Rbe Exam Lecture

8/3/22, 10:59 AM RBE EXAM (LECTURE)
RBE EXAM (LECTURE) Total points 84/101
This
is a multiple choice type of exam, you will answer this within 1 hr & 45
minutes. Please make sure you have a stable internet connection. Full Name
should be in CAPITAL letters.
The respondent's email (BURAT) was recorded on submission of this form.
COMPLETE NAME ( SURNAME, FIRST NAME MI) *
SECRET
1. Which of the following is an important concern for the nurse who is *1/1
providing nutrition by peripheral vein?
a. calorie overload
b. contamination of the injection site
c. fluid overload
d. all of the above
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2. The solution used for TPN consists of: * 1/1
a. glucose, amino acids, and micronutrients.
b. glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids.
c. 10% dextrose in saline and vitamins.
d. commercial hydrolyzed mixtures.
Other:
3. Which of the following vitamins would need to be * 1/1
given separately instead of added to a formula?
a. thiamin, niacin, and riboflavin
b. the fat-soluble vitamins
c. B12, K, and folic acid
d. none of the above
4. Residue is that part of food that: * 0/1
a. remains longest in the GI tract.
b. is indigestible.
c. is left uneaten after the meal.
d. is inedible.
5. IBD is the result of which of these factors? * 1/1
a. short bowel syndrome
b. infectious processes
c. inadequate diets
d. malabsorption
6. An appropriate diet for the patient with IBD would allow the basic *0/1
principles of optimum nutrition and would:
a. be increased in fiber.
b. contain extra fats for energy.
c. be decreased in fiber.
d. be decreased in sodium.
7. Patients with colostomies usually gain control of evacuation faster than *0/1
patients with ileostomies because:
a. they have better preoperative nutritional status.
b. they have better neuromuscular functions.
c. the surgery site is lower in the gut.
d. the surgical site heals more quickly.
8. General goals of diet therapy following a colostomy are to promote *1/1

healing and prevent:
a. constipation.
b. diarrhea.
c. odors.
d. all of the above.
9. The restricted-residue diet: * 1/1
a. is always very high in calories.
b. is very similar to the full-liquid diet.
c. may be inadequate in vitamins and minerals.
d. is nutritionally adequate
10. The minimum-residue diet: * 1/1
a. is always very high in calories.
b. is very similar to the full-liquid diet.
c. may be inadequate in vitamins and minerals.
d. is nutritionally adequate.
11. Which of the following foods are allowed on a minimum-residue diet? * 0/1
a. milkshake, hamburger, and french fries
b. tomato wedge, scrambled egg, and broiled bacon
c. chicken sandwich on white bread with butter
d. all of the above
12. Which of these foods would be included in a high-fiber diet? * 1/1
a. whole wheat bread, prunes, celery
b. carrot sticks, bran cereal, apples
c. coconut bars, pecan rolls, oatmeal
d. all of the above
13. If the minimum-residue diet must be used for a * 1/1
period of time, the physician should:
a. alternates it weekly with the high-iron diet.
b. substitute the full-liquid diet.
c. adds fresh fruit juices before each meal.
d. prescribes a vitamin and mineral supplement.
14. Which of the following foods are allowed on a minimum-residue diet? * 0/1
a. milkshake, hamburger, and french fries
b. tomato wedge, scrambled egg, and broiled bacon
c. chicken sandwich on white bread with butter
d. all of the above
15. Which of these foods would be included in a high-fiber diet? * 1/1
a. whole wheat bread, prunes, celery
b. carrot sticks, bran cereal, apples
c. coconut bars, pecan rolls, oatmeal
d. all of the above
16. If the minimum-residue diet must be used for a * 1/1
period of time, the physician should:
a. alternates it weekly with the high-iron diet.
b. substitute the full-liquid diet.
c. adds fresh fruit juices before each meal.
d. prescribes a vitamin and mineral supplement
17. The liver stores * 1/1
a. glycogen and vitamins.
b. ACTH and cholecystokinin.
c. bile and cholesterol.
d. calcium and chlorides.
18. The symptoms of hepatitis that interfere with food intake include 1/1
a. anorexia.
b. confusion.
c. constipation.
d. internal bleeding.
19. Which of the following foods may be restricted in the diet of the hepatitis *0/1
patient?
a. milk
b. butter
c. noodles
d. chocolate
20. The symptom of cirrhosis that may interfere with nutrient intake is * 1/1
a. anorexia.
b. distention.
c. pain.
21. Which of the following meals would best fit the needs of a cirrhotic *0/1
patient with esophageal varices who is on a 350 g carbohydrate, 80 g protein,
100 g fat diet?
a. chicken soup, beef patty, mashed potato, stewed tomatoes, cantaloupe
b. cranberry juice, meat loaf, hash brown potato, orange slices
c. tuna noodle casserole, lima beans, apple juice, pineapple slice
d. peach nectar, scrambled eggs, cooked spinach, applesauce
22. The purpose of the low-protein diet (15–20 g) is to help prevent the *1/1
development of hepatic coma by
a. decreasing ammonia production.
b. increasing sodium excretion.
c. decreasing serum potassium.
d. increasing the utilization of carbohydrates.
23. Which of the following meals would be appropriate for a person on a 15 g *0/1
protein diet?
a. baked potato, green beans, fruit salad, coffee with cream
b. sliced cheese, crackers, tossed salad, Jell–O with whipped cream
c. meat patty, mashed potato, steamed carrots, peach half
d. tomato stuffed with tuna fish, crackers with butter, ice cream, tea
24. Hepatic coma results from increased blood levels of * 1/1
a. glucose.
b. fatty acids.
c. ammonia.
d. sodium.
25. Diet treatment for hepatic coma includes * 0/1
a. high protein tube feedings.
b. increased fluids.
c. N.P.O. to rest the liver.
d. controlled I.V. fluids.
26. Mr. L. was admitted to the hospital complaining of abdominal pain, fatigue, *1/1
and anorexia. His skin showed a yellow tinge as did the sclera of his eyes.
Laboratory tests and assessments revealed evidence of liver dysfunction, fluid
retention, and portal hypertension. Macrocytic anemia, thiamin and zinc
deficiency were also identified. The following questions pertain to this
situation.
From the presenting symptoms, identify the probable diagnosis.
a. hepatitis
b. jaundice
c. cirrhosis
d. cancer
27. Which of the following diet modifications would be appropriate for Mr. L.? *1/1
a. 250 mg sodium
b. 60 g protein
c. fluid restriction to 1000 ml
d. all of the above
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28. What daily measurements are appropriate for Mr. L.’s condition? * 1/1
a. intake and output
b. weight and abdominal girth
c. skinfold thickness
d. all of the above
29. Four days after admission, Mr. L.’s condition seemed to worsen. He *1/1
appeared confused, forgetful, and lethargic. His blood levels of ammonia were
elevated and his skin color had deepened. Given these symptoms, the most
probable cause of his worsening condition is
a. allergic reaction.
b. impending hepatic coma.
c. esophageal varices.
d. advanced cirrhosis.
30. All except which of the following foods should be omitted from Mr. L.’s diet *1/1
while he is in this stage of his illness?
a. milk and meat
b. vegetables and fruits
c. butter and honey
d. grains and legumes
31. The gallbladder stores * 1/1
a. fats.
b. bile.
c. cholecystokinin.
d. cholesterol.
32. Bile functions in the digestion of food in which of the following ways? * 1/1
a. breaks fat into fatty acids and glycerol
b. forms lipoproteins for transport to bloodstream
c. breaks fats into very small particles for enzyme action
d. prevents cholesterol from entering the bloodstream
33. The function of the hormone cholecystokinin is * 1/1
a. to convert fats to cholesterol.
b. to stimulate the gallbladder to contract.
c. to provide the necessary enzyme for fat digestion.
d. to prevent cholesterol from crystallizing.
34. Symptoms of cholecystitis that interfere with nutrient intake include all *1/1
except
a. distention.
b. pain.
c. internal bleeding.
d. nausea and vomiting.
35. Gallstones are primarily composed of * 1/1
a. calcium.
b. chloride.
c. cholesterol.
d. cholecystokinin.
36. The initial diet for acute pancreatitis is * 0/1
a. I.V. therapy.
b. low-protein, high-carbohydrate, soft.
c. low-fat.
d. full-liquid.
37. The usual diet therapy for chronic pancreatitis is * 1/1
a. bland in six feedings.
b. low-residue every hour.
c. liquids via tube.
d. I.V. therapy
38. Which of the following foods is not a member of any of the meat *1/1
exchange groups?
a. 1⁄2 c pinto beans
b. soy milk, 1 c
c. peanut butter, 1 tbsp
d. 1 hot dog
39. Which of the following statements correctly describes the action of *1/1
insulin?
a. Insulin controls the entry of glucose into the cell.
b. Insulin regulates the conversion of glucose to glycogen.
c. Insulin decreases the conversion of glucose to fat for storage as adipose fat
tissue.
d. Insulin allows fat to be converted to glucose as needed to return the blood

glucose levels to normal.
40. The caloric value of a diabetic diet should be: * 1/1
a. increased above normal requirements to meet the increased metabolic demand.
b. decreased below normal requirements to prevent glucose formation.
c. the individual’s normal energy requirement to maintain ideal weight.
d. contributed mainly by fat to spare carbohydrate
41. In the exchange system of diet control, an ounce of canned tuna may be *1/1
exchanged for all except:
a. the same amount of lean meat.
b. 1⁄4 c 4% cottage cheese.
c. 1⁄2 c tofu, light.
d. one egg.
42. The exchange system of diet control is based on principles of: * 1/1
a. equivalent food values.
b. flexible food choices.
c. nutritional balance.
d. all of the above
43. How much orange juice would substitute for the CHO in an uneaten slice *1/1
of bread?
a. 1⁄2 c
b. 3⁄4 c
c. 1 c
d. 1–1⁄2 c
44. The diabetic diet is designed for long-term use and contains a balance of: * 1/1
a. energy.
b. nutrients.
c. distribution.
45. Sources of blood glucose include: * 1/1
a. carbohydrates.
b. proteins.
c. fats.
46. If 50% of the total calories in a 1500 calorie diabetic diet is from *1/1
carbohydrates, how many grams of carbohydrate will the diet contain? (Round
to nearest whole number.)
a. 50
b. 150
c. 190
d. 210
47. Emphasis is placed on using polyunsaturated fats and limiting foods *0/1
high in cholesterol in the diet of the diabetic. The reason for this is:
a. to aid in the prevention of cardiovascular diseases.
b. to aid in the digestive process.
c. to prevent skin breakdown.
d. to control blood sugar.
48. The daily intake of foods for the diabetic is spaced at regular intervals *1/1
throughout the day. The reason for this is:
a. to prevent hunger pangs.
b. to avoid symptoms of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia.
c. to modify eating habits.
d. to prevent obesity.
49. Sally, an 8-year-old diabetic, is ready to go home from the hospital. Sally’s *1/1
mother should know that:
a. all of her food must be measured.
b. she needs a snack before she exercises.
c. she should always carry hard candy with her.
50. The caloric value of the diet is approximately: * 1/1
a. 1250 calories.
b. 1500 calories
c. 1600 calories.
d. 1850 calories.
51. An intake reduction of 1000 calories daily would * 1/1
enable an obese person to lose weight at which of
the following rates:
a. 1 lb per week
b. 2 lb per week
c. 3 lb per week
d. 4 lb per week
52. Which two of the following food portions have the * 0/1
lowest caloric values:
a. 4 oz lean meat
b. 1 granola bar
c. 1 slice raisin bread
d. 1 8-oz glass of whole milk
53. Which of the following menus would be the best choice for a person on *1/1
a 1-g sodium, low-cholesterol diet?
a. split pea soup, crackers, tuna salad, ice cream
b. scrambled eggs, baked potato, fruit salad
c. broiled fresh trout with lemon, baked potato
d. prime rib roast, broccoli, mashed potatoes,
54. From the following list, which foods would be most suitable for a person *0/1
on a 500-mg sodium diet?
a. tuna fish salad with lettuce
b. sliced turkey with cranberry sauce
c. scalloped potatoes and ham
d. honey and peanut butter sandwich
···/1
Option 1
55. The functional unit of the kidney is the: * 1/1
a. tubule.
b. glomerulus.
c. nephron.
d. ureter.
56. Approximately how many ml of water leave the body via the kidney per *1/1
day?
a. 1000–1500
b. 2000–2500
c. 500–1000
d. 3000
57. Neutrality is restored to the body by the kidney in which of these ways? * 1/1
a. reabsorption of electrolytes
b. secretion of hydrogen ions
c. excretion of bicarbonate
d. all of the above
58. The vitamin whose activity depends upon efficient kidney function is: * 1/1
a. ascorbic acid.
b. B12.
c. D.
d. retinol
59. When a person loses one kidney through accident * 1/1

or donation, kidney function is altered by:
a. 1⁄4.
b. 1⁄2.
c. 2⁄3.
d. 0.
60. An elderly person’s kidney function may be altered by * 1/1
a. 0–1⁄4.
b. 1⁄4–1⁄2.
c. 1⁄2–2⁄3.
d. 3⁄4–
61. Chronic renal failure usually occurs over a long period of time from *1/1
diseases that affect the nephron. Included are all except which of these
diseases?
a. renal osteodystrophy
b. congenital abnormalities
c. untreated glomerulonephritis
d. insulin-dependent diabetes
62. Reduced secretion of phosphate, sulfates, and organic acids from *1/1
ingested foods results in:
a. metabolic alkalosis.
b. metabolic acidosis.
c. edema.
d. ascites.
63. Hypertension in renal failure is usually the result of: * 1/1
a. sodium retention.
b. calcium excretion.
c. metabolic acidosis.
d. erythrocyte reduction.
64. General dietary restrictions include which of these nutrients? * 1/1
a. calcium, phosphorus, vitamin D
b. calcium, phosphorus, potassium
c. sodium, protein, water
d. all of the above
65. There is an increase in if a patient is retaining sodium. * 1/1
a. blood pressure and weight
b. fluid and acidosis
c. calcium and appetite
d. pulse and respiration
66. Which of these nutrients should be restricted in the diet of the person on *1/1
CAPD?
a. sodium
b. potassium
c. fluid
d. phosphorus
67. The amount of protein needed for a patient on peritoneal dialysis is: * 1/1
a. 0.4–.6 g/kg body weight
b. 1.0–1.2 g/kg body weight
c. 1.2–1.5 g/kg body weight
d. 0.8 g/kg body weight
68. Effects of a severely restricted diet on a patient with CAPD include all of *1/1
these except:
a. hemorrhagic shock.
b. nausea and vomiting.
c. heart arrhythmias.
d. dehydration.
69. Caloric control and exercise are necessary for * 1/1

CAPD patients because:
a. patients gain excess weight from being
immobilized.
b. fluid is more easily excreted in this way.
c. the dialysate contains absorbable dextrose.
d. amino acids are converted to energy.
70. The diet therapy indicated for a patient with calcium phosphate kidney *1/1
stones is:
a. low calcium and phosphorus, alkaline ash.
b. high calcium and phosphorus, acid ash.
c. low calcium and phosphorus, acid ash.
d. high calcium and phosphorus, alkaline ash.
71. In planning a diet for a patient with calcium phosphate kidney stones, *1/1
which of the following foods could you use in unlimited amounts?
a. fruits
b. meat
c. milk
d. cheese
72. Screening for cancer includes * 1/1
a. physical examination.
b. laboratory tests and procedures.
c. use of imagining modalities to look at internal organs
73. Common tests for cancer include: * 1/1
a. blood and urine tests.
b. pap smears.
c. mammograms.
d. fecal occult blood.
e. all of the above.
74. The nutritional status of the cancer patient * 1/1

predicts:
a. tolerance and response to therapy.
b. susceptibility to infection.
c. quality of life of individuals.
75. Cancer and HIV infections share many similarities * 1/1

in the effects of malnutrition on:
a. the disease prognosis and progression.
b. response to therapy.
c. the quality of life.
d. loss of lean body mass and sustained weight loss
76. An adult in good nutritional status requires about * 1/1
a. 1000 kcalories per day for maintenance
b. 1500 kcalories per day for maintenance
c. 2000 kcalories per day for maintenance
d. 2500 kcalories per day for maintenance
77. An adult in good nutritional status requires about: * 1/1
a. 40 to 60 grams of protein for maintenance and anabolism
b. 60 to 80 grams of protein for maintenance and anabolism
c. 80 to 100 grams of protein for maintenance and anabolism
d. 100 to 120 grams of protein for maintenance
78. Megavitamin and mineral therapies are among * 1/1

the most often used unproven nutritional therapies.
Which of these represents a megadose of vitamin
therapy?
a. 2 times RDA/DRI
b. 5 times RDA/DRI
c. 10 times RDA/DRI
d. 20 times RDA/DRI
e. none of the above
79. The stress response to HIV infection is marked by: * 0/1
a. loss of appetite and reduced nutrient intake.
b. loss of lean body mass.
c. chronic inflammation.
d. hypermetabolism.
80. Alternative nutrition regimes are supposed to: * 1/1
a. boost the immune system.
b. increase enzyme production.
c. prevent further deterioration.
d. create a hostile internal condition to keep the
virus from spreading.
e. restore balance and harmony to the system.
f. all of the above.
81. T lymphocyte production in HIV infection will drop from normal levels to: * 0/1
a. less than 1000/mm3.
b. less than 800/mm3.
c. less than 600/mm3.
d. less than 200/mm3.
e. none of the above.
82. The use of soy infant formula is recommended for * 1/1
a. babies who are unable to digest lactose
b. babies who are under 5 pounds at birth
c. babies who are partially breastfed
d. all babies in place of cow milk-based formula
e. babies who occasionally appear fussy after nursing
83. Both parents of an infant have a history of emotional problems. The nurse *1/1
recognizes that
a. it will not be possible to provide parent teaching to the parents
b. their emotional problems do not need to be assessed or discussed prior to

creating a teaching plan for the infant
c. this places the infant at risk for poor childhood nutrition
d. b) and c)
84. Teaching parents about nutrition of healthy infants includes providing *0/1
education to
a. improve their skills needed to promote healthy nutrition in their child
b. increase their knowledge about proper infant nutrition
c. promote parental consumption of healthy foods
d. a) and b)
e. b) and c)
85. When introducing solid foods, parents should be aware that * 1/1
a. mixed cereals are one of the first foods introduced because they are simple and
easy-to-digest
b. fruits should be offered before vegetables as they are typically more pleasing to
the infant
c. cereals should be fortified with iron to reduce the baby’s risk for iron-deficiency
anemia
d. when first introducing cereal, the parents should mix a tablespoon of cereal with a
tablespoon of warmed breast milk or
baby formula
86. Parents of an infant should be instructed that during the first few weeks of *1/1
life infants need to nurse _____ times per day.
a. 2–4
b. 4–8
c. 8–12
d. 12–16
87. The nurse discovers that there is incongruence between the parent’s *1/1
learning priorities and his/her own priorities. The nurse should
a. provide education focused on his/her own priorities
b. provide education focused on the parent’s priorities
c. explore why the incongruence exists
88. The parent of an infant states, “I will never subject my child to infant *1/1
formula. It is such an inadequate form of nutrition.” The nurse recognizes that
infant formula
a. promotes the development of food allergies
b. never completely replaces the complex nutrients and immune system benefits of
breast milk
c. does provide the nutrition necessary for formula-fed infants to grow and thrive
d. b) and c)
89. Parents should be instructed that when choosing an infant formula for *1/1
partially breastfed or formula fed infants that they should choose
a. low-iron formula
b. iron-fortified formula
c. iron-free formula
d. a) or c)
90. Relevant information to provide to parents on nutrition of healthy infants *1/1

include all of the following, except
a. short- and long-term consequences of poor nutrition
b. negative consequences of breastfeeding
c. how to introduce solid foods
d. types of infant formula
91. Using a teach-back method to evaluate learning comprehension includes 1/1
a. having the parent perform a return-demonstration of the skill taught to them
b. having the parent restate health information provided to them
c. having the parent simply observe as the nurse demonstrates the skill taught to
them
d. a) and b)
92. When preparing to provide parent education to parents who do not speak *1/1
English as their primary language, the nurse should
a. arrange for a facility-approved interpreter to assist
b. enlist the assistance of family members to serve as interpreters
c. provide the education without making accommodations for the parent’s primary
language
93. After demonstrating how to properly mix a bottle of infant formula, the *1/1
nurse asks the parent, “On a scale of 1–10 how certain are you that you will be
able to perform the skill?” This is an example of assessing the parent’s
a. readiness to learn
b. self-efficacy
c. learning barriers
d. preferred learning style
94. All of the following statements about infant nutrition and healthy eating are *1/1
accurate, except:
a. Honey is not recommended for children under one year of age as it can lead to
scurvy
b. During feedings, infants should always be supervised
c. Hard, small and round, or smooth and sticky, solid foods should be avoided to
prevent aspiration and choking
d. Raw or undercooked meats, poultry, and milk products are not recommended
95. When assessing self-identified learning priorities, the nurse discovers that *1/1
there is incongruence between the parent’s priorities and his/her priorities. In
response, the nurse should
a. proceed to providing education focused on your priorities
b. proceed to providing education focused on the parent’s priorities
c. work with the parent to explore why the incongruence exists
d. recognize that it will not be possible to effectively educate this particular parent
e. none of the above
96. School-aged children have all of the following, except * 1/1
a. high levels of activity
b. a need to double the amount of carbohydrates and fats to maintain their activity
level
c. a need for more calories than they can take in from eating three meals a day
d. a varied consumption of healthy foods from day to day
97. The parent of a school-aged child states, “My son’s favorite meals are high *1/1
in fat and often lack vegetables. Is there a way to make his meals healthier?”
The nurse should suggest that the parent
a. use lean ingredients such as low-fat cuts of meat
b. increase or add fruits and vegetables to recipes
c. attempt to cut as much fat as possible out of the child’s diet
d. offer fruits and vegetables as a side dish
e. a) and c)
f. a), b), and d)
98. Barriers to the parents’ ability to learn can include any of the following, *1/1
except
a. learning disabilities or cognitive deficits
b. low literacy
c. a high school diploma as highest level of learning
d. emotional concerns and psychosocial issues
99. The parent of a school-aged female child states, “The only time she snacks *1/1
is when she is watching television. Some days that is a lot and
other days it is hardly any at all.” Which of the following is an appropriate
response from the nurse?
a. “Children who watch over 3 hours of television per day are at a higher risk for
becoming obese. It is recommended that
children watch no more than 2 hours of television per day.”
b. “You can never get enough television support. As long as your child is snacking on
healthy snacks, it is fine for her to
become accustomed to eating as much as she wants while watching television.”
c. “Children often reach for the food that is closest at hand when they are looking for
a snack. You can make healthy snacks
available by keeping a supply of fruit and cut-up vegetables available.”
d. “You have no cause to be concerned. Time spent watching television will not
affect your daughter unless it is preventing her
from finishing her homework.”
e. a) and c)
100. The mother of a healthy 7-year-old boy asks the nurse for suggestions on *1/1
healthy snacks for her to provide to her son. Which of the
following would it be appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
a. A medium-sized apple
b. 1 cup of fresh blueberries
c. 1 cup of frozen grapes
d. 1 cup of carrots cut into small pieces and served with 2 tablespoons of hummus
e. All of the above
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8/3/22, 10:59 AM RBE EXAM (LECTURE)

RBE EXAM (LECTURE) Total points 84/101

The respondent's email (BURAT) was recorded on submission of this form.

COMPLETE NAME ( SURNAME, FIRST NAME MI) *

b. contamination of the injection site

d. all of the above

2. The solution used for TPN consists of: * 1/1

a. glucose, amino acids, and micronutrients.

b. glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids.

c. 10% dextrose in saline and vitamins.

d. commercial hydrolyzed mixtures.

3. Which of the following vitamins would need to be * 1/1

given separately instead of added to a formula?

a. thiamin, niacin, and riboflavin

b. the fat-soluble vitamins

c. B12, K, and folic acid

d. none of the above

4. Residue is that part of food that: * 0/1

a. remains longest in the GI tract.

c. is left uneaten after the meal.

5. IBD is the result of which of these factors? * 1/1

a. short bowel syndrome

b. contain extra fats for energy.

a. they have better preoperative nutritional status.

b. they have better neuromuscular functions.

c. the surgery site is lower in the gut.

d. the surgical site heals more quickly.

8. General goals of diet therapy following a colostomy are to promote *1/1

d. all of the above.

9. The restricted-residue diet: * 1/1

a. is always very high in calories.

b. is very similar to the full-liquid diet.

c. may be inadequate in vitamins and minerals.

10. The minimum-residue diet: * 1/1

a. is always very high in calories.

b. is very similar to the full-liquid diet.

c. may be inadequate in vitamins and minerals.

a. milkshake, hamburger, and french fries

b. tomato wedge, scrambled egg, and broiled bacon

c. chicken sandwich on white bread with butter

d. all of the above

12. Which of these foods would be included in a high-fiber diet? * 1/1

a. whole wheat bread, prunes, celery

b. carrot sticks, bran cereal, apples

c. coconut bars, pecan rolls, oatmeal

d. all of the above

13. If the minimum-residue diet must be used for a * 1/1

period of time, the physician should:

a. alternates it weekly with the high-iron diet.

b. substitute the full-liquid diet.

c. adds fresh fruit juices before each meal.

d. prescribes a vitamin and mineral supplement.

a. milkshake, hamburger, and french fries

b. tomato wedge, scrambled egg, and broiled bacon

c. chicken sandwich on white bread with butter

d. all of the above

15. Which of these foods would be included in a high-fiber diet? * 1/1

a. whole wheat bread, prunes, celery

b. carrot sticks, bran cereal, apples

c. coconut bars, pecan rolls, oatmeal

d. all of the above

16. If the minimum-residue diet must be used for a * 1/1

period of time, the physician should: