CHƯƠNG 1: INTRO

1. The basic functions of the management process include all of the following EXCEPT outsourcing
2. The person responsible for accomplishing an organization's goals: manager
3. Includes five basic functions: management process
4. Which function of the management process requires a manager to establish goals and standards and
to develop rules and procedures? planning
5. Celeste spends most of her time at work establishing goals for her staff and developing procedures
for various tasks. Function of the management process does Celeste spend: planning
6. Jolene, a manager, delegates the responsibility for a project to Lee, her subordinate. Jolene is most
likely involved in which function of the management process? organizing
7. When managers use metrics to assess performance and then develop strategies for corrective
action, they are performing the controlling function of the management process.
8. Which function of the management process includes selecting employees, setting performance
standards, and compensating employees? staffing
9. Larry, a manager at a commercial real estate firm, has established a monthly sales quota (KPI sale)
for his sales team. Basic function of management best describes Larry's actions? controlling
10. HR management is the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating employees,
and attending to their labor relations, health and safety, and fairness concerns.
11. In the management process, which of the following is an activity associated with the leading
function? maintaining employee morale
12. Personnel activities associated with human resource management most likely include all of the
following EXCEPT developing customer relationships
13. According to experts, the primary hindrance to a firm's productivity is its inability to (trở ngại
chính của công suất là không có khả năng): acquire and maintain human capital
14. Authority is the right to make decisions, to direct the work of others, and to give orders.
15. Best defines line authority? a manager's right to issue orders to other managers or employees
16. In most organizations, human resource managers are categorized as staff managers, who assist and
advise line managers in areas like recruiting, hiring, and compensation.
18. Historically been an integral part of every line manager's duties? handling personnel issues
19. A line manager's human resource responsibilities most likely include all of the following EXCEPT
marketing new products and services
20. Authority exerted by an HR manager as coordinator of personnel activities? functional authority
21. One of the line functions of a human resource manager includes directing the activities of his or her
subordinates in the HR department.
22. Which of the following is an example of a coordinative function performed by HR managers?
ensuring that line managers are adhering to a firm's sexual harassment policies
24. Staff functions involve assisting and advising line managers, and they are the central aspect of a
human resource manager's job.
25. All of the following are ways in which an HR manager most likely assists and advises line
managers EXCEPT making strategic business planning decisions
26. Human resource managers generally exert line authority within the human resources department
and implied authority outside the human resources department.
27. Functions of the human resource manager EXCEPT integrating the duties of line managers with
staff managers
28. Examples of human resource specialties EXCEPT financial advisor
29. In general, human resource employees would be on staff for a firm with 500 total employees? 5
30. HR management specialties calls for collecting data to write job descriptions? job analyst
31. Focuses on using centralized call centers and outsourcing arrangements with vendors as a way to
provide specialized support for certain HR activities? transactional HR groups
32. An HR generalist at Wilson Manufacturing has been assigned to the sales department to provide
HR management assistance as needed. Best describes the structure of the HR services provided at
Wilson Manufacturing? embedded HR units
33. Roberta Whitman has recently been hired by Jackson Pharmaceuticals as the senior vice president
of human resources. Jackson Pharmaceuticals has a history of problems within its HR department
including difficulties recruiting and retaining qualified employees, EEO violations, inadequate
employee training programs, and confusion regarding health benefit enrollment and coverage. With
years of experience transforming HR departments in other firms, Whitman believes she can correct
the problems at Jackson Pharmaceuticals. Which of the following best supports Whitman's idea to
develop a transactional HR group to handle benefits administration?
C) Outside vendors specializing in all aspects of benefits administration would provide improved
support to the firm's employees.
34. Roberta Whitman has recently been hired by Jackson Pharmaceuticals as the senior vice president
of human resources. Jackson Pharmaceuticals has a history of problems within its HR department
including difficulties recruiting and retaining qualified employees, and confusion regarding health
benefit enrollment and coverage. With years of experience transforming HR departments in other
firms, Whitman believes she can correct the problems at Jackson Pharmaceuticals. Which of the
following best supports the argument that Whitman should create embedded HR units and assign
relationship managers to each department within the firm?
A) Employees frequently complain about the inconsistent assistance they receive from the HR
department due to its large size.
35. Which of the following responsibilities is shared by line managers and human resource managers
in most firms? performance appraisals
36. Line managers work in conjunction with HR managers when interviewing job applicants
37. How have globalization and increased competition affected human resource management? HR
managers need to focus on big picture issues to help firms achieve their strategic goals.
38. Globalization refers to the tendency of firms to extend their sales, ownership, and/or
manufacturing to new markets abroad.
39. Most common reasons firms decide to globalize EXCEPT supervising quality control methods
40. A potential disadvantage to consumers of the globalization trend? reduced job security
41. Which of the following best explains the shift from manufacturing to service jobs in the U.S.?
creation of integrated supply chains
42. Knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm's workers: human capital
43. The most significant demographic trend facing the U.S. workforce? increased aging workers
44. Over the next few years, employers may face a severe labor shortage because
there are fewer people entering the workforce than there are retiring baby boomers
45. According to employer surveys, one of the primary challenges of Generation Y employees is their
need for constant praise and recognition
46. Best describes a nontraditional worker? workers with multiple jobs
47. Globalization, competition, and technology have led to trends in HR management?
HR managers assist top management with developing and implementing new strategies.
48. Ways employers use technology to support their human resource management activities EXCEPT
offshoring and outsourcing benefits administration services
49. Using external vendors to perform HR jobs were once handled by a firm internally? outsourcing
50. Royall & Company streamlined its annual benefits package enrollments by digitizing and
aggregating the former paper benefits reports, electronic spreadsheets, and benefit summaries and
providing the materials at a single location on the company intranet. Royall is using: Web portal
51. Which would provide the best solution for a global firm's HR department that needs to immediately
provide employees with corporate information? streaming desktop video
52. An HR manager who wants to analyze the costs associated with each new hire will most likely use
which of the following? data warehouse
53. Unlike HR managers of the past, modern HR managers must be able to
explain HR activities in terms of a firm's finances and productivity
54. Tara Robles earned an MBA degree and is now an HR manager for a Fortune 500 company. In
which of the following tasks does Tara's advanced degree benefit her the most?
B) assisting upper management in formulating business strategies
55. Best explains why top HR executives are being paid increasingly high salaries?
B) Effective HR managers increase corporate profitability and organizational performance.
56. Strategic human resource management refers to ________.
A) formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee
competencies and behaviors the company needs to achieve strategic aims
57. High-performance work system refers to an integrated set of human resource management
policies and practices that together result in superior employee performance.
58. Evidence-based HR management relies on types of evidence EXCEPT qualitative opinions
59. Which term refers to a set of quantitative performance measures that human resource managers use
to assess their operations? metrics
60. Ethical issues that must be considered by HR managers EXCEPT FCC regulations
61. The standards someone uses to decide what his or her conduct should be? ethics
62. Which organization provides professional certification for human resource managers?
B) Society for Human Resource Management
63. HR managers who take SHRM certification exams are tested on all of the following areas
EXCEPT information technology
64. The vice president of marketing tells a marketing manager to prepare a presentation by the end of
the week. The vice president is most likely exercising line authority
65. Shelly, an HR manager, recently had a meeting with the production manager to determine if the
firm's vacation policy was been strictly followed in the production department. Shelly was most
likely performing a coordinative function.
66. Administering health benefits programs, helping line managers comply with EEO laws, and
assisting with labor relations are all elements of the staff function.
67. Which HR specialty involves preparing job descriptions? job analyst
68. Which of the following would most likely provide assistance to executives about long-term
strategic plans? corporate HR groups
69. What is the LEAST reason for the growing number of U.S. firms that are re-shoring jobs?
A) free trade areas
70. Setting standards such as sales quotas, quality standards, or production levels is part of the leading
function of human resource management: FALSE
71. The planning function of management includes establishing goals and standards and developing
forecasts: TRUE
72. Communicating is one of the five basic functions of the management process: FALSE
73. Hiring the wrong person for the job, committing unfair labor practices, and failing to motivate
employees are personnel mistakes that hinder firms from achieving positive results: TRUE
74. Autonomy is the right to make decisions, direct the work of others, and give orders: FALSE
75. Staff managers are authorized to issue orders to subordinates and are directly in charge of
accomplishing the organization's basic goals: FALSE
76. Human resource managers are generally staff managers: TRUE
77. Staff managers have staff authority which enables them to issue orders down the chain of command
unlike line managers: FALSE
78. In small organizations, line managers frequently handle all personnel duties without the assistance
of a human resource staff: TRUE
80. Functional authority is the authority exerted by an HR manager as coordinator of personnel
activities: TRUE
82. Transactional HR groups focus on assisting top management in big picture issues such as
developing a firm's long-term strategic plan: FALSE
83. In the majority of firms, the task of interviewing job candidates is shared between HR and the
hiring department: TRUE
84. In most firms, top HR executives have many years of experience working in the human resources
department, and about 40% of them have professional HR certification.: TRUE
85. Although technology has changed how people communicate, it has failed to alter traditional factory
work, which requires the specific skills of manual laborers: FALSE
86. According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, between now and 2018 the number of workers
classified as "white, non-Hispanic" will decrease, and the number of workers classified as Asian
will increase: TRUE
87. As baby boomers retire from the work force, there will be more people entering the labor pool than
leaving it: FALSE
88. In general, Generation Y employees appreciate creative challenges, tight deadlines, and small goals
in the workplace: TRUE
89. Co-working sites are a popular option for people working from remote locations who need office
space and access to office equipment: TRUE
90. Modern human resource managers perform transactional duties as well as help top management
develop and execute the firm's long-term plans: TRUE
91. Strategic human resource management refers to performing transactional duties that satisfy the
needs and demands of both the employees and the employer: FALSE
92. The primary goal of talent management is managing the training and development needs of newly
hired workers: FALSE
93. According to research, less than one-third of all workers in the U.S. are mentally and emotionally
invested in their work: TRUE
94. The evidence used in evidence-based human resource management may come from actual
measurements, existing data, or critically evaluated research studies: TRUe
96. A key concept of the textbook is that human resource management is the sole responsibility of
human resource managers, so line managers and staff managers rely heavily on HR specialists to
hire the best employees: FALSE
99. A key concept of the textbook is that effective human resource management practices add
measurable value to an organization: TRUE
 CHAPTER 4 - JOB ANNALIST
1. The holistic, integrated, and results and goal-oriented process of planning, recruiting,
selecting, developing, managing, and compensating employees? job analysis
2. Connor, a manager, takes a talent management approach to his duties. Connor
coordinate recruitment and compensation activities
3. In an effective talent management system, an employee's performance appraisal would
initiate training and development opportunities: TRUE
4. Effective talent management focuses on developing employee competencies that align
with strategic goals: TRUE
5. The procedure used to determine the duties associated with job positions and the
characteristics of the people to hire for those positions: job analysis
6. The information resulting from a job analysis is used for writing job descriptions
7. All of the following types of information will most likely be collected by a human
resources specialist through a job analysis EXCEPT employee benefits options
8. A manager uses the information in a job analysis for all of the following EXCEPT
complying with FCC regulations
9. Depends on a job's required skills, education level, safety hazards, and degree of
responsibility: employee compensation
10. In order for Hollis Construction to be in full compliance with the Americans, the
manager needs a job analysis for each position to validate all HR activities
11. Allison, a manager at a large clothing retail store, needs to determine essential duties
that have not been assigned to specific employees. Which of the following would most
likely provide Allison with this information: job analysis
12.The job analysis lists a job's specific duties as well as the skills and training needed to
perform a particular job
13.Jennifer, a manager at a firm, has been assigned the task of conducting a job analysis.
Jennifer's first step in the process? deciding how information will be used
14. Data collection techniques would be most useful when writing a job description for a
software engineer: interviewing employees
15. Describes the activities, responsibilities, working conditions, and supervisory
responsibilities of a job: job description
16. Human requirements needed for a job, such as education, skills, and personality? JS
17. Requirements are typically addressed in JS EXCEPT working conditions
18. Indicates the division of work within a firm and the lines of authority and
communication? organization chart
19. A process chart shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from a job being analyzed.
20. A workflow analyst would focus: a single, identifiable work process or done.
21. Example of business process reengineering? using computerized systems to combine
separate tasks
22. During the job analysis process, it is important to select a sample of similar jobs to
analyze before collecting data about specific job duties and working conditions.
23. The fourth step in conducting a job analysis most likely involves collecting data about
all of the following EXCEPT employee turnover rates
24. While performing the fifth step of job analysis, it is essential to confirm the validity of
collected data with the worker.
25. In job analysis, primary purpose of having workers review and modify data collected
about their current positions is to confirm the inform is correct and complete
26.The final step in conducting a job analysis: writing a JD and JS.
27.Murray, Inc. emphasizes a desire for detail-oriented, motivated employees with strong
social skills as indicated in the firm's job specifications.
28. The primary drawback of performing a job analysis regards the amount of time a job
analysis takes to complete
29. Job enlargement means assigning workers additional same-level activities.
30. Systematically moving workers from one job to another: job rotation
31. Redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to experience
feelings of responsibility, growth, and recognition? job rotation
32. Who argued that the best way to motivate workers is to build opportunities for
challenge and achievement in their jobs via job enrichment? Frederick Herzberg
33. Jack is an employee at Best Western Hotel. Some weeks he works with the catering
group, and other he assists the reservations clerk. This is an example of job rotation
34. The rethinking and redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in
performance are called reengineering
35. Organization charts show the division of work throughout the organization, how a job
relates to others, and where a job fits in the organization: TRUE
36.A process chart provides relevant background information during the job analysis
process by indicating job titles and lines of communication: FALSE
37. After identifying a business process to redesign, the next step in reengineering is
measuring the performance of the existing process: TRUE
38. Conducting the job analysis is the sole responsibility of the HR specialist: FALSE
39. If a manager wants to know "should a job even exists," a workflow analysis should be
performed: TRUE
40. Job enlargement refers to redesigning jobs in a way that increases responsibility and
achievement: FALSE
41. In reengineered business processes, workers tend to become collectively responsible for
overall results rather than individually responsible: TRUE
46. Guidelines is recommended to managers conducting a job analysis?
D) Ensure that the questions and the process are clarified to employees.
47. Method for collecting job analysis information is considered best for quantifying the
relative worth of a job for compensation purposes? position analysis questionnaire
48. Jerome, a manager at an electronics company, needs to gather job analysis information
from a large number of employees who perform similar work. Most appropriate for
Jerome? holding a group interview with a supervisor
49. The primary disadvantage of using interviews to collect job analysis data?
B) Employees may exaggerate or minimize some information.
50. Interviews for the purpose of collecting job analysis data will most likely address all of
the following topics EXCEPT personal hobbies
51. Job analysts collecting information through observations and interviews benefit from
the use of a structured list to guide the process and ensure consistency.
52. Primary disadvantage of using questionnaires to gather job analysis information?
D) Developing and testing questionnaires is time-consuming
53. Jobs is direct observation NOT a recommended method for collecting job analysis
data? attorney
54. One of the problems with direct observation is reactivity which
is when workers alter their normal activities because they are being watched.
55. A work cycle is the time it takes to complete a job.
56. Data collection method is most frequently used in conjunction with direct observation?
interview
57) Requires workers to make daily listings of the activities in which they engage as well as
the amount of time each activity takes? log
59) Pocket dictating machines and pagers have replaced traditional diary/log methods in
many firms. Problems have the modern methods eliminated? employee forgetfulness
regarding daily activities
60) Purrfect Pets is a local pet supply store with a following of loyal customers who
appreciate the personal service the store's employees provide. After a very profitable
year, Purrfect Pets is expanding by opening two more stores. Before hiring employees
for the new stores, the manager is considering the idea of conducting a job analysis for
each position. Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that the
manager should conduct group interviews to gather job analysis information?
D) Numerous employees at PP perform similar tasks during the work day.
61) Purrfect Pets is a local pet supply store with a following of loyal customers who
appreciate the personal service the store's employees provide. After a very profitable
year, Purrfect Pets is expanding by opening two more stores. Before hiring employees
for the new stores, the manager is considering the idea of conducting a job analysis for
each position. Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that the
manager should use a position analysis questionnaire to collect job analysis information?
C) The tasks of most Purrfect Pets employees vary widely from day to day.
63) What is the primary benefit of using a position analysis questionnaire to gather data for
a job analysis? classifying jobs for the purpose of assigning salaries
64) A position analysis questionnaire is used to collect quantifiable data concerning the
duties and responsibilities of various jobs.
66) What are the three main categories used in the Dictionary of Occupational Titles to rate,
classify, and compare different jobs? data, people, things
67) The Department of Labor procedure uses a set of standard activities known as worker
functions to describe what a worker must do with respect to data, people, …
69) The most important consideration when developing an online
job analysis is to make questions and the process as clear as possible
70) Informal interviews provide quantitative job analysis information, which is why they
are frequently used by managers who need to determine the relative worth of a job for
pay purposes: FALSE
71) The immediate supervisor of a group of workers being interviewed for job analysis
purposes is not allowed to attend the session due to concerns about workers failing to
provide honest responses to questions: FALSE
73) Questionnaires developed for the purpose of job analysis are always structured in the
form of checklists so that the information can easily be entered into a database: FALSE
74) Observation as a job analysis data collection method is most appropriate for jobs that
involve physical activities: TRUE
75) Some employers collecting job analysis information provide employees with pocket
dictating machines and pagers to record activities at times of the work day: TRUE
76) Quantitative approaches for collecting job analysis data are more appropriate than
qualitative approaches when a manager seeks to compare jobs for pay purposes: TRUe
79) Most JD contain sections that cover all EXCEPT required overtime
80) What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job
description? job title
83) According to the ADA, an individual must have the requisite skills, educational
background, and experience to perform a job's essential functions
85) According to the ADA, job duties that employees must be able to perform, with or
without reasonable accommodation, are called essential job functions
94) When a sales job is being filled by an untrained individual, the JS list will most likely
include job rotation as a way to predict which candidate will perform the job well
101) questions will be addressed by who is writing a JD based on competency-based job
analysis? What should the employee be able to do to competently perform this job?
102) Best supports the argument that jobs should be described in terms of competencies
rather than duties? In high-performance work systems, employees serve as team
members rotating among various jobs
 CHAP 5: PERSONNEL PLANNING AND RECRUITING.
1. First step in the recruitment process and selection process: deciding what positions to fill.
2. Background investigations, tests, and physical exams that firms use to identify viable
candidates for a job: selection tools.
3. Workforce is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill
them.
4. Marcus, an HR manager for Samsung, must decide what positions the firm should fill in the
next six months, which means Marcus is currently working on personnel planning.
5. The process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm is known as: succession
planning.
6. A firm’s strategic business should guide employment planning and determine the types of
skills and competencies the firm needs.
7. Succession planning requires making forecasts in 3 steps: identify key needs, develop insisde
candidates, assess, and choose those who will fill the key position.
8. Studying a firm’s past employment needs over a period of yeats to predict future needs: trend
analysis.
9. A trend analysis is limited in its usefulness because of it overlooks the potential for changes
in skills needed.
10. Determine future staff needs by using ratios between a casual factor and the number of
employees required: ratio analysis.
11. Newton Building Supplies hopes to generate an extra $4mil in sales next year. A salesperson
traditionally generates $800,000 in sales each year. Using ratio analysis, how many new
salespeople should Newton hire? 5 (4mil:800,000)
12. When using either a trend analysis or a ratio analysis. It is assumed that productivity levels
will remain the same.
13. A scatter plot is a graphical method uesed to help identify how two variables are related.
14. Pablo want to figure out likely future employment for Slate Ind. by examining past org
employment needs of the company. This is an ex of the trend analysis.
15. Contains data regarding employees’s education, career development, and special skills and is
used by managers when selecting inside candidates for promotion: qualification invetories.
16. When managers need to determine which current employees are available for promotion or
transfer, they will most likely use skills inventories.
17. Company records showing the present performance and promotability of inside candidates for
a firm’s top positions: personnel replacement charts.
18. Qualifications inventories can be tracked and maintained by using all of the following
EXCEPT a ratio analysis matrix.
19. Workforce planning often involves paying continuous attention to workforce planning issues
which are called: predictive workforce monitoring.
20. Mathematical process do employers use to forecast the availability of internal job candidates
that shows the probabilities that feeder positions in a chain will be filled: Markov analysis.
21. Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotel to mange staffing for the regional hotel chain.
Bernum intends to open two new hotels within the next 3 years and will have many job
positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with
the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make
significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company’s goals for the
future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following if true, best supports the
argument that a scatter plot is the most appropriate tool for Marie to use in estimating future
personnel needs: the size of the two new hotels will be similar to the chains’s other hotels.
22. Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotel to mange staffing for the regional hotel chain.
Bernum intends to open two new hotels within the next 3 years and will have many job
positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with
the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make
significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company’s goals for the
future and improve employee retention rates. Best supports the argument that Marie should
implement a computerized skills inventory database: Barnum’s recruiting yield pyramid
indicates that the firm should generate 1,000 leads in order to fill 100 positions.
23. The ongoing process of systematically identifying, assessing, and developing org leadership
to enhance performance is known as succession planning.
24. First step of succession planning: identifying and analyzing key position needs.
25. Methods used by firms to develop high-potential candidates for future positions EXCEPT
developing skills.
26. A Markov analysis is primarily used to forecast the availability of internal job candidates.
27. Smith Ind. is thinking of having another company take care of its benefits management. This
is call outsourcing.
28. Dixon Ind. wants to engage in predictive workforce monitoring. As the HR manager at
Dixon, you should most likely continuously monitor workforce planning issues.
29. Employment planning should be an integral part of a firm’s strategic and HR planning
process: TRUE
30. Personnel planning requires an estimation of personnel needs, the supply of inside candidates,
and the likely supply of outside candidates: T
31. When it refers to filling jobs like that of a maintenance clerk, personnel planning is called
succession planning: F
32. When making personnel plans, a manager primarily needs to focus on the firm’s personnel
needs, the supply of inside candidates, and the estimated supply of outside candidates: T
33. The assumption shared by both trend analysis and ratio analysis is that productivity remains
about the same from year to year: T
34. A scatter plot is a graphical method used to help identify the relationship between two
variables: T
35. Available for projecting personnel needs: trend tools include the trend analysis, ratio
analysis, and scatter plot.
36. Methods used by both small and large firms to forecast the supply of inside candidates:
manual system.
37. Finding or attracting applicants for an employer’s open positions is employee recruitment.
38. Recruitment is necessary to develop an applicant pool.
39. A recruiting yield pyramid is used to calculate the number of applicants a firm must
generate to hire the required number of new employee.
40. A recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationship between all of the
following EXCEPT internal and external candidates.
41. According to US court ruling, it is always illegal to recruit applicants with gender-specific
ads, but using word-of-mouth to spread information about job opportunities is legal in all
situations: F
42. The HR manager who recruits for a vacant job is typically the one who is responsible for
supervising the performance of that position: F
43. It is illegal for employers to conspire not to hire each other’s employees: T
44. The primary disadvantage of using internal sources of candidates to fill vacant positions in a
firm: potential to lose employees who aren’t promoted.
45. Characteristics of a job posting EXCEPT indicating the preferred number of applicants.
46. NOT a tool used by firms to recruit outside candidates: intranet job postings.
47. Publicizing an open job to current employees through a firm’s intranet or bulleting board is
known as a job posting: T
48. Firms can reduce potential problems associated with rehiring former employees by crediting
them with the years of service they had accumulated before they left: T
49. The primary purpose of an applicant tracking system: assisting employers in attracting,
screening, and managing applicants.
50. Greatest role in determining the best medium for a job ad: skills needed for the job.
51. Counselors in state-run employment agencies conduct all of the activities EXCEPT filling
employment tax reports.
52. Responsible for paying the fees charged by a private employment agency when an applicant
is placed in a job: employers
53. An employer will most likely use a private employment agency in order to fill a specific job
opening quickly.
54. the primary disadvantage for employers who use private employment agencies to fill
positions: applicant screening may not be thorough.
55. Newton Manufacturing is using a private employment agency to recruit individuals for
management positions. As the HR manager at Newton, you need to ensure that applicants are
screened properly, so you should provide the agency with an accurate JD.
56. Kate works as a nurse on temporary assignment for hospitals throughout the region on an as
needed basis. Kate is most likely working as a contingent worker.
57. Firm are using temporary workers more frequently because weak economic confidence
among employers.
58. Common concerns that have been expressed to researchers by temporary employees
EXCEPT being in compliance with equal employment laws.
59. Jessica Garza is a manager at a large retail store. Currently, Jessica has 4 temporary workers
under her supervision that a local staffing agency has provided. In which of task related to the
temporary workers should Jessica become directly involved: answering task-related
question.
60. The use of nontraditional recruitment sources: alternative staffing.
61. Executive recruiters are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top
management talent for their clients.
62. Improved the ability of executive recruiters to find potential candidates: internet databases.
70) Typical compensation structure for on-demand recruiting services: hourly rate
71) Pamlico River Productions is seeking a top-level manager to oversee its finance division.
Qualified candidates can be difficult to find, so the business would most likely benefit from using
a(n) to recruit potential candidates: executive recruiter
72) A small software firm is seeking several permanent employees with experience in the
semiconductor industry and advanced degrees in computer science. The firm is a small one and
cannot afford to pay a traditional recruiting firm a fee of 30% per each hire's salary. Instead, this
firm should consider using an on-demand recruiting service
74) Primary goal of college recruiters: attracting good candidates
75) In regards to on-campus recruiting, which help sell the employer to the interviewee?
B) sincerity of the recruiter
76) Best option needs to attract local applicants for hourly jobs: walk-ins
77) What is an advantage of using employee referral campaigns: Applicants have received
realistic job previews.
78) One type of workers is , who do all or most of their work remotely, often from home, using
information technology: telecommuters
79) Web site is increasingly serving as a recruitment source for passive job candidates: LinkedIn
80) The dot-jobs domain is used by HR managers for succession planning purposes: FALSE
82) Every state has a public, state-run employment service agency: TRUE
85) Many firms use temporary hiring as a way to give prospective employees a trial run before
hiring them as full-time workers: TRUE
86) In most cases, it is more cost effective for firms to hire contingent workers through a temp
agency than to hire comparable permanent employees: FALSE
87) Employees of temporary staffing firms that are working in an employer's workplace are
considered workers of both the temporary agency and the employer: TRUE
88) An in-house temporary employee is a highly skilled worker, such as an engineer or software
designer, who is supplied for long-term projects under contract from an outside technical services
firm: FALSE
9) Offshoring means having outside vendors supply services that a firm's own employees
previously did in-house, while outsourcing means having overseas outside vendors provide
services once performed in-house: FALSE
91) The fees associated with both retained and contingent executive recruiters are increasing as
firms struggle to find qualified candidates: FALSE
98) Which motivates most employees over 65 to work: schedule flexibility
99) Smith Industries has set a goal of recruiting minority applicants. Which method is LEAST
likely to be successful for Smith Industries: utilizing executive recruiters
100) Older workers usually have higher absenteeism rates compared to younger workers due to
illness: FALSE
101) A question on an employment application form that requests the dates of attendance and
graduation from schools may be illegal as it could reflect an applicant's age: TRUE
102) According to EEO law, it is legal to ask job applicants if they have ever received workers'
compensation: FALSE
103) To prevent the appearance of discriminatory hiring practices, firms are advised to avoid
asking job applicants on an application form whether they own or rent a house: TRUE
104) Video résumés eliminate the possibility of applicants claiming discrimination in a firm's
hiring practices: FALSE
105) Firms can predict job performance and employee tenure by analyzing job application
information, such as travel experience and education level: TRUE
109) A true statement about mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements: Judicial
appeals and reconsideration are available if legal errors occur.
 CHƯƠNG 7: ITERVIEW
1) Which of the following is the most commonly used selection tool? interview
2) Which of the following refers to a procedure designed to predict future job performance based
on an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries? selection interview
3) When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant's oral
responses to oral inquiries, it is called a selection interview.
4) Selection interviews are classified by all of the following factors EXCEPT length
5) What is the type of interview which lists the questions ahead of time? structured interview
6) Which of the following is another term for an unstructured interview? nondirective
7) Which of the following is an advantage of using a nondirective format when interviewing job
candidates? pursues points of interest as they develop
8) Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using structured interviews during the
employee selection process? reduced opportunities for asking follow-up questions
9) How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews?
Situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical
situation.
10) Which representative of what might be asked in a behavioral interview? "Consider a time
when you were faced with an angry client. What did you do to turn the situation around?"
11) What type of interview would most likely include the statement, "Tell me about a time when
you worked successfully in a team environment"? behavioral
12) Representative of what might be asked in a situational interview?
"Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company.
What would you do?"
13) What type of interview would most likely include the following statement? "Imagine that you
have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition's biggest client. How
would you proceed?" situational
14) In a stress interview, interviewer tries to make applicants uncomfortable to spot sensitivity
15) Which of the following questions would most likely be asked during a stress interview?
A) "I see that you switched colleges four times before finally earning your degree. I think that
reflects an inability to make good decisions and remain focused. What do you think?"
16) What type of interview would most likely include the following: "It must be difficult to leave a
company after such strong accusations of unethical behavior. Tell me about that"? stress
17) Which of the following terms refers to a group of interviewers working together to question
and rate one applicant? sequential interview
18) Kevin is interviewing for a position as a public relations specialist in a communications firm.
He first meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets with the department manager. Finally,
he meets with the company president. Kevin is most likely experiencing a serial interview.
19) In a mass interview, a panel questions several candidates simultaneously.
20) Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Biology. His interview is
conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him
simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a panel
interview.
21) An employer can most likely increase the reliability of a panel interview by ________.
C) providing interviewers with scoring sheets and sample answers
24) All of the following are common characteristics of computerized selection interviews
EXCEPT
essay questions based on hypothetical situations
25) Career FAQs lists things that interviewees should keep in mind when doing an online video
interview. Which of the following is NOT one of them? use a new computer
26) Which of the following interview formats will most likely result in the highest validity?
A) structured, situational
27) The primary purpose of conducting a stress interview is to determine________.
D) how an applicant handles criticism
28) Which of the following statements is most likely true?
B) Phone interviews can generate spontaneous answers from candidates.
29) Which of the following is a common characteristic of computerized interviews?
A) multiple-choice questions
30) Which of the following most likely combines aspects of behavioral and situational
questioning?
C) mass interviews
31) The primary purpose for conducting a case interview is to ________.
B) form a realistic assessment of a candidate's skills
32) The interview is the most widely used personnel selection procedure: T
33) Nondirective interviews follow no set format so the interviewer can ask follow-up questions
and pursue points of interest as they develop: TRUE
34) Non-structured interviews are preferred to directive interviews because they are more reliable
and valid: FALSE
35) Nondirective interviews can be described as little more than a general conversation: T
36) All structured interviews specify acceptable answers for each question: F
37) Behavioral interviews ask interviewees to describe how they would react to a hypothetical
situation at some point in the future: FALSE
38) In a stress interview, the interviewer seeks to make the applicant uncomfortable with rude
questions: TRUE
39) The majority of selection interviews are one-on-one and sequential: TRUE
40) Studies suggest that interviewers tend to evaluate applicants less favorably in telephone
interviews than in face-to-face interviews: FALSE
41) A computerized selection interview presents a series of multiple-choice questions regarding
background, experience, education, skills, knowledge, and work attitudes: TRUE
42) Computer-aided interviews are primarily used to administer and score essay questions: FALSE
46) According to studies, which of the following has the most influence on the outcome of a job
interview? an interviewer's first impression of the candidate
47) An error of judgment on the part of the interviewer due to interviewing one or more very good
or very bad candidates just before the interview in question? contrast error
48) During an interview, Tanya discusses her numerous accomplishments at previous jobs and
praises the interviewer frequently. Tanya is most likely using impression management
49) When interviewing an applicant with a disability who uses assistive technology, which of the
following questions should NOT be asked? What is the severity and exact nature of your
disability and how does the technology assist you?
50) Individuals asked by the EEOC to apply for employment which they do not intend to accept,
for the sole purpose of uncovering unlawful discriminatory hiring practices? testers
51) Best describes telegraphing during an interview? at an applicant to suggest a desired answer
52) Which of the following characteristics of an interview would most likely raise concerns about
interview discrimination? subjective interview questions
53) Which of the following applicant characteristics is LEAST likely to be assessed accurately
during a selection interview? conscientiousness
54) Which of the following would most likely increase candidate-order errors? recruiting
pressure
55) First impressions created from a candidate's application forms or personal appearance rarely
affect interviewer ratings of candidates: FALSE
56) Candidates who make an initial bad impression on an interviewer are typically able to reverse
the situation if they close the interview in a strong manner: FALSE
57) Employers typically base decisions on false impressions and stereotypes when they fail to
clarify in advance what traits and knowledge are necessary for a specific job: TRUE
58) Interviewers tend to rate candidates who promote themselves and use impression management
tactics more poorly on candidate-job fit: FALSE
59) When interviewing disabled people, interviewers tend to avoid directly addressing the
disability, which limits an interviewer's opportunity to adequately determine whether or not a
candidate can perform the job: TRUE
60) Under the Americans with Disabilities Act an interviewer must limit his or her questions to
whether an applicant has any physical or mental impairment that may interfere with his or her
ability to perform the job's essential tasks: TRUE
61) The EEOC uses testers who apply for employment which they do not intend to accept for the
purpose of uncovering unlawful discriminatory hiring practices. TRUE
62) Because EEOC testers are not really seeking employment, they do not have legal standing in
court to charge unlawful discriminatory hiring practices. FALSE
63) Research indicates that interviewers typically have negative reactions towards candidates who
are wheelchair-bound: T
67) What is the best way to avoid most interview errors? use a structured interviewing format
68) George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a mid-
size firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand the
firm's presence in the toy market, which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing
department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the additional
funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured
situational interview in the hiring process. Which of the following, if true, best supports the
argument that George should use a structured situational interview to hire a media planner?
D) Great Toys' executives want to ensure that the interview process is fair to all candidates
and that the best candidate is hired.
69) George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a mid-
size firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand the
firm's presence in the toy market, which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing
department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the additional
funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured
situational interview in the hiring process. Undermines the argument that George should use a
structured situational interview to hire a media planner? George and the HR manager lack the
time required to participate in a lengthy interview process.
70) A series of job-relevant questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all
applicants for a job is known as a structured situational interview
71) When developing a structured situational interview, the first step is analyzing the job
72) What is the second step in the procedure for developing a guide for a structured situational
interview? rate the job's main duties
73) In a structured situational interview, interview questions should address essential job duties
74) After creating questions for a structured situational interview, benchmark answers need to be
developed for scoring purposes.
75) True statement regarding structured situational interviews? usually conducted by a panel.
76) Which of the following is an example of a job knowledge question?
A) "What are the legal restrictions regarding the use of telemarketing for consumers who
have a past relationship with a company?"
77) How many interviewers usually make up a panel interview? 3-6
78) What is the first step in conducting an effective interview? knowing the job
79) In order to conduct an effective interview, interviewers should NOT ask job candidates about
their lifelong goals
80) Outcome of using the same questions with all candidates being interviewed? bias reduced
81) Which question below is an example of a situational question?
A) "Suppose you were giving a sales presentation and a difficult technical question arose that
you could not answer. What would you do?"
82) Ex of a behavioral ques? "Can you tell about a time when solved a difficult problem?"
83) Improve the structure of an interview EXCEPT asking candidates to describe themselves
84) Consider the question: "Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you provided
leadership in a difficult situation?" What type of question is this? behavioral question
85) Consider the question: "What factors should be considered when developing a customer
database?" What type of question is this? job knowledge question
86) Conducting an effective interview EXCEPT asking candidates Y/N questions.
87) Recommended advice for conducting an effective interview? candidate for specific examples.
88) Which of the following best explains why most firms do not provide rejected applicants with
detailed explanations about the employment decision? concerns about legal disputes
89) Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has
seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a
result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although
Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had
hoped. Marion is considering making changes to the way she interviews job candidates. Best
supports the argument that Marion should use structured interviews? lacks highly effective
interviewing skills.
90) Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has
seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a
result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although
Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had
hoped. Marion is considering making changes to the way she interviews job candidates. Improve
the reliability and validity of Marion's selection process? asking all applicants the same questions
91) Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has
seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a
result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although
Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had
hoped. Marion is considering using the streamlined interview process to hire a new real estate
agent. Questions would be most relevant for Marion to ask if she wants an employee with
extensive knowledge in real estate? What are the loan options you would suggest for first-time
home buyers?
92) Which type of interview questions are most likely designed to probe an applicant's motivation
to meet the job's requirements through activities such as physical labor, customer service, and
frequent travel: willingness
93) Antone is applying for a job with Boscom Manufacturing as a chemical engineer. During the
interview, Antone is asked the following question: "How does extreme heat affect hydrochloric
acid?" The interviewer is most likely trying to assess Antone's knowledge
94) The following are interviewing errors to avoid EXCEPT asking prepared questions
95) A manager who begins an interview by asking the applicant about the weather is most likely
attempting to put the candidate at ease
96) Interviewers tend to be more influenced by unfavorable than favorable information about a
candidate: T
97) A structured behavioral interview contains a series of hypothetical job-oriented questions with
predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for the job: F
99) Structured situational interviews contain situational questions, job knowledge questions, and
willingness questions but not behavioral questions. F
100) Willingness questions assess an applicant's ability to meet the job requirements: F
101) Companies generally conduct structured situational interviews using a panel, rather than
sequentially: TRUE
102) Interviews can be made more effective if the interviewer studies the job description and uses a
standardized interview form: TRUE
108) A total selection program has the goal of selecting candidates whose totality of attributes best
fits the employer's requirements: TRUE
109) Deciding who to extend a job offer to in the judgmental approach quantifies all the evidence
and perhaps uses a formula to predict job success: FALSE

CHƯƠNG 8: TRAINING
1) On Alicia's first day of work at a software firm, she attended a meeting with the HR manager and
other new employees. Alicia learned about employee benefits packages, personnel policies, and the
structure of the company. In which did Alicia most likely participate? employee orientation
2) Which of the following terms refers to helping new employees appreciate the values and culture
of a firm? onboarding
3) NOT one of the goals of a firm's employee orientation program? assisting new employees in
selecting the best labor union
4) All of the following topics are addressed during employee orientation EXCEPT wage curves
5) Employee orientation programs range from brief, informal intros to lengthy, formal courses: T
6) Hiring highly-skilled employees with great potential eliminates the need to provide orientation
and training. FALSE
8) The methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs are
called training
9) MTR Enterprises failed to provide adequate safety training to one of its employees. As a result,
the employee harmed a customer. A court would most likely find MTR liable for training
10) NOT help employers protect themselves against charges of negligent training? paying
employees for their training time
11) Strategic training needs analysis identifies the training employees will need to fill future jobs.
12) What is the first step in the ADDIE training process? analyzing the training need
13) The second step in the ADDIE training process? designing the overall training program
14) Occur during the third step of the ADDIE training process? creating training materials
15) Which would most likely occur during the fourth step of the ADDIE training process?
A) holding on-the-job training sessions
16) Final step in the ADDIE training process? evaluating the program's successes or failures
17) James, an HR manager, is currently identifying the specific knowledge and skills required for a
telemarketing position at Newman Enterprises. James is most likely involved in which of the
following? task analysis
18) Amy, an accounting supervisor, has been asked to provide training for her subordinates about
new tax laws. In order to motivate the individuals who attend her training session, Amy should most
likely do all of the following EXCEPT use new terminology and technical concepts
19) Trainees should be provided adequate practice and be allowed to work at their own pace during
a training session in order to transfer skills more easily to the job
20) Task analysis is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires.
21) Which of the following consolidates information regarding required tasks and skills in a format
that is helpful for determining training requirements? task analysis record form
22) Employers will most likely use all of the following methods to identify training needs for new
employees EXCEPT conducting a work sampling
23) A graphic model that presents a precise overview of the knowledge, skills, and behaviors
someone would need to perform a job well is known as a competency model
24) The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such
deficiencies should be corrected through training or through some other means is called
performance analysis
25) Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team often
employees. Members of Mark's sales force vary in experience level. Four members of the sales
team have worked at Samson for less than one year. The other six salespeople have been with
Samson anywhere from three to seven years. Mark recently received the annual sales report and
noticed that sales have been dropping steadily over the last year. Mark is considering the idea of
providing training to his sales team as a way to boost sales. Which of the following best supports
the argument that the drop in Samson's sales can be solved through training?
D) Members of the sales team have expressed that they do not fully understand the benefits and side
effects of the latest medications released by Samson.
27) Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team of ten
employees. Four members of the sales team have worked at Samson for less than one year. Mark
recently received the annual sales report and noticed that sales have been dropping steadily over the
last year. Mark is considering the idea of providing training to his sales team as a way to boost
sales. All of the following questions are relevant to Mark's decision to implement a training
program for his sales team EXCEPT:
A) What methods are used for recruiting and interviewing individuals for sales positions?
28) The first step in a performance analysis? comparing actual performance to the ideal
29) Studies show that trainees are distracted by visual aids presented during training sessions. F
30) Training sessions should be half-day or three-fourths day in length rather than a full day,
because the learning curve goes down late in the day. TRUE
31) The purpose of a current training needs analysis is to ensure that critical employees receive
adequate training and development for future positions with the firm: FALSE
32) Performance analysis is a detailed study of a job to determine what specific skills the job
requires FALSE
33) Attitude surveys, employee diaries, tests, and performance appraisals are tools for conducting a
performance analysis TRUE
36) Tyler, a new accounts representative at Martin Marketing, is learning the job by actually doing
job-related tasks. Tyler is most likely participating in on-the-job training
37) Which training methods is most frequently used by employers? on-the-job training
38) All of the following are types of on-the-job training EXCEPT programmed learning
39) Rebekah was hired soon after graduation and assigned to complete a management trainee
program. She will move to various jobs each month for a nine-month period of time. Her employer
is utilizing the job rotation form of training.
40) Mario hopes to be promoted to the head of his department next year. In the meantime, he has
been assigned to spend a year as an assistant to the current department head. Which type of training
is most likely being used in this example? coaching method
41) The on-the-job method of special assignments involves give lower-level executives firsthand
experience in working on actual problems.
42) John is doing is doing a training method to learn a new job where there are sequence of steps he
is supposed to learn step-by-step. This method is called: job instruction training (JIT)
44) A structured process by which people become skilled workers through a combination of
classroom instruction and on-the-job training is called apprenticeship training
45) Which form of on-the-job training usually involves having a learner study under the tutelage of
a master craftsperson? apprenticeship training
46) John is currently being trained on the job and is at the first step in the OTJ process, which is:
D) familiarizing the trainee with equipment, tools, and trade terms
47) When jobs consist of a logical sequence of steps and are best taught step-by-step, the most
appropriate training method to use is job instruction training
48) With job instruction training, which of the following should most likely be included beside each
step listed? key points or guidelines
49) Primary advantage of lecturing as a method of training? appropriate for large groups
50) Which of the following will most likely help a speaker improve the effectiveness of a training
lecture? watching the audience's body language
51) Which of the following is a systematic method for teaching job skills that involves presenting
questions or facts, allowing the person to respond, and giving the learner immediate feedback on the
accuracy of his or her answers? programmed learning
52) Which is NOT an advantage of programmed learning? Trainees benefit from a skilled coach.
53) Which of the following terms refers to computer-based training systems that adjust to meet each
trainee's specific learning needs? intelligent tutoring systems
54) Wells Fargo and Company is a financial services firm that provides banking, insurance, and
mortgage services at 10,000 stores nationwide. Wells Fargo offers its employees many professional
development opportunities such as training programs and tuition reimbursement. best supports the
argument that Wells Fargo should use intelligent tutoring systems to provide training for loan
officers? Current Wells Fargo employees indicate that they prefer to work at their own pace
and have a variety of learning styles.
55) Vestibule training is a method in which trainees learn on actual or simulated equipment but are
trained away from the job.
56) American Airlines uses flight simulators to train pilots about airplane equipment and safety
measures. This is an example of vestibule training
57) Which of the following involves a trainer in a central location teaching groups of employees at
remote locations over cable broadband lines or the Internet? videoconferencing
58) Travel agents at Apollo Travel Services follow a computer program that displays question
prompts and dialogue boxes with travel policies as the agent enters information about the
consumer's travel plans. This is an example of a(n) electronic performance support system
59) Learning management systems are special software tools that support Internet training by
helping employers identify training needs, and to schedule, deliver, assess, and manage the online
training itself.
60) Which of the following terms refers to a set of instructions, diagrams, or similar methods
available at the job site to guide the worker? job aid
62) Wells Fargo and Company is a financial services firm that provides banking, insurance, and
mortgage services at 10,000 stores nationwide. Wells Fargo offers its employees many professional
development opportunities such as training programs and tuition reimbursement.Wells Fargo
executives are considering the expansion of the firm's existing training programs after employees
have expressed strong interest in the idea. Best supports the argument that Wells Fargo should
integrate computer simulations into its training program for bank tellers? Employee surveys
indicate that many Wells Fargo bank tellers are uncertain about the best methods for
handling angry customers.
63) Which of the following terms refers to a section of an employer's Web site that provides
employees with online access to job-related training courses? learning portal
64) Which of the following terms refers to a teaching method that uses special collaboration
software to enable multiple remote learners to participate in live audio and visual discussions via a
PC or laptop? virtual classroom
66) Diversity training attempts to foster harmonious working relationships and to develop cross-
cultural sensitivity among the employees of a firm.
67) Purpose of implementing a cross training program? facilitating flexible job assignments
68) All of the following are characteristics of most interactive training programs, such as
simulations, EXCEPT increased learning time
69) Lower-level managers who are given firsthand experience working on existing problems are
being trained through the special assignments approach: TRUE
70) Surveys estimate that approximately 20% of what employees learn on the job is learned through
informal means while the rest is learned through formal training programs. FALSE
71) Apprenticeship training is a step-by-step self-learning method which uses a textbook, computer,
or the Internet. FALSE
72) Evidence suggests that Web-based instruction is significantly more effective than classroom
instruction for teaching information about how to perform a job-related task. FALSE
73) Providing learning content on demand through cell phones is known as mobile learning: TRUE
74) With a lifelong learning account, employers and employees can contribute money that can be
used by employees to attend school: TRUE
75) Team training is used by many firms to develop strong management teams, enhance
interpersonal skills, and encourage job flexibility: TRUE
80) Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes,
or increasing skills is called management development
81) Which process involves assessing the company's strategic needs, appraising the current
performance of managers, and building skills of managers? management development
82) All are on-the-job training methods used for managerial EXCEPT case study method
83) Which of the following enables management trainees to work full-time analyzing and solving
problems in other departments? action learning
84) Eric is in a group with five other management trainees at Coca-Cola. Eric's group is competing
against other management trainees at the firm in a simulated marketplace. Each group must decide
how much to spend on advertising and how many products to manufacture over the next three
years. Activities is Eric most likely participating? management games
85) Succession planning is a type of management development program that focuses on planning
and filling lower and middle-management positions: FALSE
86) The case study method is an on-the job management development technique that presents a
manager with a written description of an organizational problem that needs to be diagnosed and
solved: FALSE
87) Management games are considered an effective training tool because trainees are actively
involved, and the activities help trainees focus on planning and solving problems: TRUE
89) According to Kurt Lewin, for organizational change, stage must occur first? unfreezing
90) According to Kurt Lewin, all of the following should occur in the moving stage of
organizational change EXCEPT mobilizing commitment
91) Organizational development is an approach to organizational change in which the employees
formulate the change that's required and implement it.
92) Action research means collecting data about a group, department, or organization, and feeding
the information back to the employees so they can analyze it and develop hypotheses about what the
problems might be.
93) Which organizational development application involves methods like performance appraisals,
reward systems, and diversity programs? human resource management
94) Lewin's change process consists of unfreezing, moving, and refreezing. TRUE
95) According to Lewin's change process, unfreezing involves developing new behaviors, values,
and attitudes through organizational development methods such as team building: FALSE
96) During the refreezing stage of Lewin's change process, managers are likely to use new appraisal
systems and incentives as a way to reinforce desired behaviors: TRUE
97) During the unfreezing stage of organizational change, managers need to establish a sense of
urgency, which may be accomplished by providing employees with reports indicating that the firm
faces significant problems: TRUE
98) The human process category of organizational development includes T-groups, process
consultation, and third-party intervention: TRUE
99) Organizational development is usually characterized by the use of action research and the
application of behavioral science knowledge. TRUE
100) Organizational development interventions in the area of human resource management most
likely involve changing a firm's formal structure: FALSE
101) Survey research and team building are technostructural organizational development
techniques. FALSE
104) NOT measured when evaluating a training program? overall organizational productivity
106) The most common aspects measured when evaluating training are participants' reactions to the
program, what the trainees learned from the program, and to what extent their on-the-job behavior
or results changed as a result of the program: TRUE
107) Research suggests that most firms evaluate their training programs by measuring the reactions
of participants.: TRUE
110) The four basic categories of training program outcomes that are typically measured include
reactions, learning, behavior, and results: TRUE

CHAPTER 9 PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT AND

APPRAISAL
1) Which of the following terms refers to the process of evaluating an employee's current and/or past
performance relative to his or her performance standards? performance appraisal
2) The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback during a performance appraisal is to
motivate employees to remove any performance deficiencies
3) NOT one of the recommended guidelines for setting effective employee goals? administering
consequences for failure to meet goals
4) SMART goals are best described as specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely
5) Reasons for appraising an employee's performance EXCEPT an organizational strategy map
6) Primarily responsible for appraising an employee's performance? employee's direct supervisor
7) NOT a role played by the HR department in the performance appraisal process? conducting
appraisals of employees
8) What is the first step of any performance appraisal? setting work standards
9) Defining the job means making sure that the manager and the subordinate agree on the subordinate's
job standards and the appraisal method to be used.
10) Who is in the best position to observe and evaluate an employee's performance for the purposes of a
performance appraisal? immediate supervisor
11) Employee performance appraisals are conducted by all of the following EXCEPT competitors
12) Peer appraisals have been shown to result in a reduction of social loafing
13) In most firms, a rating committee used for performance appraisals consists of 4-5 members.
14) What usually occurs when employees rate themselves for performance appraisals?
C) Ratings are higher than when provided by supervisors.
15) Which of the following terms refers to the process of allowing subordinates to rate their supervisor's
performance anonymously? upward feedback
16) the typical result of upward feedback? Managers improve their performance.
17) Which of the following terms refers to a performance appraisal based on surveys from peers,
supervisors, subordinates, and customers? 360-degree feedback
19) A performance appraisal is based on the assumption that an employee understood what his or her
performance standards were prior to the appraisal TRUE
20) Supervisors should provide employees with feedback, development, and incentives necessary to
help employees eliminate performance deficiencies or to continue to perform well: TRUE
21) The third step of the performance appraisal process is to assess the employee's actual performance
relative to work standards: FALSE
22) In order to ensure that performance goals are challenging and relevant, Matthew, a marketing
manager, should independently set goals for his subordinates because participatively set goals usually
produce lower job performance: FALSE
23) Formal performance appraisals have been eliminated by almost all major firms and replaced by
daily assessments by peers in addition to extensive training opportunities: FALSE
24) The HR department monitors the performance appraisal system, but it is typically not involved in
rating employees: TRUE
25) In order to ensure that performance appraisals are effective, Felicia, a line supervisor, should make
sure to schedule a feedback session to address each subordinate's performance, progress, and future
development plans: TRUE
26) Peer appraisals have been shown to have a negative effect on task motivation, cohesion, and job
satisfaction, so most organizations no longer use them: FALSE
27) Studies suggest that managers who receive upward feedback from identified subordinates view the
upward appraisal process more negatively than do managers who receive anonymous upward feedback.
Answer: FALSE
28) Three hundred and sixty-degree feedback is generally used for development purposes rather than for
pay increases: TRUE
31) Which of the following is the easiest and most popular technique for appraising employee
performance? graphic rating scale
32) Performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance values graphic rating scale
33) Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with seventy employees. As associate vice
president of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the
twelve employees under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use a graphic rating scale to evaluate
the performance of her subordinates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a
graphic rating scale is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use?
C) Suzanne wants a quantitative rating of each employee based on competencies important to the firm,
such as problem-solving skills.
34) All are usually measured by a graphic rating scale EXCEPT performance of co-workers
35) Which performance appraisal tool requires supervisors to categorize employees from best to worst
on various traits? alternation ranking method
36) The most popular method for ranking employees is the alternation ranking method.
37) Kendra needs to rate five of her subordinates. She makes a chart of all possible pairs of employees
for each trait being evaluated. Then, she indicates the better employee of each pair with a positive
symbol on the chart. Finally, she totals the number of positive symbols for each employee. Which
method of performance appraisal has Kendra most likely used? paired comparison
38) Which performance appraisal tool is being used when a supervisor places predetermined
percentages of appraisees into various performance categories? force distribution
39) John, the supervisor of the manufacturing department at a computer firm, is in the process of
evaluating his staff's performance. He has determined that 15% of the group will be identified as high
performers, 20% as above average performers, 30% as average performers, 20% as below average
performers, and 15% as poor performers. performance appraisal tool chosen to use? forced distribution
40) Which of the following measurement methods is similar to grading on a curve? forced distribution
41) Which of the following is one of the primary complaints regarding the use of the forced distribution
method for performance appraisals? harm to employee morale
42) Which performance appraisal tools require a supervisor to maintain a log of positive and negative
examples of a subordinate's work-related behavior? critical incident
43) Which of the following is a downside of the critical incident method of compiling incidents?
B) doesn't produce relative ratings for pay raise purposes
44) Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with 70 employees. As associate vice president
of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the 12 employees
under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use the critical incident method to evaluate the
performance of her subordinates. Which of the following, if true, most likely undermines the argument
that the critical incident method is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use?
D) Due to economic difficulties, the firm will be laying off the two lowest performing employees in
Suzanne's department.
45) Method combines the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified scales by assigning scale
points with specific examples of good or poor performance? behaviorally anchored rating scale
46) Which of the following best describes a behaviorally anchored rating scale?
B) combination of narrative critical incidents and quantified performance scales
47) The first step in developing a behaviorally anchored rating scale is to write critical incidents
48) Stacey is using a behaviorally anchored rating scale as a performance appraisal tool. She has already
asked employees and supervisors to describe critical incidents of effective and ineffective job
performance. What should Stacey most likely do next? develop performance dimensions
49) Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with 70 employees. As associate vice president
of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the 12 employees
under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use the behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) to
evaluate the performance of her subordinates. Which of the following, if true, supports the argument
that BARS is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use?
A) Suzanne wants to provide her subordinates with specific examples of their good and poor job
performance during the appraisal interview.
50) What is the primary goal of using mixed standard scales? reducing rating errors
51) Which of the following terms refers to setting specific measurable goals with each employee and
then periodically reviewing the progress made? management by objective
52) All of the following are benefits of using computerized or Web-based performance appraisal
systems EXCEPT enabling managers to monitor employees' computers
53) Which of the following enables supervisors to oversee the amount of computerized data an
employee is processing each day? electronic performance monitoring system
54) Nick supervises a team of data entry specialists. Lately, productivity has been down, and Nick
believes his subordinates are not working as efficiently as possible. Which of the following tools would
provide Nick with daily information about each employee's rate, accuracy, and time spent entering data?
B) electronic performance monitoring system
55) Which term refers to ranking of employees from best to worst on a trait or traits, choosing highest
than lowest until all are ranked? alternation ranking
56) The forced distribution method is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising
performance. FALSE
57) In the paired comparison method, the manager places predetermined percentages of ratees into
performance categories. FALSE
58) Supervisors at Sun Microsystems use the forced distribution method to evaluate performance, so
they must ensure that the proportions in each category are symmetrical: FALSE
59) The basic problem with using a ranking method for performance appraisals is not identifying the
extreme good and bad performers but differentiating meaningfully between the others: TRUE
60) Top employees often outperform the average or poor employees by as much as 100%: TRUE
61) Paired comparison is a rating approach that involves keeping a record of uncommonly good or
undesirable examples of an employee's work-related behavior and reviewing it with the employee at
predetermined times: FALSE
62) The advantages of using BARS as a performance appraisal tool are the method's accuracy, clear
standards, and consistency: TRUE
63) Management by objectives requires a manager to set specific measurable, organizationally relevant
goals with each employee and then periodically discuss the employee's progress toward these goals. T
64) Sam supervises a team of data entry clerks at Geico. The firm's electronic performance monitoring
system enables Sam to electronically monitor the amount of computerized data an employee processes
each day: TRUE
65) The alternation ranking method of performance appraisals can be problematic and unfair if all
employees have excellent job performance: TRUE
66) Ongoing performance monitoring is an element of performance management that involves the use of
computer-based systems that measure an employee's progress and send out reports regarding an
employee's performance: TRUE
67) A talent management philosophy involves segmenting employees based on their value to the firm's
success and providing employees with special coaching, feedback, and development opportunities. T
71) Graphic rating scales are subject to all of the following problems EXCEPT complexity
72) An appraisal that is too open to interpretation? unclear standards
73) Which of the following is the best way for a supervisor to correct a performance appraisal problem
caused by unclear standards? using descriptive phrases to illustrate traits
74) Which of the following is a performance appraisal problem that occurs when a supervisor's rating of
a subordinate on one trait biases the rating of that person on other traits? halo effect
75) Jason is a conscientious employee, but he is viewed by most of his co-workers as unfriendly. Jason's
supervisor rates him low on the traits "gets along well with others" and "quality of work." Which of the
following problems has most likely affected Jason's performance appraisal? halo effect
76) A supervisor who frequently rates all employees as average on performance appraisals most likely
has a problem known as central tendency
77) The best way to reduce the problem of central tendency is to rank employees
78) Which performance appraisal problem is associated with supervisors giving all of their subordinates
consistently high ratings? leniency
79) The strictness problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low.
80) Which of the follow is the best method for reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in
performance appraisals? impose a performance distribution
81) Which of the following has most likely occurred when a supervisor conducting a performance
appraisal is influenced by a subordinate's individual differences such as age, sex, and race? bias
82) Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause a supervisor's performance appraisal of a
subordinate to be biased? location and time of the appraisal
85) Which of the following is the primary advantage of using graphic rating scales as performance
appraisal tools? provides quantitative rating for each employee
86) All of the following are considered best practices for administering fair performance appraisals
EXCEPT using subjective performance data for appraisals
87) Result in a legally questionable appraisal process? Basing appraisals on subjective supervisory observations
88) Unclear standards on a performance appraisal tool will lead to unfair appraisals because
performance traits are too open for interpretation. TRUE
94) You are conducting an appraisal interview with an employee whose performance is satisfactory but
for whom promotion is not possible. Which incentive listed below would be the LEAST effective option
for maintaining satisfactory performance in this situation? professional development
95) When conducting an appraisal interview, supervisors should do all EXCEPT compare the person's
performance to that of other employees
96) When a supervisor must criticize a subordinate in an appraisal interview, it is most important for the
supervisor to provide specific examples of critical incidents
97) When an employee's performance is so poor that a written warning is required, the warning should
identify the standards by which the employee is judged
101) While formal written warnings are provided too late to salvage an employee's performance and
position at the company, they are useful in court proceedings FALSE
107) A supervisor working for a firm that uses performance management should most likely expect to
re-evaluate how employees accomplish tasks
108) Which is NOT one of performance management's six basic elements? habit creation
109) Performance appraisals are a link between corporate strategy, departmental goals, employee goals
and employee performance in the overall performance management process. TRUE