HR Quiz 1 – Chapter 1

1. Which of the following is a more worrisome consideration around Canada’s productivity levels?
a. The gap in the productivity levels between Canada and the United states

2. Mary is a human resource manager whose organization is facing economic challenges. Which of the following
tasks is mary less likely to find? Herself doing under the circumstances
a. “poaching” employees from other organizations to save recruitment costs

3. Mary works for a company located in an area that is experiencing a recessionary period. Which of the following
statements represents a major concern for mary as a human resource manager?
a. Mary fears that the recession could lower employee morale

4. Which of the following statements is NOT true about strategic human resource strategies?
a. Strategic HR strategies can be very expensive and thus HR departments should employ tactics
periodically and only when there is a strong budget support

5. Which of the following is NOT true when considering the role of international trade in Canada’s prosperity and
growth?
a. International trade has only been critical to Canada’s prosperity and growth until quite recently

6. John expects to learn a lot in his position as human resource manager and especially looking forward to human
resource planning activities. Which of the following HR planning activities can he expect the line managers to do?
a. He can expect line managers to advise him of training needed by employees under their direction

7. The strategy of attracting talent from non-traditional labour pools is an example of:
a. Proactive human resource management

8. When john, the Human resource manager for a software company, implements a new telecommuting policy, he
rations doing so because it helps to achieve key objectives of human resource management. Which of the
following statements describes the achievement of such objectives?
a. Encouraging employees to telecommute would achieve employee and organizational goals.

9. Joan is a manager who has begun to feel burdened by her human resource responsibilities and she wants to
delegate some else. Which of the following approaches to delegation of HR activities should Joan NOT take if
things are to go smoothly?
a. Joan should remain responsible for any hiring activities she asks someone else to assume

10. What can be categorized into economic, social and environmental goals?
a. Organizational goals

11. Which of the following descriptions FAILS to accurately describe the HR competency “personal credibility?”
a. The personal creditability competency emphasizes that HR professionals should process an abundance
of problem solving skills

12. A company that focuses on creating a unique product that is unsurpassed in quality or innovation design is
gaining a competitive advantage using which type of strategy?
a. Differentiation strategy

13. The five main steps of strategic human resource management includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Motivating and rewarding human resources
14. Which of the following statements clearly MISREPRESENTS facts about growth in the number if human resource
managers in Canada?
a. In 1971 there were fewer than 2000 human resource managers in Canada

15. What is the common element in social organization?

a. People

16. Strategies are often formulated at three levels. Which are the three strategic levels organizations use?
a. Corporate, business, and functional

17. Which of the following statements best describe why john might decide to engage in environmental scanning as
he commences his new role as a human resource manager?
a. By doing so, john can identify environmental threats and opportunities that help formulate new action
guidelines

18. Mary is a line manager who needs support from human resources if the hiring process for her department is to
be efficient and effective. which of the following types of support can Mary expect to receive from her HR
department?
a. The hr department will plan and organize all hiring and interviews

19. Which of the following characteristics or activates would enhance an HR professional’s competency in change
mastery?
a. Possessing strong communication and networking skills, and being recognized as a strong team player

20. The statement that best describes how strategies are typically formulated in organizations is:
a. Depending on conditions in the organization, strategies may be developed at any of all the corporate,
business or functional levels

21. The expectation that HR professionals should be familiar with state-of-the-art tools in areas such as staffing,
training, etc. is proof which of the following competencies?
a. Mastery of human resource management tools

22. Given the ever-growing shift toward the global marketplace, which of the following factors must a human
resource manager consider?
a. How to best manage their employees and implement progressive human resource practices

23. As a human resource manager, mitzi knows that human resource departments are service departments. All of
the following statements describe how that function should be implemented EXCEPT:
a. Human resource specialists are ultimately responsible for employee performance
24. As a new human resources manager for cellugrowth, john knows that some responsibilities belong to his role
and other responsibilities belong to line managers, If cellugrowth is to be organizationally effective. When it
comes to compensation which does NOT reflect that logic?
a. John should provide all necessary data for accurate job evaluation

25. Human resource management began by helping employees deal with their personal problems and has evolved
to deal with all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Market financing

26. Which of the following approaches improves the status of human resource managers within organizations?
a. Strengthen the positions contribution to the enhancement of organizational performance and
effectiveness
 27. As the new human resource manager for cellugrowth, john knows that some responsibilities belong to his role
and other responsibilities belong to line managers, If cellugrowth is to be organizationally effective. When it
comes to employee and labour relations which does NOT reflect that logic?
a. Line managers should implement organizational change

HR Quiz 2

1. The most valid information about the way jobs are performed can come from which of the following?
a. Jobholder’s supervisors

2. Which of the following is NOT a good strategy for conducting job analysis in today’s challenging environment?
a. Ensure that past job actions guide job descriptions and hiring and training of employees

3. Job performance standards are developed from_____, and then_____ is measured

a. Job analysis information, actual employee performance

4. Guidelines for conducting job analysis interviews include which one of the following suggestions?
a. Information collected should be reviewed and verified by both the interviewee and the immediate
supervisor

5. Job analysis is the_______ study of a job to discover its specifications, skills requirements and so on for a variety
a. Systematic

6. Which of the following is considered to be the most direct source of information about a job when conducting
job analysis?
a. The job holder

7. The statement that belongs under “mental demands” in job specification is:
a. Ability to learn and remember product codes of popular items

8. Constructing job families can be accomplished by using all of the following methods EXCEPT:
a. Analysing ergonomic requirements to identify clusters of similar jobs
9. A______ is composed of a collection of tasks and responsibilities performed by______
a. Position; an individual employee

10. A job description can accurately be described as:

a. An accurate list of jobholders, tasks, accountabilities, working conditions and competencies for a
particular occupation

11. Job analysis includes which of the following three phases?

a. Preparation, collection of job analysis information, and use of job information

12. The observation method of job analysis may be necessary in which of the following situations?
a. When the analyst is looking to confirm or remove doubts

13. Which of the following does NOT exemplify a skill factor in a job specification?
a. Knowledge of French highly desirable

14. Which of the following statements is true of task specialization?

a. Headlight installation is a good example of task specialization
15. John is a production manager who values performance standards in job descriptions. They help him doll all the
following EXCEPT:
a. Increase the chances for job satisfaction among john’s subordinates

16. Which of the following statements does NOT explain why the future of job analysis is uncertain?
a. In tomorrow world, a firm will be valued by its assets and/or products, not just ideas

17. Collection of job analysis information includes which of the three interrelated activities?
a. Determining the sources of job data, data collection instruments design, and the choice of method for
data collection

18. Job specification should NOT include:

a. A written statement that explains the skills and abilities of the current incumbents in the job

19. Redesign of jobs has been necessitated by which of the following occurrences?
a. Worldwide competition and increasing use of complex technology

20. Job enlargement is defined as:

a. Adding more tasks to a job to increase the job cycle and draw on a wider range of employee skills

21. A large company with multiple facilities scattered across Canada and the United states needed to conduct a quick
a. Questionnaire

22. The statement that belongs under “mental demands” in job specification is:
a. Ability to learn and remember product codes of popular items

23. The most UNLIKELY targets of job analysis are:

a. Jobs that are straightforward and easy to learn
24. Job analysis information is usually sufficient for setting job standards in each of the following situation EXCEPT:
a. When industry standards are used as benchmarks

25. Analysts who use employee logs to collect job analysis information may do so for which of the following reasons?
a. If entries are made over the entire job cycle, the diary can prove quite accurate

26. Which of the following is NOT a good strategy for conducting job analysis in today’s challenging environment?
a. Focus on the task and competencies needed to match an organizations strategy, structure and culture

27. One of the two most popular standardized forms available for job analysis is:
a. Positon analysis questionnaire

28. Major human resource management activities that rely on job analysis information include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Redesign of jobs for cost saving purposes

29. Job performance standards are important because

a. They are indispensable to managers or human resource specialists trying to promote good work
performance

30. The job characteristic model discusses the importance of which of the following components in job design?
a. Autonomy, variety, task identity, feedback and task significance

31. The phrase “displays and stocks merchandise on shelves” would normally appear in the ______ section of the
job
 a. Job summary

HR Quiz 3 – Chapter 3

1. External supply of labour can be estimated from all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Transition matrices

2. Which of the following is a major stakeholder that regularly uses the information from an HRIS?
a. Employees

3. The process of selecting, exploring, analyzing, and modelling data to create better business outcomes is:
a. Predictive analysis

4. This phase of HR planning answers the question: is there a tangible link between investments in human
resources
a. Establish program evaluation

5. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a. Reorganization, due to mergers or an acquisition, are the most significant short run influence on

6. HRA attempts to put a dollar figure on the human assets of an organization using cost or value models, which
a. Present value of future stream of earnings

7. Sensitive human resource information should be tightly protected and offered to persons on a need-to-know
sensitive human resource information?
a. Types of benefits and choices available

8. An organizations growth strategy is usually accompanied by:

a. Aggressive hiring and training employees

9. This activity of HR planning answers the questions: how many human resources will we need, when will we need
them
a. Forecast demand for resources

10. A plan whereby available work is spread among all workers in a group to reduce the extent of layoffs is known as:
a. Job sharing

11. Step 2 of human resource planning is:

a. Assess supply of resources

12. By leveraging the automation and system capabilities, HR professionals can spend more time working at the
a. Strategic; transactional

13. In this phase of HR planning, planners carry out an analysis to determine the difference between demands and
a. Design and implement HRM programs

14. All of the following aspects of Markov analysis describe why the method may be attractive to jake when
forecasting supply of human resources, except:
a. Markov analysis is reliable in smaller organizations, with fewer then 50 employees in each job position

15. Internal supply estimates completed using human resources audits include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Summarizes listing likely replacements and there relative strengths and weaknesses for each job
16. What is the major objective of human resource planning?
a. Ensure that organizations have the right people with the right skills at the right time to fulfill
organization

17. A systematic attraction, identification, development, engagement and deployment of those individuals with
referred to as:
a. Talent management
18. Which of the following statements does NOT describe a function of human resource planning?
a. Ensure organization can respond to change

19. The most valid info about the way jobs are performed can come from which of the following?
a. Jobholder’s supervisors

20. Which of the following is NOT a good strategy for conducting job analysis in today’s challenging environment?
a. Ensure that past job actions guide job description and hiring and training of employees

21. What is NOT a benefit of increased automation and system capabilities?

a. Increased costs of information provisions

22. In recent years, many large organizations have begun to use intranets. Which of the following characteristics
would allow employees to update address or banking information?
a. Employee self-service functions

23. The level or stage of human resource planning activities that organizations engage in moderate planning
activities, create long-term forecasts, and project company needs three to five years in a dvance would be
a. Stage three

24. Jack thinks he could probably utilize replacement charts in forecasting the supply of human resources in her
organization. Which of the following statements does NOT describe the characteristics of replacements charts?
a. Replacement charts will list likely replacements and their relative strengths and weaknesses for each
job

25. In the past, Jim, a human resource manager kept close track of employees nearing retirement so that his human
resource plan remained accurate. This will no longer be enough to predict organization demand based on
workforce factors because:
a. With the abolition of mandatory retirement age, jim will no longer be able to use his past experience
as a guide to predict when older workers will retire

26. Mary now knows that maxim software will have surplus employees following its merge with intelligence a high-
tech firm in waterloo. Which of the following options would mary AVOID to deal with the impending surplus?
a. Attempt to find new internal jobs for surplus and displace employees

27. Human resource accounting (HRA) is the process of identifying, measuring, accounting, and forecasting the value
of human resource in order to facilitie______of an organization
a. Effective management

28. Which of the following is a function of a more sophisticated HRIS?

a. Cost predictions

29. Which type systems link an organization’s entire software application environment into a single enterprise
solution?
a. Enterprise-wide system
30. Joan wants to use only systematic planning methods when forecasting human resource needs for her
organization, which has grown to 400 employees. Which of the following is a method she should AVOID?
a. Accepting informal and instant forecasts from managers (experts) who are on the frontline where
vacancies actually emerge

31. This activity of HR planning answers the questions: How many human resources will we need, when will we need
them and where will we need them?
a. Forecast demand for resource

32. All of the following statements about retirement are true EXCEPT:
a. Early retirement is used to create external job opening and increase staffing levels

33. Jim wants to apply a systematic planning effort to better forecast human resource demand using experts. Which
of the following techniques would help jim accomplish this?
a. Nominal group technique

34. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the process of estimating internal supply in the forecasting
process?
a. Estimating internal supply is mainly about counting the number of employees

35. contracting work is not without its problems. Which of the following is NOT a question that helps Revenue
Canada establish a person’s status as a contractor or as an employee?
a. Did the employer have to account for the person’s time?

36. Which of the following statements does NOT describe a functions of human resource planning?
a. Make decisions about productions, performance and people

37. Which of the following feature of HRIS system must be examined closely by employers if they wish to purchase a
system that features error preventions and catches inconsistencies?
a. Referential integrity

38. Joan has decided that using management inventories would greatly increase the effectiveness of forecasting the
supply of human resource in her organization. Which of the following statements describes characteristics of the
management inventories?
a. Common topics of management inventories include number and types of employees supervised

39. Which of the following issues is a characteristic of relational HRIS system?

a. These systems have referential integrity

40. Step 2 of human resource planning is:

a. Assess supply of resources

41. The relationship between strategic and human resources plans is best described as:
a. The operational tactical plans define the human resource objective which are accomplished through
implementation of appropriate human resource plans

42. Unsophisticated HRIS systems are ____, which means information about an employee needs to be entered into
the system multiple times to make it available for all HR purpose
a. Nonrelational

43. Which of the following statements does NOT describes a function of human resource planning?
a. Make decisions about productions, performance, and people
 44. Which of the following is not one of the revenue Canada’s test for contracts labour?
a. A test that asks if the person was able to integrate successfully in the “regular workforce”

45. Each of the following statements describes why human resources planning contributes to the success of an
organizations strategic plan, EXPECT:
a. Managers and leaders only consider long-range plans

46. When organizations begin to analyze how they will fill projected openings, they rely on both internal and
external sources of supply. Their internal source of supply consists of:
a. present employee who can be promoted, transferred, or demoted to meet anticipated need

47. step 4 human resource planning is:

a. design and implement HRM programs

HR Quiz 4

1. The meiorin case resulted in establishment of three questions or criteria to assess the appropriateness of a
BFOQ. Which of the following is one of those three criteria?
a. Is the standard rationally connected to the performance of the job?

2. Because being drug-dependent can also be interpreted as a disability. Drug dependent persons are considered to
be a(n)_________ group
a. Protected

3. Section 2 of the Canadian charter of rights and freedoms guarantees freedom of association. To whom is this
section of the charter of particular importance?
a. Collective bargaining partners, specifically unions

4. Internal hiring policies, word-of-mouth hiring, or the requirements to submit a photograph with the application
form all have something in common, which is that:
a. Each can be a form of systemic discrimination

5. Human resource managers have to factor in ______ into all of their long-range strategic plans that have an
impact on staff and staffing given the current priority of this topic
a. Employment equity requirements

6. Which of the following factors have NOT fundamentally changed the way Canadian organizations work and
whom they employ?
a. Demographic and labour force changes

7. If there is one basic rule in human resource management, it is to:

a. Obey the law
8. What is the main challenge in managing diversity?
a. Changing workplace rules to enhance productivity and growth while at the same time minimizing
anxiety and uncertainty

9. John is worried about being accused of harassment because he shared a joke with a co-worker on way into work
from the company parking lot. Which of the following activities would NOT get him into trouble under human
right acts criteria for what constitutes harassment?
a. Showing his co-workers, a cartoon in which ducks look silly

10. Which of the following was one of the outcomes of Robichaud v. department of national defence?
a. The DND was ordered to issue a written apology, and to post the written apology in all DND facilities
11. ________ families, such as those resulting from common-law marriages, or single-parent families, are now far
more______ that in the past
a. Non-traditional; numerous

12. The Canadian human rights act applies to all but one of following types of organizations in their dealings with the
public and in their employment policices:
a. Business under provincial jurisdiction

13. One of the objectives of an organization is to project _______, which determines its attractiveness as perceived
by job applicants
a. Equity

14. _______commitment is one of the most important elements to ensuring the success of diversity efforts as well
as the whole-hearted support of the _______
a. Senior management; union

15. Which of the following is NOT a major step in employment equity programs?
a. Appoint a middle manager as director

16. Which of the following is NOT one of the efforts taken by Vancity, a best city employer for 2009?
a. It targets visible minorities in its recruitment ads

17. Which of the following statements is NOT an accurate representation of diversity training programs
a. Diversity training programs help to erase the obsession management often has with defining the
bottom-line impact of diversity management

18. The second step of diversity management is to:

a. Examine how the present systems are operating

19. Which of the following is NOT affected by employment equity plans?

a. Employee discipline

20. Once individuals develop an awareness of diversity related issues such as stereotyping, they can monitor their
feelings and reactions and make ________ decisions about their behaviour, often resulting in improved
interpersonal communication
a. Conscious
21. In 1996, a human rights tribunal ordered the federal government to extend medical and dental benefits to the
same-sex partners of its employees, which proved to be a precursor to eliminating discrimination under the
human rights act on the basis of:
a. Sexual orientation

22. The most consequential case undoubtedly was that of Robichaud v. Department of national defence, because:
a. The case made its way up to the supreme court

23. The federal government requires compliances with the employment equity act from any company doing
business with the federal government for companies with:
a. 100 or more employees bidding on contracts for goods and services of $1000000 or more

24. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Ontarians with disabilities act, 2001?
a. The act ensures that individuals with disabilities will be given free admission to theatres, parks, etc.
25. Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of sexual harassment identified by a Canadian human
rights tribunal?
a. The encounters must be unwelcome to no less than least three complainants, and expressly or
implicitly known by the respondent to be unwelcome in each case.

26. Hasnat, the diversity manager for his employer, wants to include a number of current industry practices in
conjunction with one another to improve diversity management in his company. Which of the following is NOT
an industry practice for managing diversity?
a. Alcoholics anonymous groups

27. Organizations can bring greater predictability into diversity outcomes by establishing _____________________
since they result in greater tangible results and accountability on the part of both mentors and protégés.
a. Formal mentoring systems

28. A Muslim employee of a communications company fears losing his job because he needs time off each week to
attend prayers at his mosque. This situation illustrates the human rights policy of:
a. Duty to accommodate

29. Which of the following statements is NOT one of the prohibitions contained in the Human Rights Act about
harassment of an individual on a prohibited ground of discrimination?
a. It is a discriminatory practice in the provision of employment to pay one individual more then another

30. What legal issue or challenge has cost business and government large amounts of money in fines, court costs,
and compensation to the victims?
a. Sexual harassment

31. Every time a court invokes one of the rights or freedoms, it must determine if the __________ is justified
a. Infringement

32. The one basic rule in human resource management is:

a. Obey the law

33. In the long run it is more practical, to focus on process training, which results in:
a. Participants understanding how managerial issues are affected by diversity

34. It is illegal for human resources decisions to be influenced by all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Poor employee performance

35. Who in the organization has to be trained and become familiar with the laws as they apply to human resource
management?
a. Managers and supervisors

36. Which of the following is NOT one of HR's responsibilities when it comes to being involved with how legislation
and regulations affect the employment relationship?
a. They are advised to hire lawyers to stay “one step ahead”

37. When standards discriminate against one sex (or race, national or ethnic origin, religion, age, or marital status),
the _________________________to prove that the standards are necessary.
a. Burden is on the employer

38. What does section 1 of the Charter guarantee?

a. The rights and freedoms subject only to such reasonable limits prescribed by law as can be
demonstrably justified in a free and democratic society
 39. It is also desirable for a corporation to be perceived by the public as being:
a. A good corporate citizen

40. Which of the following statements was NOT one of the recommendations made by the Abella Commission on
Equality in Employment appointed in 1983?
a. The Commission recommended use of affirmative action to right the wrongs of the past

41. Which of the following is FALSE regarding retaliation when someone exercises their rights under the Human
Rights Act?
a. If a manager tries to get revenge on an employee who filed charges, he or she violates the act.

42. What is the main reason that recruiters need to know how many recruits are needed when choosing recruitment
sources?
a. Some sources will produce larger numbers of applicants whereas others are used to recruit a smaller
number of applicants

HR Quiz 5

1. What is that main reason that recruiters need to know what sources are available in their industry and
geographic region when choosing a recruitment source?
a. Not all sources are available in all areas

2. All of the following factors have been found to make the task of recruiting very challenging, EXCEPT:
a. Canada’s declining economy

3. What is the main reason that recruiters need to know the budget when choosing a recruitment method?
a. It will determine the methods the recruiter can afford to use

4. Which of the following factors are NOT constraints on recruitment?

a. Low quality resumes and job seekers habits

5. In today’s global knowledge economy, the presence of these workers can be a real competitive advantage:
a. Highly skilled and motivated workers

6. Which of the following is NOT a common method of recruitment?

a. Job appointments

7. Jane plans to implement an employee referral system in her company because she knows it has some unique
advantages. Which of the following is not an advantage to using employee referrals?
a. Recruiters can be assured that this method does not intentionally or unintentionally discriminate

8. Cost data from previous recruiting activities could serve as useful ________ for comparison:
a. Benchmarks

9. The more important HR and organizational activities affected by recruitment include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Investing resources into selection infrastructure

10. When evaluating the recruitment function on the basis of cost per hire, one of the major criticisms is:
a. It ignores the quality of the people hired

11. Jane wants to continue with advertising as a method of recruitment, but she wants to avoid some of the major
drawbacks of placing want ads. Which of the following is NOT a drawback of advertising?
 a. Jane realizes she can place ads without identifying her company, and that she can instruct interested
applicants to send their resume to a box number at the post office or to the newspaper

12. What is the main reason recruiters need to know whether a recruitment method has worked in the past when
choosing a recruitment method?
a. Tracking over time how well certain sources have worked may guide future recruitment efforts

13. Success in recruitment is measured by:

a. The right type of applicants

14. The acceptance of a job offer is dependent on a number of extraneous variables, including:
a. The labour market situation, the compensation package offered by the organization and its
competitors, and the firm’s location

15. When she was recruiting, Mitzi was grateful her company had adopted a promote-from-within approach to
recruitment. However, she worried about the downside of the policy. Which of the following features might be a
disadvantage that mitzi has to deal with?
a. Reduction in the flow of new people and ideas into different levels of the organization

16. Jack is recruiting for an organization and will therefore receive a large number of resumes and job applications.
Which of the following approaches should her AVOID for sifting through these documents?
a. Ignoring applicants resumes because the job applicant will suffice

17. Which of the following resumes for evaluating the effectiveness of the recruitment function includes direct,
apportioned, and overhead costs? The most popular measure used for evaluating the effectiveness of the
recruitment function?
a. Cost per hire

18. Which of the following is NOT a popular measure used for evaluating the effectiveness of the recruitment
function?
a. Number of hires made

19. Constraints on recruitment arise from the organization, the recruiters, and the external environment. Which of
the following does NOT describe some of the constraints?
a. Job seeker habits

20. Janet wants to evaluate the effectiveness of her company’s recruitment process. She talks to her colleagues and
finds out that all of the following are popular indices for ongoing evaluations, EXCEPT:
a. The nature of the job and the current labour market conditions

21. What is the main reason that recruiters need to know what sources are available in their industry and geographic
region when choosing a recruitment source?
a. Not all source are available in all areas

22. The advantages of recruiting internally include:

a. Improves workforce morale and motivation

23. Which of the following provisions is NOT covered by a job applicant signature next to a blanket authorization on
an application form?
a. Permission to check the applicant’s age and place of birth

24. The CEO of John's company has told him to keep recruitment costs down since the company is weathering the
effects of the economic downturn. Which of the following approaches would NOT help John to contain costs?
 a. Redesign the company’s benefit plan

25. The result of the recruitment process is:

a. Convincing the successful candidate to accept the job offer

26. The CEO of John Roberts' company asked John how the company should staff its new venture in Germany. John
recommended using local citizens for all the following reasons, except one. Which reason did John NOT provide
to his CEO?
a. Foreign nationals are more apt to be involved in the political scene and understand “unofficial”
business practices

27. The recruiting process begins and ends in which of the following ways?
a. Begins when new recruits are sought; ends with convincing the successful candidate to accept the job
offer

28. What is the main reason that recruiters need to know if there are labour agreements in place that specify
recruitment options when choosing a recruitment method?
a. Collective agreements in place at the organization mat obligate the recruiter to rely on specific
recruitment sources

29. Which of the following statements about advertising is UNTRUE?

a. Because most readers will be travelling in an automobile, a great deal of information can be conveyed
on a billboard.

30. What is the main reason that recruiters need to know what skill level is required for the job when choosing a
recruitment method?
a. If there is a high level of skill or experience required for the job, niche recruiting may be needed

31. Jane wants to refresh her memory on writing a good want ad. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of good
wants ads and should therefore not concern her?
a. Good want ads blend in with other ads in terms of layout and color.

32. The choice of recruiting method may be assisted by answering how many questions?
a. Six

33. The quality of an organization's human resources depends on:

a. The quality of its recruits

34. What is the main reason that recruiters need to know how many recruits are needed when choosing recruitment
sources?
a. Some sources will produce larger numbers of applicants whereas others are used to recruit a smaller
number of applicants

35. John Roberts' CEO asked him what environmental challenges could place limits on domestic recruitment in any
given year. John listed all of the following factors, EXCEPT:
a. Maternity leaves and short-term leaves of absence among staff

36. Which of the following is true about workers with disabilities?

a. People with disabilities are three times more likely to be unemployed than

37. Work History on an application form should be able to provide considerable information to a recruiter about an
applicant. Which of the following is not information to be gathered by reviewing work history?
a. Information may reveal that the applicant has been reprimanded.
 38. Which of the following is the hardest to establish in practice?
a. Construct validity

HR Quiz 6

1. Mary Jones is very interested in using personality testing in the selection process for Longlife Insurance Inc., but
she is concerned that myths can build up around various types of testing. Which of the following statements
should Mary know are NOT accurate about personality tests?
a) Like cognitive ability tests, personality tests have a large difference between racial.

2. Past surveys of employers indicate that ___________ and ______________ are most popular for the selection of
white-collar professional workers.
a) Letters of reference; weighted application blanks

3. Which of the following types of questions would fit with a behavioural description interview format?
a) Questions are limited to actual behaviours.

4. Mary Jones advises Rob, the co-op student, to take note of the many advantages of interviews in the selection
process. Which of the following statements does NOT describe an advantage of interviews?
a) Interviewers constantly present high reliability and validity.

5. Which of the following does NOT reflect the more critical dimensions of an organization's strategy that are
affected by the selection function?
a) Selection strategy of a firm shapes labour market realities.

6. Which of the following is NOT a stage in a typical employment interview?

a) Interviewee preparation ORRRRRR
b) Evaluation of Job Incumbent

7. Mary Jones has been advised by her mentor at Steinberg Inc. to consider using Assessment Centers for selection
purposes. Which of the following is NOT true about Assessment Centers?
a) The one thing assessment centers are unable able to predict is a candidate's future job behaviour.

8. A biographical information blank (BIB):

a) Is a questionnaire that applicants complete

9. One purpose of "courtesy" interviews in the selection process is:

a) To screen out obvious "misfits"

10. Construct validity has which of the following characteristics?

a) It is established by showing that the test measures the construct and only the construct under
consideration.

11. All of the following statements characterize the selection process, EXCEPT:
a) The selection process begins when recruits apply for employment and ends with the first day on the
job of the new employee.

12. Mary Jones cautions Longlife's co-op student Rob Rollins that the reliability of an employment test may become
low for a variety of reasons. Which of the following is NOT an accurate reason Mary might provide to Rob for
why this could happen?
a) There could be changes in the examination especially if a long test is being used.
13. In many instances a selection ratio such as ____________ also means a low quality of recruits.
a) 1:5

14. Verification of references is what step of the selection process?

a) Step 6

15. A selection ratio is:

a) The number of applicants hired divided by total number of applicants available.

16. Mary Jones advises her co-op student that the supervisor should be involved in employment interviews and at
least have input into the hiring decision. Which of the following statements is NOT a good argument for involving
the supervisor in the interview process?
a) Supervisors may wish to reject particular groups of applicants, such as minorities or women.

17. It can be accurately stated that performance tests:

a) Measure the ability of applicants to do some parts of the work for which they are to be hired.

18. Which of the following statements is NOT true about employment tests?
a) A paper and pencil test is an example of a simulation exercise.

19. John Rollins, employment manager, refuses to allow selection testing to be part of his company's selection
process. When asked why, he replies by saying: "Everyone knows that integrity tests don't work". This is an
example of:
a) Various myths that exist in the hiring context.

20. The process of making long-range management development plans to fill human resource needs is
a) Succession planning

21. Canadian retailers lose billions of dollars each year due to employee and customer theft. To overcome the
problem, which of the following describes a method employers are using to overcome the problem?
a) Conducting personal reference checks

22. The number of applicants for a position is also partially dependent on a firm's _______________ compared to
others in the industry.
a) Salary and benefit package

23. In a survey of 300 executive recruiters, all of the following were findings of the survey EXCEPT:
a) “results and accomplishments on past jobs” was the item which was fabricated least on resumes

24. All of the following statements characterize the selection process, EXCEPT:
a) The selection process begins when recruits apply for employment and ends with the first day on the
job of the new employee

25. Inputs into the selection strategy include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Orientation

26. The type of selection procedure used by an organization depends on a variety of factors that include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Whether the employment manager is a man or a women

27. Which of the following statements does NOT help us to accurately understand the concepts of reliability and
validity?
 a) If a test is valid, a test of manual dexterity for assembly workers should give a similar score each time
the same person takes the test.

28. Employment Interview(s) are what step of the selection process?

a) Step 4

29. Computer-interactive performance tests can assess all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Loyalty

30. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the role of employment tests in the selection process?
a) Honesty tests are very popular among employers because they are not subject to errors

31. All of the following employment-related tests are used by firms to measure applicant ability EXCEPT:
a) Stanton survey

32. Which of the following is the hardest to establish in practice?

a) Construct validity

33. Which of the following statements most accurately describes why in-depth interviews are the most widely used
selection technique?
a) They can be adapted to unskilled, skilled managerial, and staff employees.

34. Which of the following FAILS to explain a benefit of the weighted application blank (WAB) technique?
a) The multiple choice format used for the WAB weeds out illiterate applicants very quickly

35. WABs have been found to be particularly valuable for each of the following reasons EXCEPT:
a) They provide insight into why relationships exist

36. Empirical approaches rely on __________ validity.

a) Predictive or concurrent

37. In which step of the selection process are courtesy interviews conducted?
a) Preliminary reception of applicants

38. To assure that its tests are valid, human resource departments should conduct validation studies. Identify which
of the following statements about test validation is FALSE:
a) The main difference between rational and empirical approaches lies in the sample used.

HR Quiz 7

1. All of the following are a benefit of effective training programs except one. What is the exception?
a. Stronger physical health

2. One way to encourage management commitment and support to career development, is to:
a. Evaluate managers on their ability to develop their subordinates

3. A recent survey identified a number of talent segments within an organization. Which talent segment was
identified most often by respondents as a key talent segment within an organization?
a. Senior leadership

4. The current _____________________ suggests that the employer and employee meet each other’s needs for
the moment, but neither one is making any long-term commitments.
a. Psychological contract
5. A document that helps employees track and document their career planning efforts is called a:
a. Career planning record

6. There are three basic developmental strategies for organizations. Which of the following statements is NOT
characteristic of one of those strategies?
a. Are concerned with altering individual personalities

7. Which of the following is NOT a benefit derived from effective training programs for organizations?
a. Increased market share

8. As a result of HR's active involvement in career planning, the following contributions are experienced, EXCEPT:
a. Increases turnover

9. If the trainer's assessment of needs is not correct, ___________ and _________________will be inappropriate.
a. Training objectives; program content

10. A company is taking an environmental development strategy, and has transferred an employee to a position in a
different class that has substantially the same level of duties, responsibility, and salary. Which method did this
company use in this case?
a. Lateral transfer

11. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the "buddy system" approach to orienting new employees?
a. The employee is assigned a sponsor who is available to answer their questions and direct them to
appropriate resources.

12. Trainers explaining the overall purpose of a job to trainees before explaining specific tasks is an example of:
a. Relevance

13. Human resources departments encourage career development in a number of ways. Which of the following is
NOT a function of career development by HR departments?
a. Ensuring that employee interest is stimulated by exposure to speeches, memoranda, and position
papers from senior executives

14. In order to develop an effective training program, which of the following activities must be assessed by human
resource specialists and managers?
a. Learning principles associated with training

15. What is a diagnosis that presents problems and future challenges that can be met through training or
development?
a. Needs assessment

16. Briana chooses to include the question "How satisfied are you with the program?" on a training evaluation form,
which measures the __________ criterion.
a. Reaction

17. An inherently problematic method to evaluate the effectiveness of a training program:

a. Tests participants at the end of a training program

18. All of the following are HR Related topics often covered in Employee Orientation Programs, EXCEPT:
a. Disciplinary regulations

19. Which of the following is NOT a key activity recommended for the first day orientation?
 a. Provide essential training

20. Which of the following is NOT a Guideline for Effective Performance Evaluation Interviews?
a. Provide immediate positive and developmental feedback in a public location

21. Learning curves illustrate that learning takes place in:

a. Bursts and plateaus

22. Additional costs that arise because a new employee is typically less efficient than an experienced worker is/are
called:
a. Start-up costs

23. What needs to be accomplished when taking the first step to create employee development plans?
a. Understand the employee’s interests and the type of work they are most interested in doing

24. The identification of essential job skills and the management of employees' learning for the long-range future in
relation to explicit corporate and business strategies is the definition associated with:
a. Strategic human resource development

25. The criterion of ________________ would provide ideal measurements were it not for the difficulty in
determining the cause-effect relationship between training programs and organizational results.
a. Organizational results

26. To be ready for career opportunities, successful people focus on:

a. Developing career plans and then taking action to achieve their plans

27. Trainers should be alert to various sources of information that may indicate a need for training, such as:
a. Production records, quality control reports, grievances

28. Which of the following is NOT a topic covered in employment orientation programs specific to role expectations
and performance?
a. Probationary period

29. A recent survey identified all of the following as talent segments EXCEPT:
a. Employees who had significant seniority in the organization

30. Briana wants to ensure that steps of training evaluation at Artful Manufacturing occur in the correct order, and
are effective for evaluating training effectiveness. Therefore,
a. A pre-test should be done to measure the baseline characteristic, then a post-test should be done after
workers are trained

31. The process of making long-range management development plans to fill human resource needs is
a. Succession planning

32. Training objectives should state:

a. The desired behavior, the conditions under which it is to occur, and the acceptable performance
criteria

33. Which design produces a more valid assessment of training effectiveness?

a. Pre-test and post-test

34. One of the things that speeds up the learning process for individuals is the use of:
a. Various learning principles
 35. In general, how can the human resource department use onboarding to reduce employee turnover?
a. By meeting the personal objectives of employees

36. Which of the following is NOT a topic covered in employee orientation programs?
a. Performance evaluation systems

37. Which of the following statements represents an accurate implication of cognitive development?
a. Implies constant learning and upgrading, principles strongly advocated in the learning organization

38. Training objectives provide specific goals that can be used by who to evaluate their success?
a. The trainer and trainee

39. What process involves turning outsiders into insiders and helping the newcomer learn how to effectively fit into
the organization?
a. Socialization

40. Job rotation is an example of which type of training and development strategy?
a. Environmental

41. Which is NOT a HR tool to raise awareness of career options?

a. Encourage management support

42. The _________ criterion is reliably assessed only if before and after tests are used
a. Knowledge

43. To be ready for career opportunities, successful people focus on:

a. Developing career plans and then taking action to achieve their plans

44. A series of aligned strategic processes that take into account all the new employees’ early experiences is:
a. Onboarding

HR Quiz 8

1. John first evaluates the performance of a very good employee, and then evaluates Joseph. As a result Joseph
receives a lower rating than he deserves. This is an example of a(n):
a. Contrast error

2. Raters from different levels of the organization will have ___________ but ____________ views of a job and the
performance of the incumbent.
a. Different; valid

3. Which of the following statements is NOT true about a comprehensive performance management system?
a. Performance appraisals are the only data considered

4. __________________ are performance management sessions that give employees feedback about their past
performance or future potential.
a. Evaluation interviews

5. Benchmarks against which performance is measured are called:

a. Performance standards

6. Which of the following describes an advantage of using different sources of appraisal information?
 a. Using different sources provides different views of a job and performance

7. Which of the following statements does not accurately describe the general flow among key elements of
performance appraisal systems?
a. Employee feedback directly influences performance related criteria

8. Organizations concerned with running an efficient and effective performance management system will try to
achieve all of the following objectives EXCEPT:
a. Transform organizational objectives into clearly understood numbers for all stakeholders

9. As Mary begins to create a performance appraisal system for Healthwell Inc. she wants to ensure that only valid
criteria is used for assessment, since relevance is of utmost importance. Which of the following criteria for
performance assessment would be most valid to use?
a. Results

10. Employee participation in performance appraisal system development significantly increases the probability of:
a. Acceptance of the system by both supervisors and employees

11. To achieve an accurate picture of an individual's performance, appraisal systems should be all of the following
EXCEPT
a. Subjective

12. Research has shown that rater training reduces errors such as:
a. The halo effect and leniency

13. When the rater's personal opinion of the employee sways the rater's measurement of performance, this is
called:
a. Halo effect

14. Which of the following is NOT considered an indicator that the performance appraisal system is faulty?
a. Human resource development fulfills career plans of people hired during the selection process

15. When raters are too easy in evaluating employee performance, what bias is occurring?
a. Leniency bias

16. If an employee's performance is inadequate:

a. The cause has to be investigated

17. John is also considering comparative evaluation methods, which are

a. A collection of different methods that compare one person's performance with that of co-workers

18. Getting employees to conduct a self-appraisal can be a useful evaluation technique if:
a. The goal of evaluation is to further self-development

19. Sound performance management programs make clear the connection between:
a. Company goals and employee objectives and work plans, as well as criteria for success

20. All jobs in the same class receive:

a. The same wage rate

21. the trend towards the _____________ method of appraisal is in line with the trend towards flatter organizations.
a. 360-degree performance appraisal
22. Which of the following statements describes a drawback of using behaviourally anchored rating scales (BARS)
method of appraisal?
a. BARS only look at a limited number of performance categories

23. Mary has learned through her research into performance appraisal methods that the ideal approach for
implementing the MBO method at Healthwell would be for employees and supervisors to:
a. Set mutually agreed upon goals that are objectively measurable

24. One popular type of performance management system integrates financial measures with other key
performance indicators. This is:
a. Balanced scorecard

25. Human resource professionals have the potential to influence the development and maintenance of a sound
performance management program providing that they:
a. Align employee performance management plans with organizational strategy

26. Helena is required to evaluate the performance of her subordinates who she has become personal friends with.
She may be most affected by which: rater bias?
a. Halo effect

27. Features of performance appraisal software package include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. It is specifically designed to balance performance scorecards

28. Performance appraisals provide feedback to the human resources department in the form of:
a. Insight into the effectiveness of the human resource management function

29. Which of the following is NOT a Guideline for Effective Performance Evaluation Interviews?
a. Provide immediate positive and developmental feedback in a public location

30. Which of the following statements is UNTRUE about noncomparative evaluation methods?
a. Such methods compare one employee against another in terms of past performance

31. Allowing employees to have a high level of participation in the appraisal interview:
a. increases employee satisfaction and morale

32. Arguments in favour of comparative approaches include all of the following statements EXCEPT:
a. Comparative methods are more valid because of association rules, policies, and other external
constraints

33. Which of the following describes an advantage of the ranking method of appraisal?
a. It is both easy to administer and to explain

34. Which of the following statements does NOT reflect the implications of a performance appraisal form being a
legal document?
a. It is a legal requirement that a reasonable time frame be set for performance improvement which in a
manager's case would be within a few weeks

35. Mary knows that if her company's new appraisal system is to create an accurate picture of individual job
performance it must be
a. Job-related,practical, have standards, and use dependable measures

36. The error in rating employees that consists of evaluating employees as neither good nor poor performers even
when some employees perform exceptionally well or poorly is:
 a. Error of central tendency

37. Guidelines for effective performance interviews indicate that when negative comments are made, they focus on
_______________.
a. Work performance
38. Which of the following is a FALSE statement about reliability?
a. Reliable criteria are also, by definition, valid criteria

39. John is a supervisor who wants to utilize acceptable performance standards that will get maximum employee
commitment. Therefore, he should use:
a. Standards set with input from employees

40. At performance evaluation time, Mary found herself positively influenced by the slight improvement in her
subordinate's work performance lately, causing her to give him a better rating than he deserved. Mary was
affected by what rater bias?
a. Recency effect

41. The balanced scorecard approach to performance management integrates financial measures with other key
performance indicators around which of the following:
a. Customer satisfaction, internal organizational processes, and organizational growth, learning, and
innovation

42. The trend of today's managers towards _________________ makes the historic approach of one supervisor
providing performance feedback look obsolete.
a. Teamwork and participative management

43. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the rating scale method?

a. Ratings are likely to reflect rater biases

44. John is considering adopting the BARS appraisal method to appraise the performance of the employees in his
small company.Which of the following statements should John be careful NOT to believe about the BARS
method?
a. The BARS method measures the frequency of the observed behaviours with scales ranging from high
to low

45. John is also considering the use of performance tests and observations as an appraisal method. Which of the
following facts is INACCURATE about the method, and should make John shy away from this method for his small
company?
a. For a wide variety of jobs, performance appraisal may be based upon a test of knowledge or skills

46. Mary heard about a colleague refer to one type of performance appraisal as “multi-source feedback”. Which of
the following methods was her colleague referring to?
a. 360-degree performance appraisal

47. When considering the legal aspects of performance appraisal, what can avoid serious embarrassments?
a. Well-documented performance shortcomings

48. Which of the following best describes the types of skills Frame-of-Reference Training (FORT) aims to improve?
a. Observation techniques and categorization skills

49. Which of the following is NOT a Guideline for effective performance evaluation interviews?
a. Emphasize the responsibility for good performance is the employee’s
 50. Mary wants to adopt a performance appraisal method that will provide feedback on different aspects of the job
from different sources. Which method should she implement?
a. 360-degree performance appraisal

51. Which of the following is not a use of performance appraisals?

a. Product design

HR Quiz 9

1. Which of the following is step 3 in the Point system of job evaluation?

a. Allocate points to subfactors

2. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately reflect how employees feel about various forms of pay
found in industrial societies?
a. Employees are most often dissatisfied with absolute pay.

3. All job evaluation techniques result in a ranking of jobs based upon their:
a. Perceived relative worth

4. The CEO of John's company is a "freak" for cost control. This signals to John the importance of designing a
__________ compensation program that helps the company attract and retain its workforce at a reasonable cost.
a. Rational

5. Once points have been allocated to subfactors, with factors listed down one side and the levels placed across the
top, the result is a
a. Point system matrix

6. Which of the following statements does NOT represent typical pay policies Canadian organizations utilize as the
basis for adjusting wages and salaries?
a. Having automatic cost-of-living (COLA) clauses that give employees automatic raises based on the
CPP/QPP index.

7. According to one study, 87 percent of the Fortune 1000 companies have created _________ teams, and 47
percent have ________ teams.
a. Project; permanent

8. When employees perceive their compensation to be inappropriate, which of the following situations is likely to
happen?
a. Performance, motivation, and satisfaction may decline dramatically

9. The ___________ is created by plotting the total points and wage level for each key job.
a. Scattergram

10. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe Executive Incentives?
a. Executive incentives are fairly homogenous and do not vary widely.

11. An effective compensation system has to:

a. Be part of the overall organizational strategy

12. Based on a 2008 Hewitt Associates survey of 420 companies, from 2002 to 2005, use of variable pay plans by
Canadian Companies changed. Which of the following changes were recorded in that survey?
a. Use of individual performance plans increased the most.
13. Which of the following compensable factors would typically be included as a subfactor of the critical factor
"Responsibility" when using the point system?
a. Safety of others and product service quality

14. At Left Shoe Inc. a work team may be offered a bonus for exceeding predetermined production levels, or may
receive a per-unit incentive that results in a group piece rate.This is an example of what type of team-based
incentive plan?
a. Production Incentive Plan

15. When it comes to linking pay and organizational strategy, Lawler suggests a concentration on seven areas that
affect pay systems. Which of the following is NOT one of those seven areas of focus?
a. Relating rewards to seniority

16. Which of the following is NOT one of the seven areas that affect pay systems according to Lawler?
a. The nature of the job

17. Most plans that have been developed to provide incentives for teamwork fall into the categories shown here
EXCEPT:
a. Stock reduction plans

18. To retain present employees and prevent employee turnover:

a. Pay must be kept competitive with that of other employers.

19. Since the enactment of pay equity legislation, which of the following job evaluation systems is the most
commonly used?
a. Point system

20. The problem with flat rates for each job class is that exceptional performance cannot
a. Be rewarded

21. On a wage chart, a rate of pay higher than the contractual or formerly established rate for the job is known as a
a. Red circled rate

22. Internal equity requires that pay be related to the _________ worth of jobs.
a. Relative

23. Which of the following is NOT one of the outcomes when broadbanding is utilized in organizations?
a. It increases the amount and complexity of paperwork

24. What provides the clearest link between pay and performance or productivity?
a. Incentive systems

25. Which of the following activities is NOT consistent with the new approach to pay equity legislation taken by
Manitoba, Nova Scotia, and Ontario legislators?
a. Dealing with inequities only when they are brought to the attention of the appropriate human rights
commissions.

26. Without a systematic wage and salary structure procedures, an organization might ___________ its employees.
a. Overpay or underpay

27. At Shell Canada, every worker, or team operator, is a supervisor of sorts. Missing are the traditional foremen and
supervisors who tell people what to do and how to do it, and pay is based on a number of defined skills. What is
Shell Canada’s approach to skill- or knowledge-based pay using?
 a. Autonomous work groups

28. When Natalie undertakes job ranking, job grading and/or the point system, which phase of compensation
management is she engaged in?
a. Achieving internal equity

29. The textbook provides a list of the components of a total reward system, along with brief descriptions to
illustrate the concept. Which of the following components of a total reward system is NOT accurately described ?
a. Advancement, formal and informal training to learn new knowledge skills and abilities.

30. In his quest to ensure the company's pay system is in line with provincial or federal legislation, what should John
do if he should find some inequalities in the pay system?
a. Should inequalities be found, it would be advisable to eliminate them.

31. A mechanic replaces an automobile transmission in three hours and is paid for four hours because four hours is
the standard time established for replacing a transmission.This is an example of a:
a. Production bonus

32. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about the compa-ratio for groups?
a. The compa-ratio for groups is the only useful index for salary administrators.

33. In the past, internal equity has been the major concern of organizations. The focus is now shifting to:
a. Maintaining a competitive advantage

34. According to a study, the average worker could not recall 15% of:
a. Employer-provided benefits

35. According to the ______________, it is mandatory on the part of contractors dealing with the Government of
Canada to pay fair wages and establish an eight-hour workday during all such work.
a. Fair Wages and Hours of Labour Act

36. As Jake, the union steward begins to express initial concerns to Darcy, the compensation manager, about
introduction of incentives at Left Shoe Inc., Darcy begins to consider various problems with incentives. Which of
the following issues is NOT an accurate representation of incentives?
a. Incentive systems are quite easy to administer because they are directly linked to employee
production.

37. When the minimum wage is increased by law, if those who earn just above minimum wage do not also get raises,
wage differentials will be squeezed together, a phenomenon called:
a. Wage compression

38. All jobs in the same class receive:

a. The same wage rate

39. Which of the following statements accurately describes a characteristic skill- or knowledge -based pay?
a. Typically, employees are paid only for those skills they are able to perform, although there is always
an incentive to broaden one's skill level:

40. Darcy Brown, the compensation manager for Left Shoe Inc. wants to introduce financial incentives into the
company's pay system because he has heard of the many advantages of such a system. Which of the following is
NOT one of those benefits?
a. Sometimes, workers might actually make more than their supervisors, who are on salary.
41. Most firms rely on _____________to determine a fair rate of compensation.
a. Wage and salary surveys

42. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about the compa-ratio for groups?
a. A group compa-ratio above 1 indicates that a large number of employees are bunched at the top of
the pay grade

43. Jack hands in his resignation at the end of day after learning that Joan, the new mechanic with less experience, is
getting a higher hourly rate than he is, despite being 5 years on the job.This example illustrates an important
aspect of compensation, namely that
a. When wages and salaries are not administered properly, employers may lose employees and the
money spent to recruit, select, train, and develop them.

44. Which of the following statements describes a DRAWBACK to the use of teams and team-based pay systems in
organizations?
a. Low performers will place social pressure on high performers to lower their input to avoid drawing
management's attention to the low performers.

45. Administrative efficiency should be a(n)________ consideration compared with all other compensation
objectives.
a. Secondary

46. Which of the following is NOT a component of a total reward system?

a. Performance appraisal

47. The purpose of job evaluation is to identify which:

a. Jobs should be paid more than others

48. Taking all factors into account, the earnings gap faced by women as compared to men that cannot be explained
is still:
a. 5-10 percent

49. All the provinces have minimum-wage legislation that applies to most classes of work. For which classes of
workers does this legislation NOT apply
a. Farm labourers and domestic servants

50. Regardless of various tradeoffs employers must occasionally make, there is one compensation objective that
overrides all others, which is:
a. Employers must comply with the law

51. Lawler identified seven areas that affect pay systems. Which of the following is NOT one of the seven areas
identified by Lawler?
a. Career progression and planning

52. Jake is the union steward for Left Shoe Inc and he plans to lead resistance to any effort on the Company’s part to
introduce incentives into the current pay plan, which he feels is currently fair for workers. Of the possible
concerns shown here, which is NOT one of Jake or other members of the union would be concerned with at all?
a. Sometimes workers might make more than their supervisors, who are on salary

53. When Joan realizes she will need to offer a premium wage to attract applicants from her firm’s competitors, she
is thinking about which of the following objectives of an effective compensation system?
a. Acquiring qualified personnel
 54. Phase II of compensation management is meant to achieve which of the following objectives?
a. Internal equity

HR Quiz 10

1. Which of the following accurately describes one of the key features of the restructured Employment Act
implemented in 2001-2002?
a. A family income supplement top-up for claimants in low-income families

2. John Brown, the Benefits Manager at HC Technologies, wants to find the right approach to administration of the
benefits plan at HC Technologies. What is a critical first step John should take to effectively realize this goal?
a. A needs analysis is an essential first step
3.
Which of the following is NOT one of the traditional remedies used to increase employee awareness and thus
reduce problems of administration of benefits?
a. Increasing benefits in response to employee demands

4. Mary's company is facing layoffs and is dreading giving employees the news. All of the following mechanisms
offer Mary's company the opportunity to ease the pain of layoff for employees EXCEPT:
a. Mary's company can provide a short-term disability plan

5. A provision in employer-provided retirement plans that gives workers the right to a pension after a specified
number of years of service is called:
a. Vesting
6.
Why does William M. Mercer, a benefits consulting company, recommend that employers stop out-of-country
medical coverage for personal travel, or set a 30-day limit or a dollar maximum?
a. To keep ballooning health costs under control

7. Which of the following is NOT a paid time-off benefit?

a. Overtime

8. With a Defined Contribution (DC) Plan, after the employee's retirement the money is:
a. Used to purchase an annuity or invested in other approved financial arrangements that pay a regular
income to the retiree

9. Consider the following comparison between hypothetical benefits selections of two different workers in the
same company, each given a total of $3,845 to spend in the same flexible benefits plan. Mary is a 27 year old
married female whose husband is in graduate school. Don, is 56 years old, married to a woman who does not
work outside the home, and they are "empty nesters." Which of the following choices is most predictable for
either to make given their individual circumstances?
a. Mary will predictably focus fewer spending plan dollars towards her pension plan account than her
older colleague Don

10. The fact that benefits and services often result in reducing fatigue, overtime costs, and turnover refers to the
______________ that accompany the provision of benefits and services to employees.
a. Organizational objectives

11. John Brown, the Benefits Manager at HC Technologies, knows that his 15 years on the job have seen dramatic
changes in the field of employee benefits, and he feels he should be earning more than he is to compensate for
the added responsibilities emerging from such changes. Which of the following issues are NOT valid arguments
for why he has a more challenging job now than he did 10 years ago?
a. Employees are much more demanding now than in years past
12.
The central problem in supplementary compensation is a lack of:
a. Employee involvement
13.
Mary, the Human Resources Manager for HC Technologies decided to review the basics of Workers'
Compensation when attempting to understand the annual rates being charged to HC Technologies. Which of the
following facts about Workers' Compensation signals the need to take a proactive approach if her goal is to
reduce, or at least maintain, the company's annual contribution rate?
a. Employers can be charged a higher rate of contribution if there are many workers' compensation
claims

14. Unfortunately, sick leave is one of the most abused benefits. If the human resource policies prohibit employees
from crediting unused sick leave to next year's account, what form will the abuse take?
a. Absences increase near the end of the year
15.
Mary, the Human Resources Manager for HC Technologies is about to do a workshop on pensions for all
employees. In reviewing the facts on CPP/QPP, which of the following "facts" would NOT be accurate to include
in her presentation?
a. Neither CPP nor QPP are tied to cost-of-living changes

16. John Brown, the Benefits Manager for HC Technologies, is considering recommending the addition of Health
Spending Account administration services into the company's flexible benefit plan. If the approach were similar
to that of Canadian Blue Cross described in the textbook, what advantages might HC Technologies realize from
such an approach?
a. It saves companies the headaches of administering the plans and claims to be cheaper than if the
company managed the plan on its own

17. What two key influences have caused retirement plans to grow in scope and coverage, to the point that in
Canada the average firm spends 6.3 percent of its total payroll costs on government and private pension plans
alone?
a. Employer generosity and union pressure

18. Which of the following benefits do NOT turn up on the list of "most popular options" that will be in demand over
the next 10 years?
a. The addition of concierge services

19. The Pension Benefits Standards Act regulates pension plans in industries under the jurisdiction of the
Government of Canada, such as:
a. Banks, railways, shipping companies, and radio and other communications companies

20. A study of alcoholic employees reported what percentage reduction in sick leave using counselling services?
a. 47

21. In June 2000, the Federal Government enacted the ________________ to ensure that common-law relationships
(both opposite-and same-sex) are treated equally under federal law.
a. Modernization of Benefits and Obligations Act

22. A new development of flexible benefit programs is the opportunity to:

a. Purchase and sell vacation time

23. According to a study, the average worker could not recall 15% of:
a. Employer-provided benefits
24. The retirement years of Canadian Workers are protected by the Government through a Federal source of
protection known as the:
a. Canada Pension Plan

25. Costly supplements to indirect compensation were introduced in response to all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Supplier expectations

26. Which of the following statements does NOT help to account for the rapid growth of indirect compensation since
the Second World War?
a. Governments rely on the support of interdependent wage earners to resolve social problems and
provide security for members of society.

27. Benefits costs and employer costs, which represented 15.1 percent of an employer's gross annual payroll in
1953, escalated to about what percentage in 2010?
a. Forty

28. Flexible benefit programs are also known as:

a. Cafeteria benefit programs

29. John Brown, the Benefits Manager for HC Technologies, wants to improve the administration of the company's
Flexible Benefits Plans, which is currently done using paper enrollment forms and written communication pieces.
Which of the following options is quickly becoming the norm in the administration of flexible benefits and thus
might also solve his problem?
a. Adding Interactive voice response (IVRs) and Web-based technologies to the process

30. What are the disadvantages of a flexible benefits plan?

a. The approach creates additional administrative costs and an obligation for the HR department to
advise employees of their options

31. Husky Injection Molding of Bolton, Ontario spends $4 million a year on benefits for its 2,800 employees, a
program that Husky's managers say more than pays for itself in ______________and, ultimately in
_____________.
a. Higher productivity; lower costs

32. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately explain why employees usually seek employer-provided
benefits and services when considering cost and availability?
a. Company insurance benefits are especially attractive to employees as part of he employment
exchange because employers are required to pay for all benefits

33. Despite the recent recessionary economy, current trends indicate that:
a. Indirect compensation will form a greater proportion of total compensation offered

34. When it comes to marital status of an employee, the current trend in flexible benefits plans is to offer:
a. Choices independent of marital status

35. Which of the following is the benefit predicted to be most in demand by employees over the next 10 years?
a. Increased medical coverage, dental plans, and optometrist services

36. An Employee assistance program is:

a. A comprehensive company program that seeks to help employees and their family members overcome
personal and work-related problems
 37. Why does William M. Mercer, a benefits consulting company, tell employers that six month checkups may not be
necessary anymore?
a. Because many dental plans were designed in pre-fluoride days

38. Which of the following does NOT explain the role of benefits and services in compensation?
a. They are direct compensation because they are based on critical job factors or performance

39. Job sharing is also possible with _________ work, where the duties of a job are shared by __________.
a. Part-time; two or more employees

40. __________________ are probably the oldest employee services, and are common among retail stores and
consumer goods manufacturers.
a. Employee discount plans

41. Which of the following statements does NOT describe a problem that results from lack of employee involvement
when designing company benefits programs?
a. Uniformity of benefit program design leads to administrative and actuarial economies

42. When discussing benefits, what do dog walking services, finding an excavator and free laundry have in common?
a. Individualized services such as these would be offered by only the most generous employers to retain
key employees

43. A serious shortcoming of human resource management has been poor management of:
a. Indirect compensation

44. Several studies have attempted to predict the types of benefits that will be in demand over the next 10 years.
Which of the following activities is one of those benefits?
a. Prepaid legal advice

45. In addition to the pension benefits standard Act, ______ provinces have enacted their own pension benefits
acts, that in content, are similar in content to federal act.
a. Eight

46. Relocation services are:

a. A company sponsored benefit that assists employees who must move in connections with their job

47. Benefit programs have become a very significant part of a company’s compensation system, slowly approaching
the _______ percent mark of annual payroll expenses
a. 50

HR Quiz 11

1. An essential component of successful employee attitude/opinion surveys is that:

a. Employees see that the survey findings result in problems being solved

2. Maureen Lawler, Employee Relations Manager for Generic Pharma Inc., is considering implementation of
employee attitude/opinion surveys in her organization. Which of the following facts about such surveys is NOT
an accurate statement regarding this organizational communication method?
a. The resulting information can be used to evaluate broad concerns, such as how the individual
employees are perceived by their managers

3. The ability to discipline may be restricted by _____________ and ________________.

 a. Union contracts; government legislation.

4. The ______ case requires employers to demonstrate good faith and fair dealings in the termination of
employees.
a. Wallace

5. A survey of about 4,000 Canadian workers found that about ________ percent of people expect to change
careers in the next five years.
a. 50

6. In a recent study of Canadian employees, ___________ reported having jobs with both clear feedback and a
significant impact (that is, the work is important).
a. Only 15%

7. Which of the following is one of the six key principles of effective downsizing from a best practices perspective?
a. Downsizing should result in the formation of small semi-autonomous organizations within the broader
organization.

8. A study of alcoholic employees reported a _______ percent reduction in sickness and accident benefit payments
through the use of counselling services.
a. 72

9. In-house publications, pre-recorded messages and electronic communication are examples of:
a. Downward communication systems

10. Maureen Lawler, Employee Relations manager for Generic Pharma Inc. emphasizes to her supervisors that when
they are in a disciplinary situation, they must follow proper, established rules and procedures, and give
employees the opportunity to respond to allegations. In other words, they must
a. Follow due process

11. According to a study of alcoholic employees reported what percentage reduction in lost work hours using
counseling services?
a. 85
12. A major change in the terms of the employment contract that results in an employee resigning may be
considered:
a. Constructive dismissal

13. Maureen Lawler, Manager of Employee Relations, is explaining the results of a study that measured the
relationship between various types of human resource practices and levels of organizational performance. Which
of the following would be an accurate representation of findings in the study?
a. High commitment HR management, a characteristic of "high road" practices, were strongly related to a
high level of organizational performance.

14. Despite the downsizing trend of the 1990s some organizations are developing no-layoff policies, because they
believe that employees who have job security
a. Will be more receptive to change and more willing to "go the extra mile"

15. Maureen is using a variety of systematic methods that empower the employees of Generic Pharma Inc. to
participate in the decisions that affect them and their relationship with the organization.In other words,
Maureen is implementing:
a. Employee involvement
16. What do policies on workplace and sexual harassment, conflict resolution procedures, and employee
involvement programs have in common?
a. All three are human resource initiatives that play an important role in enhancing human relations

17. Which of the following is NOT one of the seven factors Watson Wyatt Worldwide identified as important in
building employee commitment?
a. A chance to network with senior employees

18. Allowing employees to surf the net occasionally during working hours because it helps them relax for a moment,
so they can get their focus back is an example of how good employee relations practices
a. improve productivity

19. Maureen Lawler is conducting employee relations training with supervisors of Generic Pharma to impress on
them two key rules for encouraging employee involvement. The two key rules are:
a. Involve employees in decision making and ask them for information about the jobs they perform

20. Neal and Griffin outline eight dimensions of safety climate. Which of the following is included in Organizational
level dimensions?
a. Safety system

21. Although most organizations engage in the workforce-reduction stage of downsizing, many ignore the critical
elements of _________________ and implementing _______________.
a. Redesigning the organization; cultural change.

22. Which of the following options describes an intervention used to increase employee involvement and improve
overall employee satisfaction at work?
a. Self-directed work teams or groups

23. In a recent study of Canadian employees, ___________ reported having jobs with both clear feedback and a
significant impact (that is, the work is important).
a. Only 15%

24. Which of the following activities describe downsizing using work redesign?
a. Evaluating whether specific functions, products, or services should be eliminated

25. The objectives of _____________ discipline are to reform the offender, deter others from acting in a similar
fashion and maintaining consistent, effective group standards.
a. Corrective

26. Online EAP services can be provided by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Face-to-face employee contact

27. Which of the following high-involvement workplace strategies is reportedly used the most by Canadian
organizations?
a. Project teams

28. _____________ of the results and _____________ on the problem areas make survey feedback a powerful
communication tool.
a. Feedback; action

29. A study of alcoholic employees reported what percentage reduction in sick leave using counselling services?
a. 47
 30. When two employees chat at the photocopier about their problems with a supervisor, it is an example of:
a. Grapevine communication

31. The discussion of a problem with an employee, with the general objective of helping the worker resolve the issue
or cope with the situation so that he or she can become more effective describes which of the following?
a. Counseling

32. Upward communication consists of information initiated by people who want to inform and/or influence
individuals higher up in the organization. The cornerstone of all such messages is:
a. The employee and the supervisor

33. Most approaches to organizational communication can be divided into __________________, which exist to get
information to employees, and __________________, which exist to obtain information from employees.
a. Downward communication systems; upward communication systems

34. The goal of Alternative Dispute Resolution, a process associated with in-house complaint procedures, is to:
a. Resolve disputes in a timely, cost-effective manner

35. ________________ has/have the responsibility for building a climate of preventive discipline.
a. Management

36. As growing evidence that human resource management practices do matter and are related to organizational
performance, the textbook indicates that in one study, high-involvement work practices were related to:
a. Lower turnover, higher productivity and improved financial performance.

37. According to study author Paul Fairlie, "Engagement, commitment and performance are important, but these are
outputs. They don't happen unless employees __________________".
a. View their work as meaningful

38. Which of the following is not a form of employee misconduct identified in case law that would constitute
sufficient cause (just cause for dismissal?
a. Personality conflicts

39. Employers must provide employers “reasonable notice or compensation in lieu” of notice:
a. When the employer does not have just cause for dismissal

40. Most approaches to organizational communication can be divided into ______________, which exist to get
information to employees, and __________, which exist to obtain information from employees
a. Downward communication systems, upward communication systems

41. Which of the following statements is NOT an accurate representation of downsizing as a strategic response for
some organizations?
a. It is a highly effective “quick-fix” remedy

HR Quiz 12

1. According to the Institute for Work and Health, about __________ of Canadians work shift work or on call.
a. 30 per centse

2. Which of the following is the correct description of biological agents/biohazards?

a. Exposure to such natural organisms as parasites, bacteria, insects, viruses and so on.

3. The Canada Labour Code establishes three fundamental employee rights in the workplace, namely
 a. The right to know about and participate in correcting workplace hazards and the right to refuse
dangerous work

4. Employer immunity from lawsuits as a result of contributing to the workers' compensation system is being
eroded as more courts allow employees to sue their employers for:
a. Stress resulting from a poisoned work environment

5. Some organizations, recognizing that they lack the internal expertise to address safety issues, are now:
a. Outsourcing some health and safety needs.

6. The phrase: "Everyone who undertakes, or has the authority, to direct how another person does or performs
work or performs a task is under a legal duty to take reasonable steps to prevent bodily harm to that person, or
any other person, arising from that work or task." appears in which piece of legislation?
a. Section 217.1 of the Criminal Code

7. Several factors contribute to the complexity of managing safety in the workplace. Which of the following is NOT
one of them?
a. Employers keep such comprehensive records of accidents and unsafe practices that the system has
become increasingly bureaucratic

8. What is "mission zero"?

a. "Mission Zero" is a new educational campaign introduced in Saskatchewan to cope with one of the
worst injury rates in Canada.

9. Around the turn of the twentieth century, in the workplace and in the courts, the term "assumption of risk"
meant:
a. Workers accepted all the customary risks associated with their job or occupations

10. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation related to setting up a successful AIDS program in the
workplace?
a. Allow employees to refuse to work with the infected person

11. Cyber stalking a co-worker is considered to be:

a. Workplace violence

12. Why should employers and human resource professionals be concerned with safety climate?
a. There is growing evidence that safety climate is an important factor affecting safety knowledge and
motivation.

13. Which of the following is NOT an individual or situational factor that can strengthen or weaken the relationship
between stressful job conditions and the risk of injury or illness?
a. An individual's tendency to being accident prone or not
14.
Which of the following was not one of the objectives of Parliament for the public corporation established under
the Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety Act?
a. To preserve the physical and mental energy of working people in Canada

15. Joan Gingras is a student working part time at her father's fast food franchise restaurant. Which of the following
is not a typical potential workplace hazard for her and her coworkers in such a workplace?
a. Lift truck collisions

16. What do accident investigation and analysis, audits and inspections, ergonomics and team problem-
solving/problem-solving techniques have in common?
 a. They are ingredients of an effective safety training program

17. There is a growing, but fairly recent recognition that employers need to consider the special needs of
____________ as it relates to health and safety.
a. Female employees

18. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe the effects of stress on employees?
a. If stress levels peak, performance also increases.

19. In an effort to standardize hazardous materials requirements and communications around the globe, the
____________ was introduced
a. Global Harmonized, System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals

20. The purpose of negotiations is to achieve a(n):

a. Collective agreement

21. Neal and Griffin outline eight dimensions of safety climate. Which of the following is included in Organizational
level dimensions?
a. Safety systems

22. Safety Coordinator Pat is holding a series of meetings with groups of employees who work shifts to come up with
ideas to increase their overall health and safety. Which of the following is not likely to emerge in these meetings
as a concern among shift workers?
a. Shift workers are most at risk when they are driving to work each day

23. While health and safety audits vary, they will generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Surveys of customers and suppliers

24. According to research, which of the following statements is true when considering incidence of time-loss
injuries?
a. Men were more likely than women to have a time-loss injury.

25. Which of the following statements is true about the framework for conceptualizing safety climate and safety
behaviour?
a. Safety outcomes are a direct result of safety performance

26. One group of employees that is often overlooked in terms of ergonomics is:
a. Teleworkers

27. Across the country, there is growing emphasis on the health and safety of young workers because about
___________ young workers is injured on the job and approximately ______________ of all workplace injuries
involve employees in the 15 to 29 age group.
a. One in seven; one-fourth

28. Section 141 of the Canada Labour Code (Part II) details various powers given to safety inspectors, but it does not include:
a. Participating in the implementation of changes that might affect occupational health and safety

29. Which of the following is NOT included in the requirements of the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act?
a. It requires that dangerous materials remain hidden from carriers

30. The Canada Labour Code establishes three fundamental employee rights in the workplace, namely
a. The right to know about and participate in correcting workplace hazards and the right to refuse
dangerous work
31. A key element of health and safety laws is the______________________, which is usually required in every
workplace with 20 or more employees.
a. Workplace Health and Safety Committee

32. Which of the following is a major cause of workplace stress related to organizational climate?
a. Communication patterns

33. What is “mission zero”?

a. “mission zero” is a new educational campaign introduced in Saskatchewan to cope with one of the
worst injury rates in Canada

34. the primary objectives of which legislation are to include hazard classification, cautionary labelling of containers,
the provision of (material) safety data sheets, and worker education and training?
a. Workplace hazardous materials information system

35. when charged with a health and safety offence, the court looks for “due diligence” and considers several factors
including:
a. the magnitude of the risks involved and the nature of the potential harm, with a focus on the part of
the safety program designed to prevent the accident in question

36. which of the following is not a question associated with Neal and Griffin’s organizational level dimensions of
safety climate?
a. Is workload perceived to exceed the employee’s capacity to perform the work safety?
37. People spend up to 90 percent of their lives indoors, and a group number report becoming sick while working in
a particular building. What is this called?
a. Sick building syndrome

38. As the new Safety Coordinator for his employer, Pat wants to reduce the company's current accident rate
significantly during his time in the job. Which of the following is NOT an effective approach to reaching his goal?
a. Ensuring that only managers have input into the decision making process since the issue is important

39. Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to workplace injuries and health hazards?
a. The total cost of workplace accidents and occupation-related illnesses has been as high as $13.5 billion
a year when indirect expenses are taken into account

40. When we say about a co-worker that: "Her body is here today, but her mind stayed home." , we mean the co-
worker is suffering from:
a. Burnout

41. Around the turn of the twentieth century, in the workplace and in the courts, the term "assumption of risk"
meant:
a. Workers accepted all the customary risks associated with their job or occupations

42. The most common injuries affecting young workers include:

a. Electronation and machine injuries

43. Change tends to be especially stressful when it is:

a. Major, unusual, or frequent

44. The association of workers’ compensation boards of Canada indicates that while the number of workplace
injuries have levelled off, the direct cost of injuries has not. Which of the following is one of those costs?
a. First aid and medical treatment
HR Quiz 13
1. In recent years, the number of ___________ in Canadian unions has been increasing rapidly.
a. Women members

2. Research indicates that when comparing union status and work conditions on the issue of percentage of pension
coverage, the ratio is:
a. 82.8% of union employees; 32.9 % of non-union employees

3. The most dramatic example of secession occurred in 1985 when ________________ severed ties with
__________________.
a. Canadian Auto Workers; United Auto Workers

4. Which of the following is NOT one of the key aspects of Canadian Labour Law?
a. The right to operate during a strike

5. The most important part of union structure for most union members and industrial relations practitioners is:
a. Local unions

6. This level of union structure provides the members, the revenue, and the power of the entire union movement?
a. Local unions

7. Implementing a compensation plan in which wages/salary and benefits parallel those available in the union
sector is a key aspect of the ____________ approach.
a. Union substitution

8. Effective mediation requires a high degree of _______________and expertise in _______________.

a. Sensitivity and patience; psychology of negotiation

9. To understand how and why unions influence human resource management, it is necessary to examine:
a. Goals and structure of the union

10. What is the first step in an LRB procedure for redressing unfair labour practices?
a. The aggrieved individual or organization contacts the appropriate LRB office and explains the alleged
violation

11. Which of the following is NOT a technique used to encourage workers to sign authorization cards?
a. Employee complaint procedures

12. It is illegal for a union to ________ and for an employer to ____________ during the life of the contract.
a. Strike; lock out employees

13. The President has asked Brad Pittance why strikes occur. Which of the following is NOT a good response for Brad
to give if he wishes to maintain credibility with the President?
a. Workers only strike as the result of a mistake or misjudgment

14. In all jurisdictions, the decision of the Labour Relations Board is:
a. Final and binding

15. Depending on the jurisdiction, a union is typically certified either on the basis of:
a. Card signatures or an election

16. Which factors appear to be MOST important in the decision of an individual to join a union?
 a. Job dissatisfaction, individual attitudes towards unions in general, and perceived union
instrumentality

17. One of the common core provisions contained in various labour relations acts is that all jurisdictions require that
a collective agreement be in force for at least ___________.
a. One year

18. Brad Pittance and the first line supervisors at Vansveld Mfg. are attending a workshop on handling of grievances.
Which of the following statements does NOT accurately reflect the issue(s) to be considered when settling
grievances?
a. Whether the grievance came from management or the union needs to be established because the
grievance procedure varies for different parties

19. By virtue of the _______________ employers argue that they have the authority over all issues not contained in
the collective agreement.
a. Residual Rights Theory of Management

20. In comparing unionization across provinces, Newfoundland had the ___________rate, while the
___________rate was in Alberta.
a. Highest; lowest

21. Complex problems that confront the union and employer such as quality of work life, technological changes and
sexual harassment can often be dealt with more effectively using the labour management cooperation method
known as:
a. Joint study committees

22. In a 2009 report of HRM practices among Canadian unions 86 percent of union bargaining units were involved in
a(n) ___________ and/or a(n) ___________.
a. Employee Assistance Program; orientation program

23. Bob is examining what unions bring to the employment relationship in order to introduce such features into his
own non-union workplace to ensure it remains non-union. Which of the following is NOT one of the activities his
HR department should adopt if they choose such an approach?
a. Select employees who are over-qualified to ensure ample turnover which will prevent a union from
getting started
24. Labour relations boards (LRB) investigate violations of the law and have the power to determine all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. Whether a person is a personfor the purposes of the law

25. Rather than use the traditional approach to negotiating a collective e agreement, some unions and employers
are electing to use ___________ which improves the chances of a ___________ approach to negotiations
a. Mutual gains bargaining; win-win

26. A type of union that includes the unskilled and semiskilled workers at a particular location is called a(n):
a. Industrial union

27. The collective agreement is also known as ___________ by some managers and union officials
a. The “rule book”

28. Which of the following is an unfair labour practice by unions?

a. Trying to persuade an employee to become a union member during workplace hours at the workplace
29. Consultants or government agencies who act as change agents or catalysts for cooperation are typical of the
___________ approach to building labour-management cooperation
a. Third party

30. The notion that conflict can be constructive. Even when the. Conflict is addressed in. an adversarial, non-
problem-solving fashion is typical of which perspective?
a. Industrial relations perspective

31. As Brad continues his research unions, he learns more about why employees seek union representation and
what happens when they achieve their goal. Which of the following is NOT a fact that Brad can accurately share
with the President?
a. There is no need to train unionized employees on the interpretation and application of a new
collective agreement

32. Brad is already anticipating how he can determine which rights are important if he is placed in the position of
negotiating a collective agreement. Which of the following sources would NOT provide good information if he
finds himself in that position
a. Authorization cards

33. A strong reason why some unions and employer are moving toward greater cooperation (and there is increasing
acceptance that labour and management must cooperate and work together) is:
a. The need to survive in a highly competitive global economy

34. Which of the following is NOT an obstacle to labour-management cooperation?

a. Trust and cooperation between union leaders and management grows substantially after initial
negotiations are completed
35. The headquarters for The Brotherhood of Teamsters is outside of the country, therefore The Brotherhood of
Teamsters would be considered an example of a(n):
a. International union

36. All of the following are reasons why employees may AVOID joining a union EXCEPT:
a. Employer policies and supervisory treatment may be unfair and consequently, employees are not
motivated to join a union

37. Which of the following is NOT an accurate explanation for why union representation is declining globally?
a. Unions are placing greater emphasis on organizing service employers.

38. Brad, the human resources manager for Vansveld Mfg. Inc. has become aware that employees are talking of
creating a union and he knows he needs to bring the President up to speed.Which of the following is NOT an
accurate characteristic of unions Brad can share with the President?
a. Successful companies do not have any unions among their employees

39. Which of the following distinctions does NOT accurately explain why some firms experience lower strike activity?
a. Strikes are less common in larger firms

40. In most provinces, no strike action is permitted before a ___________ has been made.
a. Conciliation effort

41. According to employer lawyer Jamie Knight, dealing with ______________ is the biggest challenge in a non-
union workplace.
a. Complaints

42. Which of the following would NOT be included in negotiations of wages during collective bargaining?
 a. Length of the workday

43. Which of the following statements is an INACCURATE description of successful bargaining?

a. The negotiation process usually begins with the toughest issues in order for parties to establish solid
ground

44. Which of the following is an industrial relations perspective on workplace conflict?

a. Conflict between labour and management is enduring

45. An International Human Resource Management (IHRM) process that views HRM in a global context as one that
contributes to organizational capabilities is called:
a. Global HRM
46. In 1960, about two-thirds of union members belonged to an international union, but the trend towards
____________ over the past 50 years has caused that percentage to decline to about 25 per cent of union
members.
a. Secession

47. According to Bob White, former president of the Canadian Labour Congress, change will be judged to be positive
by workers for any of the following reasons EXCEPT:
a. If change results in implementation of a contingency compensation plan

48. Since non-union facilities have an implicit objective to remain non-union employers frequently adopt either a
___________ or _________________ approach in order to avoid unionization.
a. Union suppression; union substitution

49. Conciliators are appointed in all of the following ways EXCEPT:

a. By the Canadian Labour Congress

HR quiz 14

1. A third country national or host country national employee who relocates from a foreign subsidiary or joint venture
to the parent company is a(n):
a. Inpatriate

2. Which of the following is NOT a stage of corporate evolution?

a. Local

3. Although a number of training methods have been tried to prepare employees for a foreign work environment, some
are better than others. Which of the following is NOT one of the more promising approaches?
a. Lectures

4. Major differences in IHRM practices from domestic HRM practices include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Its programs are more limited to be able to operate in the other country

5. The Bank of Montreal plans to buy a minority stake in a wealth management firm in China. This would establish a
___________ benefiting both parties.
a. Strategic alliance

6. A citizen of a country other than the parent country or the host country is a:
a. Third country national

7. The strategic integration of resourcing and development at the international level is referred to as:
 a. Global talent management

8. For global firms, the differences in HR planning from a domestic firm include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Home country standards

9. Which of the following is NOT a core competency of an expatriate manager?

a. Passiveness

10. Scotiabank's Advancement of Women Initiative increased its representation of women holding senior management
positions from 18.9% in 2003 to ______ in 2007.
a. 31.5%

11. Recently, a fourth pool of expatriate candidates has been identified, referred to as TCK, which stands for:
a. Third culture kids
12. All of the following are advantages of using a third country national in a foreign location EXCEPT:
a. They know the local culture and politics and economic situation

13. What has been cited as one of the most stressful situations an employee can encounter?
a. Relocation

14. The degree of internationalization of an organization can be defined by the:

a. Number of countries in which it operates

15. Hasnat has been asked for advice on the staffing approach being considered for one of his company's global
operations. Which of the following is NOT an advantage he can predict if the company decides to hire a host-country
national?
a. They are familiar with company culture and practices

16. The changing role of HR in global organizations include to:

a. Think globally, act locally; foster a global mindset; and, manage the talent pipeline

17. What stage of growth is a firm when they have no borders, are comprised of employees from many different
cultures, and their emphasis is on flexibility and mass customization of products to meet the needs of particular
clients?
a. Global/transnational

18. What stage of growth is a firm when they focus on the domestic market, operate locally, and importance of
international business is minimal?
a. Domestic

19. Traditionally, International Human Resource Management’s focus has been on staffing across borders, which
addresses the needs of:
a. Expatriates, frequent commuters, and cross-cultural team members

20. What key dimension of the Global Leadership and Organizational Behaviour Effectiveness study focuses on the
degree to which a society feels loyal either toward their family or other collective groups?
a. In-group collectivism

21. A person who is on a short term assignment and engages in frequent travel without relocation is a(n):
a. Flexpatriate

22. Global HRM is a:

a. Broad concept
23. What stage of growth is a firm when they have branches and subsidiaries in many countries which operate
independently and the focus is on economies of scale?
a. Multinational

24. What stage of growth is a firm when they focus on the domestic market, operate locally, and importance of
international business is minimal?
a. Domestic

25. An employee who frequently commutes from a home country to a place of work in another country, typically on a
weekly or biweekly basis is a(n):
a. International commuter

26. In a recent study by Korn Ferry, what county was one of the easiest countries to attract executives to, but one of the
most difficult to succeed in?
a. China

27. Fostering a global mindset means developing ____________ into the fabric of the workforce.
a. Global wisdom and collaboration

28. A recent study called the Global Leadership and Organizational Behaviour Effectiveness study identified all of the
following key dimensions that can be used to determine differences in cultures EXCEPT:
a. Passiveness orientation

29. An International Human Resource Management (IHRM) process that views HRM in a global context as one that
contributes to organizational capabilities is called:
a. Global HRM

30. Leading organizations get others into their network to buy into their vision, find opportunities that will be of mutual
benefit, and create a win-win scenario for all. They do this by pursuing all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Purchasing the competition

31. To maintain control from headquarters, International Human Resource managers have to do all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Create software that can track the movements of all expatriate staff

32. For global firms, the goal of HR planning is:

a. Ensuring that organizations have the right skills at the right time in the right place

33. Which of the following is NOT an external contextual factor to HRM policies and practices?
a. Emigration policies

34. Which of the following is NOT a staffing preference?

a. National centrism

35. Common elements of pre-departure training include details of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Finances

36. Domestic HRM is involved with employees:

a. Within one national boundary

37. Over the last decade, what country has emerged as a major country in the economic global arena with over half the
population under the age of 25?
 a. India

38. Advantages of third country nationals include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. That they are familiar with Multinational Enterprise corporate culture

39. Firms at which stage of growth begin to engage in global HR planning?

a. Multinational

40. If an employee is not repatriated successfully, one survey suggested that as many as ______of expatriates leave their
companies within ________ of returning home?
a. 25%; 2 years

41. A major advantage of global firms is that they potentially have a significant supply of talent from ___________ to
choose from.
a. Across the globe

42. Key elements of a successful expatriate experience include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Large compensation increases

43. Global compensation considerations include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. More heavily on local compensation considerations

44. What estimates employment needs and develops plans for meeting those needs from the available global labour
force and the viability of Multinational Enterprises in their ability to align their workforce forecasts with the supply
for global talent?
a. Global HR planning

45. Which of the following is NOT a critical emerging competency for International Human Resources managers
supporting global operations?
a. Knowledge of local training principles, learning styles, and practices

46. Which of the following is NOT a global staffing consideration?

a. Investigate foreign credentials more thoroughly
47. Traditionally, International Human Resource Management’s focus has been on staffing across borders, which
addresses the needs of:
a. Expatriates, frequent commuters, and cross-cultural team members

Midterm Practice Questions

1. The __________ is a standardized questionnaire used to conduct job analysis.

a. NOC
b. O*NET
c. PAQ
d. SHRM

2. An employee referral system may cause __________ discrimination.

a. blind
b. bona fide occupational
c. reverse discrimination
d. unintentional

3. A __________ gives comprehensive information about possible promotable candidates.

a. labour market analysis
 b. replacement summary
c. replacement chart
d. transition matrix

4. Layoffs are a good way to deal with __________.

a. labour equilibrium
b. labour shortage
c. oversupply of labour
d. undersupply of labour

5. Nepotism is a form of discrimination based on __________.

a. family status
b. race
c. religion
d. sex

6. A __________ is a method to convince an employee to stay, typically by offering higher wages.

a. buy back
b. contentious negotiation
c. distributive negotiation
d. deal sweetener

7. Of the following, which is the best measure of the recruiting function?

a. Average recruiter salary
b. Number of résumés received
c. Ratio of offers to applicants
d. Total cost incurred

8. Vertical loading is also called __________.

a. job enlargement
b. job enrichment
c. job expansion
d. job rotation

9. A __________ is responding to a labour surplus by not filling openings with external applicants.
a. hiring freeze
b. hiring pause
c. hiring spree
d. hiring thaw

10. With respect to harassment, according to the Canadian Human Rights Act:
a. harassment based on prohibited grounds is illegal
b. harassment makes workplaces toxic
c. harassment violates the Charter of Rights and Freedoms
d. organizations must have an anti-harassment policy

11. Which of the following is the job analysis method where an incumbent is asked to periodically summarize activities?
a. Employee log or diary method
b. FJA
c. Interview
d. PAQ

12. A selection ratio of 1:100 means that:

 a. you are hiring a lot of people
b. you have few applicants
c. you can be very selective in hiring
d. you will hire most of the people that apply

13. Which of the following uses paper-and-pencil tests, in-basket exercises, and/or leaderless group discussions?
a. Assessment centres
b. Computer interactive tests
c. Knowledge tests
d. Performance tests

14. Which of the following will help accurately prepare an applicant for what really goes on in a job?
a. Realistic job preview
b. Résumé analysis
c. Structured interview
d. Validity analysis

15. Relating scores on an intelligence test to success on the job is called:

a. Markov analysis
b. multiple hurdle analysis
c. reliability
d. validation

16. For the most part, employment references are used to:
a. determine an applicant’s suitability
b. find out whether an applicant was fired
c. get a candid assessment of a candidate’s work performance
d. verify application information

17. Attractive applicants get higher scores on interviews. This is an example of:
a. bias
b. contrast effect
c. halo effect
d. similar-to-me effect

18. A question that begins with, “What would you do if …” is an example of a(n):
a. behavioural description interview question
b. critical incident question
c. situational interview question
d. unstructured interview question

19. A selection device’s ability to yield consistent results over repeated measures is called:
a. compatibility
b. consistency
c. reliability
d. validity

20. The degree to which a selection device measures elements of the job is called:
a. content validity
b. face validity
c. job validity
d. reliability
21. Demonstrable characteristics of a person that enable performance of the job are called:
a. capabilities
b. competencies
c. expertise
d. proficiencies

22. Keeping abreast of employment law is an example of a(n) __________ HR activity.

a. entry-level
b. operational
c. strategic
d. unnecessary

23. Deciding the amounts to invest in training versus selection is a(n) __________ HR activity.
a. entry-level
b. operational
c. strategic
d. unnecessary

24. The “glass ceiling” typically affects:

a. individuals with disabilities
b. minorities
c. tall people
d. women

25. Job analysis is intended to:

a. discover the job tasks and KSAOs
b. predict employee performance
c. rate employee performance
d. set pay rates

26. What information is typically included in writing job descriptions?

a. Job identity
b. Job summary and duties
c. Working conditions
d. All of the above

27. What is attrition?

a. A type of reward system
b. Employees leaving due to resignation, retirement, or death
c. Initial response to an employee surplus
d. Termination based on low performance

28. Which of the following is a key test for determining contractor/employee status?
a. Control
b. CRA standing
c. Employment history
d. Salary level

29. How can reference checks be made more effective?

a. By collecting written reference letters
b. By contacting family and friends
c. By doing police background checks first
d. By using a structured form
30. Which of the following is a protected ground from discrimination in Ontario?
a. Place of origin
b. Political belief
c. Social condition
d. Source of income

31. When does a labour shortage exist?

a. When supply exceeds demand
b. When the external demand cannot meet the organization’s needs
c. When the internal supply cannot meet the organization’s needs
d. When there are more part-time than full-time employees

32. Which of the following is not a step in human resources planning?

a. Assess supply of resources
b. Develop HR objectives
c. Forecast external demand
d. Forecast internal demand for resources

33. A disadvantage of internal recruiting is:

a. internal hiring is more expensive than external
b. newcomers take a longer time to learn about the organization
c. no “new blood” is brought into the organization
d. relies too heavily on performance appraisals

34. Apple is an example of a company with a:

a. cost leadership strategy
b. cost management strategy
c. differentiation strategy
d. focus strategy

35. Professional search firms:

a. are typically used for hiring large numbers of employees on a regular basis
b. are used for filling temporary positions
c. recruit for very specialized roles
d. typically charge applicants 10% of their first year salary

36. Canada’s skilled immigrants appear to predominately be coming from which region of the world?
a. Africa and the Middle East
b. Asia and Pacific
c. Europe and the United Kingdom
d. the United States

37. Unintentional discrimination is typically embedded in:

a. an organization’s code of ethics
b. human resources performance
c. human rights codes
d. policies and practices

38. Which of the following is not a selection measure?

a. Interview
b. Job design
c. Reference check
 d. Résumé

39. Human resources managers usually have what kind of authority in organizations?
a. Line
b. Resource
c. Staff
d. Strategic

40. A minority individual has not been hired because they failed a cognitive ability test. Is this:
a. direct discrimination
b. illegal discrimination
c. legal discrimination
d. not sure, need to know more about reliability/validity

41. Which of the following is a method for forecasting the supply of external candidates?
a. Delphi technique
b. Labour market analysis
c. Markov analysis
d. Nominal group technique

42. How many designated groups are there for employment equity purposes?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

43. If you have been illegally discriminated against in Ontario, the likely place to go is the:
a. Ontario Human Rights Commission
b. Ontario Labour Relations Board
c. source of the discrimination
d. Supreme Court of Canada

44. Which of the following is a BFOR?

a. Height and weight requirements for police officers
b. Male reporters only in male locker rooms
c. Males only for jobs with heavy lifting
d. None of these are BFORs

45. Interview questions like, “If you were an animal, what kind would you be?” are likely __________.
a. illegal
b. not valid
c. reliable
d. valid

46. The advantage of the competency-based job analysis over the traditional job analysis is it:
a. allows for the analysis of job classes
b. assesses competencies unique to each job
c. can be used to create job specifications
d. focuses on competencies needed to execute strategy

47. Which of the following would likely be considered “undue hardship” for an employer?
a. A significant decrease in morale
b. Cost so high it threatens the survival of the organization
 c. Having to change an existing policy
d. Having to change an existing procedure

48. Which of the following measures predicts subsequent job performance the best?
a. Cognitive ability tests
b. Conscientiousness tests
c. Graphology
d. Work sample tests

49. According to the structure of our laws in Canada:

a. collective agreements may violate the Human Rights Act
b. collective agreements supersede employment standards
c. no law or agreement may violate Human Rights Legislation
d. the Human Rights Act supersedes the Charter

50. Replacement charts usually include:

a. career development plans
b. detailed performance appraisal results
c. performance reviews for employees in all key positions
d. two or three replacements for key positions

Another Midterm Review

1) The prevailing atmosphere or ''internal weather" that exists in an organization and its impact on employees is
_______
A) the need for performance appraisals.
B) the need for a corporate culture.
C) a myth about organizations.
D) the importance of having a mission statement.
E) organizational climate.

2) Baby boomers: _______

A) were born between 1946 and 1965.
B) resulted in a focus on recruitment and selection in organizations in the past.
C) have had very high fertility rates.
D) are currently causing a great deal of competition for advancement.
E) will be increasing rapidly in numbers over the next few decades.

3) The characteristics of the work force are known as: 3) _______

A) organizational climate.
B) demographics.
C) population trends.
D) unionization.
E) diversity.

4) You are the HR generalist of a national railway. Which employment legislation would you refer to when it comes to
employee relations issues within the organization? 4) _______
A) territorial
B) federal
C) provincial
D) provincial/territorial
E) none of the above
 5) Rita is the HR Director of a manufacturing company. She recently undertook research to identify competitor
compensation and incentive plans, information about pending legislative changes and availability of talent in the
labour market for the upcoming strategic planning meeting. Rita was conducting: 5) _______
A) an external opportunities/threats study.
B) an environmental study.
C) an external market survey.
D) an employee engagement survey.
E) environmental scanning.

6) Economic downturns are generally associated with: 6) _______

A) an overwhelming number of job applicants for vacancies.
B) skills shortages.
C) lower unemployment rates.
D) high turnover.
E) more competition for qualified employees.

7) HR department staff members are traditionally involved in key operational responsibilities. Which of the following is
an operational responsibility? 7) _______
A) setting goals and objectives
B) collecting metrics
C) analyzing metrics
D) interpreting human right laws
E) interpreting health and safety legislation

8) In the early 1900s, personnel administration, as it was then called: 8) _______

A) was closely tied to union-management relations.
B) focussed on trying to improve the human element in organizations.
C) served a key advisory role in organizations.
D) played a very subservient role in organizations.
E) was highly influenced by laws and regulations.

9) The broad objectives of HR associations across the country include: 9) _______

A) assisting in the provision of training in the field of HR.
B) skills updating.
C) providing opportunities for information exchange.
D) serving as a voice for HR practitioners.
E) all of the above.

10) Joe Brown was hired by a manufacturing firm as a supervisor. During his first few weeks as a supervisor he realised
that employees who report to him expect a lot of direction from him and expect all of the decision making to be done by
him. Joe Brown decided to train his employees to take on additional responsibilities and make decisions within a specific
scope. Joe Brown is: 10) ______
A) outsourcing his staff.
B) empowering his staff.
C) reducing his staff.
D) embracing his staff.
E) none of the above.

11) The third phase of personnel management was concerned largely with: 11) ______
A) benefits administration.
B) corporate contribution and proactive management.
C) corporate contribution.
D) payroll.
 E) health and safety legislation compliance.

12) The ratio of an organization's outputs such as goods and its inputs such as capital is which of the following: 12)
______
A) workforce diversity.
B) productivity.
C) outsourcing.
D) an internal environmental influence.
E) the labour market.

13) Questions concerning ________ are at the core of a growing controversy brought about by the new information
technologies. 13) ______
A) job satisfaction
B) privacy and social responsibility
C) employee stress levels
D) data control, accuracy, right to privacy and ethics
E) speed, accuracy, and efficiency

14) Being completely familiar with employment legislation, HR policies and procedures, collective agreements, and
the outcome of recent arbitration hearings and court decisions is most closely related with which of the following HR
activities? 14) ______
A) serving as a consultant
B) offering advice
C) serving as a change agent
D) formulating policies and procedures
E) providing services

15) Saleem is a new immigrant with a master's degree in management. Despite his qualifications, Saleem has worked
as a clerk in the shipping department of a company for the last year. This is an example of: 15) ______
A) a BFOR.
B) indirect discrimination.
C) underutilization.
D) underemployment.
E) occupational segregation.

16) The PAQ rates jobs on the following dimension: 16) ______
A) safety risks.
B) mental processes and job context.
C) job context.
D) incumbent performance.
E) processing information and incumbent performance.

17) A hiring freeze is all of the following except: 17) ______

A) a solution when demand exceeds supply.
B) a common response to an employee surplus.
C) no outsiders are hired.
 D) when openings are filled by reassigning current employees.
E) a strategy that most employers use initially to balance demand and supply.

18) Information typically found in a job posting includes all of the following EXCEPT: 18) ______
A) the name of the previous incumbent.
B) qualifications required.
C) posting date.
D) pay range.
E) job title.

19) Renu is the human resources professional at a telecommunications company who is tasked with ensuring that the
firm's selection process adheres with the firm's employment equity plan mandated by legislation. Which of the following
must she ensure? 19) ______
A) The process does not have an adverse effect on women or members of certain religious groups.
B) Written authorization is obtained for reference checking.
C) No employees with unsuitable backgrounds are hired.
D) The process does not have an adverse effect on women, persons with disabilities, aboriginal's persons or
visible minorities.
E) The process does not have an adverse effect on women or persons with disabilities.

20) Audiovisual training techniques are useful in the following situations EXCEPT: 20) ______
A) when trainees must be exposed to events that are not easily demonstrated in live lectures.
B) when it is too costly to move trainers from place to place.
C) when a training method less expensive than conventional lectures is needed.
D) when training is going to be used organization-wide.
E) when stop-action, instant-replay, or fast- or slow-motion capabilities are needed.

21) The legal aspects of training may require showing that the admissions procedures are: 21) ______
A) invalid.
B) external.
C) reliable.
D) valid.
E) reviewed regularly.

22) Cultural sensitivity training includes: 22) ______

A) on-the-job training.
B) sensitizing employees to the views of different cultural groups toward work.
C) audiovisual techniques.
D) language training.
E) T-groups.

23) Web-based training costs about ________ less than traditional classroom-based training. 23) ______
A) 40% B) 20% C) 5% D) 50% E) 80%

24) Recent research indicates that implementing a comprehensive onboarding program in a corporation carries the
following additional direct benefit: 24) ______
A) improving employee perceptions of management's leadership abilities.
B) increasing work-life balance for employees.
C) improving management's leadership ability.
D) improving employee perceptions of management's leadership abilities and reducing employee turnover.
E) increasing customer loyalty.
25) Integration at senior levels in the organization requires an ongoing process that can continue for months as the new
executive learns about: 25) ______
A) senior management.
B) performance appraisals.
C) how decisions are made and who holds what type of power.
D) the organizational structure.
E) socialization.

26) A structured process by which individuals become skilled workers through a combination of classroom
instruction and on-the-job training is referred to as: 26) ______
A) vestibule training.
B) computerized training.
C) job instruction training.
D) special assignment training.
E) apprenticeship training.

27) Before getting in front of a camera for videoconferencing, the instructor should: 27) ______
A) practice vestibule training.
B) participate in computerized training.
C) visit other cities where learners will be located.
D) arrive just before going on camera.
E) prepare a training manual for learners.

28) When an employer fails to train adequately this is referred to as: 28) ______
A) on-the-job training.
B) negligent training.
C) affirmative action.
D) simulated training.
E) job instruction training.

29) The technique used when verifying whether there is a significant performance deficiency, and determining if that
deficiency should be rectified through training or by some other means (such as changing the machinery or transferring
the employee), is called: 29) ______
A) motivation analysis.
B) task analysis.
C) performance analysis.
D) employee analysis.
E) training analysis.

30) The state which results from the discrepancy between what the new employee expected from his or her new job and
the realities of it is: 30) ______
A) socialization.
B) job instruction training.
 C) mentoring.
D) reality shock.
E) affirmative action.

31) Training is part of an organization's: 31) ______

A) tactical plan.
B) business plan.
C) strategic plan.
D) business need.
E) immediate plan.

32) One approach to the evaluation of orientation programs is: 32) ______
A) regression analysis.
B) cost-benefit analysis.
C) case studies.
D) Markov analysis.
E) quality circles.

33) Training is essentially a (n): 33) ______

A) memorizing process.
B) testing process.
C) learning process.
D) assessment process.
E) technical process.

34) The heart of the task analysis record form is the column in which: 34) ______
A) the task is listed.
B) the standards of performance for each task and subtask are listed.
C) the competencies and specific skills or knowledge required for each of the tasks and subtasks are listed.
D) there is an indication of whether the task is learned best on- or off-the-job.
E) the job's main tasks and subtasks are listed.

35) An important key to successful executive integration is: 35) ______

A) the realization that executives rarely experience reality shock.
B) to let executives integrate on their own initiative.
C) stressing the importance of listening as well as demonstrating competency.
D) stressing the importance of listening as well as demonstrating competency and identifying position
specifications.
E) norms of the organization must be understood before the first day of work.

36) A selection ratio is: 36) ______

A) the ratio of the total number of applicants hired to the total number of applicants.
B) the ratio of the number of offers extended to the total number of applicants.
C) the ratio of the total number of applicants to the number of applicants hired.
D) the ratio of the number of interviews successfully completed to the total number of applicants.
E) the cost per hire.
37) Examples of strategies used in a typical assessment centre include all of the following EXCEPT: 37) ______
A) on-the-job training.
B) individual presentations.
C) a leaderless group discussion.
D) objective tests.
E) an in-basket exercise.

38) Micro-assessment focuses on: 38) ______

A) group performance.
B) individual performance.
C) verbal questions.
D) computer-based questions.
E) paper-based questions.

39) Each of the following statements about the legal issues involved in obtaining and providing reference information
is true EXCEPT: 39) ______
A) The defence of "qualified privilege" protects reference givers, regardless of the circumstances.
B) Many companies are adopting a "no reference" policy.
C) As long as reference information is honest, fair, and candid, reference givers are legally protected.
D) Failure to check references can lead to negligent or wrongful hiring suits.
E) Even if negative information is given, if it is imparted in a fair and honest manner, the reference giver is
legally protected.

40) The selection decision-making technique which involves identifying the most valid predictors and weighting them
through statistical methods such as multiple regression is called: 40) ______
A) statistical strategy.
B) clinical strategy.
C) benchmark approach.
D) multiple-evaluation approach.
E) multiple-hurdle strategy.

41) Behavioural questions describe: 41) ______

A) preset candidate reactions.
B) hypothetical situations.
C) various situations experienced in the past.
D) candidate personality
E) future behaviour.

42) Personality tests can measure basic aspects of an applicant's personality, which include all of the following
EXCEPT: 42) ______
A) motivation.
B) stability.
C) dexterity.
D) neurotic tendency.
E) introversion.

43) Which interview format involves a series of preset questions asked of all candidates and a series of preset
candidate-specific questions? 43) ______
A) situational
B) behavioural
 C) structured
D) nondirective
E) mixed

44) Nonverbal behaviours often account for more than ________ percent of the applicant's rating. 44) ______
A) 50 B) 80 C) 60 D) 40 E) 70

45) The two- to three-day strategy used to assess candidates' management potential is known as: 45) ______
A) a managerial aptitude test.
B) an in-basket exercise.
C) a management assessment centre.
D) a leaderless group discussion.
E) a supervisory interest inventory.

46) All of the following are reasons that employers may include a medical examination as a step in the selection
process EXCEPT: 46) ______
A) to provide documentation to justify not hiring a qualified individual with a physical disability that would
prevent him or her from performing the essential job duties.
B) to reduce absenteeism and accidents.
C) to establish a baseline for future insurance or compensation claims.
D) to determine that the applicant qualifies for the physical requirements of the position.
E) There are no exceptions listed above.

47) While ________ interviews ask interviewees to describe how they would react in a given situation, ________
interviews ask candidates to describe how they did react in that situation in the past. 47) ______
A) structured; situational
B) situational; behavioural
C) behavioural,;situational
D) nondirective; behavioural
E) stress; situational

48) Tests that measure an individual's potential to perform a job, provided he or she is given proper training, are
known as: 48) ______
A) intelligence tests.
B) interest inventories.
C) aptitude tests.
D) achievement tests.
E) personality tests.

49) Which is true of the interview question: "How would you handle an angry customer?" 49) ______
A) It tests knowledge and experience.
B) It tests intellectual capacity.
C) It is an example of behavioural interviewing.
D) It is a situational question which tests knowledge and experience.
E) It is a situational question.

50) Interest inventories are tests that: 50) ______

A) compare a candidate's interests with those of people in various occupations.
B) measure basic elements of personality.
C) measure job performance directly.
D) measure knowledge and/or proficiency.
E) apply to extroversion and emotional stability.
 51) The interview format that may seem quite mechanical to all concerned is known as: 51) ______
A) mixed.
B) nondirective.
C) stress-producing.
D) structured.
E) unstructured.

52) Employers may use a recruiting yield pyramid for each recruitment method to determine the: 52) ______
A) amount of lead time needed to hire the required number of new employees.
B) number of applicants that must be attracted to hire the required number of new employees.
C) projected turnover rate.
D) number of applicants failing the recruiting and selecting process.
E) number of applicants rejected.

53) Identifying which job requirements should be filled internally and which externally is most closely associated
with: 53) ______
A) building a pool of candidates.
B) a human resources requisition form.
C) HR planning.
D) determining the job requirements.
E) choosing the appropriate recruitment method(s).

54) Nepotism is a problem most closely associated with: 54) ______

A) employee referrals.
B) educational institutions.
C) write-ins.
D) human resource centres.
E) walk-ins.

55) When job openings arise unexpectedly these openings are identified by: 55) ______
A) manager request.
B) choosing the appropriate recruitment source(s) and method(s).
C) building a pool of candidates.
D) human resources planning.
E) determining the job requirements.

56) Summer internship programs: 56) ______

A) produce win-win results, but students benefit more.
B) are expensive to assess students.
C) have one objective only: to allow students to obtain business experience.
D) hire college and/or university students to complete summer projects before they graduate.
E) frequently offer permanent positions following graduation if interns have excellent performance.

57) Popularity of Internet job boards among job seekers is high due to: 57) ______
A) the technological requirements of the Internet.
B) the types of job postings available.
C) the number of job postings available on one site.
D) they are not popular.
E) the features of the job boards.

58) External recruitment often results in: 58) ______

A) higher costs due to extensive training.
 B) rivalry and competition among employees.
C) the generation of a homogeneous pool of applicants.
D) problems in meeting employment equity goals.
E) cost savings due to less extensive training.

59) Corporate Web sites can help the company create a pool of candidates who have: 59) ______
A) replied to a specific ad in print.
B) already worked with the company.
C) already filled out an application form.
D) already been prescreened.
E) already expressed interest in the organization.

60) Online recruitment: 60) ______

A) does increase hiring speed, and therefore reduces the costs of vacant positions.
B) reduces hiring speed but does reduce the costs of vacant positions.
C) reduces the use of the Intranet and Internet technology.
D) increases hiring speed, and therefore increases the costs of vacant positions.
E) reduces hiring speed because of technological complexities.

61) Job fair events would not allow: 61) ______

A) computer technology can be used; some job fairs are held on-line.
B) in-depth assessment of candidates.
C) recruiters to share information about the organization.
D) recruiters to share job opportunities in an informal, relaxed setting.
E) top prospects to be invited to visit the firm at a later date.

62) Firms use application service providers to power their career Web sites so that the company: 62) ______
A) can reduce recruitment costs.
B) does not have to worry about maintaining or updating the recruiting software.
C) can allow the HR department to focus on tactical recruitment efforts.
D) can reduce recruitment costs.
E) can worry about administering recruiting software only.

63) The four-point guide should be used to construct an ad. The guide is called: 63) ______
A) IDA.
B) PA.
C) AIDA.
D) DA.
E) none of the above.

64) All of the following statements about contract workers are true EXCEPT: 64) ______
A) Some have consciously made a decision to work for themselves.
B) Some have found themselves out of a full-time job due to cutbacks.
C) Some contractors are individuals who have been unable to obtain full-time work.
D) Contract workers tend to have high employer commitment.
E) Many professionals with specialized skills become contract workers.

65) Recruiters must try to meet the prevailing standards while dealing with: 65) ______
A) organizational policies.
 B) environmental factors.
C) the job specifications.
D) recruiter preferences.
E) inducements of competitors.

66) Skills inventories are: 66) ______

A) always used instead of job postings.
B) often used as a supplement to job postings.
C) only computerized.
D) used for employee training.
E) not useful unless there is a unique job being applied for.

67) A major Canadian automaker has laid off 20% of its workforce over the course of 2 years. You are the HR
professional responsible for surveying the employees remaining with the company to determine their level of
engagement and job satisfaction. The survey responses indicate that many employees are experiencing feelings of
guilt and detachment. What these employees are likely experiencing is known as: 67) ______
A) survivor-guilt syndrome.
B) a negative work ethic.
C) reality shock.
D) employee apathy.
E) survivor sickness.

68) A pictorial representation of all jobs within the organization, along with the number of current incumbents and
future employment requirements, is known as: 68) ______
A) a replacement chart.
B) a scatter plot.
C) a staffing table.
D) an organization chart.
E) a skills inventory.

69) The guarantee by the employer to pay specified compensation and benefits in the case of termination due to
downsizing or restructuring is known as: 69) ______
A) a golden parachute clause.
B) a severance package.
C) wage protection insurance.
D) supplemental unemployment benefits.
E) a guaranteed annual wage.

70) Each of the following statements about local labour markets is true EXCEPT: 70) ______
A) They are affected by community growth rates and attitudes.
B) In communities experiencing population increases, it is often impossible to attract new business.
C) Provincial/local development and planning agencies can be excellent sources of local labour market
information.
D) One reason growing cities are attractive to employers is the promise of large future labour markets.
E) Chambers of commerce can be excellent sources of local labour market information.

71) Each of the following statements about the relationship between HRP and strategic planning is true EXCEPT: 71)
______
 A) HRP has long been part of the strategic planning process.
B) failure to integrate HRP and strategic planning can have very serious consequences.
C) HRP and strategic planning become effective when there is a reciprocal and interdependent relationship
between them.
D) environmental scanning is a critical component of both HRP and strategic planning.
E) determining whether or not people will be available is a critical element of strategic planning.

72) Demographic trends have a significant impact on: 72) ______

A) local labour market conditions.
B) occupational market conditions.
C) national labour market conditions.
D) unemployment rates.
E) general economic conditions.

73) Permitting a group to critically evaluate a wide range of views is an advantage of which forecasting technique? 73)
______
A) an informal expert forecast
B) the nominal group technique
C) a formal expert forecast
D) managerial judgment
E) the Delphi technique

74) Factors that should be taken into account when determining an appropriate severance package include all of the
following EXCEPT: 74) ______
A) salary.
B) ethnic origin.
C) the individual's likelihood of obtaining alternative employment.
D) age.
E) years of service.

75) You have been hired as the Director of HR at Targus Inc., a clothing retailer. Due to a reduction in consumer demand
you have been asked to advise management on how to reduce the amount of staff by 5% over the next 2 years. Although
a slow method for reducing numbers the option which generally presents the least amount of problems is: 75) ______
A) laying off employees.
B) introducing a reduced work week.
C) offering attractive buyout packages.
D) downsizing through attrition.
E) offering attractive early-retirement packages.

76) Effective HRP helps an organization to do all of the following EXCEPT: 76) ______
A) make major labour market demands more successfully.
B) achieve its goals and objectives.
C) comply with privacy laws.
D) plan and coordinate recruitment, selection, training, and career planning more effectively.
E) anticipate and avoid shortages and surpluses of human resources.

77) A ________ illustrates the relationship between two factors: a measure of business activity and staffing levels.
77) ______
 A) trend analysis
B) regression analysis
C) time-series analysis
D) ratio analysis
E) scatter plot

78) The drawbacks of which forecasting technique include subjectivity and the potential for group pressure to lead to
less accurate assessments than could be obtained through other means? 78) ______
A) a formal expert forecast.
B) the Delphi technique.
C) an informal expert forecast.
D) the nominal group technique.
E) managerial judgment.

79) Which of the following statements is true? 79) ______

A) The number of young people in the Canadian labour force is now increasing.
B) Probably the most significant environmental factor in HRP in Canada today relates to dramatic changes in
labour-force composition.
C) Effective HRP involves focusing on monitoring trends only.
D) By 2010, one in two Canadians will be age 50 or older.
E) Currently, the fastest growing groups in the Canadian labour force are visible minorities and persons with
disabilities.

80) To project the supply of outside candidates, employers generally assess all of the following EXCEPT: 80) ______
A) local labour market conditions.
B) competitors' strategies.
C) general economic conditions.
D) occupational market conditions.
E) national labour market conditions.

81) External environmental factors that are most frequently monitored in HR and strategic planning include all of the
following EXCEPT: 81) ______
A) new or revised laws.
B) demographic trends.
C) market and competitive trends.
D) economic conditions.
E) international trade patterns.

82) SUBS: 82) ______

A) decrease income levels when on the job.
B) are benefits that are paid indefinitely.
C) are usually provided to non-union employees.
D) increase income levels when on the job.
E) top up employment insurance.

83) The job analysis method that rates each job in terms of the incumbent's responsibilities pertaining to data,
people, and things is known as: 83) ______
 A) a participant diary/log.
B) PAQ.
C) direct observation.
D) functional job analysis.
E) a structured survey.

84) "No more than three posting errors per month occur on average." Which component of the job description
would this statement belong to? 84) ______
A) job identification
B) responsibilities and duties
C) relationships
D) performance standards
E) job summary

85) Lee has been with a financial institution for over a year now as a call centre specialist. During his time he has had
the opportunity to work in two other departments. The organization adopts a similar technique with other
employees in the call centre. This is known as: 85) ______
A) vertical loading.
B) job enlargement.
C) job rotation.
D) skill variety.
E) job enrichment.

86) An organization chart is often used to depict the structure of an organization. The chart is also used to: 86)
______
A) clarify the chain of command and show who is accountable to whom.
B) present a "snapshot" of the firm at a particular point in time.
C) indicate the types of departments established in the firm.
D) specify duties and responsibilities.
E) There are no exceptions listed above.

87) Which of the following statements related to legal compliance is true? 87) ______
A) If a candidate is unable to work on Friday evenings due to religious beliefs, and rotating shifts are a job
requirement specified in the working conditions subsection of the job description, the reasonable
accommodation provisions of human rights legislation do not apply.
B) Canadian employers are legally obligated to have job descriptions.
C) If a candidate is unable to perform one or more of the essential job duties due to a physical disability, it is
legally permissible for an employer to refuse to hire that individual.
D) Indicating the percentage of time spent on each duty can help to differentiate between essential and
nonessential tasks and responsibilities.
E) When assessing suitability for employment, employers can assess factors other than those related to the
knowledge, skills and abilities required for the essential job duties.

88) Which of the following is true of work simplification? 88) ______

A) It increases autonomy.
B) Among educated workers it often leads to lower job satisfaction and a demand for premium pay.
C) Among educated workers it often leads to lower job satisfaction.
D) It enhances skill variety.
E) It often leads to lower job satisfaction.

89) A list of a job's duties, responsibilities, reporting relationships, and working conditions is known as: 89) ______
A) the job standards.
 B) a job specification.
C) a job description.
D) a position analysis.
E) a job analysis questionnaire.

90) The procedure for determining the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job and the human attributes required
to perform it is known as: 90) ______
A) writing a job specification.
B) job evaluation.
C) job design.
D) job analysis.
E) preparing a job description.

91) By comparing the knowledge, skills and abilities that employees bring to the job with those that are identified
through job analysis, managers can determine the gap that exists. This is particularly useful for: 91) ______
A) determining a job's pay range.
B) establishing recruitment criteria.
C) training and development.
D) union negotiations.
E) designing the job.

92) The subsection of the job description that describes contact with others, inside and outside the organization, is
titled: 92) ______
A) job summary.
B) working conditions.
C) job identification.
D) relationships.
E) authority.

93) A qualitative approach to job analysis is more suitable when: 93) ______
A) the aim is to reduce the amount of data collection.
B) the organization is using external consultants for job analysis purposes.
C) the aim is to assign a value to each job for comparisons for pay purposes.
D) the organization has limited time and financial resources.
E) the organization exceeds 200 in staff strength.

94) A written statement of what the jobholder actually does, how he or she does it, and under what conditions the
job is performed, is known as: 94) ______
A) a job description.
B) the job standards.
C) a job specification.
D) a job evaluation.
E) a job analysis.

95) The most widely used method for determining the duties and responsibilities of a job is: 95) ______
A) direct observation.
B) a survey questionnaire.
C) a position analysis questionnaire.
D) a participant diary/log.
E) an interview.

96) Which of the following would not be included in the subsection of the job description titled "working
 conditions"? 96) ______
A) amount of travel
B) equipment failure
C) frequency of interruptions
D) noise level
E) hazardous conditions

97) The problem of exaggeration of some activities and underplaying of others is minimized by the detailed,
chronological nature of: 97) ______
A) a position analysis questionnaire.
B) an individual interview.
C) a survey questionnaire.
D) functional job analysis.
E) a participant diary/log.

98) The first step in the job analysis process is: 98) ______
A) reviewing relevant background information about positions and jobs.
B) identifying the use to which the information will be put.
C) selecting the representative jobs and positions to be analyzed.
D) designing a job analysis questionnaire.
E) developing a job description and job specification.

99) A tuition reimbursement program is an example of: 99) ______

A) an employment equity policy.
B) a supportive measure.
C) a positive measure.
D) an employment equity timetable.
E) an accommodation measure.

100) Which of the following covers the joint responsibility shared by workers and employers to maintain a hazard-free
environment and to enhance the health and safety of workers? 100) _____
A) human rights legislation
B) safety and WHMIS legislation
C) employment equity legislation
D) occupational health and safety legislation
E) employment/labour standards legislation

101) The Charter of Rights and Freedoms and the rights it contains such as freedom of association apply to: 101)
_____
A) actions of all governments and all employers.
B) actions of the federal government only.
C) actions of the federal, provincial and municipal governments.
D) public and private sector employers.
E) private sector employers only.

102) Requesting that an employment agency refer only male candidates for consideration as management trainees is an
example of: 102) _____
 A) a permissible employer practice.
B) systemic discrimination.
C) reverse discrimination.
D) discrimination on the basis of association.
E) discrimination on the basis of gender.

103) The term that applies to data-tracking designated group members by employment transactions and outcomes
is: 103) _____
A) an employment systems review.
B) utilization data.
C) transactional analysis.
D) flow data.
E) stock data.

104) Examples of systemic discrimination include: 104) _____

A) refusing to hire persons convicted of a crime in Canada.
B) refusing to hire persons of Asian origin.
C) internal or word-of-mouth hiring policies in work places that have not embraced diversity.
D) job-related employment tests.
E) lack of explicit anti-harassment guidelines and internal or word-of-mouth hiring policies in work places
that have not embraced diversity.

105) All jurisdictions in Canada prohibit discrimination on the grounds of: 105) _____
A) national or ethnic origin.
B) race.
C) length of employment
D) sexual orientation.
E) criminal history.

106) Comparison data must also be collected on the number of designated group members available in the labour
markets from which the organization recruits. This data may be obtained from: 106) _____
A) workers compensation boards.
B) women's directorates.
C) Statistics Canada and women's directorates.
D) Statistics Canada.
E) provincial legislatures.

107) Asking young female factory-position applicants to demonstrate their lifting skills and not asking older female
candidates or any male candidates to do so is an example of: 107) _____
A) discrimination on the basis of age and race.
B) a permissible employer practice.
C) discrimination on the basis of age and gender.
D) discrimination on the basis of age.
E) unintentional direct discrimination.

108) Deliberately refusing to hire, train, or promote an individual on the basis of age is an example of: 108) _____
A) intentional/direct discrimination.
B) unintentional discrimination.
 C) discrimination on the basis of association.
D) intentional indirect discrimination.
E) systemic discrimination.

109) Visible minority group members also made some progress in their representation in the federal private sector.
Their representation: 109) _____
A) more than doubled from 4.9% in 1987 to 13.3% in 2004.
B) more than doubled from 8% in 1987 to 15% in 2001.
C) more than tripled from 4.9% in 1987 to 11.7% in 2001.
D) is higher than their estimated availability.
E) more than tripled from 8% in 1987 to 15% in 2001.

110) A supervisor informing an employee that refusal to grant sexual favours will result in a poor performance rating
is an example of:
A) executive privilege.
B) sexual annoyance.
C) a job related annoyance.
D) sexual coercion.
E) a BFOR.

111) To ensure that no one experiences feelings of alienation, firms have established:
A) policies.
B) diversity training for management.
C) support groups.
D) publications.
E) diversity audits.

112) Refusing to hire a man convicted and pardoned for a drug-related offence as a counsellor at a federal
correctional centre is an example of:
A) intentional direct discrimination.
B) systemic discrimination.
C) a permissible employer practice under all human rights legislation.
D) pro-active recruitment.
E) protection against negligent hiring.