin Lm
c) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
d) g/2.sin Lm
831
71.1.3.2 (5007)
tangentThe correct formula of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic
and polar navigation, is equal to :
a) g/2.sin Lm
b) 15°/h.sin Lm
c) g.sin Lm
d) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
71.1.3.2 (5008)
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in
degrees of the gyro North with respect to the:
a) true North
b) grid North
c) magnetic North
d) compass North
71.1.3.2 (5009)
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in
degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the :
a) grid North for a given chart
b) grid North for any chart
c) true North for a given chart
d) true North for any chart
71.1.3.2 (5010)
Astronomic precession is :
a) existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying
b) independent of the latitude
c) depending on the chart used
d) zero when the aircraft is on the ground
71.1.3.2 (5011)
tangentThe correct formula expressing the travel precession applied during a
transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :
a) 15°/h.sin Lm
b) g.sin Lm
c) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
d) g/2.sin Lm
71.1.3.2 (5012)
Astronomic precession :
a) causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphere
b) causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Southern hemisphere
c) is zero at the North pole
d) is zero at the South pole
71.1.3.2 (5013)
Astronomic precession :
a) causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere 832
b) causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere
c) is zero at the North pole
d) is zero at the South pole
71.1.3.2 (5014)
A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal
component of the earth magnetic field is less than :
a) 6 micro-tesla
b) 17 micro-tesla
c) 38 micro tesla
d) 10 micro-tesla
71.1.3.3 (5015)
For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise
specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
a) One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).
b) One Inertial Navigation System (INS).
c) Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).
d) Two independant Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).
71.1.3.3 (5016)
When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the
pilot has to:
a) maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in
the oceanic clearance.
b) take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan.
c) take any Mach number.
d) take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline.
71.1.3.3 (5017)
MNPS is the abbreviation for:
a) Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.
b) Maximum North-atlantic Precision System.
c) Military Network Performance Structure.
d) Minimum Navigation Positioning System.
71.1.3.3 (5018)
In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:
a) Mach number.
b) ground speed.
c) true airspeed.
d) indicated airspeed.
71.1.3.3 (5019)
(For this question use annex 071-2083A)In order to meet the ""twin-engine""
flight standards authorised by the official departments of his company (1hour 45
minutes flight on 1 engine at an air speed of 420 kt to reach the alternate
aerodromes in still air conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification area, while at the same time taking the
shortest possible time.Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into
833
account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN TORBAY, the track to be chosen
between PARIS and WASHINGTON will be:
a) Track C , time 8 hours 15 minutes.
b) Track A , time 8 hours 3 minutes.
c) Track D , time 8 hours 20 minutes.
d) Track B , time 8 hours 10 minutes.
71.1.3.3 (5020)
In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should
first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial
navigation system:
a) notify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.
b) request authorization from Control to track another aircraft.
c) set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.
d) immediately climb or descent 1 000 ft.
71.1.3.3 (5021)
A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the
SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight must be planned to take place :
a) at flight level FL 280 or less.
b) outside scheduled flight times.
c) at a Mach number of 0.70 or less.
d) at a constant airspeed of 480 kt.
71.1.3.3 (5022)
The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight
normally is :
a) 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
b) 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
c) 11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
d) 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
71.1.3.3 (5023)
The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight
normally is :
a) 11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
b) 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
c) 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
d) 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
71.1.3.3 (5024)
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC , you
will then normally be :
a) out of the organized flight track system.
b) within the organized daytime flight track system.
c) within the organized night-time flight track system.
d) in a random space.
834
71.1.3.3 (5025)
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC , you
will then normally be ,
a) out of the organized flight track system
b) within the organized daytime flight track system
c) within the organized night-time flight track system
d) in a random space
71.1.3.3 (5026)
The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without
restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least :
a) Two inertial navigation units.
b) Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA.
c) Three inertial navigation units.
d) One inertial navigation unit.
71.1.3.3 (5027)
The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the
same Mach number is :
a) 10 minutes.
b) 5 minutes.
c) 15 minutes.
d) 20 minutes.
71.1.3.3 (5028)
The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS
airspace is :
a) 60 NM.
b) 30 NM.
c) 90 NM.
d) 120 NM.
71.1.3.3 (5029)
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at
higher speed, the longitudinal spacing must be at least :
a) 5 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 20 minutes
71.1.3.3 (5030)
If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are unserviceable during a flight
in MNPS airspace, and if you cannot establish communication with the air traffic
control, you :
a) take an intermediate flight level
b) descend below the MNPS space
c) return to departure airport
d) land at the nearest airport
835
71.1.3.3 (5031)
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from
:
a) 27° North to 90° North.
b) 30° North to 90° North.
c) 27° North to 70° North.
d) 30° North to 70° North.
71.1.3.3 (5032)
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends
vertically between flight levels:
a) 285 and 420.
b) 280 and 400.
c) 280 and 390.
d) 275 and 400.
71.1.3.3 (5033)
In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for
air-air communications is :
a) 131.800 MHz.
b) 118.800 MHz.
c) 121.800 MHz.
d) 128.800 MHz.
71.1.3.3 (5034)
In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation
Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must:
a) continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and
acknowledge by him.
b) return to his flight plan route if its different from the last oceanic clearance received and
acknowledge by him.
c) join one of the so-called ""special"" routes.
d) change the flight level in accordance with the predetermined instructions.
71.1.3.3 (5035)
The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of
VHF ground stations in NAT region is :
a) 131.8 MHz.
b) 121.5 MHz.
c) 243 MHz.
d) 118.5 MHz.
71.1.3.3 (5036)
A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight
using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done :
a) At or prior entering the NAT region.
b) Prior entering the NAT region.
c) As soon as possible after entering the NAT region.
d) When crossing the oceanic airspace boundary.
836
71.1.3.3 (5037)
If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised
tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the FPL by :
a) the abbreviation ""NAT"" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.
b) inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message.
c) using the abbreviation ""OTS"" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.
d) inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10° of longitude.
71.1.3.3 (5038)
In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate
aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing ""NAT"" traffic flow and if prior
ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight
level should :
a) If above FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate
aerodrome.
b) If below FL410, climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate
aerodrome.
c) If above FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate
aerodrome.
d) If below FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
71.1.3.3 (5039)
ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight
level should:
a) If at FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate
aerodrome.
b) If at FL410, climb 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
c) If at FL410, climb or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
d) If at FL410, descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
71.1.3.3 (5040)
ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned
flight level should:
a) Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 30 NM from its
assigned route or track.
b) Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 60 NM from its assigned
route or track.
c) Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 90 NM from its assigned
route or track.
d) Descend below FL275.
71.1.3.3 (5041)
An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west
south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
a) 10° of longitude.
b) 5° of longitude.
c) 20° of longitude.
837
d) 15° of longitude.
71.1.3.3 (5042)
An air traffic units may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-
west north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
a) 20° of longitude.
b) 10° of longitude.
c) 15° of longitude.
d) 5° of longitude.
71.1.3.3 (5043)
Which errors in ""estimates"" minutes shall be reported by aircraft overflying the
North Atlantic?
a) 3 or more.
b) 5 or more.
c) 10 or more.
d) 2 or more.
71.1.3.3 (5044)
The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:
a) 60 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
b) 60 NM between aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.
c) 90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
d) 90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.
71.1.3.3 (5045)
Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM)
is used when operating in MNPS airspace?
a) 60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
b) 90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
c) 60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
d) 90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
71.1.3.3 (5046)
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within
NAT region?
a) Between FL290 and FL410.
b) Between FL275 and FL400.
c) Between FL245 and FL410.
d) Below FL290.
71.1.3.3 (5047)
Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
a) Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher.
b) Flying above 3000 ft.
c) Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace.
d) Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace.
71.1.3.3 (5048)
During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1000 UTC , you
will normally be :
a) in random airspace. 838
b) in a day flight route system.
c) in a night flight route system.
d) out of the organised route system.
71.1.3.3 (5049)
During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Spécification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 2330 UTC , you
will normally be :
a) in random airspace
b) in a day flight route system
c) in a night flight route system
d) out of the organized route system
71.1.3.3 (5050)
The abbreviation MNPS means :
a) Minimum Navigation Performance Specification
b) Main Navigation Performance Specification
c) Maximum Navigation Performance Specification
d) Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification
71.1.3.3 (5051)
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North
Atlantic is comprised within :
a) flight levels 285 and 420 from the North parallel 27 to the pole
b) flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole
c) sea level and FL660 from North parallel 27 to the pole
d) flight levels 280 and 475 from North parallel 27 to the pole
71.1.3.3 (5052)
Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is :
a) subject to a mandatory clearance
b) subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not)
c) not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlled
d) subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed
71.1.3.3 (5053)
The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft is :
a) authorized under radar control if the aircraft is in VHF contact with the MNPS
controller
b) forbidden in all cases
c) authorized when the aircraft has two precision navigation systems
d) authorized only if the aircraft is in radio contact with the aircraft present in this space
71.1.3.3 (5054)
Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace over the North Atlantic and not having yet received the
oceanic clearance, the crew :
a) carries out a holding pattern
b) returns to base immediately
839
c) keeps flying in accordance with the air-filed flight plan
d) keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from that of the air-filed flight plan
71.1.3.3 (5055)
The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to :
a) the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)
b) rules issued by the bordering States (document 6530)
c) rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic Ocean
Airspace)
d) Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in
this airspace
71.1.3.3 (5056)
In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be
applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is :
a) 1 000 ft
b) 500 ft
c) 2000ft
d) 1 500 ft
71.1.3.3 (5057)
An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) on MNPS Airspace is unable to
continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of
navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles .... etc), but is able to
maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications
capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave
its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left
whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and
maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned
route and :
a) climb or descend 500 ft
b) climb or descent 1 000 ft
c) climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft
d) climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
71.1.3.3 (5058)
An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue
flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of
navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles... etc), bus is able to
maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability,
could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever
this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in
either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and :
a) climb or descend 1 000 ft
b) climb or descent 500 ft
c) climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ft
d) climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
71.1.3.3 (5059)
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in
840
accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational
performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level,and due to a
total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from
ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90
degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action
will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated
by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft, if :
a) at FL410
b) above FL 410
c) below FL 410
d) at FL 430
71.1.3.3 (5060)
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in
accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational
performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a
total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from
ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90
degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action
will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated
by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if :
a) below FL 410
b) at FL 410
c) above FL 410
d) at FL 430
71.2.0.0 (5061)
According to the recommended ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure
A"" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to
climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches :
a) 1 500 ft
b) 3 000 ft
c) 2 000 ft
d) 1 000 ft
71.2.1.0 (5062)
The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on which
certain in-flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this
allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by :
a) the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority
b) the operator and is specified in the operation manual
c) the operator and approved by the certification authority
d) the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer
71.2.1.0 (5063)
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-
flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be
accepted . The Mel is drawn up by :
a) the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment
List (MMEL)
b) the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List
841
(MMEL)
c) the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
d) the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List
(MMEL)
71.2.1.0 (5064)
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
a) the airline operator.
b) the manufacturer.
c) the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.
d) the Civil Aviation Authority of the european states.
71.2.1.0 (5065)
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the
holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the
procedure to follow is:
a) the operation manual's chapter ""Abnormal and Emergency Procedures"".
b) the minimum equipment list.
c) the JAR OPS.
d) the flight record.
71.2.1.0 (5066)
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still
parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
a) the minimum equipment list.
b) the operation manual's chapter ""Abnormal and Emergency procedures"".
c) the JAR OPS.
d) the flight manual.
71.2.1.0 (5067)
The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the :
b) JAR OPS.
c) flight manual.
d) flight record.
71.2.1.0 (5068)
The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:
a) the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
b) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
c) the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
d) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer
71.2.1.0 (5069)
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative
when undertaking a flight and the additonnal procedures to be observed
accordingly. This list is prepared by:
a) the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
b) the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
c) the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
d) the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
842
71.2.2.0 (5070)
The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs
on :
a) The aircraft front areas.
b) The upper and lower wingsurfaces.
c) The upper and lower rudder surfaces.
d) Only the pitot and static probes.
71.2.2.0 (5071)
The terminal VOR transmittes the following weather data. When do you expect
carburettor icing?
a) Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +10°CDew Point (DEWP) : +7°C
b) Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +15°CDew Point (DEWP) : -5°C
c) Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +25°CDew Point (DEWP) : +5°C
d) Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : -10°CDew point (DEWP) : -15°C
71.2.2.0 (5072)
If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
a) Greater than the actual.
b) Less than the actual.
c) Equal to the actual.
d) Dependent on the temperature.
71.2.2.0 (5073)
In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check
that:
a) external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane
performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight
manual.
b) external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.
c) external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.
d) possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.
71.2.2.0 (5074)
The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:
a) stalling speed
b) value of the stall angle of attack
c) tuck under
d) roll rate
71.2.2.0 (5075)
The reference document dealing with air transport of hazardous materials is :
a) ICAO Appendix 18
b) ICAO Appendix 8
c) the Washington Convention
d) Instruction No. 300 of June 3, 1957
71.2.2.0 (5076)
When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will
cause the following effects:1 - an increase in the take-off distance2 - a diminution
843
of the take-off run3 - an increase in the stalling speed4 - a diminution of the
stalling speed5 - a diminution of the climb gradientThe combination regrouping all
the correct statements is :
a) 1, 3, 5
b) 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 5
71.2.2.0 (5077)
The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a :
a) certain time of protection depending on its concentration.
b) 24 hours protection time.
c) certain time of protection independent of the outside temperature.
d) 3 hours protection time.
71.2.2.0 (5078)
If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure inspection reveals evidence
of freezing, the correct action is to :
a) carry out a further de-icing process
b) complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further freezing
c) switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing
conditions when airborne
d) complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time
for the prevailing conditons and type of fluid used has not been exceeded
71.2.2.0 (5079)
At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40
%, in air free of cloud, fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing :
a) can occur, but only at a low power setting
b) cannot occur
c) can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings
d) is possible at any setting
71.2.2.0 (5080)
For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of
the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be
shortest ?
a) Freezing rain
b) Steady snow
c) Freezing fog
d) Frost
71.2.2.0 (5081)
During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time
starts:
a) at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
b) at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).
c) at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
d) a the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
71.2.2.0 (5082)
During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure: 844
a) the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied
hot.
b) the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.
c) the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.
d) the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.
71.2.2.0 (5083)
Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with
icing conditions:
a) The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems
b) The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly
c) The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluid
d) A meterologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without ice-protection
systems
71.2.2.0 (5084)
In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your airplane,
you are waiting to take-off by:1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet
wash of the preceding aircraft2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props
wash of the preceding aircraft 3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the
preceding aircraft 4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding
aircraft The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2
b) 3, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 4
71.2.2.0 (5085)
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free
at the latest when :
a) it is rotating (before taking-off).
b) releasing the brakes in order to take-off.
c) it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.
d) leaving the icing zone.
71.2.2.0 (5086)
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the
protection time of the anti-icing fluid:
a) must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid
for take-off.
b) must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
c) need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
d) must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.
71.2.2.0 (5087)
The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:1. the type and intensity of
the showers2. the ambient temperature3. the relative humidity4. the direction and
speed of the wind5. the temperature of the airplane skin6. the type of fluid, its
concentration and temperatureThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 845
b) 1, 3, 5, 6
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 4, 6
71.2.2.0 (5088)
The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the
protection time:
a) during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet wash.
b) when the outside temperature is close to 0 °C.
c) when the temperature of the airplane skin is close to 0 °C.
d) when the airplane is into the wind.
71.2.2.0 (5089)
Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:
a) separate on each side of the runway.
b) stagnate on the runway.
c) separate to the right side.
d) separate to the left side.
71.2.2.0 (5090)
When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-icing procedure, must be
protected again:
a) First, you must de-ice again the surface of the airplane, then apply the new layer
of anti-icing fluid.
b) You can apply directly the new layer of anti-icing fluid without previous de-icing.
c) You must operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing devices before applying the new layer of
anti-icing fluid.
d) you must wait until the protection time of the anti-icing fluid is over before applying the
new layer of anti-icing fluid.
71.2.2.0 (5091)
The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary
considerbly depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions.
For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather
conditions of :
a) frost
b) freezing fog
c) rain on a cold soaked wing
d) steady snow
71.2.2.0 (5092)
For stable clouds:1- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C
and -10°C2- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and
-15°C3- icing becomes rare at t < -18°C4- icing becomes rare at t < -30°C5- the
diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03mm6- the diameter of water
droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2mmWhich of the following combinations
contains all the correct statements?
a) 2001-03-05
b) 2002-04-06
c) 2002-03-05
d) 2001-04-06 846
71.2.3.0 (5093)
The observations and studies conducted on the behavior of birds on the ground,
ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt,
show that birds fly away :
a) about two seconds beforehand
b) about ten seconds beforehand
c) as soon as they hear the engines noise
d) from the beginning of the takeoff roll
71.2.3.0 (5094)
A analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer
from :
a) from 0 to 150 m.
b) from 500 to 1200 m.
c) from 100 to 800 m.
d) from 200 to 500 m.
71.2.3.0 (5095)
90 % of bird strikes occur :
a) under 500 m
b) above 1 000 m
c) between 500 and 1 000 m
d) between 500 and 1 500 m
71.2.3.0 (5096)
Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of
birds ?
a) long grass
b) edible rubbish
c) an area liable to flooding
d) short gang-mown grass
71.2.3.0 (5097)
Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an
aerodrome ?
a) a refuse tip in close proximity
b) mowing and maintaining the grass long
c) a modern sewage tip in close proximity
d) the extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel
71.2.3.0 (5098)
The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is :
a) broadcasting of recorded distress calls
b) firing shellcrackers
c) various visual methods
d) the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc
71.2.3.0 (5099)
As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's means of information and
prevention are:1 - ATIS.2 - NOTAMs.3 - BIRDTAMs.4 - Weather radar.5 - The report
847
by another crew.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a) 1,2,5
b) 1,2,3,4,5
c) 1,3,4
d) 2,5
71.2.3.0 (5100)
You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you notice, after take-off, a flock
of birds which may present a bird strike hazard, you must:
a) immediately inform the appropriate ground station.
b) inform the other aircraft by radio.
c) inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable period of time.
d) draft a bird strike hazard report upon arrival and within at most 48 hours.
71.2.3.0 (5101)
During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be
made immediately. Following this incident the pilot :
a) must file a Bird Strike report
b) must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having given no warning
c) must file a airworthiness report
d) is not obliged to report this incident
71.2.4.0 (5102)
About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:
a) Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust .
b) They prohibit the use of reverse thrust .
c) Such procedures do not exist.
d) They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only.
71.2.4.0 (5103)
Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a
runway, under the following circumstances :1. when cross wind component,
including gust, exceeds 15 knots.2. when the tail wind component, including gust,
exceeds 5 knots.3. when the runway is not clear or dry.The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is :
a) 1,2,3.
b) 1,2.
c) 1,3.
d) 2,3.
71.2.4.0 (5104)
When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power
reduction shall be allowed is :
a) 300 m (1000 ft)
b) 450 m (1500 ft)
c) 150 m (500 ft)
d) 600 m (2000 ft)
71.2.4.0 (5105)
Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the operator
is :
a) for the same airplane type, the same for all airports. 848
b) for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport.
c) different for a same airplane type, according to airports.
d) different according to airports and airplane types.
71.2.4.0 (5106)
Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise
abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS
the :
a) operator
b) state of the operator
c) state in which the aeroplane is operating
d) commander
71.2.4.0 (5107)
Which one of the following factors should prevent a runway being chosen as the
preferential landing runway for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological
condition (VMC) ?
a) It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance
b) Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt
c) It has a tail wind component of any value
d) It has a tail wind component of 3 kts and a cross wind, including gusts, of 12 kt
71.2.4.0 (5108)
According with the ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B"", as
established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to
20 kt, until reaching :
a) 1 000 ft
b) 500 ft
c) 1 500 ft
d) 3 000 ft
71.2.4.0 (5109)
According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the
ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which
results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport :
a) is procedure B
b) is procedure A
c) is either procedure A or B, because there is not difference in noise distribution
d) depends on the wind component
71.2.4.0 (5110)
In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise preferential routes are
established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying
noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In
establishing noise preferential routes :
a) no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated
with a noise abatement procedure.
b) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached
and can maintain throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the
highest obstacle.
c) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns 849
is
limited to 20° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
d) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is
limited to 28° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
71.2.5.0 (5111)
To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
a) useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
b) useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.
c) useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.
d) possible and recommended.
71.2.5.0 (5112)
Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
a) all available extinguishers simultaneously.
b) all available liquids.
c) all available extinguishers in sequence.
d) only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets.
71.2.5.0 (5113)
After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes
are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:
a) only from front or rear side.
b) only from left or right side.
c) from any side.
d) under no circumstances.
71.2.5.0 (5114)
Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is on board:
a) crash axes or crowbars.
b) water and all type of beverage.
c) a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools.
d) a big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets.
71.2.5.0 (5115)
If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to :
a) Put on the mask and goggles.
b) Begin an emergency descent.
c) Determine which system is causing the smoke.
d) Cut off all air conditioning units.
71.2.5.0 (5116)
You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for :1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a
hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 3,4
c) 1,2,3
d) 2,3
850
71.2.5.0 (5117)
You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a
hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 4
71.2.5.0 (5118)
The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is :
a) Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.
b) Water may only be used for minor fires.
c) A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.
d) Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.
71.2.5.0 (5119)
The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is
generally the :
a) ventilation of the cargo compartment
b) pressurization
c) total airconditioning
d) trim air
71.2.5.0 (5120)
Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the :
a) temperature of the brakes.
b) temperature of the hydraulic fluid.
c) pressure of the hydraulic fluid.
d) pressure of the pneumatic tyres.
71.2.5.0 (5121)
A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The
safest extinguishant to use is :
a) dry powder
b) water
c) CO2 (carbon dioxide)
d) foam
71.2.5.0 (5122)
A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a fabric fire3. an
electric fire4. a wood fire5. a hydrocarbon fireThe combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 3, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 4, 5
71.2.5.0 (5123)
A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a
fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the 851
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 3, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 4, 5
71.2.5.0 (5124)
A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:1. a paper fire2. a
hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 3, 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 4, 5
71.2.5.0 (5125)
You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of :1 - solids (fabric,
carpet, ...)2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (sodium, ...)The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 3 and 4
71.2.5.0 (5126)
You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 -
liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2,3,4
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,2,4
71.2.5.0 (5127)
An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle.The fire
shut-off handle will be switched off when:
a) fire is no longer detected.
b) the fire shut-off handle has been pulled.
c) the fire-extinguisher has been triggered.
d) all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been triggered.
71.2.5.0 (5128)
After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:
a) release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore.
b) release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards.
c) apply the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from fore or aft.
d) apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards.
71.2.5.0 (5129)
In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:1. a dry
powder fire extinguisher2. a water spray atomizer3. a water fire-extinguisher4.852 a
CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximumThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 3, 4
d) 1, 4
71.2.5.0 (5130)
In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you :
a) carry out a dry cranking.
b) carry out a damp cranking.
c) pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers.
d) fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.
71.2.5.0 (5131)
To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:1. a water fire-extinguisher2. a powder
or chemical fire-extinguisher3. a halon fire-extinguisher4. a CO2 fire-
extinguisherThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 3, 4
71.2.5.0 (5132)
To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
a) you turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.
b) Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning.
c) Extinguish fire only.
d) Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air-
conditioned cargo hold is forbidden.
71.2.5.0 (5133)
A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight:1- class A fires2- class B fires3-
electrical source fires4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicalsWhich of the following
combinations contains all of the correct statements?
a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
b) 04-Fev
c) 04-Mar
d) 2001-02-03
71.2.5.0 (5134)
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23
- dry-chemical4 - halogenWhich of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?
a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
b) 2002-03-04
c) 1
d) 04-Mar
71.2.5.0 (5135)
853
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23
- dry-chemical4 - halogenWhich of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?
a) 2002-03-04
b) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
c) 2
d) 04-Mar
71.2.5.0 (5136)
H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) electrical source fires
d) special fires: metals, gas, chemical products
71.2.5.0 (5137)
CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight:1 - class A fires2 - class B fires3 - electrical
source fires4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical productWhich of the following
combinations contains all the correct statements:
a) 2001-02-03
b) 2001-02-04
c) 2002-03-04
d) 2001-03-04
71.2.5.0 (5138)
A class A fire is a fire of:
a) solid material, generally of organic nature
b) liquid or liquefiable solid
c) electrical origin
d) metal or gas or chemical (special fires)
71.2.5.0 (5139)
A class B fire is a fire of:
a) liquid or liquefiable solid
b) solid material usually of organic nature
c) electrical source fire
d) special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
71.2.6.0 (5140)
We would know that the automatic pressurization system has malfunctioned if :1.
threre is a change in environnemental sounds.2. the cabin barometer indicates a
sharp rise.3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior
becomes equal.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a) 1,2,3.
b) 1,2.
c) 1,3.
d) 2,3.
71.2.6.0 (5141)
An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What
is the initial action by the operating crew ?
a) to put on oxygen masks 854
b) disconnect the autopilot
c) transmit a MAYDAY message
d) place the seat belts sign to ON
71.2.6.0 (5142)
When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a
small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be
seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate :
a) a rate of climb
b) a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm
c) zero
d) a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure
71.2.6.0 (5143)
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure :
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains constant
d) attains its maximum permitted operating limit
71.2.6.0 (5144)
Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited
to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum
achievable flight altitude is approximately :
a) 24500 ft
b) 22500 ft
c) 27000 ft
d) 29000 ft
71.2.6.0 (5145)
(For this question use annex 071-10645A)Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the
maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will
be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is
approximately :
a) 20750 ft
b) 12000 ft
c) 8600 ft
d) 2900 ft
71.2.6.0 (5146)
Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at
which flying efficiency is not impaired is :
a) 8000 ft
b) 25000 ft
c) 14000 ft
d) 2500 ft
71.2.6.0 (5147)
Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand
system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen
855
when the supply selector is at the ""normal"" position. At what approximate
altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?
a) 32000 ft
b) 25000 ft
c) 14000 ft
d) 8000 ft
71.2.6.0 (5148)
The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised
aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall
be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a
minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is :
a) 13000 ft
b) 14000 ft
c) 15000 ft
d) 25000 ft
71.2.6.0 (5149)
The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an
altitude of 40 000 ft is:
a) 12 seconds.
b) 30 seconds.
c) 1 minute.
d) 5 minutes.
71.2.6.0 (5150)
During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action
will be :
a) to put on the oxygen mask
b) to set the transponder to 7700
c) to warn the ATC
d) to comfort your passengers
71.2.6.0 (5151)
A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements:1. mist in the
cabin2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft3. expansion of body gases4. blast
of air released violently from the lungsThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 4
71.2.6.0 (5152)
A slow decompression may be caused by:1. a slight airtightness defect2. a bad
functioning of the pressurization3. the loss of a window4. the loss of a doorThe
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3
856
71.2.7.0 (5153)
In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:1. set the maximum
take-off thrust2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick
shaker3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)4. keep the airplane's current
configuration5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratioThe combination
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 3, 5
c) 2, 3
d) 3, 5
71.2.7.0 (5154)
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing
head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1. flies above the glide
path2. flies below the glide path3. has an increasing true airspeed4. has a
decreasing true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is :
a) 2,4
b) 2,3
c) 1,3
d) 1,4
71.2.7.0 (5155)
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an
increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the
glide path2- flies below the gilde path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a
a) 2,4.
b) 2,3.
c) 1,3.
d) 1,4.
71.2.7.0 (5156)
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an
increasing head wind.In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above
the glide path2- flies below theglide path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a
a) 1,3.
b) 1,4.
c) 2,3.
d) 2,4.
71.2.7.0 (5157)
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing
tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the glide
path2- flies below the glide path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a
decreasing true airspeedthe combination of correct statements is :
a) 1,3.
b) 1,4.
c) 2,3.
d) 2,4.
857
71.2.7.0 (5158)
After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind.
In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the climb-out path2-
flies below the climb-out path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing
true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is :
a) 2,4.
b) 2,3.
c) 1,3.
d) 1,4.
71.2.7.0 (5159)
In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind
which forces you to go around. You1- maintain the same aircraft configuration
(gear and flaps)2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)3- gradually increase the
attitude up to triggering of stick shaker4- avoid excessive attitude changeThe
combination of correct statements is :
a) 1,3
b) 1,4
c) 2,3
d) 2,4
71.2.7.0 (5160)
When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends :
a) to descend
b) to climb
c) not to change its trajectory
d) to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength
71.2.7.0 (5161)
One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :
a) can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes
b) occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane
c) occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane
d) can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane
71.2.7.0 (5162)
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when
penetrating a windshear ?
a) Indicated airspeed.
b) Pitch angle.
c) Vertical speed.
d) Groundspeed.
71.2.7.0 (5163)
While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft
notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in
the preselected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported
the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must :
a) maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation,
monitor the speed evolution.
b) reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path. 858
c) take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above.
d) reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Vs and try a precision landing.
71.2.7.0 (5164)
While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of
a ""microburst"". You will expect to encounter:
a) windshears (vertical and horizontal).
b) wake turbulence .
c) supercooled water.
d) convection motion of air mass.
71.2.7.0 (5165)
If you encounter a ""microburst"" just after taking-off, at the beginning you will
have:1 - a head wind2 - a strong rear wind3 - better climb performances4 - a
diminution of climb gradient5 - an important thrust dropThe combination
a) 1,3
b) 2,4
c) 1,4
d) 4,5
71.2.7.0 (5166)
Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space,
including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the
amount of control action that is required is :
a) substantial
b) small
c) medium
d) null
71.2.7.0 (5167)
In the ""worst case"" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having
increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be
necessary to :
a) increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below
this angle
b) climb away at Vat + 20 kt
c) reduce speed to V2 and hold
d) slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb
71.2.7.0 (5168)
An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards
the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a
windshear of :
a) 80 kt.
b) 40 kt.
c) 60 kt.
d) 20 kt.
71.2.7.0 (5169)
859
Wind shear is:
a) a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short
distance
b) a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
c) a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
d) a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance
71.2.8.0 (5170)
In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:
a) The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
b) The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
c) The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
d) The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence.
71.2.8.0 (5171)
In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at :
a) low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric
pressure increases by a few hectopascals.
b) low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure
decreases by a few hectopascals.
c) high altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure
increases by a few hectopascals.
d) low altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure
decreases by a few hectopascals.
71.2.8.0 (5172)
The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is :
a) Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration
b) Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
c) Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration
d) Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
71.2.8.0 (5173)
To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should
manoeuver :
a) Above and upwind from the larger aircraft
b) Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
c) Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
d) Below and upwind from the larger aircraft
71.2.8.0 (5174)
The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is :1. slow2. heavy3. in a
clean configuration4. flying with a high thrustThe combination of correct
statement is:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
71.2.8.0 (5175)
The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :
a) high weight and low speed 860
b) high weight and high speed
c) low weight and low speed
d) low weight and high speed
71.2.8.0 (5176)
The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:1. An
aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices).2. The engines action (propellers rotation
or engine gas exhausts).3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing
gear, of the flaps, etc.).The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1.
b) 3.
c) 2 and 3.
d) 1, 2 and 3.
71.2.8.0 (5177)
Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the
following is established :
a) lift
b) drag
c) spin up
d) lift destruction
71.2.8.0 (5178)
Wake turbulence risk is highest :
a) when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel
runway with a light crosswind.
b) if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy
crosswind.
c) following a preceding aircraft at high speed.
d) when a preceeding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.
71.2.8.0 (5179)
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy
aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?
a) 7.4 km (4 NM)
b) 9.3 km (5 NM)
c) 11.1 km (6 NM)
d) 3.7 km (2 NM)
71.2.8.0 (5180)
When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the right
side, you adopt a path, whenever possible :
a) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the right of and above its
path.
b) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the left of and under its path.
c) identical to the one of the preceding airplane.
d) different from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.
71.2.8.0 (5181)
861
When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the left side,
you adopt a path, whenever possible :
a) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its
path.
b) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and under its path.
c) identical to the one of the preceding airplane.
d) distinct form the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.
71.2.8.0 (5182)
The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body
aircraft during take-off is about:
a) 3 minutes.
b) 30 seconds.
c) 1 minute.
d) 10 minutes.
71.2.8.0 (5183)
The wake turbulence:
a) starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplane's wheels touch the
ground.
b) starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to
a stop at landing.
c) starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it
crosses this height before landing.
d) starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when rectracting the drag devices.
71.2.8.0 (5184)
An airplane creates a wake turbulence when :
a) generating lift.
b) flying at high speed.
c) using a high engine R.P.M.
d) flying with its gear and flaps extended.
71.2.8.0 (5185)
The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip :
a) from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.
b) clockwise.
c) counterclockwise.
d) from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.
71.2.8.0 (5186)
When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-
off :
a) beyond the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.
b) in front of the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.
c) at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down and on the wind side of the
runway .
d) at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched the ground and on the underwind
side of the runway .
71.2.8.0 (5187)
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar 862
separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000
kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the
approach to the same runway ?
a) 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
b) 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes
c) 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes
d) 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes
71.2.8.0 (5188)
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation time if a light aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium
aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to
landing ?
a) 3 minutes
b) 4 minutes
c) 5 minutess
d) 2 minutes
71.2.8.0 (5189)
In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be
entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than
136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg :
a) M
b) H
c) L
d) S
71.2.8.0 (5190)
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation
time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft
from an intermediate part of the same runway ?
a) 3 minutes
b) 4 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 2 minutes
71.2.8.0 (5191)
Wake turbulence should be taken into account when :
a) a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a
light crosswind condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used.
b) when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a strong crosswind
on a long runway.
c) during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft.
d) a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling manoeuvres over the
runway.
71.2.8.0 (5192)
When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence
non-radar minimum time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO),
shall be :
a) 3 MIN 863
b) 1 MIN
c) 2 MIN
d) 4 MIN
71.2.8.0 (5193)
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima
of 3 minutes shall be applied :
a) to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part
of parallel runway separated by less 760 m
b) to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a
runway with a desplaced landing threshold
c) to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a
runway with a desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross
d) Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT
aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off
71.2.8.0 (5194)
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2
minutes shall be applied to :
a) MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
b) MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel
separated by less than 760 m
c) LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same
runway
d) LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
71.2.8.0 (5195)
In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are
using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in
approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar
separation minima of :
a) 5 NM
b) 4 NM
c) 3 NM
d) 2 NM
71.2.8.0 (5196)
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima
of 3 minutes shall be applied to :
a) LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
b) LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by
less than 760 m. (using whole runway)
c) LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same
runway
d) MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
71.2.8.0 (5197)
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of
9,3 Km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a :
a) LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less
than 300 m (1 000.ft)
864
b) LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m
(1 000 ft)
c) HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m
(1 000 ft)
d) MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300
n (1 000 ft)
71.2.8.0 (5198)
DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be
based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the
maximum certificated take-off mass.Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of :
a) 136 000 Kg or more
b) 135 000 Kg or more
c) less than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kg
d) 146 000 Kg or more
71.2.9.0 (5199)
What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful
interference (hijacked) is :
a) 7500
b) 7600
c) 7700
d) 7800
71.2.9.0 (5200)
In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized
aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
a) you dexcend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or
the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a
landing approach configuration.
b) you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.
c) you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.
d) you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the
airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach.
71.2.9.0 (5201)
In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an
aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of
unlawful interference must immediately notify the :
a) State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO
b) State of Registry of the aircraft and the J.A.A.
c) State of the operator, the J.A.A. and ICAO
d) State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only
71.2.9.0 (5202)
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the
commander should submit a report of the act to :
a) both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
b) the local authority only
c) the Autority of the State of the operator only
865
d) the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the
unlawful interference
71.2.9.0 (5203)
Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers
and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference until
their journey can be continued ? The :
a) contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs
b) J.A.A.
c) Commander of the aircraft
d) aeroplane's operator
71.2.9.0 (5204)
What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which
is being subjected to unlawful interference :
a) code 7500
b) code 7600
c) code 7700
d) code 2000
71.2.9.0 (5205)
The flight deck door should be capable of being :
a) locked from within the compartment
b) directly locked from outside the compartment
c) remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment
d) remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment
71.2.9.0 (5206)
According to the JAR OPS, when a commercial transport passenger airplane is
equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:
a) a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.
b) a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit.
c) distinctive red or yellow colored markings indicating the access area (in case of a blocked
door).
d) a sealing system allowing the maintenance for as long as possible of the pressure in the
cockpit in case of a depressurization in the compartment area.
71.2.9.0 (5207)
In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is :
a) 7500
b) 7600
c) 7700
d) 2000
71.2.10.0 (5208)
The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts fastened,
a) head placed on a knee cushion, arms around the thigh.
b) head down as far as possible, grasp the passenger in front of you.
c) head down as far as possible, grasp the legs with your arms.
d) cross the arm in front of the face.
866
71.2.10.0 (5209)
An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to :
a) increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the
boundary layer
b) reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landing
c) maintain the normal approach speed up to landing
d) carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to
the rain
71.2.10.0 (5210)
Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you
will:1 - remain on the runway,2 - clear the runway using the first available
taxiway,3 - keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical
power supply on,4 - turn off all systems.The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
a) 1,4.
b) 1,3.
c) 2,3.
d) 2,4.
71.2.10.0 (5211)
The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in
case of an emergency landing are: 1. legs together and feet flat on the floor,2.
head resting against the back of the front seat,3. forearms on the armrests,4. seat
belt very tightly fastened,5. head resting on the forearms.The combination
a) 1, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 4, 5
71.2.10.0 (5212)
Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize:
a) a fast depressurization.
b) a slow depressurization.
c) an electrical fire.
d) a plastic fire.
71.2.10.0 (5213)
In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will :1. evacuate women and children
first.2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts.3. prevent passenger
movements which may impede the airplane's flotation ability.4. ensure the
complete evacuation of the airplane.The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
a) 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 4
71.2.10.0 (5214)
For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be867
shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the
required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the
ground in :
a) 90 seconds
b) 132 seconds
c) 120 seconds
d) 60 seconds
71.2.10.0 (5215)
The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
a) an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no
injuries on board or on the surface
b) a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants
c) a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft
and its occupants
d) an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on
board
71.2.11.0 (5216)
A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in
order to reduce the aircraft weight in an emergency :
a) unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements : 2.7% in approach
configuration with 1 engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all
engines operative
b) until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing and landing gear constraints
at landing touchdown
c) in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in less than 15 minutes after
activation of the jettisoning system
d) in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the effective runway length
71.2.11.0 (5217)
If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
a) in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.
b) in a holding stack, after control clearance.
c) under flight level 50 (FL50).
d) during final phase of approach.
71.2.11.0 (5218)
In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning
sufficient fuel to meet the precise climb and discontinued approach requirements :
a) 15 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 90 minutes
71.2.11.0 (5219)
From the following list :1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from
fire hazard2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane3. Fuel fumes do
not enter any part of the aeroplane4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely
affect the controllability of the aeroplane.Which of the above are requirements
that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests :
868
a) 1,2,3 and 4
b) 1,3 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 3
71.2.12.0 (5220)
Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or
materials in question are defined as such by:
a) The ICAO document entitled ""Technical Instructions for the safe transport of
dangerous goods by air"".
b) The UNO document entitled ""Dangerous Goods Regulations"".
c) The directives of the Community Union.
d) The IATA document entitled ""Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods
by air"".
71.2.12.0 (5221)
Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not
prohibited?
a) The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.
b) The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items.
c) The operator.
d) It is not specified.
71.2.12.0 (5222)
A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in :
a) the technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.
b) Annex 18 to the Chicago convention.
c) Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention.
d) the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.
71.2.12.0 (5223)
The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by :
a) the shipper.
b) the operator.
c) the captain.
d) the handling agent.
71.2.12.0 (5224)
In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry hazardous materials on board a
public transport airplane, they must be accompanied with a :
a) transport document for hazardous materials.
b) representative of the company owning the materials.
c) specialized handling employee.
d) system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal increase in temperature.
71.2.12.0 (5225)
The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of
hazardous materials are specified in the :
b) flight manual.
869
c) AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).
d) air carrier certificate.
71.2.12.0 (5226)
(For this question use annex 071-9199A)Considering the two holds of an aircraft
:Each one consists of 4 compartments to accommodate freight pallets or luggage
containers.You are asked to load :2 pallets of live animals marked ""AVI""2
luggage containers marked ""BAG""1 mortal remains marked ""HUM""1 pallet of
food product marked ""EAT""1 pallet of radioactive materials marked ""RRY""1
pallet of toxic materials marked ""RHF""The locations still vacant shall be marked
""XXX""According to the table of compatibility of special freight and hazardous
materials given in the appendix, the most operational distribution in the holds shall
be :
a) Hold 1 : BAG - RHF - HUM - RRYHold 2 : AVI - AVI - BAG - EAT
b) Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - RRY - RHFHold 2 : BAG - AVI - AVI - HUM
c) Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - AVI - AVIHold 2 : BAG - HUM - RRY - RHF
d) Hold 1 : BAG - BAG - RRY - HUMHold 2 : AVI - AVI - XXX - EAT (RHF disembarked)
71.2.12.0 (5227)
ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document
dealing with :
a) the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials
b) the air transport of live animals
c) the noise pollution of aircraft
d) the technical operational use of aircraft
71.2.12.0 (5228)
In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the
regulatory arrangements is the responsibility of the :
a) sender.
b) captain.
c) station manager.
d) aerodrome manager.
71.2.12.0 (5229)
The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are
listed in the :
a) ICAO document named ""Technical safety instructions for the air transportation
of dangerous products""
b) aircraft's flight manual.
c) IATA document ""Dangerous products transportation"".
d) JAR-OPS documentation.
71.2.12.0 (5230)
A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:1. on himself/herself2. in his/her
hand luggage3. in his/her checked luggageThe combination regrouping all the
a) 1
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 3 870
71.2.12.0 (5231)
In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should
be set for the markings related to dangerous goods :
a) English
b) French
c) Spanish
d) English, French or Spanish
71.2.12.0 (5232)
From the following list :1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid
kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous
Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with relevant JAR's
for operating reasons :
a) 1,2 and 3 only
b) 1,2 and 5 only
c) 3,4 and 5 only
d) 2,3 and 4 only
71.2.12.0 (5233)
The authorization for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:
a) air carrier certificate.
b) registration certificate.
c) airworthiness certificate.
d) insurance certificate.
71.2.12.0 (5234)
(For this question use appendix )If a packet is marked with the label shown in the
appendix it is :
a) a toxic material or gas
b) a corpse
c) an infectious material
d) an explosive material
71.2.12.0 (5235)
Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
a) the airline complies with the Technical Instructions
b) national aviation administration permission has been granted
c) government permission has been granted
d) no passenger is carried on the same flight
71.2.12.0 (5236)
(For this question use appendix )For the two labels represented in the appendix,
the principal and secondary risks are respectively:
a) toxic material, corrosive
b) corrosive material, toxic
c) corrosive material, infectious
d) infectious material, corrosive
71.2.13.0 (5237)
The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the :
871
a) depth of the standing water on the runway.
b) aircraft's weight.
c) strength of the headwind.
d) amount of the lift off speed.
71.2.13.0 (5238)
If airworthiness documents do not shown any additionnal correction factor for
landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be
increased by:
a) 15%.
b) 20%.
c) 10%.
d) 5%.
71.2.13.0 (5239)
For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will:
a) increases the hydroplaning speed.
b) decreases the hydroplaning speed.
c) maintains the hydroplaning speed.
d) maintains or increases the hydroplaning speed.
71.2.13.0 (5240)
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of
water and:
a) is very smooth and dirty.
b) is very smooth and clean.
c) is rough textured.
d) the tyre treads are not in a good state.
71.2.13.0 (5241)
The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the
appearance of:
a) viscous hydroplaning.
b) dynamic hydroplaning.
c) rubber reversion hydroplaning.
d) rubber steaming hydroplaning.
71.2.13.0 (5242)
A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:
a) contaminated.
b) wet.
c) flooded.
d) damp.
71.2.13.0 (5243)
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:1. it is covered with a quantity
of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of
water.2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does
not give it a shiny appearance.3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to
make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water.4. it bears
stagnant sheets of water.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 3 872
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 4
71.2.13.0 (5244)
In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain :1. you increase your
approach speed,2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels
with the runway and immediately land your nose gear,3. you decrease your
approach speed,4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices,5. you land as
smoothly as possible,6. you brake energically.The combination regrouping all the
correct statements is :
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 3, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 4, 5, 6
71.2.13.0 (5245)
The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a :
a) combination of the terms: poor, medium, good.
b) percentage varying from 10 % to 100 %.
c) zero followed by two decimals.
d) letter falling between A and E.
71.2.13.0 (5246)
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre
grooves.2- speed is greater than 123 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the
depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 95 kt.The combination
a) 1 and 2.
b) 1 and 4.
c) 3 and 4.
d) 2 and 3.
71.2.13.0 (5247)
a) 1 and 2.
b) 1 and 4.
c) 2 and 3.
d) 3 and 4.
71.2.13.0 (5248)
regrouping all the correct statements i : 873
a) 1 and 2.
b) 1 and 4.
c) 2 and 3.
d) 3 and 4.
71.2.13.0 (5249)
a) 1 and 2.
b) 1 and 4.
c) 2 and 3.
d) 3 and 4.
71.2.13.0 (5250)
hydroplaning as soon as :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre
a) 1 and 2.
b) 1 and 4.
c) 2 and 3.
d) 3 and 4.
71.2.13.0 (5251)
The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :
a) 24 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 3 hours
71.2.13.0 (5252)
Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's mainwheel tyre
pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning
may occur in the event of applying brakes is :
a) 129 kt
b) 114 kt
c) 100 kt
d) 80 kt
71.2.13.0 (5253)
Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is
less than the published length, how is this reported :
a) in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM
b) it is not reported
c) by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the lenght in metres
d) as a percentage of the total lenght of the runway available as the final item of a SNOWTAM
874
71.2.13.0 (5254)
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is :
a) poor
b) unreliable
c) medium
d) good
71.2.13.0 (5255)
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
a) its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny
appearance.
b) surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.
c) it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
d) it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.
71.2.13.0 (5256)
Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing
distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate
that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing
distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
a) 15%
b) 18%
c) 20%
d) 17,60%
71.2.13.0 (5257)
In the JAR OPS, a runway is refered to as contaminated when more than 25 % of
the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements:1. a
water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.2. a water
film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.3. compacted
snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).4. ice, including wet
ice.5. moist grass.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 3, 4, 5
71.2.13.0 (5258)
The tire pressure of an aircraft main landing gear is 10,8 bars. The speed at which
the hydroplaning phenomenon will appear is approximately:
a) 112 kt
b) 56 kt
c) 87 kt
d) 145 kt
81.1.1.1 (5259)
In a stationary subsonic streamline flow pattern, if the streamlines converge, in
this part of the pattern, the static pressure (I) will ...and the velocity (II) will ... :
a) (I) decrease, (II) increase.
b) (I) increase, (II) increase.
875
c) (I) increase, (II) decrease.
d) (I) increase, (II) decrease.
81.1.1.1 (5260)
The units of the density of the air (I) and the force (II) are:
a) (I) kg / m3, (II) N.
b) (I) kg / m², (II) kg.
c) (I) N / m3, (II) N.
d) (I) N / kg, (II) kg.
81.1.1.1 (5261)
The units of wing loading (I) W / S and (II) dynamic pressure q are:
a) (I) N / m², (II) N / m².
b) (I) N / m3, (II) kg / m².
c) (I) kg / m, (II) N / m².
d) (I) N / m, (II) kg.
81.1.1.1 (5262)
Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F),
acceleration (a) and mass (m)?
a) F=m. a
b) m=F.a
c) a=F. m
d) F=m / a
81.1.1.1 (5263)
The static pressure is acting:
a) in all directions.
b) only in direction of the flow.
c) only perpendicular to the direction of the flow.
d) only in the direction of the total pressure.
81.1.1.1 (5264)
Consider a certain stream line tube. The velocity of the stream in the tube is V. An
increase of temperature of the stream at constant value of V will:
a) decrease the mass flow.
b) increase the mass flow.
c) not affect the mass flow.
d) increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the direction of the flow.
81.1.1.1 (5265)
Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's theorem is correct?
a) The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases.
b) The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases.
c) The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero.
d) The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point.
81.1.1.1 (5266)
In a two-dimensional flow pattern, where the streamlines converge the static
pressure will :
876
a) decrease.
b) increase.
c) not change.
d) increase initially, then decrease.
81.1.1.1 (5267)
Bernoulli's equation can be written as:(pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and
q=dynamic pressure)
a) pt = ps + q
b) pt = ps - q
c) pt = q - ps
d) pt = ps / q
81.1.1.1 (5268)
The unit of density is:
a) kg/m³
b) psi
c) kg/cm²
d) Bar
81.1.1.1 (5269)
The unit of measurement of pressure is:
a) psi
b) kg/m³
c) lb/gal
d) kg/dm²
81.1.1.1 (5270)
The total pressure is:
a) static pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
b) static pressure minus the dynamic pressure.
c) ½ rho V²
d) can be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream.
81.1.1.1 (5271)
The (subsonic) static pressure:
a) decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.
b) is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
c) is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero.
d) increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.
81.1.1.1 (5272)
The true airspeed (TAS) is:
a) lower than the indicated airspeed (IAS) at ISA conditions and altitudes below
sea level.
b) higher than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane.
c) equal to the IAS, multiplied by the air density at sea level.
d) lower than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane.
877
81.1.1.1 (5273)
The difference between IAS and TAS will:
a) decrease at decreasing altitude.
b) increase at decreasing temperature.
c) increase at increasing air density.
d) decrease at increasing speed.
81.1.1.1 (5274)
What is the unit of measurement for power ?
a) Nm/s
b) kgm/s²
c) Pa/m²
d) N/m
81.1.1.1 (5275)
The following unit of measurement: kgm/s² is expressed in the SI-system as :
a) Newton
b) Pascal
c) Joule
d) Watt
81.1.1.1 (5276)
The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is increasing, the speed of the
subsonic and incompressible flow inside is
a) decreasing.
b) not changing.
c) increasing.
d) sonic.
81.1.1.1 (5277)
If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen to the air density (rho) if
the cross sectional area of a tube changes ? (low speed, subsonic and
incompressible flow)
a) rho1 = rho2
b) rho1 < rho2
c) rho1 > rho2
d) The density depends on the change of the tube area.
81.1.1.1 (5278)
Bernoulli's equation can be written as :(pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q
= dynamic pressure)
a) pt - q = ps
b) pt = ps - q
c) pt + ps = q
d) pt = q - ps
81.1.1.1 (5279)
Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a sub-sonic airflow are
correct?1. the dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are
equal.2. the total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.
a) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct. 878
b) 1 and 2 are correct.
c) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
d) 1 and 2 are incorrect.
81.1.1.3 (5280)
The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is:
a) angle of attack.
b) glide path angle.
c) climb path angle.
d) same as the angle between chord line and fuselage axis.
81.1.1.3 (5281)
Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitch moment when Cl=0 is:
a) negative (pitch-down).
b) equal to zero.
c) infinite
d) positive (pitch-up).
81.1.1.3 (5282)
On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitch moment for which Cl=0 is:
a) zero
b) equal to the moment coefficient for stabilized angle of attack.
c) positive (pitch-up)
d) negative (pitch-down)
81.1.1.3 (5283)
Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the:
a) relative wind/airflow.
b) chord line.
c) horizon.
d) longitudinal axis.
81.1.1.3 (5284)
The correct drag formula is:
a) D= CD 1/2 RHO V² S
b) D= CD 2 RHO V² S
c) D= CD 1/2 RHO V S
d) D= CD 1/2 1/RHO V² S
81.1.1.3 (5285)
Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to the
a) relative wind/airflow.
b) chord line.
c) longitudinal axis.
d) horizon.
81.1.1.4 (5286)
The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of an aerofoil is the angle
between the:
a) chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow. 879
b) bottom surface and the horizontal
c) bottom surface and the relative airflow.
d) bottom surface and the chord line.
81.1.1.4 (5287)
The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is the angle between :
a) the chord line of the aerofoil and the free stream direction.
b) the chord line of the aerofoil and the fuselage centreline.
c) the fuselage core line and the free stream direction.
d) the chord line and the camber line of the aerofoil.
81.1.1.4 (5288)
The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is the:
a) angle of incidence.
b) glide path angle.
c) angle of attack.
d) climb path angle.
81.1.1.4 (5289)
The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as:
a) the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative
wind/airflow.
b) the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon.
c) the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the wing
d) the angle for maximum lift/drag ratio
81.1.1.4 (5290)
Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of attack?
a) for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
b) for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl is not equal to 0
c) for an asymmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
d) for an asymmetric aerofoil with positive camber, if angle of attack is greater than 0, Cl = 0
81.1.1.4 (5291)
The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:
a) % chord.
b) camber.
c) meters.
d) degrees cross section tail angle.
81.1.1.4 (5292)
""A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway between the upper and
lower surface of a aerofoil"". This definition is applicable for :
a) the camber line
b) the chord line
c) the mean aerodynamic chord line
d) the upper camber line
81.1.1.4 (5293)
The angle of attack of a wing profile is defined as the angle between :
880
a) The undisturbed airflow and the chordline.
b) The local airflow and the mean camberline.
c) The local airflow and the chordline.
d) The undisturbed airflow and the mean camberline.
81.1.1.5 (5294)
The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of any planform is
a) the chord of a rectangular wing with same moment and lift
b) the chord of a large rectangular wing
c) the average chord of the actual aeroplane
d) the wing area divided by the wing span
81.1.1.5 (5295)
The aspect ratio of the wing:
a) is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric chord.
b) is the ratio between the wing span and the root chord.
c) is the ratio between the tip chord and the wing span.
d) is the ratio between chord and root chord.
81.1.1.5 (5296)
Dihedral of the wing is:
a) the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the lateral axis.
b) the angle between the leading edge of the wing and the lateral axis.
c) the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the vertical axis.
d) the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the horizon.
81.1.2.0 (5297)
(For this question use annex 081-6253A)How are the speeds (shown in the figure)
at point 1 and point 2 related to the relative wind/airflow V?
a) V1 = 0 and V2 > V
b) V1 < V2 and V2 < V
c) V1 = 0 and V2 = V
d) V1 > V2 and V2 < V
81.1.2.0 (5298)
Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which
location will the highest flow velocities occur ?
a) Upper side
b) Lower side
c) In front of the stagnation point
d) In the stagnation point
81.1.2.2 (5299)
With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will move (I) ...and the point
of lowest pressure will move (II) ...Respectively (I) and (II) are:
a) (I) down, (II) forward.
b) (I) up, (II) aft.
c) (I) down, (II) aft.
d) (I) up, (II) forward.
881
81.1.2.2 (5300)
Which statement is correct?
a) As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wing's profile
moves downwards.
b) The centre of pressure is the point on the wing's leading edge where the airflow splits up.
c) The stagnation point is another name for centre of pressure.
d) The stagnation point is always situated on the chordline, the centre of pressure is not.
81.1.2.4 (5301)
The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is:
a) the centre of pressure.
b) the c.g. location.
c) the point of maximum thickness of the wing.
d) the suction point of the wing.
81.1.2.4 (5302)
The location of the centre of pressure of a positive cambered wing at increasing
angle of attack will:
a) shift forward.
b) not shift.
c) shift aft.
d) shift in spanwise direction.
81.1.2.5 (5303)
Lift is generated when:
a) a certain mass of air is accelerated downwards.
b) the shape of the aerofoil is slightly cambered.
c) an aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream.
d) a certain mass of air is retarded.
81.1.2.5 (5304)
The lift force, acting on an aerofoil :
a) is mainly caused by suction on the upperside of the aerofoil.
b) increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40 degrees.
c) is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil.
d) is maximum at an angle of attack of 2 degrees.
81.1.2.7 (5305)
On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic airflow, at low angle of
attack, when the angle of attack is increased, the centre of pressure will (assume a
conventional transport aeroplane) :
a) move forward.
b) move aft.
c) remain matching the airfoil aerodynamic centre.
d) remain unaffected.
81.1.3.1 (5306)
The Cl - alpha curve of a positive cambered aerofoil intersects with the vertical axis
of the Cl - alpha graph:
a) above the origin.
b) in the origin. 882
c) below the origin.
d) nowhere.
81.1.3.1 (5307)
The lift formula is:
a) L= CL 1/2 RHO V² S
b) L= W
c) L= CL 2 RHO V² S
d) L= n W
81.1.3.1 (5308)
The terms ""q"" and ""S"" in the lift formula are:
a) dynamic pressure and the area of the wing
b) square root of surface and wing loading
c) static pressure and wing surface area
d) static pressure and dynamic pressure
81.1.3.1 (5309)
The critical angle of attack:
a) remains unchanged regardless of gross weight
b) increases if the CG is moved forward
c) decreases if the CG is moved aft
d) changes with an increase in gross weight
81.1.3.1 (5310)
An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of
attack at two different altitudes. (all other factors of importance being constant,
assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects)
a) the TAS at the higher altitude is higher
b) the TAS at both altitudes is the same
c) the TAS at the higher altitude cannot be determined
d) the TAS at the higher altitude is lower
81.1.3.1 (5311)
(For this question use annex 081-6261A)Which point shown in the figure
corresponds with CL for minimum horizontal flight speed?
a) Point d
b) Point a
c) Point b
d) Point c
81.1.3.2 (5312)
The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain airstream depends amongst
others on:
a) The airstream velocity.
b) The specific mass of the body.
c) The weight of the body.
d) The c.g. location of the body.
883
81.1.3.2 (5313)
A body is placed in a certain airstream. The airstream velocity increases by a factor
4. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor :
a) 16 .
b) 4 .
c) 8 .
d) 12 .
81.1.3.2 (5314)
A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of the airstream decreases to
half of the original value. The aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor :
a) 2 .
b) 4 .
c) 8 .
d) 1.4 .
81.1.3.2 (5315)
Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack:
a) CL is much greater than CD
b) CL has approximately the same value as CD
c) CL is lower than CD
d) CL is much lower than CD
81.1.3.2 (5316)
The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation between :
a) CL and CD
b) TAS and stall speed
c) Angle of attack and CL
d) CD and angle of attack
81.1.3.2 (5317)
The lift- and drag forces, acting on a wing cross section:
a) depend on the pressure distribution about the wing cross section.
b) are normal to each other at just one angle of attack.
c) are proportional to each other, independent of angle of attack.
d) vary linearly with the angle of attack.
81.1.3.2 (5318)
The aerofoil polar is:
a) a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient.
b) a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the angle of attack.
c) the relation between the horizontal and the vertical speed.
d) a graph, in which the thickness of the wing aerofoil is given as a function of the chord.
81.1.3.2 (5319)
The frontal area of a body, placed in a certain airstream is increased by a factor 3.
The shape will not alter. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor :
a) 3 .
b) 9 .
c) 6 .
d) 1.5 . 884
81.1.3.2 (5320)
Increasing dynamic (kinetic) pressure will have the following effect on the drag of
an aeroplane (all other factors of importance remaining constant) :
a) The drag increases.
b) This has no effect.
c) The drag decreases.
d) The drag is only affected by the ground speed.
81.1.3.2 (5321)
Increasing air pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane
(angle of attack, OAT and TAS are constant):
a) The drag increases.
b) This has no effect.
c) The drag decreases.
d) The drag is only affected by the ground speed.
81.1.3.2 (5322)
Which statement is correct? The lift to drag ratio provides directly the
a) glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind.
b) glide distance from a given altitude.
c) distance for horizontal flight.
d) distance for climb up to a certain altitude.
81.1.4.1 (5323)
The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air pressure on top
and beneath the wing and its direction of movement goes from :
a) beneath to the top of the wing via the wing tip
b) the top to beneath the wing via the wing's trailing edge
c) beneath to the top of the wing via the trailing edge
d) the top to beneath the wing via the leading edge
81.1.4.1 (5324)
Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct?
a) The flow direction at the upper side of the wing has a component in wing root
direction, the flow at the underside of the wing in wing tip direction.
b) Tip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators.
c) The flow direction at the upper and under side of the wing, both deviate in wing tip
direction.
d) The wing tip vortices and the induced drag decrease at increasing angle of attack.
81.1.4.1 (5325)
Which of the following wing planforms gives the highest local profile lift coefficient
at the wingroot ?
a) Rectangular.
b) Elliptical.
c) Tapered.
d) Positive angle of sweep.
81.1.4.2 (5326)
If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of
885
tip vortices will eventually : (flap span less than wing span)
a) decrease.
b) increase.
c) remain the same.
d) increase or decrease, depending on the initial angle of attack.
81.1.4.2 (5327)
The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at
constant weight varies linearly with:
a) 1/V²
b) V²
c) V
d) 1/V
81.1.4.2 (5328)
Induced drag at constant IAS is affected by:
a) aeroplane weight.
b) aeroplane wing location.
c) angle between wing chord and fuselage centre line.
d) engine thrust.
81.1.4.2 (5329)
Which of the following will reduce induced drag?
a) Elliptical lift distribution.
b) Low aspect ratio.
c) Flying at high angles of attack.
d) Extending the flaps.
81.1.4.2 (5330)
Induced drag is created by the:
a) spanwise flow pattern resulting in the tip vortices.
b) interference of the air stream between wing and fuselage.
c) separation of the boundary layer over the wing.
d) propeller wash blowing across the wing.
81.1.4.2 (5331)
What is the effect of high aspect ratio of an aeroplane's wing on induced drag?
a) It is reduced because the effect of wing-tip vortices is reduced.
b) It is increased because high aspect ratio has greater frontal area.
c) It is unaffected because there is no relation between aspect ratio and induced drag.
d) It is increased because high aspect ratio produces greater downwash.
81.1.4.2 (5332)
Which of the following wing planforms produces the lowest induced drag? (all
other relevant factors constant)
a) Elliptical.
b) Rectangular.
c) Tapered.
d) Circular.
886
81.1.4.2 (5333)
Induced drag may be reduced by:
a) an increase in aspect ratio
b) an increase in the taper ratio of the wing
c) a decrease of the aspect ratio
d) the use of a wing tip with a much thinner aerofoil
81.1.4.2 (5334)
The induced drag:
a) increases as the lift coefficient increases.
b) increases as the aspect ratio increases.
c) has no relation to the lift coefficient.
d) increases as the magnitude of the tip vortices decreases.
81.1.4.2 (5335)
The relationship between induced drag and the aspect ratio is:
a) a decrease in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag
b) there is no relationship
c) induced drag = 1.3 aspect ratio value
d) an increase in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag
81.1.4.2 (5336)
A high aspect ratio wing produces:
a) a decrease in induced drag
b) less sensitivity to gust effects
c) a decrease in stall speed
d) an increase in induced drag
81.1.4.2 (5337)
Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) is the ratio of :
a) CL² and AR (aspect ratio)
b) CL and CD
c) CL and b (wing span)
d) CL²and S (wing surface)
81.1.4.2 (5338)
High Aspect Ratio, as compared with low Aspect Ratio, has the effect of :
a) Decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack
b) Increasing lift and critical angle of attack
c) Increasing lift and drag
d) Increasing induced drag and decreasing critical angle of attack
81.1.4.2 (5339)
Winglets
a) decrease the induced drag.
b) decrease the static lateral stability.
c) increase the manoeuvrability.
d) create an elliptical lift distribution.
887
81.1.4.2 (5340)
Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect on the induced drag ?
a) Wing tip
b) Engine cowling
c) Wing root junction
d) Landing gear
81.1.4.2 (5341)
The induced angle of attack is the result of:
a) downwash due to tip vortices.
b) a large local angle of attack in a two dimensional flow.
c) downwash due to flow separation.
d) change in direction of flow due to the effective angle of attack.
81.1.4.2 (5342)
The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional with:
a) CL²
b) CL
c) square root (CL)
d) CLmax
81.1.5.0 (5343)
(For this question use annex 081-6239A)Which one of the bodies in motion (all
bodies have the same cross section area) will have lowest drag?
a) Body c
b) Body a
c) Body b
d) Body d
81.1.5.1 (5344)
The interference drag is created as a result of
a) interaction between aeroplane parts (e.g. wing/fuselage).
b) downwash behind the wing.
c) separation of the induced vortex.
d) the addition of induced and parasite drag.
81.1.5.2 (5345)
The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant weight varies
linearly with the:
a) square of the speed.
b) speed.
c) angle of attack.
d) square of the angle of attack.
81.1.5.2 (5346)
In what way do (1) induced drag and (2) parasite drag alter with increasing
speed?
a) (1) decreases and (2) increases.
b) (1) increases and (2) increases.
c) (1) decreases and (2) decreases.
d) (1) increases and (2) decreases. 888
81.1.5.3 (5347)
An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load factor equal to 1. The
induced drag coefficient (i) and the induced drag (ii) alter with the following
factors:
a) (i) 1/16 (ii) 1/4
b) (i) 1/4 (ii) 2
c) (i) 1/2 (ii) 1/16
d) (i) 4 (ii) 1/2
81.1.5.3 (5348)
What is the effect on induced drag of weight and speed changes ?
a) induced drag decreases with increasing speed and induced drag decreases with
decreasing weight
b) induced drag decreases with decreasing speed and induced drag decreases with increasing
weight
c) induced drag increases with increasing speed and induced drag increases with decreasing
weight
d) induced drag increases with decreasing speed and induced drag increases with increasing
weight
81.1.5.3 (5349)
(For this question use annex 081-6250A)The diagram shows the parameter X
versus TAS. If a horizontal flight is considered the axis X shows
a) the induced drag.
b) the total drag.
c) the lift force.
d) the parasite drag.
81.1.5.5 (5350)
How does the total drag vary as speed is increased from stalling speed (VS) to
maximum IAS (VNE) in a straight and level flight at constant weight?
a) Decreasing, then increasing.
b) Decreasing.
c) Increasing.
d) Increasing, then decreasing.
81.1.5.5 (5351)
Which one of the following statements about the lift-to-drag ratio in straight and
level flight is correct?
a) At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest.
b) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is zero.
c) The lift/drag ratio always increases as the lift decreases.
d) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is equal to the aircraft
weight.
81.1.5.5 (5352)
At an aeroplane's minimum drag speed, what is the ratio between induced drag Di
and profile drag Dp? Di/Dp=
a) 01-Jan
b) It varies between aeroplane types.
889
c) 01-Fev
d) 02-Jan
81.1.5.5 (5353)
(For this question use annex 081-6249A)Which line represents the total drag line
of an aeroplane?
a) Line c
b) Line a
c) Line b
d) Line d
81.1.5.6 (5354)
The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:
a) parasite drag is equal to the induced drag.
b) parasite drag equals twice the induced drag.
c) induced drag is equal to zero.
d) induced drag is lowest.
81.1.6.0 (5355)
What will happen in ground effect ?
a) the induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases
b) the wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases
c) an increase in strength of the wing tip vortices
d) a significant increase in thrust required
81.1.6.0 (5356)
If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect
a) the lift is increased and the drag is decreased.
b) the effective angle of attack is decreased.
c) the induced angle of attack is increased.
d) drag and lift are reduced.
81.1.6.4 (5357)
Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur :
a) when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the
surface
b) when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface
c) when a higher than normal angle of attack is used
d) at a speed approaching the stall
81.1.6.4 (5358)
Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance :
a) increases.
b) decreases.
c) does not change.
d) increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.
81.1.7.1 (5359)
An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the IAS is doubled. The
change in lift coefficient will be: 890
a) x 0.25
b) x 2.0
c) x 0.5
d) x 4.0
81.1.7.1 (5360)
When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 times its basic stalling
speed, the coefficient of lift as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient
(CLmax) would be:
a) 59%.
b) 130%.
c) 169%.
d) 77%.
81.1.8.1 (5361)
Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct?
a) The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar
boundary layer.
b) The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer.
c) The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer.
d) The turbulent boundary layer will separate more easily than the laminar boundary layer.
81.1.8.1 (5362)
Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at
high angles of attack?
a) upper side trailing edge.
b) upper side leading edge.
c) lower side trailing edge.
d) lower side leading edge.
81.1.8.1 (5363)
The boundary layer of a wing is caused by:
a) a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream
velocity, due to friction.
b) the normal shock wave at transonic speeds.
c) a turbulent stream pattern around the wing.
d) suction at the upper wing side.
81.1.8.1 (5364)
A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which:
a) no velocity components exist, normal to the surface.
b) the vortices are weak.
c) the velocity is constant.
d) the temperature varies constantly.
81.1.8.1 (5365)
Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift (1) and drag (2) in the stall
change as follows :
a) (1) decreases (2) increases.
b) (1) decreases (2) decreases.
891
c) (1) increases (2) increases.
d) (1) increases (2) decreases.
81.1.8.1 (5366)
Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) wing and of a strongly
swept back wing (2) will:
a) (1) move aft, (2) move forward.
b) (1) move aft, (2) move aft.
c) (1) not move (2) move forward.
d) (1) move aft, (2) not move.
81.1.8.1 (5367)
Which of the following statements about the stall of a straight wing aeroplane is
correct?
a) Just before the stall the aeroplane will be have a nose-down tendency.
b) Buffeting is the result of flow separation on the tail plane.
c) The nose down effect is the result of increasing downwash, due to flow separation.
d) The horizontal tail will stall at a higher speed than the wing.
81.1.8.1 (5368)
Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer :
a) friction drag is lower in the laminar layer
b) friction drag will be equal in both types of layers
c) friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer
d) separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer
81.1.8.1 (5369)
After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer
a) the mean speed and friction drag increases
b) the boundary layer gets thinner and the speed increases
c) the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases
d) the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases
81.1.8.1 (5370)
Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the
surface?
a) Turbulent boundary layer
b) Laminar boundary layer
c) No difference
d) Transition boundary layer
81.1.8.2 (5371)
The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor:
a) 1.41
b) 1.07
c) 1.30
d) 2.00
81.1.8.2 (5372)
In a turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed VS will be:
892
a) n greater than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight.
b) n smaller than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight.
c) n greater than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight.
d) n smaller than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight.
81.1.8.2 (5373)
A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant
turbulence. Which type of stall can occur if this aeroplane decelerates?
a) Accelerated stall.
b) Low speed stall.
c) Shock stall.
d) Deep stall.
81.1.8.2 (5374)
Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
a) decreasing weight.
b) increasing altitude.
c) increasing air density.
d) increasing load factor.
81.1.8.2 (5375)
Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal steady turns. Further data
are:A:W= 1500 kgBank= 20°TAS= 130 ktB:W= 1500 kgBank= 20°TAS= 200
ktWhich of the following statements is correct?
a) The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B.
b) The load factor A is larger than the load factor B.
c) The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B.
d) The lift coefficient A is smaller than the lift coefficient B.
81.1.8.2 (5376)
Increase of wing loading will:
a) increase the stall speeds.
b) decrease the minimum gliding angle.
c) increase CLmax.
d) decrease take off speeds.
81.1.8.2 (5377)
The stall speed :
a) increases with an increased weight
b) decreases with an increased weight
c) does not depend on weight
d) increases with the length of the wingspan
81.1.8.2 (5378)
When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall speed :
a) increases with the square root of load factor
b) increases with flap extension
c) decreases with increasing bank angle
d) increases with the load factor squared
893
81.1.8.2 (5379)
An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6850 Ibs. What is
the stall speed when the weight is 5000 Ibs ?
a) 67 KCAS
b) 91 KCAS
c) 78 KCAS
d) 57 KCAS
81.1.8.2 (5380)
An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n=1. In a turn with a load
factor of n=2, the stall speed is:
a) 141 kt
b) 282 kt
c) 70 kt
d) 200 kt
81.1.8.2 (5381)
The following factors increase stall speed :
a) an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust.
b) a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c .g. shift.
c) increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.
d) a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting.
81.1.8.2 (5382)
The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as....
a) the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs.
b) the IAS exceeds the power-on stall speed.
c) the CAS exceeds the power-on stall speed.
d) there is a nose-down attitude.
81.1.8.2 (5383)
The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant)
a) pulling up from a dive.
b) weight decreases.
c) minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.
d) spoilers are selected from OUT to IN.
81.1.8.2 (5384)
By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a horizontal
coordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° ?
a) 19%
b) 31%
c) 41%
d) 52%
81.1.8.2 (5385)
An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the
aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is:
a) 122 kt.
b) 141 kt.
894
c) 82 kt.
d) 150 kt.
81.1.8.2 (5386)
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
a) May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing
conditions and will increase when the c.g. moves forward
b) May increase when the c.g. moves forward, with higher altitude and due to the slip stream
from a propellor on an engine located forward of the wing
c) Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the c.g. moves aft
d) Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn
81.1.8.2 (5387)
a) Increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. location
b) Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a
propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
c) Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. location
d) Increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to the bank angle
in a turn
81.1.8.2 (5388)
a) May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn
b) Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft c.g. location
c) Will decrease with a forward c.g. location, lower altitude and due to the slip stream from a
propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
d) Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps
81.1.8.3 (5389)
A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will:
a) improve the low speed characteristics.
b) improve the high speed characteristics.
c) increase the critical Mach Number.
d) improve the lift coefficient of the trailing edge flap.
81.1.8.4 (5390)
Which of the following are used as stall warning devices?
a) Stick shaker and stallstrip .
b) Stick shaker and angle of attack indicator.
c) Angle of attack indicator and speed indicator.
d) Angle of attack sensor and stallstrip.
81.1.8.4 (5391)
The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change
of the:
a) stagnation point.
b) centre of pressure.
c) centre of gravity.
d) point of lowest pressure.
895
81.1.8.4 (5392)
The normal stall recovery procedure for a light single engined aeroplane is:
a) full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correcting for angle of bank with
rudder.
b) full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correction for angle of bank with stick.
c) idle power and stick roll-neutral nose-down and no other corrections.
d) idle power and stick neutral, waiting for the natural nose-down tendency.
81.1.8.4 (5393)
Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at
which stick shaker will be triggered is:
a) greater than VS.
b) 1.20 VS.
c) 1.30 VS.
d) 1.12 VS.
81.1.8.4 (5394)
The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location
of the
a) stagnation point.
b) centre of lift.
c) transition region.
d) centre of gravity.
81.1.8.5 (5395)
On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the ""pitch up"" phenomenon:
a) is caused by wingtip stall.
b) never occurs, since a swept wing is a ""remedy"" to pitch up.
c) is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices.
d) is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings.
81.1.8.5 (5396)
Low speed pitch up is caused by the:
a) spanwise flow on a swept back wing.
b) spanwise flow on a swept forward wing.
c) wing tip vortex.
d) Mach trim system.
81.1.8.5 (5397)
The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is:
a) reduction in CLmax.
b) increase in weight.
c) increase in drag.
d) blocking of control surfaces.
81.1.8.5 (5398)
The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic characteristics of
an aeroplane are:
a) decrease of CLmax and increase of drag.
b) decrease of CLmax and decrease of drag.
896
c) increase of CLmax and increase of drag.
d) increase of CLmax and decrease of drag.
81.1.8.5 (5399)
Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct ?
a) Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
b) Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
c) Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed..
d) Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
81.1.8.5 (5400)
Which of the following statements about the spin is correct?
a) During spin recovery the ailerons should be kept in the neutral position.
b) An aeroplane is prone to spin when the stall starts at the wing root.
c) In the spin, airspeed continuously increases.
d) Every aeroplane should be designed such that it can never enter a spin.
81.1.8.5 (5401)
During an erect spin recovery:
a) the ailerons are held in the neutral position.
b) the control stick is moved side ways, against the angle of bank.
c) the control stick is moved side ways, in the direction of the angle of bank.
d) the control stick is pulled to the most aft position.
81.1.8.5 (5402)
Which combination of design features is known to be responsible for deep stall?
a) Swept back wings and a T-tail.
b) Straight wings and a T-tail.
c) Swept back wings and wing mounted engines.
d) Straight wings and aft fuselage mounted engines
81.1.8.5 (5403)
A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal
tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be:
a) nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response.
b) nose down tendency.
c) increase sensitivity of elevator inputs.
d) tendency to increase speed after initial stall.
81.1.8.5 (5404)
The function of the stick pusher is:
a) to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of
attack.
b) to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker.
c) to vibrate the controls.
d) to pull the stick, to avoid a high speed stall.
81.1.8.5 (5405)
Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics.
Dangerous stall characteristics include: 897
a) Excessive wing drop and deep stall.
b) pitch down and yaw.
c) pitch down and minor wing drop.
d) pitch down and increase in speed.
81.1.8.5 (5406)
Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack?
a) Deep stall.
b) Shock stall.
c) Accelerated stall.
d) Low speed stall.
81.1.8.5 (5407)
Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a super stall?
a) A T-tail.
b) A canard wing.
c) Swept wings.
d) A low horizontal tail.
81.1.8.5 (5408)
The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the
a) wing tip stalling first.
b) aft movement of the centre of gravity.
c) forward movement of the centre of gravity.
d) wing root stalling first.
81.1.8.5 (5409)
One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the
stall :
a) tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.
b) wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment
c) tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
d) leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
81.1.9.0 (5410)
Trailing edge flap extension will:
a) decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
b) increase the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
c) decrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.
d) increase the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.
81.1.9.0 (5411)
Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle of
attack ?
a) flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended.
b) clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended.
c) slats only extended, clean wing, flaps only extended.
d) slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing.
898
81.1.9.0 (5412)
An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge
(L.E.) flaps. One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the
wings is:
a) Wing roots: L.E. flapsWing tips: slats
b) Wing roots: slatsWing tips: L.E. flaps
c) Wing roots: slatsWing tips: no devices
d) Wing roots: L.E. flapsWing tips: no devices
81.1.9.0 (5413)
An aeroplane has the following flap settings : 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can be
selected too. Which of the above selections will produce the greatest negative
influence on the CL/CD ratio?
a) Flaps from 30° to 45°.
b) The slats.
c) Flaps from 0° to 15°.
d) Flaps from 15° to 30°.
81.1.9.0 (5414)
After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps.
Why ?
a) Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively
less drag.
b) Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED.
c) Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS
EXTENDED situation.
d) Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
81.1.9.0 (5415)
Which statement is correct?
a) Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the maximum glide
distance also reduces.
b) Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD)max, causing the minimum rate of descent to
decrease.
c) Extension of flaps has no influence on the minimum rate of descent, as only the TAS has to
be taken into account.
d) Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but increases
the minimum descent angle.
81.1.9.1 (5416)
The trailing edge flaps when extended :
a) worsen the best angle of glide
b) increase the zero lift angle of attack
c) significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift
d) significantly lower the drag
81.1.9.1 (5417)
When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch
moment will be:
a) nose down.
b) nose up. 899
c) zero.
d) dependent on c.g. location.
81.1.9.1 (5418)
Extension of FOWLER type trailing edge lift augmentation devices, will produce:
a) a nose-down pitching moment.
b) no pitching moment.
c) a nose-up pitching moment.
d) a force which reduces drag.
81.1.9.1 (5419)
On a wing fitted with a ""fowler"" type trailing edge flap, the ""Full extended""
position will produce:
a) an increase in wing area and camber.
b) an unaffected wing area and increase in camber.
c) an unaffected CD, at a given angle of attack.
d) an increase in wing area only.
81.1.9.1 (5420)
When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift
coefficient will eventually :
a) remain the same.
b) increase.
c) decrease.
d) first increase and then decrease.
81.1.9.1 (5421)
When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the lift coefficient will:
a) increase.
b) decrease.
c) remain the same.
d) vary as the square of IAS.
81.1.9.1 (5422)
What is the most effective flap system?
a) Fowler flap.
b) Split flap.
c) Plain flap.
d) Single slotted flap.
81.1.9.1 (5423)
Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will:
a) move aft, then turn down.
b) turn down, then move aft.
c) just move aft.
d) just turn down.
81.1.9.1 (5424)
A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by:
a) increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer.
900
b) decreasing the skin friction.
c) increasing only the camber of the aerofoil.
d) increasing the critical angle of attack.
81.1.9.1 (5425)
In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the
flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack will:
a) increase.
b) decrease.
c) remain constant.
d) increase or decrease depending on type of flap.
81.1.9.1 (5426)
Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the :
a) maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag.
b) lift coefficient and the drag.
c) stall speed.
d) lift and the drag.
81.1.9.1 (5427)
During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant IAS
and weight:
a) the centre of pressure moves aft.
b) the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase.
c) the stall speed increases.
d) the total boundary layer becomes laminar.
81.1.9.1 (5428)
(For this question use annex 081-6269A)Which type of flap is shown in the
picture?
a) Fowler flap
b) Double slotted flap
c) Plain flap
d) Split flap
81.1.9.1 (5429)
(For this question use annex 081-6270A)Which type of flap is shown in the
picture?
a) Split flap
b) Single slotted flap
c) Fowler flap
d) Plain flap
81.1.9.1 (5430)
A plain flap will increase CLmax by
a) increasing the camber of the aerofoil.
b) increasing angle of attack.
c) boundary layer control.
d) centre of lift movement.
901
81.1.9.1 (5431)
During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts
to (all other factors of importance being constant)
a) sink suddenly.
b) bank.
c) climb.
d) yaw.
81.1.9.1 (5432)
During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts
to (all other factors of importance being constant)
a) climb.
b) bank.
c) sink suddenly.
d) yaw.
81.1.9.1 (5433)
Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps
down configuration is
a) smaller.
b) larger.
c) unchanged.
d) smaller or larger depending on flap deflection.
81.1.9.2 (5434)
Deflection of leading edge flaps will:
a) increase critical angle of attack.
b) decrease CLmax.
c) decrease drag.
d) not affect critical angle of attack.
81.1.9.2 (5435)
Slat extension will:
a) increase critical angle of attack.
b) reduce tip vortices.
c) create gaps between leading edge and engine nacelles.
d) decrease the energy in the boundary layer on the upperside of the wing.
81.1.9.2 (5436)
Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and
slats is correct?
a) Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
b) Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not.
c) Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
d) Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not.
81.1.9.2 (5437)
What is the purpose of an auto-slat system ?
a) extend automatically when a certain value of angle of atttack is exceeded.
b) provide automatically slat IN selection after take-off.
c) ensures that the slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the 902
""ground"" position.
d) assist the ailerons during rolling.
81.1.9.2 (5438)
The function of the slot between an extended slat and the leading edge of the wing
is to:
a) cause a venturi effect which energizes the boundary layer.
b) allow space for vibration of the slat.
c) reduce the wing loading.
d) slow the air flow in the slot so that more pressure is created under the wing.
81.1.9.2 (5439)
A deployed slat will:
a) increase the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak from the fixed part
of the wing to the slat, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack.
b) increase the boundary layer energy and increase the suction peak on the fixed part of the
wing, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack.
c) decrease the boundary layer energy and decrease the suction peak on the slat, so that
CLmax is reached at lower angles of attack.
d) increase the camber of the aerofoil and increase the effective angle of attack, so that
CLmax is reached at higher angles of attack.
81.1.9.2 (5440)
What increases the stalling angle of attack ? Use of :
a) slats
b) flaps
c) spoilers
d) fuselage mounted speed-brakes
81.1.9.2 (5441)
The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a
slower speed because :
a) it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack
b) the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker
c) it decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air
d) it changes the camber of the wing
81.1.9.2 (5442)
(For this question use annex 081-6271A)The high lift device shown in the figure is
a
a) Slat
b) Fowler flap
c) Slotted flap
d) Krueger flap
81.1.9.2 (5443)
(For this question use annex 081-6272A)The high lift device shown in the figure
below is a
a) Krueger flap
b) Fowler flap
903
c) Slotted flap
d) Slot or slat
81.1.9.2 (5444)
A slat will
a) increase the boundary layer energy and prolongs the stall to a higher angle of
attack.
b) increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge.
c) increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing.
d) provide a boundary layer suction on the upper side of the wing.
81.1.9.3 (5445)
Vortex generators:
a) transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.
b) change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer.
c) reduce the spanwise flow on swept wing.
d) take kinetic energy out of the boundary layer to reduce separation.
81.1.10.1 (5446)
Spoiler deflection causes :
a) an increase in drag and decrease in lift
b) an increase in lift and drag
c) an increase in lift only
d) decrease in lift and drag
81.1.10.1 (5447)
Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing:
a) CD is increased and CL is decreased.
b) only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected).
c) both CL and CD are increased.
d) CD is increased, while CL remains unaffected.
81.1.10.1 (5448)
When ""spoilers"" are used as speed brakes:
a) at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased.
b) CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.
c) they do not affect wheel braking action during landing.
d) at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.
81.1.11.1 (5449)
There are two types of boundary layer: laminar and turbulent. One important
advantage the turbulent boundary layer has over the laminar type is that :
a) it has less tendency to separate from the surface
b) it is thinner
c) skin friction drag is less
d) energy is less
81.1.12.1 (5450)
In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing
leading edge most critical?
904
a) The last part of the rotation.
b) The take-off run.
c) During climb with all engines operating.
d) All phases of the take-off are equally critical.
81.2.1.0 (5451)
The formula for the Mach Number is:(a= speed of sound)
a) M= TAS / a
b) M= a / TAS
c) M= TAS*a
d) M= IAS / a
81.2.1.0 (5452)
The Mach number:
a) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.
b) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level.
c) is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.
d) increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises.
81.2.1.1 (5453)
Climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the TAS will:
a) decrease.
b) first increase, then decrease.
c) increase.
d) remain constant.
81.2.1.1 (5454)
The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is:
a) 500 kts
b) 320 kts
c) 480 kts
d) 600 kts
81.2.1.1 (5455)
Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct ?
a) Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature.
b) Increases always if the density of the air decreases.
c) Is independent of altitude.
d) Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36° Centigrade.
81.2.1.2 (5456)
If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant in the standard
troposphere the Mach Number will:
a) increase.
b) decrease.
c) not change.
d) increase or decrease, depends of the type of aeroplane.
81.2.1.2 (5457)
The speed of sound is affected by the: 905
a) temperature of the air.
b) density of the air.
c) pressure of the air.
d) humidity of the air.
81.2.1.2 (5458)
An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350. What is the
effect on true airspeed ?
a) It increases as temperature increases
b) It decreases as pressure increases
c) It decreases as altitude decreases
d) It remains constant
81.2.1.3 (5459)
To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to determine the:
a) Mach Number.
b) EAS.
c) TAS.
d) IAS.
81.2.2.0 (5460)
A normal shock wave:
a) can occur at different points on the aeroplane in transonic flight.
b) is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the temperature drops suddenly.
c) is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the pressure drops suddenly.
d) is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, which is always normal to the surface.
81.2.2.0 (5461)
Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave ?
a) The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic
b) The airflow changes direction
c) The airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic
d) The airflow expands when passing the aerofoil
81.2.2.0 (5462)
Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock
wave has a
a) higher compression.
b) higher expansion.
c) smaller compression.
d) smaller expansion.
81.2.2.0 (5463)
Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock
wave has a
a) higher loss in total pressure.
b) higher total pressure.
c) higher total temperature.
d) lower static temperature.
906
81.2.2.0 (5464)
The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to M = 1.3 is called the
a) transonic range.
b) supersonic range.
c) hypersonic range.
d) subsonic range.
81.2.2.1 (5465)
Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which:
a) somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.
b) Mach buffet occurs.
c) shockstall occurs.
d) the critical angle of attack is reached.
81.2.2.1 (5466)
When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first
shockwaves will occur:
a) at the wing root segment, upperside.
b) on the underside of the wing.
c) somewhere on the fin.
d) somewhere on the hoizontal tail.
81.2.2.1 (5467)
The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane is the free stream Mach Number, which
produces the first evidence of :
a) local sonic flow.
b) buffet.
c) shock wave.
d) supersonic flow.
81.2.2.1 (5468)
Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The temperature increases.
b) The pressure decreases.
c) The temperature decreases.
d) The velocity increases.
81.2.2.1 (5469)
The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free stream airfoil Mach
number at which:
a) sonic speed (M=1) is reached at a certain point on the upper side of the aerofoil.
b) the maximum operating temperature is reached.
c) a shock-wave appears on the upper surface.
d) a ""supersonic bell"" appears on the upper surface.
81.2.2.1 (5470)
When the air has passed through a normal shock wave the Mach number is
a) less than 1.
b) lower than before but still greater than 1.
c) equal to 1.
907
d) higher than before.
81.2.2.1 (5471)
When the air is passing through a shock wave the static temperature will
a) increase.
b) decrease.
c) stay constant.
d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again
81.2.2.1 (5472)
When the air is passing through a shock wave the density will
a) increase.
b) decrease.
c) stay constant.
d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again
81.2.2.1 (5473)
When air has passed through a shock wave the speed of sound is
a) increased.
b) not affected
c) decreased.
d) decreased and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again
81.2.2.1 (5474)
Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of a shock wave will appear
at the
a) upper side of the wing.
b) lower side of the wing.
c) leading edge of the wing.
d) trailing edge of the wing.
81.2.2.1 (5475)
Critical Mach-number is the :
a) highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the aeroplane.
b) speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the aircraaeroplane Mach number
< 1).
c) speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane.
d) highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for operation (MMO).
81.2.2.1 (5476)
The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the fact that
a) kinetic energy in the flow is changed into heat energy.
b) the speed reduction is too high.
c) the static pressure decrease is comparatively high.
d) the friction in the boundary layer is higher.
81.2.2.2 (5477)
Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of attack will produce the
lowest Mcrit values?
a) (1) thick and (2) large.
b) (1) thick and (2) small.
c) (1) thin and (2) large.
d) (1) thin and (2) small. 908
81.2.2.2 (5478)
In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are strongly determined by:
a) the Mach Number.
b) the TAS.
c) the IAS.
d) the CAS.
81.2.2.2 (5479)
Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Mach Numbers below the
critical Mach Number?
a) Dutch roll.
b) Tuck under.
c) Mach buffet.
d) Shock stall.
81.2.2.2 (5480)
The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane can be increased by:
a) sweep back of the wings.
b) vortex generators.
c) control deflection
d) dihedral of the wings.
81.2.2.2 (5481)
In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in subsonic flight
because:
a) aileron deflection only partly affects the pressure distribution around the wing.
b) behind the shock wave pressure is lower.
c) aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward.
d) aileron deflection only affects the air in front of the shock wave.
81.2.2.2 (5482)
Two methods to increase the critical Mach Number are:
a) thin aerofoils and sweep back of the wing.
b) thin aerofoils and dihedral of the wing.
c) positive cambering of the aerofoil and sweep back of the wing.
d) thick aerofoils and dihedral of the wing.
81.2.2.2 (5483)
If an aeroplane is flying at transonic speed with increasing Mach number the shock
wave on the upper side of the wing
a) moves into trailing edge direction.
b) moves into leading edge direction.
c) stays all the time at the same position.
d) disappears.
81.2.2.2 (5484)
To increase the critical Mach number a conventional aerofoil should
a) have a low thickness to chord ratio.
b) have a large camber.
c) be used with a high angle of attack.
909
d) have a large leading edge radius.
81.2.2.2 (5485)
The critical Mach number can be increased by
a) sweepback of the wings.
b) positive dihedral of the wings.
c) a T-tail.
d) an increase in wing aspect ratio.
81.2.2.2 (5486)
Some aeroplanes have a 'waist' or 'coke bottle' contoured fuselage. This is done to
a) apply area rule.
b) increase the strength of the wing root junction.
c) fit the engine intakes better to the fuselage.
d) improve the low speed characteristics.
81.2.2.2 (5487)
The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will decrease the
a) wave drag.
b) skin friction drag.
c) induced drag.
d) form drag.
81.2.2.2 (5488)
When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area
and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of :
a) Higher critical Mach number
b) Greater strength
c) Increased longitudinal stability
d) Lower stalling speed
81.2.2.2 (5489)
What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at constant IAS ?
a) Mcrit increases as a result of flying at a smaller angle of attack.
b) Mcrit increases as a result of compressibility effects.
c) Mcrit decreases.
d) Mcrit decreases as a result of flying at a greater angle of attack.
81.2.2.2 (5490)
What is the effect of a decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at n=1, when flying at
constant IAS ? The value of Mcrit:
a) increases.
b) remains constant.
c) is independent of the angle of attack.
d) decreases.
81.2.2.3 (5491)
How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?
a) It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to
compressibility effects.
b) It remains constant.
c) It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.
910
d) It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to
compressibility effects.
81.2.2.3 (5492)
Which kind of flow separation occurs at the smallest angle of attack?
a) shockstall.
b) high-speed stall.
c) low-speed stall.
d) deep stall.
81.2.2.3 (5493)
At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS):
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) decreases until the tropopause
81.2.2.5 (5494)
Shock stall is:
a) separation of the boundary layer behind the shock wave.
b) separation of the flow behind the bow wave.
c) separation of the flow at high angles of attack and at high Mach Numbers.
d) separation of the flow at the trailing edge of the wing at high Mach Numbers.
81.2.2.5 (5495)
Which of the following flight phenomena can only happen at Mach Numbers above
the critical Mach Number?
a) Mach buffet.
b) Dutch roll.
c) Speed instability.
d) Elevator stall.
81.2.2.5 (5496)
Shock induced separation results in
a) decreasing lift.
b) constant lift.
c) increasing lift.
d) decreasing drag.
81.2.2.5 (5497)
In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall due to the
a) separation of the boundary layer at the shock waves.
b) attachment of the shock wave on the trailing edge of the wing.
c) first appearance of a shock wave at the upper side of the wing.
d) appearance of the bow wave.
81.2.2.5 (5498)
The high speed buffet is induced by
a) boundary layer separation due to shock waves.
b) boundary layer control. 911
c) expansion waves on the wing upper side.
d) a shift of the centre of gravity.
81.2.2.6 (5499)
""Tuck under"" is caused by (i) which movement of the centre of pressure of the
wing and (ii) which change of the downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer.
a) (i) aft (ii) decreasing
b) (i) forward (ii) decreasing
c) (i) aft (ii) increasing
d) (i) forward (ii) increasing
81.2.2.6 (5500)
The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing aeroplane may be : (assume
no corrective devices, straight and level flight)
a) buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch down.
b) an increase in speed and a tendency to pitch up.
c) engine unbalance and buffeting.
d) buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch up.
81.2.2.6 (5501)
The Mach trim system will:
a) adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach Number.
b) keep the Mach Number automatically constant.
c) pump the fuel from tank to tank, depending on the Mach Number.
d) adjust the elevator trim tab, depending on the Mach Number.
81.2.2.6 (5502)
The Mach trim system will prevent:
a) tuck under.
b) dutch roll.
c) buffeting.
d) shock stall.
81.2.2.6 (5503)
When an aeroplane is flying through the transonic range with increasing Mach
Number the centre of the pressure of the wing will move aft. This requires:
a) a pitch up input of the stabilizer.
b) a stability augmentation system.
c) much more thrust from the engine.
d) a higher IAS to compensate the nose down effect.
81.2.2.6 (5504)
Tuck under will happen
a) only above the critical Mach number.
b) only at the critical Mach number.
c) only below the critical Mach number.
d) above or below the critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack.
81.2.2.6 (5505)
The Mach-trim function is installed on most commercial jets in order to minimize
912
the adverse effects of :
a) changes in the position of centre of pressure
b) increased drag due to shock wave formation
c) uncontrolled changes in stabilizer setting
d) compressibility effects on the stabilizer
81.2.2.7 (5506)
(For this question use annex 081-1331A)An A 310 aeroplane weighing 100 tons is
turning at FL 350 at constant altitude with a bank of 50 degrees. Its flight Mach
range between low-speed buffeting and high-speed buffeting goes from:
a) M= 0.69 to M higher than 0.84
b) M= 0.72 to M higher than 0.84
c) M= 0.65 to M higher than 0.84
d) M= 0.74 to M= 0.84
81.2.2.7 (5507)
What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart?
a) The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and Mach Buffet occur at
different weights and altitudes.
b) The values of MMO at different weights and altitudes.
c) The values of Mcrit at different weights and altitudes.
d) The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and shock-stall occur at different
weights and altitudes.
81.2.2.7 (5508)
The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a minimum acceptable
loadfactor because exceeding that altitude:
a) turbulence may induce Mach buffet.
b) turbulence may exceed the limit load factor.
c) a sudden necessary bankangle may exceed the limit load factor.
d) Mach buffet will occur immediately.
81.2.2.7 (5509)
Should a transport aeroplane fly at a higher Mach number than the 'buffet-onset'
Mach number?
a) No, this is not acceptable
b) Yes, this causes no problems.
c) Yes, but only during approach.
d) Yes, if you want to fly fast at very high altitudes.
81.2.2.7 (5510)
A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach-number, that provides a
buffet margin of 0.3g incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to 0.4g
incremental the pilot must :
a) fly at a lower altitude and the same Mach-number
b) extend the flaps to the first selection
c) fly at a higher Mach-number
d) fly at a larger angle of attack
81.2.2.7 (5511)
913
The buffet margin :
a) increases during a descent with a constant IAS.
b) is always greatest after a stepclimb has been executed.
c) decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number.
d) is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.
81.2.3.1 (5512)
Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will:
a) decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation.
b) increase the critical Mach Number.
c) decrease the span wise flow at high Mach Numbers.
d) increase the magnitude of the shock wave.
81.2.3.1 (5513)
Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing:
a) decrease wave drag.
b) increase wave drag.
c) increase critical Mach Number.
d) decrease critical Mach Number.
81.2.3.1 (5514)
Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will
a) decrease the shock wave induced separation.
b) decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.
c) decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing.
d) increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag.
81.3.1.0 (5515)
How will the density and temperature change in a supersonic flow from a position
in front of a shock wave to behind it ?
a) Density will increase, temperature will increase.
b) Density will increase, temperature will decrease.
c) Density will decrease, temperature will increase.
d) Density will decrease, temperature will decrease.
81.3.1.0 (5516)
At what speed does the front of a shock wave move across the earth's surface?
a) The ground speed of the aeroplane.
b) The speed of sound at ground level.
c) The speed of sound at flight level.
d) The true air speed of the aeroplane.
81.3.1.1 (5517)
In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an aeroplane are:
a) in between a conical area, depending on the Mach Number.
b) outside the conical area depending on the Mach Number.
c) in front of the aeroplane.
d) very weak and negligible.
81.3.1.1 (5518)
The bow wave will appear first at: 914
a) M= 1.0
b) M= Mcrit
c) M= 0.6
d) M= 1.3
81.3.1.1 (5519)
If the Mach number of an aeroplane in supersonic flight is increased, the shock
wave angles will
a) decrease.
b) increase.
c) stay constant.
d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
81.3.1.3 (5520)
When air has passed an expansion wave, the static pressure is:
a) decreased.
b) decreased or increased, depending on Mach Number.
c) increased.
d) unchanged.
81.3.1.3 (5521)
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the local speed of sound will
a) decrease.
b) increase.
c) stay constant.
81.3.1.3 (5522)
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the Mach number will
a) increase.
b) decrease.
c) stay constant.
81.3.1.3 (5523)
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the static temperature will
a) decrease.
b) increase.
c) stay constant.
81.3.1.3 (5524)
In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave a high efficiency (low
loss in total pressure) can be obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is
a) small but still supersonic.
b) high (supersonic).
c) lower than 1.
d) exactly 1.
915
81.3.1.3 (5525)
Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in a supersonic flow ?1- The
density in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind.2- The pressure in
front of an expansion wave is higher than behind.
a) 1 and 2 are correct.
b) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
c) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
81.3.1.3 (5526)
Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in supersonic flow ?1. The
temperature in front of an expansion wave is higher than the temperature behind
it.2. The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher than the speed behind it.
a) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
c) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
81.3.1.4 (5527)
On a non swept wing, when the aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic
speeds, the aerodynamic centre :
a) shifts from 25% to about 50% of the aerofoil chord.
b) shifts aft by about 10%.
c) remains unchanged.
d) slightly shifts forward.
81.3.1.4 (5528)
If an aeroplane is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the centre of
pressure will move:
a) to the mid chord position.
b) forward.
c) to a position near the leading edge.
d) to a position near the trailing edge.
81.3.1.4 (5529)
The aft movement of the centre of pressure during the acceleration through the
transonic flight regime will:
a) increase the static longitudinal stability.
b) decrease the longitudinal stability.
c) increase the static lateral stability.
d) decrease the static lateral stability.
81.3.1.4 (5530)
In supersonic flight aerofoil pressure distribution is:
a) rectangular.
b) irregular.
c) triangular.
d) the same as in subsonic flight.
81.3.1.4 (5531)
If a symmetrical aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speed the 916
centre of lift will move
a) aft to the mid chord.
b) aft to the trailing edge.
c) forward to the leading edge.
d) forward to the mid chord.
81.3.1.5 (5532)
The additional increase of drag at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number
is due to:
a) wave drag.
b) increased angle of attack.
c) increased interference drag.
d) increased skin friction.
81.4.1.1 (5533)
If the total sum of moments about one of its axis is not zero, an aeroplane:
a) would experience an angular acceleration about that axis.
b) would be difficult to control.
c) would fly a path with a constant curvature.
d) would not be affected because the situation is normal.
81.4.1.2 (5534)
In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in straight and level flight
have the highest value ?
a) Forward centre of gravity and idle thrust.
b) Aft centre of gravity and idle thrust.
c) Forward centre of gravity and take-off thrust.
d) Aft centre of gravity and take-off thrust.
81.4.1.2 (5535)
If the sum of moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane will rotate about:
a) the centre of gravity.
b) the neutral point of the aeroplane.
c) the aerodynamic centre of the wing.
d) the centre of pressure of the wing.
81.4.2.1 (5536)
When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of the centre of pressure of
the combined wing / fuselage is in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the
tailplane will be:
a) downwards.
b) upwards.
c) zero because in steady flight all loads are in equilibrium.
d) downwards because it is always negative regardless of the position of the centre of gravity.
81.4.2.1 (5537)
An aeroplane, with a C.G. location behind the centre of pressure of the wing can
only maintain a straight and level flight when the horizontal tail loading is:
a) upwards.
b) zero.
917
c) downwards.
d) upwards or downwards depending on elevator deflection.
81.4.2.2 (5538)
In a twin-engined jet powered aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings)
the thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to
maintain the pitching moment zero ?
a) Down.
b) Up.
c) No elevator movement will required because the thrust line of the engines remains
unchanged.
d) It depends on the position of the centre of gravity.
81.4.3.1 (5539)
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Dynamic stability is possible only when the aeroplane is statically stable about
the relevant axis.
b) Static stability means that the aeroplane is also dynamically satble about the relevant axis.
c) Dynamic stability means that after being displaced from original equilibrium condition, the
aeroplane will return to that condition without oscillation.
d) A dynamically stable aeroplane would be almost impossible to fly manually.
81.4.3.1 (5540)
Positive static stability of an aeroplane means that once it has been displaced the :
a) initial tendency to move is towards its equilibrium position.
b) initial tendency to move is away from its equilibrium position.
c) tendency will be to move with an oscillating motion of decreasing amplitude.
d) tendency will be to move with an oscillating motion of increasing amplitude.
81.4.3.1 (5541)
After a disturbance about the lateral axis, an aeroplane oscillates about the lateral
axis at a constant amplitude. The aeroplane is:
a) Statically stable - Dynamically neutral
b) Statically unstable - Dynamically stable
c) Statically stable - Dynamically unstable
d) Statically unstable - Dynamically neutral
81.4.3.1 (5542)
Which one of the following statements about the dynamic stability of a
conventional aeroplane about the lateral axis is correct?
a) Damping of the phugoid is normally very weak.
b) Speed remains constant during one period of the phugoid.
c) Period time of the phugoid is normally 5 sec.
d) An aft C.G. position shortens the period time of the phugoid.
81.4.3.1 (5543)
The ""short period mode"" is an:
a) oscillation about the lateral axis.
b) oscillation about the vertical axis.
c) oscillation about the longitudinal axis.
d) unstable movement of the aeroplane, induced by the pilot. 918
81.4.3.1 (5544)
An aeroplane that has positive static stability:
a) can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable.
b) is always dynamically stable.
c) is never dynamically stable.
d) is always dynamically unstable.
81.4.3.1 (5545)
A statically unstable aeroplane is:
a) never dynamically stable.
b) always dynamically stable.
c) sometimes dynamically stable.
d) sometimes dynamically unstable.
81.4.3.1 (5546)
One of the requirements for dynamic stability is:
a) positive static stability.
b) a large deflection range of the stabilizer trim.
c) a small C.G. range.
d) effective elevator.
81.4.3.2 (5547)
The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the:
a) C.G. is on the aft C.G. limit.
b) speed is low.
c) C.G. position is on the forward C.G. limit.
d) flaps are down.
81.4.3.3 (5548)
Longitudinal static stability is created by the fact that the:
a) centre of gravity is located in front of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
b) centre of gravity is located in front of the leading edge of the wing.
c) wing surface is greater than the horizontal tail surface.
d) aeroplane possesses a large trim speed range.
81.4.3.4 (5549)
The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where:
a) pitching moment coefficient does not vary with angle of attack.
b) change of lift due to variation of angle of attack is constant.
c) aerodynamic forces are constant.
d) the aeroplane's lateral axis intersects with the centre of gravity.
81.4.3.5 (5550)
For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is located:
a) with a sufficient minimum margin ahead of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
b) aft of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
c) at the neutral point of the aeroplane.
d) between the aft limit and the neutral point of the aeroplane.
919
81.4.3.5 (5551)
The max aft position of the centre of gravity is amongst others limited by the:
a) minimum value of the stick force per g.
b) maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.
c) maximum elevator deflection.
d) too small effect of the controls on the aeroplane.
81.4.3.5 (5552)
A C.G location beyond the aft limit leads to:
a) an unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, Fe/g).
b) a too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take off.
c) an increasing static longitudinal stability.
d) a better recovery performance in the spin.
81.4.3.7 (5553)
In what way is the longitudinal stability affected by the degree of positive camber
of the aerofoil?
a) No effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a constant pitch down
moment coefficient, independent of angle of attack.
b) Positive, because the centre of pressure shifts rearward at increasing angle of attack.
c) Negative, because the lift vector rotates forward at increasing angle of attack.
d) Positive, because the lift vector rotates backward at increasing angle of attack.
81.4.3.7 (5554)
Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static
longitudinal stability ?
a) The horizontal tailplane.
b) The engine.
c) The fuselage.
d) The wing.
81.4.3.9 (5555)
During landing of a low-winged jet aeroplane, the maximum elevator up deflection
is normally required when the flaps are:
a) fully down and the C.G. is fully forward.
b) up and the C.G. is fully forward.
c) fully down and the C.G. is fully aft.
d) up and the C.G. is fully aft.
81.4.3.11 (5556)
The C.G. position of an aeroplane is forward of the neutral point in a fixed location.
Speed changes cause a departure from the trimmed position. Which of the
following statements about the stick force stability is correct?
a) Increasing 10 kt trimmed at low speed has more effect on the stick force than
increasing 10 kt trimmed at high speed.
b) Increase of speed generates pull forces.
c) Aeroplane nose up trim decreases the stick force stability.
d) Stick force stability is not affected by trim.
81.4.3.11 (5557)
""Tuck under"" is: 920
a) the tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight
regime.
b) the tendency to nose up when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.
c) shaking of the control column at high Mach Number.
d) the tendency to nose down when the control column is pulled back.
81.4.3.11 (5558)
""Tuck under"" may happen at:
a) high Mach numbers.
b) low Mach numbers.
c) all Mach numbers.
d) only at low altitudes.
81.4.3.11 (5559)
Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct?
a) A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing
aeroplane above a certain Mach number.
b) A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers close to
MMO.
c) A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at high
Mach numbers.
d) The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitch-up.
81.4.3.11 (5560)
In case the Mach trimmer fails:
a) the Mach number must be limited.
b) try to relocate the centre-of-gravity aft.
c) the speed must be kept constant.
d) the aeroplane weight must be limited.
81.4.3.11 (5561)
A Machtrimmer:
a) corrects insufficient stick force stability at high Mach Numbers.
b) increases the stick force per g at high Mach Numbers.
c) is necessary for compensation of the autopilot at high Mach Numbers.
d) has no effect on the shape of the elevator position versus speed (IAS) curve for a fully
hydraulic controlled aeroplane.
81.4.3.14 (5562)
The (1) stick force stability and the (2) manoeuvre stability are positively affected
by:
a) (1) forward C.G. position (2) forward CG. position.
b) (1) forward C.G. position (2) aeroplane nose up trim.
c) (1) aft C.G. position (2) aft CG. position.
d) (1) aeroplane nose up trim (2) aeroplane nose up trim.
81.4.3.14 (5563)
Which statement about stick force per g is correct?
a) The stick force per g must have both an upper and lower limit in order to assure
acceptable control characteristics.
921
b) The stick force per g increases, when centre of gravity is moved aft.
c) The stick force per g can only be corrected by means of electronic devices (stability
augmentation) in case of an unacceptable value.
d) If the slope of the Fe-n line becomes negative, generally speaking this is not a problem for
control of an aeroplane.
81.4.3.15 (5564)
The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N/g. The load factor in
straight and level flight is 1. The increase of stick force necessary to achieve the
load factor of 2.5 is:
a) 225 N.
b) 375 N.
c) 450 N.
d) 150 N.
81.4.4.2 (5565)
An aeroplane has static directional stability, in a side-slip to the right, initially the:
a) nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the right.
b) right wing tends to go down.
c) nose of the aeroplane will remain in the same direction.
d) nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the left.
81.4.4.4 (5566)
The effect of a positive wing sweep on static directional stability is as follows:
a) Stabilizing effect
b) No effect
c) Destabilizing dihedral effect
d) Negative dihedral effect
81.4.5.5 (5567)
The effect of a high wing with zero dihedral is as follows:
a) Positive dihedral effect
b) Negative dihedral effect
c) Its only purpose is to ease aeroplane loading
d) Zero dihedral effect
81.4.5.5 (5568)
Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each increase static lateral
stability ?
a) High wing, sweep back, large and high vertical fin.
b) Low wing, dihedral, elliptical wing planform.
c) Fuselage mounted engines, dihedral, T-tail.
d) Sweep back, under wing mounted engines, winglets.
81.4.5.5 (5569)
Which type of wing arrangement decreases the static lateral stability of an
aeroplane?
a) Anhedral.
b) Dihedral.
c) High wing.
d) Increased wing span.
922
81.4.5.5 (5570)
The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an aeroplane is as follows :
(1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional)
a) 1 : no effect, 2 : negative, 3 : positive
b) 1 : positive, 2 : negative, 3 : negative
c) 1 : negative, 2 : positive, 3 : positive
d) 1 : no effect, 2 : positive, 3: negative
81.4.5.5 (5571)
Dihedral of the wing:
a) increases the static lateral stability.
b) is the only way to increase the static lateral stability.
c) is only positive for aeroplanes with high mounted wings.
d) decreases the static lateral stability.
81.4.5.5 (5572)
Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at constant speed and side slip
angle, where the geometric dihedral of an aeroplane is increased ?
a) the required lateral control force increases.
b) the required lateral control force decreases.
c) the required lateral control force does not change.
d) the stick force per g decreases.
81.4.5.6 (5573)
Which of the following statements about dihedral is correct?
a) The ""effective dihedral"" of an aeroplane component means the contribution of
that component to the static lateral stability.
b) Effective dihedral is the angle between the 1/4-chord line and the lateral axis of the
aeroplane.
c) Dihedral contributes to dynamic but not to static lateral stability.
d) Dihedral is necessary for the execution of slip-free turns.
81.4.6.2 (5574)
Which of the following statements about static lateral and directional stability is
correct?
a) An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static
lateral stability, will be prone to spiral dive. (spiral instability)
b) The effects of static lateral and static directional stability are completely independent of
each other because they take place about different axis.
c) An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral
stability, will be prone to ""Dutch roll"".
d) Static directional stability can be increased by installing more powerful engines.
81.4.6.2 (5575)
Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when :
a) the static directional stability is positive and the static lateral stability is
relatively weak.
b) the static directional stability is negative and the static lateral stability is positive.
c) the static lateral and directional stability are both negative.
d) the dutch roll tendency is too strongly suppressed by the yaw damper.
923
81.4.6.3 (5576)
Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to ""Dutch roll""?
a) Yaw damper.
b) Roll spoilers.
c) Spoiler mixer.
d) Rudder limiter.
81.4.6.3 (5577)
Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper ?
a) Dutch roll.
b) Tuck under.
c) Spiral dive.
d) Buffeting.
81.4.6.3 (5578)
What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll?
a) An increased static lateral stability.
b) An increased static directional stability.
c) A forward movement of the centre of gravity.
d) An increased anhedral.
81.4.6.4 (5579)
With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static lateral stability (1) and the
dynamic lateral/directional stability (2) of an aeroplane with swept-back wing will:
a) (1) increase (2) decrease.
b) (1) increase (2) increase.
c) (1) decrease (2) decrease.
d) (1) decrease (2) increase.
81.5.1.1 (5580)
Rotation about the lateral axis is called :
a) pitching.
b) rolling.
c) yawing.
d) slipping.
81.5.1.1 (5581)
Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the:
a) longitudinal axis.
b) vertical axis.
c) lateral axis.
d) wing axis.
81.5.2.0 (5582)
What is the effect on the aeroplane's static longitudinal stability of a shift of the
centre of gravity to a more aft location and on the required control deflection for a
certain pitch up or down?
a) The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is
smaller.
b) The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control deflection is smaller.
924
c) The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control deflection is larger.
d) The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is larger.
81.5.2.4 (5583)
The centre of gravity moving aft will:
a) increase the elevator up effectiveness.
b) decrease the elevator up effectiveness.
c) not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
d) increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.
81.5.2.4 (5584)
In a mechanically controlled aeroplane, the most forward allowable position of the
centre of gravity could be limited by the:
a) elevator capability, elevator control forces.
b) engine thrust, engine location.
c) trim system, trim tab surface.
d) wing surface, stabilizer surface.
81.5.2.4 (5585)
When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a manoeuvre
with a load factor greater than 1 will be:
a) larger.
b) smaller.
c) unchanged.
d) dependent on trim position.
81.5.3.2 (5586)
An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to
a location beneath the wing, is :
a) less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes.
b) easier maintenance of the engines.
c) a wing which is less sensitive to flutter.
d) lighter wing construction.
81.5.3.3 (5587)
What happens during an engine failure with two similar aeroplanes with wing
mounted engines, one of them with jet engines, the other one with co-rotating
propellers:
a) More roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.
b) The same yaw tendency for both aeroplanes regardless of left or right engine failure.
c) The same roll tendency for both aeroplanes.
d) Less roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.
81.5.4.1 (5588)
A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons is cruising at its
normal cruise Mach number. In this case
a) only the inboard ailerons are active.
b) only the outboard aileron are active.
c) the inboard and outboard ailerons are active.
d) only the spoilers will be active, not the ailerons.
925
81.5.4.1 (5589)
Flaperons are controls which are used simultaneously as
a) ailerons and flaps.
b) ailerons and elevator.
c) flaps and speed brakes.
d) flaps and elevator.
81.5.4.1 (5590)
When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated ?
a) Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value.
b) Flaps (and/or slats) extended or speed below a certain value..
c) Landing gear retracted.
d) Landing gear extended.
81.5.4.3 (5591)
During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function
induces a spoiler deflection:
a) downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the downgoing wing.
b) upward on the upgoing wing and downward on the downgoing wing.
c) on the upgoing wing only.
d) on the downgoing wing only.
81.5.4.5 (5592)
Differential aileron deflection:
a) equals the drag of the right and left aileron.
b) is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected.
c) increases the CLmax.
d) is required to achieve the required roll-rate.
81.5.4.5 (5593)
An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is:
a) Left aileron: 5° upRight aileron: 2° down
b) Left aileron: 2° upRight aileron: 5° down
c) Left aileron: 5° downRight aileron: 2° up
d) Left aileron: 2° downRight aileron: 5° up
81.5.4.5 (5594)
How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into and roll out from a turn ?
a) Differential aileron deflection
b) Horn-balanced controls
c) Anti-balanced rudder control
d) Servo tabs
81.5.4.5 (5595)
One method to compensate adverse yaw is a
a) differential aileron.
b) balance tab.
c) antibalance tab.
d) balance panel.
926
81.5.4.5 (5596)
Which of the following statements concerning control is correct?
a) In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger
upward than downward maximum deflection.
b) On some aeroplanes, the servo tab also serves as a trim tab.
c) Hydraulically powered control surfaces do not need mass balancing.
d) In general the maximum downward elevator deflection is larger than upward.
81.5.4.5 (5597)
Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection?
a) Adverse yaw.
b) Aileron reversal.
c) Sensitivity for spiral dive.
d) Turn co-ordination.
81.5.5.0 (5598)
If the nose of an aeroplane yaws to port (left), this causes:
a) a roll to port (left).
b) a decrease in relative airspeed on the starboard (right) wing.
c) an increase in lift on the port (left) wing.
d) a roll to starboard (right).
81.5.5.0 (5599)
Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?
a) Rolling and yawing.
b) Pitching and yawing.
c) Pitching and rolling.
d) Pitching and adverse yaw.
81.5.6.1 (5600)
Which statement is correct about a spring tab ?
a) At high IAS it behaves like a servo tab
b) At low IAS it behaves like a servo tab
c) At high IAS it behaves like a fixed extension of the elevator
d) Its main purpose is to increase stick force per g
81.5.6.1 (5601)
Which kind of ''tab'' is commonly used in case of manual reversion of fully powered
flight controls ?
a) Servo tab
b) Spring tab
c) Balance tab
d) Anti-balance tab
81.5.6.1 (5602)
An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What will happen when only the
elevator jams during flight ?
a) Pitch control reverses direction.
b) Pitch control has been lost.
c) The servo-tab now works as a negative trim-tab.
927
d) The pitch control forces double.
81.5.6.1 (5603)
A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose:
a) to decrease stick forces.
b) to prevent flutter.
c) to obtain mass balancing.
d) to decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the aeroplane.
81.5.6.1 (5604)
Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is
correct ?
a) The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind.
b) The servo tab can also be used as a trimtab.
c) The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection.
d) Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller.
81.5.6.1 (5605)
Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:
a) seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn
balance
b) upper and lower rudder, seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control
surface
c) weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balance
d) Fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder
81.5.6.1 (5606)
Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:
a) servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge
of control surface.
b) balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance.
c) mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and mass balance.
d) spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control.
81.5.6.2 (5607)
elevator deflection, dynamic pressure.
a) stabilizer position, static pressure.
b) elevator deflection, static pressure.
c) stabilizer position, total pressure.
d) 1994-08-01 0:00
81.5.6.2 (5608)
When power assisted controls are used for pitch control, this:
a) ensures that a part of the aerodynamic forces is still felt on the column.
b) makes trimming superfluous.
c) makes aerodynamic balancing of the control surfaces meaningless.
d) can only function in combination with an elevator trim tab.
81.5.7.1 (5609)
When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by mass balancing, these
weights will be located with respect to the hinge of the control surface:
a) in front of the hinge.
b) below the hinge. 928
c) above the hinge.
d) behind the hinge.
81.5.8.0 (5610)
What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal
stabilizer of a power assisted aeroplane, which is in trim ?
a) The position depends on speed, the position of slats and flaps and the position
of the centre of gravity.
b) The elevator deflection (compared to the stabilizer position) is always zero.
c) At a forward CG the elevator is deflected upward and at an aft CG the elevator is deflected
downward.
d) The elevator is always deflected slightly downwards in order to have sufficient remaining
flare capability.
81.5.8.0 (5611)
How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane change, when trimming for
speed increase ?
a) Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected trim
tab
b) The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected trim tab
c) The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a movable horizontal stabiliser
d) The exterior appearance of the aeroplane will not change
81.5.8.2 (5612)
In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with
an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because :
a) effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes
b) the pilot does not feel the stick forces at all
c) mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problems
d) trim tab deflection increases Mcrit
81.5.8.2 (5613)
How does the exterior view of an aeroplane change, when the trim is used during a
speed decrease ?
a) The elevator is deflected further upwards by means of a downwards deflected
trimtab.
b) The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of a trimmable horizontal stabiliser.
c) Nothing changes in the exterior view.
d) The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of an upwards deflected trimtab.
81.5.8.3 (5614)
If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim indicator presents:
a) nose-down.
b) neutral.
c) nose-up.
d) nose-left.
81.5.8.3 (5615)
One advantage of a movable-stabilizer system compared with a fixed stabilizer
system is that:
929
a) it is a more powerful means of trimming
b) the structure weighs less
c) it leads to greater stability in flight
d) the system's complexity is reduced
81.5.8.3 (5616)
What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabilizer jammed in
the cruise flight position ?
a) choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flapsetting for
landing.
b) choose a lower landing speed than normal.
c) if possible, relocate as many passengers as possible to the front of the cabin.
d) use the Mach trimmer until after landing.
81.5.8.3 (5617)
Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is correct, during take-off at the
maximum allowable forward centre of gravity limit, while the THS (Trimmable
Horizontal Stabilizer) has been positioned at the maximum allowable AND
(Aeroplane Noise Down) position.
a) The rotation will require extra stick force.
b) If the THS position is just within the limits of the green band, the take off warning system
will be activated.
c) Early nose wheel raising will take place.
d) Nothing special will happen.
81.5.8.3 (5618)
Which statement about the trim position is true related to centre of gravity and
adjustable stabiliser position ?
a) A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is lower than
compared with a tail heavy aeroplane
b) Because characteristic speeds at take off do not vary with centre of gravity location, the
need for stabiliser adjustment is dependent on flap position only.
c) A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is higher than compared
with a tail heavy aeroplane.
d) At the forward limit for centre of gravity, stabiliser trim is adjusted maximum Nose Down to
obtain maximum elevator authority at take off rotation.
81.6.1.0 (5619)
""Flutter"" may be caused by:
a) distorsion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration
in the resonance frequency.
b) low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
c) roll control reversal.
d) high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
81.6.1.1 (5620)
A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach
Number with constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:
a) VMO.
b) VNE.
c) VD.
d) MMO. 930
81.6.1.1 (5621)
VMO :
a) should be not greater than VC.
b) should be chosen in between VC and VD
c) is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity.
d) is the calibrated airspeed at which MMO is reached at 35 000 ft.
81.6.1.2 (5622)
A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and constant
weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:
a) MMO.
b) VMO.
c) VA.
d) MD.
81.6.1.2 (5623)
Which statement with respect to the climb is correct ?
a) At constant IAS the Mach number increases
b) At constant IAS the TAS decreases
c) At constant Mach number the IAS increases
d) At constant TAS the Mach number decreases
81.6.2.1 (5624)
The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport
aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula:(SQRT= square root)
a) VA= VS SQRT(2.5)
b) VS= VA SQRT(2.5)
c) VS= VA SQRT(3.75)
d) Va= VA SQRT(3.75)
81.6.2.1 (5625)
By what percentage does VA (EAS) alter when the aeroplane's weight decreases by
19%?
a) 10% lower.
b) 4.36% lower.
c) no change
d) 19% lower.
81.6.2.1 (5626)
Which load factor determines VA?
a) manoeuvring limit load factor.
b) manoeuvring ultimate load factor.
c) gust load factor at 66 ft/sec gust.
d) manoeuvring flap limit load factor.
81.6.2.1 (5627)
What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding VA ?
a) It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully deflected upwards
b) It may break if the elevator is fully deflected upwards.
c) It may suffer permanent deformation because the flight is performed at too large dynamic
931
pressure.
d) It will collapse if a turn is made.
81.6.2.1 (5628)
What is the limit load factor of a large transport aeroplane in the manoeuvring
diagram?
a) 2.5
b) 1.5
c) 3.75
d) 6
81.6.2.1 (5629)
VA is:
a) the maximum speed at which maximum elevator deflection up is allowed.
b) the maximum speed at which rolls are allowed.
c) the speed at which a heavy transport aeroplane should fly in turbulence.
d) the speed that should not be exceeded in the climb.
81.6.2.1 (5630)
Load factor is :
a) Lift/Weight
b) Weight/Lift
c) 1/Bank angle
d) Wing loading
81.6.2.1 (5631)
For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VA is :
a) the speed at which the aeroplane stalls at the manoeuvring limit load factor at
MTOW.
b) the maximum speed in smooth air
c) the speed at which unrestricted application of elevator control can be used, without
exceeding the maximum manoeuvring limit load factor
d) just another symbol for the rough air speed
81.6.2.1 (5632)
The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with
flaps extended is:
a) 2.0
b) 1.5
c) 2.5
d) 3.75
81.6.2.1 (5633)
The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility
category in the clean configuration is:
a) 4.4
b) 2.5
c) 3.8
d) 6.0
932
81.6.3.0 (5634)
Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an aeroplane is correct (all
other factors of importance being constant) ?1. Increasing the aspect-ratio of the
wing will increase the gust load factor.2. Increasing the speed will increase the
gust load factor.
a) 1 and 2 are correct.
b) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
c) 1 and 2 are incorrect.
d) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
81.6.3.0 (5635)
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Limiting factors in severe turbulence are the possibility of a stall and the margin
to the structural limitations
b) Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence it is possible to reduce the speed and
increase the margins to the structural limits
c) By increasing the flap setting in severe turbulence the stall speed will be reduced and the
risk for exceeding the structural limits will be decreased
d) Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence the centre of pressure will move aft
which will increase the margins to the structural limits
81.6.3.1 (5636)
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.42, increase
in angle of attack of 1 degree increases CL by is 0.1. A vertical up gust instantly
changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load factor will be :
a) 1.71
b) 0.74
c) 1.49
d) 2.49
81.6.3.1 (5637)
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.4. Increase
of angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.09. A vertical up gust instantly
a) 2.13
b) 1.09
c) 2.0
d) 3.18
81.6.3.1 (5638)
The shape of the gust load diagram is also determinated by the following three
vertical speed in ft/s (clean configuration) :
a) 25, 50, 66
b) 15, 56, 65
c) 25, 55, 75
d) 35, 55, 66
81.6.3.1 (5639)
Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean
configuration) ?
a) 50 ft/sec and VC. 933
b) 66 ft/sec and VD.
c) 65 ft/sec at all speeds.
d) 55 ft/sec and VB.
81.6.3.1 (5640)
The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and manoeuvre) diagrams is
created by the speed:
a) VD
b) VC
c) Vflutter
d) VMO
81.6.3.1 (5641)
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.35. Increase
in angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.079. A vertical up gust instantly
a) 1.45
b) 0.9
c) 0.45
d) 1.9
81.6.3.1 (5642)
Which has the effect of increasing load factor ? (all other relevant factors being
constant)
a) Vertical gusts
b) Increased aeroplane mass
c) Increased air density
d) Rearward CG location
81.6.3.2 (5643)
What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence :
a) swept wings
b) straight wings
c) wing dihedral
d) winglets
81.6.3.2 (5644)
Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane (IAS and all other
factors of importance remaining constant) ?1. the gust load increases, when the
weight decreases.2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases.
a) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
c) 1 and 2 are incorrect.
d) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
81.7.1.0 (5645)
The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between blade chord line and:
a) Local air speed vector.
b) Direction of propeller axis.
c) Aeroplane heading.
d) Principal direction of propeller blade. 934
81.7.1.1 (5646)
Which of these definitions of propeller parameters is correct?
a) geometric propeller pitch = the theoretical distance a propeller blade element is
travelling in forward direction in one propeller revolution
b) Blade angle = angle between blade chord line and propeller axis
c) Propeller angle of attack = angle between blade chord line and propeller vertical plane
d) Critical tip velocity = propeller speed at which risk of flow separation at some parts of
propeller blade occurs.
81.7.1.2 (5647)
Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip?
a) Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio
of that segment 's speed in the plane of rotation and the true airspeed of the
aeroplane.
b) Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio of that
segment 's speed in the plane of rotation and the angular velocity of the propellers.
c) To ensure that the root produces most thrust.
d) To ensure that the tip produces most thrust.
81.7.1.3 (5648)
Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch
propellers because they:
a) produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed range.
b) have a higher maximum efficiency than a fixed-pitch propeller.
c) produce a greater maximum thrust than a fixed-pitch propeller.
d) have more blade surface area than a fixed-pitch propeller.
81.7.1.3 (5649)
If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide
with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will:
a) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
b) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
c) increase and the rate of descent will increase.
d) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
81.7.1.3 (5650)
Does the pitch-angle of a constant-speed propeller alter in medium horizontal
turbulence?
a) Yes slightly.
b) Yes strongly.
c) No.
d) Yes, but only if the pitch is full-fine.
81.7.1.3 (5651)
Which of the following statements about a constant speed propeller is correct?
a) The blade angle increases with increasing speed.
b) The propeller system keeps the aeroplane speed constant.
c) The RPM decreases with increasing aeroplane speed.
d) The selected RPM is kept constant by the manifold pressure.
935
81.7.1.3 (5652)
The propeller blade angle of attack on a fixed pitch propeller is increased when :
a) RPM increases and forward velocity decreases
b) velocity and RPM increase
c) forward velocity increases and RPM decreasing
d) velocity and RPM decrease
81.7.1.3 (5653)
If you decrease the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS
the lift to drag ratio will
a) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
b) increase and the rate of descent will increase.
c) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
d) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
81.7.1.3 (5654)
If you increase the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS
the lift to drag ratio will
a) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
d) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
81.7.1.4 (5655)
For a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle of attack of each blade,
measured at the reference section:
a) is optimum when the aircraft is in a stabilized cruising flight.
b) decreases when the aircraft speed decreases (with identical engine RPM).
c) is lower in ground run than in flight (with identical engine RPM).
d) is always positive during idling descent.
81.7.1.4 (5656)
Propeller efficiency may be defined as the ratio between:
a) usable (power available) power of the propeller and shaft power.
b) the thrust and the maximum thrust.
c) the usable (power available) power and the maximum power.
d) the thermal power of fuel-flow and shaft power.
81.7.2.1 (5657)
If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle
power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will:
a) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
d) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
81.7.2.1 (5658)
An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller and a non rotating (2)
propeller. Which statement about propeller drag is correct?
a) (1) is larger than (2).
b) (1) is equal to (2). 936
c) (2) is larger than (1).
d) impossible to say which one is largest.
81.7.2.1 (5659)
When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered position:
a) the drag of the propeller is then minimal.
b) the propeller produces an optimal windmilling RPM.
c) the windmilling RPM is the maximum.
d) the RPM is then just sufficient to lubricate the engine.
81.7.3.3 (5660)
Increasing the number of propeller blades will:
a) increase the maximum absorption of power.
b) increase the propeller efficiency.
c) increase the noise level at maximum power.
d) decrease the torque in the propeller shaft at maximum power.
81.7.3.3 (5661)
Which is one of the disadvantages of increasing the number of propeller blades ?
a) decrease propeller efficiency
b) Increased noise
c) Less power can be absorbed by the propeller
d) Higher tip-speed
81.7.4.1 (5662)
A propeller turns to the right, seen from behind. The torque effect in the take-off
will:
a) roll the aeroplane to the left.
b) pitch the aeroplane nose down.
c) roll the aeroplane to the right.
d) pitch the aeroplane nose up.
81.7.4.2 (5663)
Gyroscopic precession of the propeller is induced by:
a) pitching and yawing.
b) pitching and rolling.
c) increasing RPM and yawing.
d) increasing RPM and rolling.
81.7.4.4 (5664)
A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect
is mainly induced by:
a) high angles of attack.
b) high speed.
c) large angles of yaw.
d) large angles of climb.
81.7.4.4 (5665)
A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect
in the climb will: 937
a) yaw the aeroplane to the left.
b) roll the aeroplane to the left.
c) yaw the aeroplane to the right.
d) roll the aeroplane to the right.
81.8.1.2 (5666)
The lift of an aeroplane of weight W in a constant linear climb with a climb angle
(gamma) is approximately:
a) Wcos.gamma.
b) W(1-sin.gamma).
c) W(1-tan.gamma).
d) W/cos.gamma.
81.8.1.3 (5667)
An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 kts IAS and 1000 feet/min
vertical speed. In this condition:
a) weight is greater than lift
b) lift is equal to weight
c) lift is less than drag
d) drag is less than the combined forces that move the aeroplane forward
81.8.1.4 (5668)
What factors determine the distance travelled over the ground of an aeroplane in a
glide ?
a) The wind and the lift/drag ratio, which changes with angle of attack
b) The wind and the aeroplane's mass
c) The wind and CLmax
d) The wind and weight together with power loading, which is the ratio of power output to the
weight
81.8.1.4 (5669)
What is the correct relation of the True Air Speed (TAS) for minimum sink rate
(VR/Dmin) and best glide angle (VBest glide) at a given altitude?
a) VR/Dmin < VBest glide
b) VR/Dmin = VBest glide
c) VR/Dmin > VBest glide
d) VR/Dmin > VBest glide or VR/Dmin < VBest glide depending on the type of aeroplane.
81.8.1.4 (5670)
Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic) ?
a) The gliding angle is minimum.
b) The CL/CD ratio is minimum.
c) Induced drag is greater than the parasite drag.
d) Propeller aeroplanes fly at that speed at max. endurance.
81.8.1.4 (5671)
Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a
glide ?
a) tailwind
b) headwind
938
c) increase of aeroplane weight
d) decrease of aeroplane weight
81.8.1.5 (5672)
A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding
altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to:
a) increase thrust and angle of attack.
b) increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.
c) increase thrust and decrease angle of attack.
d) increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.
81.8.1.5 (5673)
An aeroplane is in a steady turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank angle of
45°. Its turning radius is equal to:(given: g= 10 m/s²)
a) 2381 metres.
b) 4743 metres.
c) 9000 metres.
d) 3354 metres.
81.8.1.5 (5674)
By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady level turn at 45° angle of
bank, compared to straight and level flight?
a) 41%.
b) 19%.
c) 31%.
d) 52%.
81.8.1.5 (5675)
A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kt TAS. A more heavy
aeroplane at the same bank and the same speed will:
a) turn at the same turn radius.
b) turn at a bigger turn radius.
c) turn at a smaller turn radius.
d) turn at a higher turn rate.
81.8.1.5 (5676)
The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:
a) TAS.
b) weight.
c) load factor.
d) wind.
81.8.1.5 (5677)
The turn indicator shows a right turn. The slip indicator is left of neutral. To
coordinate the turn:
a) more right bank is required.
b) more right rudder is required.
c) less right bank is required.
d) a higher turn rate is required.
939
81.8.1.5 (5678)
What is the approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane at a gross weight of 50
000 N, in a horizontal coordinated 45 degrees banked turn ?
a) 70 000 N
b) 60 000 N
c) 50 000 N
d) 80 000 N
81.8.2.1 (5679)
Which statement is correct about an aeroplane, that has experienced a left engine
failure and continues afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings
level ?
a) turn indicator neutral, slip indicator neutral.
b) turn indicator neutral, slip indicator left of neutral.
c) turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator left of neutral.
d) turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator neutral.
81.8.2.9 (5680)
Which of the following statements is correct ?I When the critical engine fails
during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting.II The speed VMCL is always
limited by maximum rudder deflection.
a) I is incorrect, II is incorrect
b) I is correct, II is correct
c) I is correct, II is incorrect
d) I is incorrect, II is correct
81.8.2.9 (5681)
I is incorrect, II is correct
a) I is correct, II is correct
b) I is incorrect, II is incorrect
c) I is correct, II is incorrect
d) 1998-10-05 0:00
81.8.2.9 (5682)
I is correct, II is correct
a) I is incorrect, II is incorrect
b) I is correct, II is incorrect
c) I is incorrect, II is correct
d) 1998-10-05 0:00
81.8.2.10 (5683)
Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected?
a) Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery
runways.
b) Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.
c) Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel has already
been lifted off the ground.
d) Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG.
81.8.2.11 (5684)
decreases, because the engine thrust decreases. 940
a) decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS
constant and decreasing density
b) increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required
rudder force
c) increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density
decreases
d) 1998-10-05 0:00
81.8.3.3 (5685)
(For this question use annex 081-6262A)Which point marks the value for minimum
sink rate?
a) Point c
b) Point a
c) Point b
d) Point d
81.8.3.3 (5686)
(For this question use annex 081-6263A)Which point in the diagram gives the best
glide condition?
a) Point b
b) Point a
c) Point c
d) Point d
81.8.3.3 (5687)
(For this question use annex 081-6264A)Which point in the diagram gives the
lowest speed in horizontal flight?
a) Point d
b) Point a
c) Point b
d) Point c
81.8.3.3 (5688)
From the polar diagram of the entire aeroplane one can read:
a) the maximum CL/CD ratio and maximum lift coefficient.
b) the minimum drag and the maximum lift.
c) the minimum drag coefficient and the maximum lift.
d) the minimum CL/CD ratio and the minimum drag.
81.8.3.3 (5689)
(CL/CD)max
a) CLmax
b) (CL/CD^2)max
c) (CL^3/CD^2)max
d) 1998-10-05 0:00
91.1.1.0 (5690)
What does the term ""blind transmission"" mean?
a) A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-
way communication cannot be established but it is believed that the called station
941
is able to receive the transmission.
b) A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific
station or stations.
c) A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the
safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.
d) A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.
91.1.2.0 (5691)
Which abbreviation is used for the term ""control zone""?
a) CTR.
b) CZ.
c) CTZ.
d) CTA.
91.1.2.0 (5692)
What does the abbreviation ""AFIS"" mean?
a) Aerodrome flight information service.
b) Automatic flight information service.
c) Aeronautical flight information system.
d) Aerodrome flashing identification signal.
91.1.2.0 (5693)
What does the abbreviation ""FIR"" mean?
a) Flight information region.
b) Flight information required.
c) Flow information received.
d) Flight information radar.
91.1.2.0 (5694)
What does the abbreviation ""HJ"" mean?
a) Sunrise to sunset.
b) Sunset to sunrise.
c) No specific working hours.
d) Continuous day and night service.
91.1.2.0 (5695)
What does the abbreviation ""HX"" mean?
a) No specific working hours.
b) Sunrise to sunset.
c) Sunset to sunrise.
d) Continuous day and night service.
91.1.2.0 (5696)
Which abbreviation is used for ""Co-ordinated universal time""?
a) UTC.
b) CUT.
c) GMT.
d) COUT.
91.1.3.0 (5697)
What does QTE mean? 942
a) True bearing from the station.
b) Magnetic bearing from the station.
c) True heading to the station (no wind).
d) Magnetic heading to the station.
91.1.3.0 (5698)
What is the Q-code for ""true bearing from the station""?
a) QTE
b) QDR
c) QDM
d) QFE
91.1.3.0 (5699)
What does QDR mean?
a) Magnetic bearing from the station
b) Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)
c) True bearing from the station
d) True heading to the station
91.1.3.0 (5700)
What is the Q-code for ""magnetic bearing from the station""?
a) QDR
b) QTE
c) QDM
d) QFE
91.1.3.0 (5701)
If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you
refer ?
a) QFE
b) QNH
c) QDM
d) QBI
91.1.3.0 (5702)
Which Q-code is used to report altitude ?
a) QNH
b) QFE
c) QFF
d) QNJ
91.1.3.0 (5703)
What does QDM mean?
a) Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)
b) Magnetic bearing from the station
c) True heading to the station (no wind)
d) True bearing from the station
91.1.3.0 (5704)
What is the Q-code for ""magnetic heading to the station (no wind)? 943
a) QDM.
b) QDR.
c) QNE.
d) QTE.
91.1.4.0 (5705)
A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is:
a) A flight regularity message.
b) An urgency message.
c) A flight safety message.
d) A flight security message.
91.1.4.0 (5706)
Flight safety messages are:
a) Air traffic control messages.
b) Operation messages concerning non-routine landings.
c) Messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a person.
d) Messages relating to direction finding.
91.1.4.0 (5707)
A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger,
requiring immediate assistance is called:
a) Distress message.
b) Flight safety message.
c) Urgency message.
d) Class B message.
91.1.4.0 (5708)
Which of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical
mobile service?
a) Radio teletype messages.
b) Meteorological messages.
c) Flight safety messages.
d) Urgency messages.
91.1.4.0 (5709)
The message to an aeronautical ground station ""please call a taxi-cab for us. We
will arrive at 1045"" is:
a) An unauthorized message.
b) A flight regularity message.
c) A flight safety messages.
d) An urgency message.
91.1.4.0 (5710)
The priority of the instruction ""taxi to runway 05"" is:
a) Same as ""line-up runway 07 and wait"".
b) Greater than ""transmit for QDM"".
c) Greater than ""caution, construction work left of taxiway"".
d) Less than ""cleared to land"".
944
91.1.4.0 (5711)
The message addressed to an Area Control Center ""request radar vectors to
circumnavigate adverse weather"" is:
a) A flight safety message.
b) A meteorological message.
c) An urgency message.
d) A message relating to direction finding.
91.1.4.0 (5712)
Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc.) belong to the category
of:
a) Flight safety messages.
b) Class B messages.
c) Flight regularity messages.
d) Service messages.
91.1.4.0 (5713)
The clearance : ""cleared for immediate take-off runway 03"" is:
a) A flight safety message.
b) An urgency message.
c) An unauthorized message.
d) A flight regularity message.
91.1.4.0 (5714)
The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service
is:
a) Distress message, urgency message, direction finding message.
b) Direction finding message, distress message, urgency message.
c) Distress message, flight safety message, urgency message.
d) Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight regularity message.
91.1.4.0 (5715)
The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service
is:
a) Flight safety message, meteorological message, flight regularity message.
b) Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight safety message.
c) Flight regularity message, distress message, meteorological message.
d) Flight safety message, direction finding message, urgency message.
91.1.4.0 (5716)
The priority of the pilot's message ""request QDM"" is:
a) Greater than ""turn left heading...""
b) Less than ""request climb to flight level...""
c) Less than ""descend to flight level...""
d) Same as ""latest QNH 1018"".
91.2.1.0 (5717)
What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message?
a) Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlie
b) Hotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo
945
c) Hotel Bravo India Yankee Charlie
d) Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie
91.2.2.0 (5718)
What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when indicating an
altitude or an height ?
a) three thousand five hundred
b) three five zero zero
c) three five hundred
d) three five double zero
91.2.2.0 (5719)
What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH ?
a) QNH one zero zero one
b) QNH one double ""O"" one
c) QNH one thousand and one
d) QNH one double zero one
91.2.2.0 (5720)
During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point :
a) The term DECIMAL must always be transmitted.
b) The term DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only.
c) The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding exists.
d) The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by three digits.
91.2.3.0 (5721)
When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?
a) Co-ordinated universal time (UTC)
b) Local time (LT), 24-hour clock
c) Local time (LT) A.M. and P.M.
d) No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required
91.2.3.0 (5722)
The time is 9:20 A.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is
no possibility of confusion about the hour ?
a) Two zero.
b) Twenty.
c) Two zero this hour.
d) Nine twenty A.M.
91.2.4.0 (5723)
My message will be more effective and understandable if I :
a) Maintain the speaking volume at a constant level
b) Use the words twice method
c) Stress the end of message
d) Stress every beginning of message
91.2.4.0 (5724)
What is meant by good microphone technique ?
a) Use a normal conversation tone, speak clearly and distinctly. 946
b) Speak very loudly into the microphone.
c) Keep the microphone far away since it improveds the readability.
d) Make large use of hesitation sounds as ""er"".
91.2.5.0 (5725)
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say:""I understand your message and
will comply with it"":
a) Wilco
b) Roger
c) Will comply with your instruction
d) OK, will do it
91.2.5.0 (5726)
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ""Yes"":
a) Affirm
b) Yes
c) Roger
d) Affirmative
91.2.5.0 (5727)
How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off:
a) Ready for departure or ready
b) Ready for take-off
c) Ready to line-up
d) Ready to go
91.2.5.0 (5728)
Which of these phrases is used to inform the control tower that a pilot perform a
missed approach:
a) Going around
b) Overshooting
c) Will make another approach
d) Pulling up
91.2.5.0 (5729)
What does the instruction ""Go around"" mean ?
a) Carry out a missed approach
b) Overtake the aircraft ahead
c) Make a 360° turn
d) Proceed with your message
91.2.5.0 (5730)
What does the instruction ""Orbit right"" mean ?
a) Make 360° turns to the right
b) Turn right to avoid other traffic
c) Right-hand circuits are in use
d) Leave the runway to the right
91.2.5.0 (5731)
What does the instruction ""Vacate left"" mean ? 947
a) Turn left to leave the runway
b) Give way to aircraft from the left
c) Clear the runway immediately
d) Hold position on the left side of the runway
91.2.5.0 (5732)
What does the phrase ""Go ahead"" mean:
a) Proceed with your message
b) Taxi on
c) Pass me the following information...
d) Yes
91.2.5.0 (5733)
What does the phrase ""Roger"" mean:
a) I have received all of your last transmission
b) A direct answer in the affirmative
c) A direct answer in the negative
d) Cleared for take-off or cleared to land
91.2.5.0 (5734)
Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase ""Standby"" ?
a) Wait and I will call you
b) Continue on present heading and listen out
c) Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder
d) Permission granted for action proposed
91.2.5.0 (5735)
What does the phrase ""Read back"" mean:
a) Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received
b) Let me know that you have received and understood this message
c) Did you correctly receive this message?
d) Check and confirm with originator
91.2.5.0 (5736)
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ""I should like to know..."" or ""I
wish to obtain...""?
a) Request
b) Report
c) Acknowledge
d) Confirm
91.2.5.0 (5737)
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ""Pass me the following
information..."":
a) Report
b) Request
c) Say again
d) Check
948
91.2.5.0 (5738)
Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly:
a) Correct
b) That is right
c) Affirm
d) That is affirmative
91.2.5.0 (5739)
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ""An error has been made in this
transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is ..."":
a) QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016
b) QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016
c) QNH 1017, negative 1016
d) QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016
91.2.5.0 (5740)
Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required:
a) Say again
b) Repeat your message
c) What was your message?
d) Repeat your last transmission
91.2.5.0 (5741)
Which phraseology is to be used to ask the control tower for permission to taxi on
a runway in the direction opposite to that in use ?
a) ""Request backtrack on runway"".
b) ""Clearance to backtrack"".
c) ""To enter back runway"".
d) ""Backtrack clearance"".
91.2.5.0 (5742)
Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say :""Wait and i will call you""?
a) Standby.
b) Go ahead.
c) Roger.
d) Wilco.
91.2.6.0 (5743)
What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating
aerodrome control service:
a) TOWER
b) CONTROL
c) AERODROME
d) APRON
91.2.6.0 (5744)
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing flight
information service:
a) INFORMATION
b) FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE
949
c) FLIGHT CENTRE
d) CONTROL
91.2.6.0 (5745)
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface
movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area:
a) GROUND
b) APPROACH
c) TOWER
d) CONTROL
91.2.6.0 (5746)
When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an
aeronautical station be omitted ?
a) When satisfactory communication has been established and provided it will not
be confusing to do so
b) Never
c) Only after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call sign
d) In dense traffic during rush hours
91.2.7.0 (5747)
Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct:
a) X-BC
b) XY-BC
c) ABC
d) BC
91.2.7.0 (5748)
Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XY-ABC is correct:
a) Cherokee BC
b) Cherokee XY-BC
c) Cherokee X-BC
d) Cherokee X-ABC
91.2.7.0 (5749)
When is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign ?
a) After it has been addressed in this manner by the aeronautical ground station
b) Only after satisfactory communication has been established
c) Provided no confusion is likely to result
d) In dense traffic
91.2.8.0 (5750)
How should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER on initial call ?
a) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC
b) Stephenville TOWER X-BC
c) Stephenville XY-ABC
d) TOWER XY-ABC
91.2.8.0 (5751)
Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency
950
118.7. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ?
a) 118.7 X-BC
b) Will change to TOWER X-BC
c) Changing over X-BC
d) Stephenville TOWER X-BC
91.2.8.0 (5752)
Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.25, on which
information are being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that it
will follow this instruction ?
a) Monitoring 123.25 X-BC
b) Changing to 123.25 X-BC
c) Will contact 123.25 X-BC
d) Checking 123.25 X-BC
91.2.8.0 (5753)
What is the correct way to transmit and read back frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF
channel separated by 25 KHz):
a) One two zero decimal three seven
b) One twenty decimal three seven
c) One two zero decimal three seven five
d) One two zero three seven
91.2.9.0 (5754)
Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on
frequency 118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission:
a) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC radio check 118.7
b) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC preflight check
c) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC signal check
d) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC frequency check
91.2.9.0 (5755)
On the readability scale what does ""Readability 3"" mean:
a) Readable but with difficulty
b) No problem to understand
c) Loud and clear
d) Unreadable
91.2.9.0 (5756)
On the readability scale what does ""Readability 5"" mean:
a) Perfectly readable
b) Unreadable
c) Problem to understand
d) Readable but with difficulty
91.2.10.0 (5757)
Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back ?
a) Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and
speed instructions
b) Runway-in-use, visibility, surface wind, heading instructions, altimeter settings
951
c) Surface wind, visibility, ground temperature, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, heading and
speed instructions
d) Time check, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, level instructions, SSR codes
91.2.10.0 (5758)
Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back:
a) Yes, unless authorized otherwise by ATS authority concerned
b) No, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (e.g. Standard Instrument
Departure Route/SID)
c) No, if the communication channel is overloaded
d) No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise
91.2.10.0 (5759)
An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct
phraseology to indicate it will follow this instruction ?
a) Holding short
b) Roger
c) Will stop before
d) Wilco
91.2.10.0 (5760)
Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction: ""X-BC climb straight ahead
until 2500 feet before turning right, wind 270 degrees 6 knots, cleared for take-
off"".What is the correct read back:
a) Straight ahead, at 2500 feet right turn, cleared for take-off, X-BC
b) Wilco, cleared for take-off, X-BC
c) Right turn after 2500, roger, X-BC
d) Straight ahead, 2500 feet right turn, wind west 6 knots, cleared for take-off, X-BC
91.2.10.0 (5761)
How should a pilot terminate the read-back of an ATC clearance ?
a) With his own aircraft call sign
b) With the word ""wilco""
c) With the ATC ground station call sign
d) With the word ""roger""
91.2.11.0 (5762)
An aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet.TOWER requests heading and level.
What is the correct response:
a) Heading 045 at 2500 feet
b) Heading north-east at level 25
c) Heading 45 at 2500 feet
d) 045 and 2500
91.2.11.0 (5763)
What does the phrase ""Squawk 1234"" mean:
a) Select code 1234 on the SSR transponder
b) Give a short count for DF (direction finder)
c) Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHz
d) Standby on frequency 123.4 MHz
952
91.2.11.0 (5764)
RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: ""X-BC identified"". What does this mean:
a) Radar identification has been achieved
b) X-BC is not visible on the radar screen
c) X-BC should perform an identification turn
d) X-BC should operate the IDENT-button
91.2.11.0 (5765)
RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC:""X-BC squawk ident"". What does this mean:
a) X-BC shall operate the IDENT button
b) Radar identification has been achieved by correlating an observed radar blip with aircraft
XY-ABC
c) X-BC should perform an identification turn of at least 020 degrees
d) X-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and code
91.2.11.0 (5766)
RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC:""X-BC squawk standby "". What does this mean?
a) X-BC is requested to switch to standby position
b) X-BC is requested to standby on the frequency
c) X-BC is requested to standby for radar vectors
d) X-BC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy
91.2.11.0 (5767)
RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: ""X-BC recycle 1015"". What does this mean:
a) X-BC is requested to reselect SSR code 1015
b) X-BC is requested to set new code 1015
c) X-BC has been identified by SSR code 1015
d) X-BC has been identified at 10:15 (UTC)
91.2.11.0 (5768)
How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with
transponder:
a) Negative transponder
b) No SSR
c) Transponder not available
d) Negative squawk
91.3.1.0 (5769)
When the term ""Broken"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR),
the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
a) 5 to 7 octas
b) 1 to 4 octas
c) 8 octas below 10000 feet
d) No clouds below 5000 feet
91.3.1.0 (5770)
When the term ""Overcast"" is used in an aviation routine weather report
(METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
a) 100%
b) 50% or more
953
c) Less than 50%
d) No clouds but poor ground visibility
91.3.1.0 (5771)
When the term ""CAVOK"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR),
the values of visibility and clouds are:
a) Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 feet/GND
b) Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 feet/GND
c) Visibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 feet/GND
d) Visibility more than 5000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GND
91.3.1.0 (5772)
How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in
plain language:
a) Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres
b) Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres
c) In feet and nautical miles
d) In nautical miles only
91.3.1.0 (5773)
What is the correct way of expressing visibility ?
a) Visibility 1200 metres
b) Visibility 1200 feet
c) Visibility 1.2 nautical miles
d) Visibility 1.2 kilometres
91.3.1.0 (5774)
When the term ""Scattered"" is used in an aviation routine weather report
(METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
a) Half or less than half (3 or 4 octas)
b) More than half but less than overcast (5 to 7 octas)
c) Sky entirely covered (8 octas)
d) No clouds below 5000 feet/GND
91.3.2.0 (5775)
What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts ?
a) Discrete VHF frequency or/and VOR
b) Voice channel of an ILS
c) NDB frequencies
d) DME voice channel
91.3.2.0 (5776)
How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained
by aircraft in flight:
a) VOLMET
b) ATIS
c) AFIS
d) SIGMET
954
91.3.2.0 (5777)
Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET:
a) Aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports
b) SPECI and TAF
c) SIGMET
d) Runway reports
91.4.0.0 (5778)
What is the transponder code for radio communication failure:
a) 7600
b) 6700
c) 7500
d) 7700
91.4.0.0 (5779)
An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates:
a) It is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure
b) It is diverting to the alternate aerodrome
c) It is requesting immediate level change
d) It is about to make a forced landing
91.4.0.0 (5780)
An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on
the designated frequency. What action is required by the pilot:
a) Attempt to establish contact with the station on an alternative frequency
b) Continue the flight to the destination airport without any communication
c) Return to the airport of departure
d) Land at the nearest airport without an ATC unit
91.4.0.0 (5781)
What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to
establish radio contact with an aeronautical station ?
a) Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautical stations
b) Divert to the alternate airport
c) Squawk mode A code 7500
d) Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight
91.4.0.0 (5782)
A message preceded by the phrase ""Transmitting blind due receiver failure"" shall
be transmitted:
a) On the frequency presently in use
b) On the regional guard frequency
c) On the international emergency frequency
d) On all available aeronautical stations
91.4.0.0 (5783)
If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an
aeroplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase:
a) ""Transmitting blind""
b) ""Read you one, read you one""
955
c) ""How do you read?""
d) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
91.4.0.0 (5784)
In the event that a pilot is required to make a blind transmission, this should be
made:
a) Twice on the designated frequency
b) Only once on the designated frequency
c) On the emergency frequency only
d) During VFR flights only
91.4.0.0 (5785)
When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase ""Transmitting blind due to
receiver failure"" during an en-route flight, the aircraft station shall also:
a) Advise the time of its next intended transmission
b) Join base leg when approaching the airfield for landing
c) Land at the nearest airfield/airport
d) Return to the airport of departure
91.4.0.0 (5786)
Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600 ?
a) In case of radio communication failure
b) When entering bad weather areas
c) When approaching a prohibited area
d) When flying over desert areas
91.4.0.0 (5787)
When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing communications failure keep a
watch for instructions passed by visual signals ?
a) When the aircraft is forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled
aerodrome
b) When flying VFR above clouds
c) When the aircraft is entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airport
d) When entering a FIR during an IFR flight
91.5.1.0 (5788)
An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:
a) 7700
b) 6700
c) 7600
d) 7500
91.5.1.0 (5789)
Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk 7700 ?
a) In distress
b) When following a SID
c) When flying within controlled airspace
d) When passing the transition level
956
91.5.1.0 (5790)
Distress is defined as:
a) A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and
requiring immediate assistance
b) A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does not
require immediate assistance
c) A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an
ILS approach
d) A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring
immediate assistance
91.5.1.0 (5791)
An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony:
a) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
b) DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFA
c) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
d) URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY
91.5.1.0 (5792)
The frequency used for the first transmission of a ""MAYDAY"" call shall be:
a) The frequency currently in use
b) The distress frequency 121.5 MHz
c) Any other international emergency frequency
d) Any frequency at pilot's discretion
91.5.1.0 (5793)
The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/
details:
a) Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilot's intention, present position, level and
heading
b) Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport
c) Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level
d) Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required
91.5.1.0 (5794)
Which of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency:
a) 121.500 MHz
b) 122.500 MHz
c) 6500 KHz
d) 121.050 MHz
91.5.2.0 (5795)
Urgency is defined as:
a) A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on
board, but which does not require immediate assistance
b) A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring
immediate assistance
c) A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an
ILS approach
d) A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring
immediate assistance 957
91.5.2.0 (5796)
An urgency message shall be preceded by the radiotelephony urgency signal:
a) PAN PAN, spoken three times
b) URGENCY,spoken three times
c) MAYDAY, spoken three times
d) ALERFA, spoken three times
91.5.2.0 (5797)
Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call:
a) The air-ground frequency in use at the time
b) The international emergency frequency
c) The regional guard frequency
d) Any frequency at pilot's discretion
91.6.0.0 (5798)
Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile
Service?
a) 118.000 - 136.975 MHZ
b) 108.000 - 117.975 MHz
c) 1810 - 2850 KHz
d) 11650 - 13200 KHz
91.6.0.0 (5799)
Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission ?
a) Level of aircraft and terrain elevations
b) The ionosphere
c) Electrical discharges as they happen frequently in thunderstorms
d) Day- and night effect
91.6.0.0 (5800)
Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of
theTOWER frequency 118.2 MHz:
a) Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground station
b) Aircraft at low level but far away from the ground station
c) Aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill
d) Aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill
91.6.0.0 (5801)
Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over
flat terrain at flight level 50:
a) About 85 NM
b) About 8 NM
c) About 15 NM
d) About 150 NM
91.6.0.0 (5802)
Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over
flat terrain at flight level 100:
a) About 120 NM
b) About 300 NM
958
c) About 30 NM
d) About 12 NM
91.6.0.0 (5803)
To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the
Aeronautical Mobile Service belong ?
a) Very high frequency
b) Very low frequency
c) Low frequency
d) Medium frequency
91.6.0.0 (5804)
Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF
band:
a) 25 KHz
b) 50 KHz
c) 75 KHz
d) 250 KHz
91.6.0.0 (5805)
What are the propagation characteristics of VHF:
a) Practically straight-line similar to light waves
b) The waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the
earth surface in the form of sky-waves
c) The waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into valleys in a way that
topographical obstacles have no influence
d) Similar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance
92.1.1.0 (5806)
What does the term ""broadcast"" mean?
a) A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to
a specific station or stations.
b) A radiotelephony transmission from ground station to aircraft in flight.
c) A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.
d) A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in
flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations.
92.1.1.0 (5807)
What does the term ""air-ground communication"" mean?
a) Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the
surface of the earth
b) One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth
c) One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth
d) Any communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the Aeronautical
Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)
92.1.1.0 (5808)
What does the term ""Expected Approach Time"" mean:
a) The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will
leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing
959
b) The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination
aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing
c) The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated
navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome
d) The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a
landing will be initiated
92.1.1.0 (5809)
When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term
""Visual approach"" ?
a) An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach
procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to
terrain
b) An approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMC
c) A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the
aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima
d) An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for
landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in-approach
92.1.1.0 (5810)
What does the term ""clearance limit"" mean:
a) The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance
b) The time of expiry of an air traffic control clearance
c) The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearance
d) The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the
flight has not been commenced
92.1.1.0 (5811)
An ""Automatic Terminal Information Service"" provides:
a) Routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous
and repetitive broadcast .
b) Information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of
aircraft operation.
c) Current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of the air
navigation within a FIR.
d) Weather reports relating a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight
information region (FIR).
92.1.1.0 (5812)
What does the term ""way point"" mean:
a) A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the
flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation
b) A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation
system
c) A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use
d) A general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system of an international airport
92.1.2.0 (5813)
What does the abbreviation ""IMC"" mean?
a) Instrument meteorological conditions.
b) In most cases.
960
c) International meteorological channel.
d) In meteorological conditions.
92.1.2.0 (5814)
What does the abbreviation ""H24"" mean?
a) Continuous day and night service.
b) Sunrise to sunset.
c) Sunset to sunrise.
d) No specific working hours.
92.1.2.0 (5815)
What does the abbreviation ""AIS"" mean?
a) Aeronautical information service.
b) Aerodrome identification signal-area.
c) Airport information system.
d) Aerodrome information service.
92.1.2.0 (5816)
What does the abbreviation ""SAR"" mean?
a) Search and rescue.
b) Surveillance airport radar.
c) Standard arrival route.
d) Secondary altimeter responder.
92.1.2.0 (5817)
What does the abbreviation ""ATIS"" mean?
a) Automatic terminal information service.
b) Airport terminal information service.
c) Automatic terminal information system.
d) Air traffic information service.
92.1.2.0 (5818)
What does the abbrevation ""INS"" mean:
a) Inertial navigation system
b) Instrument navigation system
c) International NOTAM system
d) International navigation service
92.1.2.0 (5819)
What does the abbrevation ""MLS"" mean:
a) Microwave landing system
b) Minimum safe level
c) Mean sea level
d) Minimum sector level
92.1.2.0 (5820)
What does ""SELCAL"" mean:
a) A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over
radiotelephone channels linking a ground station with the aircraft
b) A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only
961
c) A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in
both directions simultaneously
d) A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS)
units
92.1.2.0 (5821)
What does the abbreviation ""SSR"" mean:
a) Secondary surveillance radar
b) Search and surveillance radar
c) Surface strength of runway
d) Standard snow report
92.1.2.0 (5822)
What does the abbrevation ""RNAV"" mean:
a) Area navigation
b) Radar aided navigation
c) Route navigation
d) Radio navigation
92.1.2.0 (5823)
What does the abbreviation ""RVR"" mean:
a) Runway visual range
b) Radar vectors requested
c) Runway visibility report
d) Recleared via route...
92.1.3.0 (5824)
QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate:
a) The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).
b) The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of
an aerodrome.
c) The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height.
d) The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum.
92.1.3.0 (5825)
QNH is the Q-code to indicate:
a) The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground.
b) The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).
c) The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP).
d) The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an
aerodrome.
92.2.2.0 (5826)
What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency ?
a) one one eight decimal one
b) one eighteen one
c) one one eight one
d) one one eight point one
962
92.2.2.0 (5827)
What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13.500 to indicate an altitude
or cloud height ?
a) one three thousand five hundred
b) one three five hundred
c) one three five zero zero
d) thirteen thousand five hundred
92.2.2.0 (5828)
During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of XY-ABC to turn on to
heading 360°. The correct read back of this instruction is :
a) Heading three six zero, X-BC.
b) Heading north, X-BC.
c) Heading three hundred sixty, X-BC.
d) A read back is not necessary as XY-ABC has been identified
92.2.3.0 (5829)
The time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is
any possibility of confusion about the hour ?
a) One six one five
b) Four fifteen P.M.
c) Sixteen fifteen
d) Four fifteen in the afternoon
92.2.4.0 (5830)
Before transmitting the pilot should...:
a) Listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station
already transmitting will occur.
b) Make sure that the aircraft is levelled off.
c) Always write the message and read it during the transmission.
d) Make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time.
92.2.4.0 (5831)
What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched
""on"") ?
a) The frequency can not be used by others.
b) None.
c) Other stations will have to use the ""words twice"" technique.
d) Readability will improve for all stations.
92.2.5.0 (5832)
Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message:
""Consider that transmission as not sent"":
a) Disregard
b) Cancel my last message
c) Forget it
d) My last transmission is cancelled
92.2.5.0 (5833)
When shall the phrase ""Take-off"" be used by a pilot :
963
a) To acknowledge take-off clearance only
b) Never, it is used only by the control tower
c) To inform TOWER when ready for departure
d) Only when the aircraft has already moved onto the active runway
92.2.5.0 (5834)
How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off
manoeuvre:
a) Stopping
b) Abandoning take-off
c) Aborting take-off
d) Cancelling take-off
92.2.5.0 (5835)
What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf
has been received:
a) Information Golf
b) Weather Golf received
c) We have the Information
d) We have the ATIS Golf
92.2.5.0 (5836)
What does the phrase ""Verify"" mean:
a) Check and confirm with originator
b) Repeat your last transmission
c) Read back VDF bearing
d) Consider that transmission as not sent
92.2.5.0 (5837)
What does the word ""Monitor"" mean:
a) Listen out on (frequency).
b) Wait and I will call you
c) Establish radio contact with...
d) Examine a system or procedure
92.2.5.0 (5838)
What does the instruction:""Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER"" mean:
a) Fastair 345 should listen on frequency 118.9 on which TOWER will initiate
further communications
b) Fastair 345 should change frequency to 118.9, on which aerodrome data are being
broadcast
c) Fastair 345 should contact TOWER on 118.9
d) Fastair 345 should standby on the current frequency
92.2.5.0 (5839)
Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency
118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction:
a) 118.0 Fastair 345
b) Changing over Fastair 345
c) Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345
d) Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345
964
92.2.5.0 (5840)
Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which he
cannot carry out:
a) Unable to comply
b) Negative instruction
c) Impossible to make it
d) Disregard
92.2.5.0 (5841)
Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed
approach procedure:
a) Going around
b) Missed approach
c) Pulling up
d) Overshooting
92.2.5.0 (5842)
What does the word ""report"" mean ?
a) Pass me the following information.
b) Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.
c) Say again.
d) Examine a system or procedure.
92.2.5.0 (5843)
Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say : ""Reduce your rate of
speech"" ?
a) Speak slower.
b) Words twice.
c) Repeat.
d) Say again.
92.2.5.0 (5844)
What does the word ""wilco"" mean ?
a) I understand your message and will comply with it.
b) I have received all of your last transmission.
c) I read you five.
d) As communication is difficult, I will call you later.
92.2.5.0 (5845)
What does the phrase ""break break"" mean ?
a) It indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in
a very busy environment.
b) It indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station.
c) The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected.
d) My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.
92.2.5.0 (5846)
What does the word ""acknowledge"" mean ?
a) Let me know that you have received and understood this message.
b) Pass me the following information.
965
c) Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.
d) Repeat all of your last transmission.
92.2.5.0 (5847)
What does the word ""approved"" mean ?
a) Permission for proposed action granted.
b) That is correct.
c) Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified.
d) I repeat for clarity or emphasis.
92.2.5.0 (5848)
Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between portions of a
message ?
a) Break.
b) Stop.
c) I say again.
d) Over.
92.2.5.0 (5849)
What does the word ""cancel"" mean ?
a) Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
b) A change has been made to your last clearance.
c) Wait and I will call you.
d) Consider that transmission as not sent.
92.2.5.0 (5850)
What does the word ""check"" mean ?
a) Examine a system or procedure.
b) Confirm your last transmission.
c) Read back my last instruction.
d) I understand your message.
92.2.5.0 (5851)
Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under
specified conditions ?
a) Cleared.
b) Go ahead.
c) Approved.
d) I say again : proceed.
92.2.5.0 (5852)
Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a
message, clearance, instruction, etc ?
a) Confirm.
b) Correct.
c) Acknowledge.
d) Verify.
92.2.5.0 (5853)
What does the word ""contact"" mean ? 966
a) Establish radio contact with ... .
b) Radar contact established .
c) Listen out on (frequency) .
d) That is correct .
92.2.5.0 (5854)
Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis ?
a) I say again .
b) Confirm .
c) Read back .
d) Verify .
92.2.5.0 (5855)
What does the word ""correct"" mean ?
a) That is correct.
b) An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is ... .
c) Permission for proposed action not granted.
d) Negative, the correct version is ... .
92.2.5.0 (5856)
Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a transmission
or message ?
a) Correction.
b) Correct.
c) Negative.
d) Disregard.
92.2.5.0 (5857)
What does the word ""disregard"" mean ?
a) Consider that transmission as not sent.
b) An error has been made in this transmission.
c) Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
d) Wait and I will call you.
92.2.5.0 (5858)
What phrase shall be used when asking for the readability of a transmission ?
a) How do you read ?
b) Read back .
c) Report readability .
d) Read you loud and clear .
92.2.5.0 (5859)
What does the word ""negative"" mean ?
a) Permission not granted.
b) Proposed action granted.
c) Disregard last instruction.
92.2.5.0 (5860)
What does the word ""negative"" mean ? 967
a) That is not correct.
b) Consider that transmission as not sent.
c) Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
d) I say again.
92.2.5.0 (5861)
Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a change has been made to
your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or
part thereof ?
a) Recleared.
b) Cleared.
c) Approved.
d) Break break.
92.2.5.0 (5862)
What does the word ""recleared"" mean ?
a) A change has been made to your last clearance.
b) Permission for proposed action granted.
c) An error has been made in my last transmission.
92.2.5.0 (5863)
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say : ''Communication is difficult. Please
send every word or group of words twice'' ?
a) Words twice
b) Say again, say again
c) Repeat twice
d) Message second time
92.2.5.0 (5864)
To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to
the controller :
a) Runway vacated.
b) Runway cleared.
c) Runway free.
d) Clear of runway.
92.2.6.0 (5865)
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing
approach control (no radar service) ?
a) APPROACH
b) ARRIVAL
c) RADAR
d) CONTROL
92.2.6.0 (5866)
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area
control centre (no radar):
a) ...CONTROL
b) ...CENTRE
968
c) ...APPROACH
d) ...RADAR
92.2.6.0 (5867)
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating
approach control radar departures:
a) ...DEPARTURE
b) ...CONTROL
c) ...RADAR
d) ...APPROACH
92.2.6.0 (5868)
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating
approach control radar arrivals:
a) ...ARRIVAL
b) ...APPROACH
c) ...RADAR
d) ...DIRECTOR
92.2.6.0 (5869)
What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station providing
radar service (in general) ?
a) RADAR.
b) CONTROL.
c) RADAR-CONTROL.
d) RADAR-SERVICE.
92.2.6.0 (5870)
What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating
clearance delivery ?
a) DELIVERY.
b) CLEARANCE.
c) CLEARANCE DELIVERY.
d) RADIO.
92.2.7.0 (5871)
What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345 ?
a) No abbreviated form
b) Fastair 345
c) Fastair 45
d) 2345
92.2.7.0 (5872)
What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome
control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off
weight of more than 136 tonnes:
a) Fastair 345 heavy
b) Heavy Fastair 345
c) Fastair 345
d) Fastair 345 widebody
969
92.2.7.0 (5873)
When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the word
""Heavy"" immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy:
a) In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit
b) Never
c) In all calls
d) In all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit
92.2.9.0 (5874)
Which of the following calls is a ""general call"" ?
a) ALL STATIONS Stephenville CONTROL.
b) YX-ABC, YX-BCD, YX-CDE Stephenville CONTROL.
c) YX-DEF Stephenville CONTROL.
d) YX-EFG, YX-FGH over.
92.2.9.0 (5875)
Must a ""general call"" be acknowledged""?
a) No.
b) Yes, but only from the station first called.
c) Yes, from all stations in the sequence they have been adressed.
d) Yes, from all stations in a random sequence.
92.2.9.0 (5876)
What is meant by the phrase ""readability 2""?
a) Readable now and then.
b) Readable.
c) Unreadable.
d) Readable but with difficulty.
92.2.9.0 (5877)
On the readability scale what does ""readability 1"" mean ?
a) Unreadable.
b) Readable.
c) Perfectly readable.
92.2.9.0 (5878)
What is meant by the phrase "" readibility 4""?
a) Readable.
b) Readable now and then.
c) Perfectly readable.
92.2.9.0 (5879)
When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station, the
call starts with :
a) ""All stations""
b) ""General broadcast""
c) ""Message to all aircraft on this frequency""
d) ""Please listen""
970
92.2.10.0 (5880)
Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back ?
a) SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions
b) QNH, weather information, runway-in-use
c) ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state information
d) QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability
92.2.10.0 (5881)
Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an aircraft in flight must be read
back?1 - ""descend to (altitude) 3.000 feet""2 - ""wind 240°, 15 knots, gusts 30
knots""3 - ""turn right heading 210""4 - ""reduce speed to 160 knots""5 -
""squawk 1723""6 - ""braking action poor""
a) 1, 3, 4, 5
b) all
c) 1, 2, 3, 5
d) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
92.2.12.0 (5882)
What shall the pilot's readback be for ""climb to 2500 feet"":
a) Climbing to two thousand five hundred feet
b) Up to two thousand five hundred
c) Climbing to two point five
d) Climbing to two thousand five hundred
92.2.12.0 (5883)
ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct
readback by the pilot:
a) Leaving flight level 100 descending to flight level 80, Fastair 345
b) Descending to 80, Fastair 345
c) Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345
d) Leaving 100 to 80, Fastair 345
92.2.12.0 (5884)
Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted ?
a) Aircraft identification, position, time
b) Aircraft identification, position, time, level
c) Aircraft identification, position, level
d) Aircraft identification, position, next position
92.2.12.0 (5885)
What shall the pilot's readback be for""Climb to FL 280"":
a) Climbing to flight level two eight zero
b) Climbing to flight level two eighty
c) Climbing two eight zero
d) Climbing to two eighty
92.3.0.0 (5886)
Blind transmission shall be made:
a) On the designated frequency (frequency in use)
b) To all available aeronautical stations
971
c) On regional guard frequencies only
d) During IFR flights only
92.3.0.0 (5887)
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is
assumed to:
a) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival
b) Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace
c) Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome
d) Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case
92.3.0.0 (5888)
An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The
aircraft is assumed to :
a) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
b) Return to the aerodrome of departure
c) Land at the alternate aerodrome
d) Land at the destination aerodrome
92.3.0.0 (5889)
An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is
assumed to:
a) Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation
aid serving the destination aerodrome
b) Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight
rules
c) Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight
d) Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome
92.3.0.0 (5890)
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to
hold over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome:
a) Until the expected approach time last received and acknowledged
b) Under no circumstances
c) 5 minutes in any case
d) 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged
92.3.0.0 (5891)
commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination
aerodrome (no EAT received):
a) At, or as close to, the ETA resulting from the current flight plan
b) 5 minutes after the last expected approach time acknowledged
c) Immediately after reaching in any case
d) After 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged
92.3.0.0 (5892)
land, if possible, within:
a) 30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later
b) 30 minutes after noticing the radio failure 972
c) 30 minutes after waiting for the EAT
d) 15 minutes after vacating the transition layer
92.3.0.0 (5893)
Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio communication failure
on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and:
a) Maintain the level last assigned by the ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then
climb in accordance with the flight plan
b) Climb immediately to the cruising level indicated in the flight plan
c) Land at the departure aerodrome in any case
d) Maintain the altitude last assigned by ATC for a period of 5 minutes and then continue in
accordance with the flight plan
92.3.0.0 (5894)
A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight
under radar vectors has to:
a) Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight
plan in the most direct manner
b) Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and
then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan
c) Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route
indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way
d) Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the
route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way
92.3.0.0 (5895)
In case of a SSR transponder failure occuring after departure of an IFR flight, the
pilot shall:
a) Inform the competent ATC unit immediately
b) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repair
c) Squawk 7600
d) Continue the flight in VMC
92.3.0.0 (5896)
In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot shall:
a) Obtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flight
b) Inform FIS for relay to AIS
c) Insert under item 18 of the flight plan ""transponder unserviceable""
d) Inform ATC after departure
92.3.0.0 (5897)
The expression "" transmitting blind due to receiver failure"" implies that no
answer is expected. It shall be used by:
a) An aircraft station being aware of receiver failure
b) An aircraft station doing blind transmissions at a ""non-towered"" airfield
c) A radar controller performing a PAR or SRE final approach.
d) A ground station broadcasting information to all listening stations.
92.4.1.0 (5898)
What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' mean ?
a) The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport operated973
by
aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation
b) The aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to land
c) The aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination airport
d) The phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephony
92.4.1.0 (5899)
A message concerning a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned
exclusively to medical transportation shall be preceded by the signal:
a) PAN PAN MEDICAL
b) MEDICAL TRANSPORT
c) PROTECTED TRANSPORT
d) PAN PAN TRANSPORT
92.4.2.0 (5900)
The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as:
a) An international emergency frequency
b) A frequency for air-to-air communication
c) A regional UHF frequency
d) An airline operation frequency
92.4.2.0 (5901)
An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that:
a) The aircraft is in distress
b) The aircraft is being hijacked
c) The aircraft's transceiver is unserviceable
d) There is a sick passenger on board
92.4.2.0 (5902)
A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY
MAYDAY means:
a) Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required
b) The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft
or vehicle
c) The aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its
route of flight
d) The aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure
92.4.2.0 (5903)
The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be
on:
a) The air-ground frequency in use at the time
b) The emergency frequency in any case
c) The regional guard frequency
d) The FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned
92.4.2.0 (5904)
When an aircraft station receives the call ""ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR,
stop transmitting MAYDAY"" it is requested :
a) Not to interfere with the distress communication.
b) To continue normal communication on the frequency in use.
974
c) To assist Stephenville RADAR in handling the distress traffic.
d) To leave the frequency in use.
92.4.2.0 (5905)
When an aircraft station receives the call ""ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR,
distress traffic ended"" it is requested :
a) To resume normal communication with Stephenville RADAR.
b) To impose silence to other stations in its vicinity.
c) Acknowledge receipt of this message.
d) Discontinue communication with Stephenville RADAR.
92.4.2.0 (5906)
Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose
silence ?
a) Stop transmitting, MAYDAY
b) Stop transmitting, DISTRESS
c) Stop transmitting, EMERGENCY
d) All stations in this frequency, MAYDAY traffic
92.4.2.0 (5907)
The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by
transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include ?
a) Distress traffic ended
b) Emergency communication finished
c) MAYDAY traffic ended
d) Disregard distress communication, OUT
92.4.2.0 (5908)
When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the
distress condition. Which words shall this message include ?
a) ... cancel distress
b) ... MAYDAY, resuming normal operations
c) ... MAYDAY cancelled
d) ... distress condition terminated
92.4.2.0 (5909)
Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of :
a) Distress traffic.
b) Urgency communication.
c) Overload of the frequency.
d) Technical difficulties.
92.4.3.0 (5910)
A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN
PAN, PAN PAN means:
a) The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a
ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required
b) Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required
c) The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for
immediate reclearance
975
d) An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure
92.4.3.0 (5911)
On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall:
a) Monitor the frequency to ensure assistance if required
b) Acknowledge the message immediately
c) Impose radio silence on the frequency in use
d) Change the frequency, because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use
92.4.3.0 (5912)
Which of the following statements is correct ?
a) The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications,
except distress
b) The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications
c) There is no difference regarding priority between distress communications and urgency
communications
d) ATC clearances have the same priority as urgency communications
92.4.3.0 (5913)
The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall
contain at least the following elements/details :
a) Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilot's intention, present
position, level and heading
b) Aircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flight
c) Name of the station addressed, present position, assistance required
d) Aircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading
92.5.1.0 (5914)
When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC will use the
following phrase:
a) RVR runway 16 touchdown ... metres, mid-point ... metres, stop end ... metres
b) The values of the transmissometer are: ... metres and ... metres
c) RVR at the beginning of runway 16 is ... metres
d) RVR runway 16 ... metres diagonal ... metres diagonal ... metres
92.5.1.0 (5915)
What does ""Friction coefficient 45"" in a runway report mean:
a) Braking action good
b) Braking action medium
c) Braking action poor
d) Braking action not measurable
92.5.1.0 (5916)
What does ""Friction coefficient 20"" in a runway report mean:
a) Braking action poor
b) Braking action medium
c) Braking action good
d) Braking action unreliable
92.5.1.0 (5917)
Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be ""Unreliable"":
a) Runway covered with wet snow and slush
b) Runway covered with ice 976
c) Runway covered with dry snow
d) Runway conditions normal
92.5.1.0 (5918)
If you are requested to ""Report flight conditions"", what does that mean:
a) Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC
b) Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperature
c) Indicate if visibility is sufficient for landing
d) Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR
977
978

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62.6.5.

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