BREAK UP OF QUESTIONS

UNIT Topic No. of Questions

India Foreign Policy 1
India and Neighborhood 6
India and Extended Neighborhood 3
India and Major Powers-USA, Russia, China, Etc. 5
India and other Bilateral Relations 2
India and Groupings 10
1. International
Rigional Groupings 10
Relations
International Organisations 10
Miscellaneous Topics 10
Indices and Reports 5
Places in News 8
Exercises and Operations 5
Total 75
Polity and Governance 8
Economy 10
Geography, Environment, places in news 7
History and culture 3
2. Regional
Programmes and Schmes 22
Personalities in news 5
Awards and Reports 10
Miscellaneous 10
Total 75
GRAND TOTAL 150

Format of questions
QUESTIONS
Regional International Total
Direct Questions 49 43 92
Two Statement Based 14 13 27
Three Statement Based 8 10 18
Four Statement Based 4 6 10
Five Statement Based - 2 2
Six Statement Based - 1 1
Total 75 75 150

AMIGOS IAS 1
 APPSC – GROUP-II, Prelims – TEST 12 (01-02-2024)
1. Recently, the Indian Defence Minister and his
counterpart laid the “Ekatha Harbour”
foundation on his foreign tour to
(1) Maldives (2) Sri Lanka
(3) Mauritius (4) Seychelles
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Ekatha Harbour:
• The Indian Defence Minister and his
Maldivian counterpart laid the “Ekatha
Harbour” foundation.
• Ekatha Harbour is being constructed in the
Maldives for the Maldives National
Defence Forces Coast Guard.
• The Harbour is being constructed at
Sifavaru in Uthuru Thila Falhu (UTF) atoll.
• India is assisting in the construction of the
naval dockyard, and it is regarded as one
of India's most significant grant-in-aid
projects.
• The Indian Defence Minister also gave the
Maldives National Defence Forces Coast
Guard an additional landing craft in line
with India’s vision of security and growth
for all in the region (SAGAR).
• Maldives is said to be one of India’s crucial
maritime neighbors in the Indian Ocean
Region (IOR), and the Indian government
is looking to expand ties with Male in
areas of defence and security amid China’s
efforts to expand its influence in the
region.
• The Ministers have agreed to explore
additional avenues for cooperation,
including in defence trade, capacity
building and joint exercises.
2. Which of the following statements is
incorrect with respect to the “Solar
Technology and Application Resource
Centers (STAR-C)" initiative?”
(1) The programme aims to boost solar power
ecosystems in the poorest countries.
(2) The initiative is run by the International
Solar Alliance in partnership with the
United Nations Development Program
(UNDP).
AMIGOS IAS
(3) The project is also funded by France.
(4) The first three STAR-C centres are being
set up in India, Morocco, and South Africa.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• India is considering expanding its Solar
Technology and Application Resource
Centres (STAR -C) initiative to a number of
Pacific Island countries.
About STAR-C Initiative:
• The program aims to boost solar power
ecosystems in the poorest countries.
• The initiative is run by the International
Solar Alliance in partnership with the
United Nations Industrial Development
Organisation (UNIDO). Hence, Option 2 is
incorrect.
• The first three STAR-C centres are being
set up in India, Morocco, and South Africa.
• The centres are expected to be
operational by 2024.
• It aims to create a strong network of
institutional capacities within ISA member
states to enhance quality infrastructure
for the uptake of solar energy products
and services.
• The project is also funded by France.
Programme’s objectives:
• Building solar workforces, standardizing
products, setting up infrastructure, and
raising awareness among policymakers in
developing countries.
• Through this initiative, India aims to
enhance the institutional capacities of
International Solar Alliance member
states and contribute to the development
of quality infrastructure for solar energy
uptake.
3. “Zangnam”, often in the news, is a bone of
contention between
(1) India and China (2) India and Pakistan
(3) India and Sri Lanka (4) India and Maldives
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• China’s move to rename eleven places in
Arunachal Pradesh.
2
 • China has renamed eleven places in India’s
Arunachal Pradesh, which they consider
to be “Zangnam” or “South Tibet” (in
English).
• It is claimed that the move to
“standardise” names in Zangnam
“completely falls within China’s
sovereignty”.
4. “Junta Regime," often seen in news, is
associated with which of the following
countries?
(1) Niger (2) Myanmar
(3) Pakistan (4) Bangladesh
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• A junta regime is composed of military
officers who seize ruling power in a
country. It may be seen as a subset of
military rule, as the primary institution
driving a junta government is the military.
• The junta government led by military
leader Min Aung Hlaing of Myanmar is a
classic example.
• The Myanmar junta usurped power
through a coup in February 2021, refusing
to recognise the elections in which former
State Counsellor Aung San Suu Kyi’s
National League for Democracy (NLD) had
a landslide victory.
5. Which of the following countries is a
signatory to the “Convention on Cluster
Munitions”?
(1) Germany (2) USA
(3) Russia (4) India
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Context:
 “Amidst the U.S. sending cluster
munitions to aid Ukraine, explore legality,
history, and humanitarian concerns of
these weapons.”
About Cluster Munitions:
• Definition: Cluster munitions, also known
as cluster bombs, release multiple
bomblets upon deployment.
• Impact: Bomblets explode on impact or
remain dormant, posing ongoing dangers
to civilians.
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• Controversy: Sending cluster munitions
from the U.S. to Ukraine sparks global
debate.
History of Cluster Munitions:
• Origin: Used since WWII; notable
instances of use in Vietnam, Afghanistan,
and Iraq.
• Toll: Cluster munitions linked to 56,000 to
86,000 deaths in affected areas since the
1960s.
Convention on Cluster Munitions and its
Members:
• Creation: The Convention on Cluster
Munitions (CCM) was established in May
2008.
• Signatories: 112 countries, including
NATO nations like Canada, Germany,
France, and the UK.
• Non-Signatories: Key players like the U.S.,
Russia, China, Israel, and India haven’t
joined.
• Obligations: CCM bans use, production,
stockpiling, and transfer; mandates victim
assistance.
6. What was theme of the Andhra Pradesh
government’s two-day Global Investors
Summit 2023, held on March 3 and 4 at
Visakhapatnam?
(1) Advantage Andhra Pradesh-Where
Fortune Meets Prosperity.
(2) Advantage Andhra Pradesh-Where
Abundance Meets Prosperity.
(3) Sun Rise Andhra Pradesh- Where
Abundance Meets Prosperity.
(4) Advantage Andhra Pradesh-Where
Investments progress Prosperity.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Andhra Pradesh government conducted a
two-day Global Investors Summit 2023 on
March 3 and 4 at Visakhapatnam.
• The theme of the summit is "Advantage
Andhra Pradesh – Where Abundance
Meets Prosperity.
• The CM said the state government had
formed a monitoring committee to ensure
that the MoUs, worth Rs 13 lakh crore,
resulted in the starting of units.
Commensurate with the overwhelmingly
2
 positive business sentiment, we have 8.
executed 352 MOUs with an investment
commitment of over Rs 13,05,663 crore
and employment potential of over
6,03,223 persons.
• In the energy sector alone, 40 MoUs have
been signed worth Rs 8,84,823 crore of
investment that will create employment
for 1,90,268 people. In the IT and ITES
sectors, 56 MoUs have been signed,
amounting to Rs 25,587 crore of
investment and generating employment
for 1,04,442 persons.
• In the tourism sector, 117 MoUs have
been signed for an investment to the tune
of Rs 22,096 crore that will create
employment for 30,787 people.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/busine
ss/ap-govt-concludes-2-day-global-
investors-summit-8479763/
7. The Department of Agriculture in Andhra
Pradesh won the Skoch Award (silver) in 2023
9.
for its initiative in promoting?
(1) Rythu Bharosa Kendralu
(2) e-crop system
(3) Community Managed Natural Farming
(4) Polambadi Program
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The department of agriculture in Andhra
Pradesh won the Skoch Award (silver) for
its initiative in promoting e-crop
applications for the year 2023. The awards
were presented in a programme held in
Delhi.
• The special commissioner said that the
award was presented to AP for its
initiative in using digital Android
technology for an e-crop system to
identify farmers on the field and register
crops. The e-crop details are displayed on
notice boards at Gram Sabhas. The e-crop
system will help to get crop information
on a single platform.
Source:
https://www.thehansindia.com/andhra-
pradesh/prakasam-police-receive-skoch-
award-778514?infinitescroll=1
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Who is the current executive chairman of the
State Legal Services Authority of Andhra
Pradesh?
(1) Dhiraj Singh Thakur
(2) Akula Venkata Sesha Sai
(3) Upmaka Durga Prasad Rao
(4) Cheekati Manavendranath Roy
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The executive chairman of the State Legal
Services Authority and Andhra Pradesh
High Court judge Justice Akula Venkata
Sesha Sai said on May 7 that early justice
could be possible through the legal service
authority. He was inaugurating the Nyaya
Seva Sadan Bhavan in
Rajamahendravaram city.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/nation
al/andhra-pradesh/early-justice-possible-
with-legal-services-authority-high-court-
judge/article66823859.ece
Adhra Pradesh assigned lands (prohibition of
transfers) (amendment) ordinance, 2023,
permitted to sell the assigned land after a
period of
(1) 5 years (2) 10 years
(3) 15 years (4) 20 years
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• AP Assigned Lands (Prohibition of
Transfers) Act, 1977 is a protective
legislation and it prohibits the transfer of
lands assigned to landless poor persons
for the purpose of cultivation and
provides for restoration of such
transferred lands to the original assignee
and also for punishment to those
acquiring such lands.
• The condition of non-alienability of
assigned lands impacted the poorest of
the poor by preventing them from making
use of the same for emergent family
needs.
• AP government constituted a committee
under the chairmanship revenue minister
to examine the issue of the right to sell the
assigned lands for the welfare and
financial ease of the assignees.
3
 • The committee, after examining the
relevant revenue laws enforced in the
neighboring states and the ground
situation in the state, recommended inter
alia that the original assignee or his/her
legal heir may be permitted to alienate the
assigned land after a period of 20 years
from the date of assignment as per the
procedure prescribed and without
reference to the government.
• The promulgation of the AP assigned lands
(prohibition of transfers) (amendment)
ordinance, 2023 (AP ordinance 9 of 2023)
by the governor on July 27, 2023.
• With the passing of this bill, the assigned
landowners would get full rights on their
lands if they have completed 20 years.
Source:
https://www.deccanchronicle.com/natio
n/politics/260923/grant-of-rights-to-
assigned-lands-beneficiaries-historical-
other-stat.html
10. Which of the following products are matched
correctly with their district of origin?
I. Uppada Jamdani sarees: Kakinada
II. Udayagiri wooden cutlery: Nellore
III. Coir products: BR Ambedkar Konaseema.
Select the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
(3) Only I and III (4) All the above
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• One District, One Product (ODOP)
programme, unveiled by the Department
for Promotion of Industry and Internal
Trade (DPIIT). This was aimed at fostering
the socio-economic development of all
the districts across the country.
• Andhra Pradesh has submitted 26
applications from fields like textiles,
handicrafts, handlooms, fisheries, and
industrial products for the One District,
One Product (ODOP) Awards panel. Of
these, 14 products from AP are among the
64 shortlisted for the next stage of
selection.
• The 14 products of AP were the
Mangalagiri Handloom Sarees of Guntur,
the Pulagurtha clothing, shirting & sarees
AMIGOS IAS
of East Godavari, the Uppada Jamdani
sarees of Kakinada, the frozen shrimp of
Bapatla, the Bobbili Veena of
Vizianagaram, the Udayagiri wooden
cutlery of Nellore, and the coconut and
coir products of BR Ambedkar Konaseema
district.
• It is shrimp in Visakhapatnam, handloom
silk sarees in Kurnool, Madanapalle silk
sarees in Annamayya, Araku Coffee in
Alluri Sitarama Raju district, silk sarees in
Sri Satya Sai, Ponduru cotton sarees in
Srikakulam and Venkatagiri handlooms in
Tirupati.
Source:
https://www.deccanchronicle.com/natio
n/current-affairs/191023/14-andhra-
pradesh-products-shortlisted-for-odop-
awards-2023-24.html
11. Which of the following countries has not
signed Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with
India till date?
(1) Australia (2) Singapore
(3) United Kingdom (4) Japan
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 India has signed 13 Free Trade
Agreements (FTAs) – Sri Lanka, SAFTA,
Nepal, Bhutan, Thailand, Singapore,
ASEAN, South Korea, Japan, Malaysia,
Mauritius, UAE, Australia.
12. India made its first-ever payment for oil in
rupees to which of the following countries?
(1) Saudi Arabia (2) Qatar
(3) USA (4) UAE
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• India, the world’s third-largest energy
consumer, made its first-ever payment in
rupees for crude oil purchased from the
United Arab Emirates (UAE), signalling
what could be a strategic push to promote
the local currency globally.
• India and the United Arab Emirates (UAE)
have signed a pact to establish a
framework to promote the use of the
rupee and UAE Dirham (AED) for cross-
border transactions.
• The MoU on establishing a framework for
the use of local currencies for transactions
4
 between India and the UAE, aims to put in
place a Local Currency Settlement System
to promote the use of INR (Indian rupee)
and AED (UAE Dirham) bilaterally.
• The framework for the use of local
currencies for transactions between India
and the UAE aims to put in place a Local
Currency Settlement System (LCSS). The
creation of the LCSS would enable
exporters and importers to invoice and
pay in their respective domestic
currencies, which in turn would enable the
development of an INR-AED foreign
exchange market.
• This arrangement would also promote
investments and remittances between the
two countries. The use of local currencies
would optimize transaction costs and
settlement time for transactions,
including for remittances from Indians
residing in the UAE.
13. “The East Turkestan Islamic Movement
(ETIM)” is a militant separatist group based
in?
(1) China (2) Turkmenistan
(3) Russia (4) Kazakhstan
Answer: 1
Explanation:
East Turkestan Islamic Movement (ETIM) :
• The East Turkestan Islamic Movement
(ETIM) is a militant separatist group based
in China’s Xinjiang region, which seeks to
establish an independent state called East
Turkestan.
• The Chinese government has accused
ETIM of carrying out several terrorist
attacks in Xinjiang and other parts of
China. China has also claimed that the
group has links with other terrorist
organizations such as Al-Qaeda and the
Taliban.
• The United Nations has designated ETIM
as a terrorist organization, and several
countries, including the United States and
the European Union, have also listed the
group as a terrorist organization.
• India has expressed concern about the
activities of ETIM, particularly in the
context of its growing ties with Pakistan-
based militant groups.
AMIGOS IAS
14. Consider the following pairs with respect to
India’s rescue Operations:
I. Ganga: Yemen
II. Kaveri: Sudan
III. Operation Ajay: Ukraine
Which of the above pair(s) is/are matched
correctly?
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Only III (4) All I, II, III
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Operation Ganga was an evacuation
mission carried out by the Indian
government to rescue its citizens stranded
in neighboring countries during the 2022
Russian invasion of Ukraine.
• Operation Kaveri is a codename for India’s
evacuation effort to bring back its citizens
stranded in Sudan amid intense fighting
between the army and a rival paramilitary
force in April 2023.
• Operation Devi Shakti was an operation of
the Indian Armed Forces to evacuate
Indian citizens and foreign nationals from
Afghanistan after the collapse of the
Islamic Republic of Afghanistan and the
fall of Kabul to the Taliban.
• India initiated “Operation Ajay” to
evacuate its citizens from Israel.
15. “Initiative on Critical and Emerging
Technologies (iCET)” is a co-production of jet
engines, long-range artillery, and infantry
between India and which of the following
countries?
(1) Russia (2) France
(3) USA (4) Australia
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Recently, India and the United States have
taken a significant step towards
strengthening their strategic partnership
and driving technology and defense
cooperation. Under the Initiative on
Critical and Emerging Technologies (iCET),
the two nations have unveiled a roadmap
for enhanced collaboration in high-
technology areas.
• The initiative focuses on addressing
regulatory barriers, aligning export
5
 controls, and fostering deeper
cooperation in critical and emerging fields.
What is the iCET?
• The iCET was announced by India and the
US in May 2022 and was officially
launched in January 2023 and is being run
by the National Security Council of both
countries.
• Under iCET, both countries have identified
six areas of cooperation which would
include co-development and co-
production, which would gradually be
expanded to QUAD, then to NATO,
followed by Europe and the rest of the
world.
• Under iCET, India is ready to share its core
technologies with the US and expects
Washington to do the same.
• It aims to promote collaboration in critical
and emerging technology areas, including
AI, quantum computing, semiconductors,
and wireless telecommunication.
16. The “Tiger 108 Operation” in Andhra Pradesh
is related?
(1) To conserve 108 tigers in Andhra Pradesh
with a state-specific plan.
(2) To trace the missing mother tiger in
Nandyal District.
(3) To provide toll-free number to call forest
officials in case of any road accidents
involving tigers.
(4) To provide ambulance services to tigers
within wildlife sanctuaries.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Andhra Pradesh forest department has
launched 'Tiger 108' operation.
• Tiger 108 was to trace the missing mother
tiger of the four cubs found at
Gummadapuram village in Kothapalli
mandal in Nandyal district.
Source:
https://www.thehansindia.com/andhra-
pradesh/nandyal-tiger-108-operation-
launched-to-trace-mother-tiger-786892
17. Consider the following statements with
reference to “Erra Matti Dibbalu (Red Sand
Dunes)”.
I. They are located in East Godavari District,
along the Bay of Bengal coast.
AMIGOS IAS
II. It is a designated National Geological
Heritage Monument Site of India by the
Geological Survey of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Despite its scientific and cultural
significance, Erra Matti Dibbalu (Red Sand
Dunes), nestled between Vishakhapatnam
and Bhimunipatnam, is facing escalating
threats that put its unique features at risk.
Hence, Statement I is not correct.
• Designated as one of the 34 notified
National Geological Heritage Monument
Sites of India by the Geological Survey of
India in 2016, the Erra Matti Dibbalu
stands as a testament to Earth’s evolution,
providing valuable insights into its history.
Hence, Statement II correct.
• Spanning a length of 5 km along the coast
and nearly 2 km in width, the dunes are
about 16 km from Visakhapatnam.
• Erra Matti Dibbalu is one of the last three
remaining gullied red dune formations in
Southeast Asia, joining similar sites such
as Teri Sands in Tamil Nadu and one more
in Sri Lanka.
• Its rare scientific paleo-coastal red sand
dunes harbour mesolithic and neolithic
materials, marking a first in the country.
Comprising a mixture of silt, clay, and
sand, the distinct red colour arises from
the oxidation of garnets in the earth.
Source:
https://www.newindianexpress.com/xplo
re/2023/Dec/02/navigating-threats-to-
preserve-visakhapatnams-erra-matti-
dibbalu-2638169.html
18. Who is the lyricist for the song "Naatu-
Naatu,” which was recently awarded the Best
Original Song Award at the 95th Academy
Awards in Los Angeles, United States of
America?
(1) Rahul Sipligunj and Kaala Bhairava
(2) Chandrabose
(3) MM Keeravani
(4) SS Rajamouli
Answer: 2
6
 Explanation:
• The RRR film’s ‘Naatu Naatu’ soundtrack
was awarded the Best Original Song
Award at the 95th Academy Awards in Los
Angeles, United States of America.
• The film’s ‘Naatu Naatu’ soundtrack was
awarded the Best Original Song Award at
the 95th Academy Awards in Los Angeles,
United States of America.
Artists behind the song:
• Singers: Rahul Sipligunj and Kaala Bhairava
• Lyricist: Chandrabose
• Composer: MM Keeravani
Source:
https://www.livemint.com/news/india/n
aatu-naatu-from-rrr-wins-oscar-for-
original-song-11678676452086.html
19. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Andhra Pradesh State
Cooperative Bank Limited (APCOB).
I. It has completed its 50 years of inception
in 2023.
II. APCOB never made dividends to the
Government till date.
Which of the above statements is/ are not
correct?
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• The Andhra Pradesh State Cooperative
Bank Limited (APCOB), is a Scheduled
State Cooperative Bank in the state of
Andhra Pradesh included in the second
schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act.,
w.e.f. 16th July 1966 and has been earning
profits for the past 60 years and is placed
in ‘A’ Category consistently in Audit
Classification.
• The Bank is committed to agricultural and
rural development through cooperatives
through trust, integrity and service to the
farming community, since its inception on
4th August 1963 under the Andhra
Pradesh Cooperative Societies (APCS)
Act,1949. Hence, Statement I is incorrect.
• Under the Single Window Credit Delivery
System, The Andhra Pradesh Co-operative
Central Agricultural Development Bank
AMIGOS IAS
Ltd. (APCCADB), which was providing Long
Term Investment Credit to farmers was
merged with The Andhra Pradesh State
Co-operative Bank Ltd. (APCOB), with
effect from 30th April 1994
• Following the NABARD Consultancy
Services (NABCONS) recommendations,
the government amended the 1964 law to
strengthen cooperative banking
governance and appointed professionals
to run APCOB and DCCBs through a
uniform selection process. We also
provided `295 crore as share capital for
DCCBs.
• The AP CM unveiled APCOB’s new logo
and the APCOB Brand Identity Guidelines
(BIG) book. The bank presented him with
a dividend cheque of 55.93crore.
• The AP CM said, "For the first time, APCOB
is giving a dividend to the government,
and I am happy to receive it. This remains
as a special day in the state's cooperative
history." Hence, Statement II is incorrect.
Source1:
https://www.deccanchronicle.com/natio
n/in-other-news/040823/apcob-giving-a-
dividend-for-first-time.html
Source 2: https://apcob.org/
20. Consider the following Padmashree
Awardees with their respective fields of
eminence:
I. Kota Satchidananda Sastry: Art
II. Abbareddy Nageswara Rao: Science and
technology
III. Sankurathri Chandra Sekhar: Social Work
IV. Prakash Chandra Sood: Literature and
Education
Which of the above pairs are correct?
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
(3) Only III and IV (4) All the above
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Seven eminent persons from Andhra
Pradesh are among the 91 selected for the
Padma Shri Awards by the Center.
• Koduri Marakatamani Keeravani,
popularly known as MM Keeravani, hails
from Kovvur in West Godavari district. He
got international recognition for the
popular ‘Naatu Naatu’ song.
7
 • In the social work category, Sankurathri Answer: 2
Chandra Sekhar has the Padma honour. Explanation:
Chandra Sekhar, a biologist with Health • Nepal has declined China’s invitation to
Canada, settled in Ottawa. He lost his wife join President Xi Jinping’s Global Security
and two children in the bombing of an Air Initiative (GSI).
India flight. He decided to move ahead About Global Security Initiative (GSI)
and give his life a new purpose. In 1988,
• The GSI aims to contribute to global peace
he sold his house in Canada and settled
and stability by promoting fairness and
down in his wife’s village in Kakinada. He
justice among nations.
started the Sankurathri Foundation in
• It was launched in April 2022.
1989 with the aim of providing good
health facilities to rural people. • The GSI looks to counter the US Indo-
Pacific strategy and the Quad (India, US,
• In the Science and Engineering category,
Australia, and Japan grouping).
Ganesh Nagappa Krishnarajanagara has
been selected for the award. 22. With which of the following countries does
India have a 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue on
• Ganesh Nagappa, a bioorganic chemist, is
strategic and security issues?
working as the Director of the Indian
Institute of Science Education and I. United States II. Australia
Research, Sri Rama College, Tirupati. III. Japan IV. Russia
Earlier, he worked as a scientist at the Select the correct answer using the options
Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology, given below:
Hyd, and the National Chemical (1) Only I, II, III (2) Only II, III, IV
Laboratory, Pune. He worked as a (3) Only III, IV, I (4) All I, II, III, IV
professor and director at IISER, Pune. He Answer: 4
received the Medal for Young Scientists Explanation:
from the Indian National Science
 India has 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue with the
Academy, Delhi.
US, Australia, Japan and Russia. The
• Abbareddy Nageswara Rao, a dialogue involves foreign and defense
sexagenarian scientist who discovered 33 ministers of both countries.
orchid species in Northeast India, has also
23. Consider the following Awards with their
been selected for the Padma Shri Award.
countries.
• In the arts category, Bhagavathar Kota
Country Award
Satchidananda Sastry of Guntur, a
Burrakatha exponent, and CV Raju, an I. France - Legion of Merit
Etikoppaka artist, have won Padma II. Egypt - Order of Nile
honours. III. Fiji - Companion of Order
• Prakash Chandra Sood, an honorary IV. USA - Grand Cross of the
professor at Sri Sathya Sai Institute of Legion of Honor
Higher Learning, has been selected for How many of the above pairs are correct?
Padma Shri in the Literature and (1) Only 1 pair (2) Only 2 pairs
Education category. (3) Only 3 pairs (4) All 4 pairs
Source: Answer:2
https://www.newindianexpress.com/stat Explanation:
es/andhra-pradesh/2023/Jan/26/padma-
• Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi
shri-awards-for-seven-from-andhra-
was conferred with the ‘Grand Cross of
2541463.html
the Legion of Honor’, by French President
21. “Global Security Initiative” is a security Emmanuel Macron. It is the highest
initiative under the aegis of French honor in military or civilian orders.
(1) USA (2) China • In June 2023, President Abdel Fattah El-
(3) Russia (4) India Sisi conferred Prime Minister Modi with

AMIGOS IAS 8
 the highest state honor of Egypt, the • In April 2016, during his visit to Saudi
'Order of Nile.' Arabia, Prime Minister Narendra Modi
• Governor General of Papua New Guinea, was conferred Saudi Arabia's highest
Sir Bob Dadae conferred PM Modi with civilian honor- the King Abdulaziz Sash.
Grand Companion of the Order of Logohu The Prime Minister was conferred the
in May 2023. It is the highest honor in prestigious award by King Salman bin
Papua New Guinea. Abdulaziz.
• PM Narendra Modi has also been 24. Consider the indicators of the Global Multi-
conferred the highest honor of Fiji, Dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) given by the
Companion of the Order of Fiji in UNDP.
recognition of his global leadership. The I. Nutrition II. Child Mortality
award was conferred by PM Sitiveni III. Sanitation IV. Dirking Water
Rabuka of Fiji in May 2023. V. Years of Schooling VI. Electricity
• During his visit to Papua New Guinea in How many of the following indicators are part
2023, PM Modi was conferred with the of MPI?
Ebakl Award by President Surangel S. (1) Only three (2) Only Four
Whipps, Jr. of the Republic of Palau.
(3) Only Five (4) All Six
• Bhutan honored PM Modi with the
Answer: 4
highest civilian decoration, the Order of
Explanation:
the Druk Gyalpo in December 2021.
• According to the global Multidimensional
• Legion of Merit by the US Government,
Poverty Index (MPI) 2023, a total of 415
the award of the United States Armed
million people moved out of poverty in
Forces that is given for exceptionally
India within just 15 years from 2005/2006
meritorious conduct in the performance
to 2019/2021.
of outstanding services and achievements
was conferred on PM Modi in 2020. • It is a key international resource that
measures (annually) acute
• PM Modi received the prestigious King
multidimensional poverty across more
Hamad Order of the Renaissance in 2019.
than 100 developing countries.
The honor was conferred by Bahrain.
• First launched in 2010 by UNDP and
• Order of the Distinguished Rule of Nishan
Oxford Poverty and Human Development
Izzuddin- the highest honor of the
Initiative (OPHI), the global MPI advances
Maldives awarded to foreign dignitaries
SDG 1 - ending poverty in all its forms
was presented to PM Modi in 2019.
everywhere.
• Russia conferred Prime Minister Modi
• It also measures interconnected
with their highest civilian honor - the
deprivations across indicators related to
Order of St. Andrew Award in 2019.
SDGs 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7 and 11.
• In 2019, the Prime Minster was awarded
the Order of Zayed Award. This is the
highest civilian honor of the United Arab
Emirates.
• In the year 2018, when Prime Minister
Narendra Modi paid a historic visit to
Palestine, he was awarded the Grand
Collar of the State of Palestine Award. This
is the highest honor of Palestine awarded
to foreign dignitaries. 25. Which of the following statements is/are
• The same year, PM Modi was bestowed correct regarding the I2U2 grouping?
upon the State Order of Ghazi Amir I. It was started in 2021.
Amanullah Khan – the highest civilian II. Apart from India, the other members
honor of Afghanistan. include the USA, the UK, and Israel.

AMIGOS IAS 9
 III. It is also known as the International Forum
for Economic Cooperation.
Select the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
(3) Only I and III (4) All I, II, III
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• The I2U2 grouping was formed in October
2021. Hence, Statement I is correct.
• I2U2 is an alliance created by four
countries namely – India, Israel, the
United Arab Emirates (UAE) and the
United States (US). Hence, Statement II is
not correct.
• The four-nation coalition is also known as
the ‘International Forum for Economic
Cooperation’ or the ‘West Asian Quad’.
Hence, Statement III is correct.
26. Recently, with which one of the following e-
platforms, Andhra Pradesh Government has
signed Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) to provide students e-courses from
top universities of world?
(1) Byju’s (2) edX
(3) Coursera (4) LinkedIn Learning
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The Andhra Pradesh government and edX
will jointly launch new technologies and
pedagogies for teaching and learning. edX
may work with Andhra Pradesh HED to
explore training and learning needs,
identify learning gaps and curate MOOCs
(minors and skill development courses)
from within edX’s existing online campus
subscription catalogue with respect to the
requirement of the current curriculum of
both professional and conventional
degree programs.
• edX is a world leading e-learning platform
that offers online courses from 170 + top
ranking institutions of the world, including
37 out of the top 50 universities, and top
four of the world namely MIT, Harvard,
Oxford, and Cambridge.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/
hyderabad/ap-signs-mou-with-edx-to-
AMIGOS IAS
provide-students-e-courses-from-top-
universities-of-world-8897295/
27. “Flamingo Festival,” often seen in the news,
is celebrated at which of the following
locations?
(1) Kolleru Lake
(2) Pulicat Lake
(3) Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary
(4) Kambala Konda Wildlife Sanctury
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The ongoing Flamingo Festival (January 3–
5, 2023) is turning multiple locations in
Andhra Pradesh into some of the best
venues for wildlife viewing. Places like
Pulicat Lake (Andhra Pradesh’s side),
Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary, Sullurpeta,
Atikanithippa, and BV Palem are right now
teeming with visitors and birds.
• The annual Flamingo Festival celebrates
the arrival of thousands of birds who make
their annual migration to the Indian
subcontinent during the winter months.
This is the time when they breed, feed,
and nest. The Indian shores and
woodlands became their safe home for a
few months.
Source:
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/trav
el/travel-news/experience-the-best-of-
nature-at-the-ongoing-flamingo-festival-
in-andhra-
pradesh/articleshow/96714045.cms
28. Which of the following statements is correct
with respect to YSR Sampurna Poshan and
YSR Sampurna Poshan Plus?
I. Both are implementing to achieve
reduction in malnutrition and anemia in
pregnant, lactating women and children of
below 10 years.
II. YSR Sampoorna Poshana Plus+ Scheme is
being implemented in 77 Scheduled and
Tribal Sub Plan Mandals of the state.
Select the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
10
 • Chief Minister YS Jaganmohan Reddy
launched YSR Sampurna Poshan and YSR
Sampurna Poshan Plus “Take-Home
Ration distribution program” for pregnant
and lactating women from his camp office
in Tadepalli on August 2 and personally
handed over the goods to the
beneficiaries.
• Government of Andhra Pradesh is
committed to ensure access to
supplementary nutrition for all pregnant
women, lactating mothers, children aged
7-72 months through Anganwadi Centres
and implemented in 55,607 Anganwadi
Centres. To achieve reduction in
malnutrition and anaemia in children
(below 6 years) and pregnant, lactating
women, Government is implementing YSR
Sampoorna Poshana and YSR Sampoorna
Poshana Plus (+). Hence, Statement I is
incorrect.
• The Poshanapoorna Poshana Plus+
Scheme is being implemented in 77
Scheduled and Tribal Sub Plan Mandals,
the YSR Sampoorna Poshana Scheme is
implemented in the remaining mandals of
the State. It is estimated 3.8 lakh
beneficiaries in 77 tribal mandals and
26.36 lakh beneficiaries in the remaining
mandals in the State will be covered for
providing ICDS services through 55,607
Anganwadi Centers, in consultation with
National Institute of Nutrition (NIN).
Hence, Statement II is correct.
• Current nutrition programs designed to
ensure uniformity and greater coverage of
beneficiaries with recommended
nutritional standards, while providing
iron, protein, energy rich nutrition to
pregnant women, lactating mothers.
Keeping in view of Under Weight or
Malnourished children and high
prevalence of anaemia in pregnant and
lactating mothers’ nutrition programs
have been designed .
• To provide nutritious food to pregnant
and lactating women, the Andhra Pradesh
government spends Rs.850 per person
under YSR Sampurna Poshan, while it
spends Rs.1,150 per person for Sampurna
Poshan Plus.
AMIGOS IAS
• Monthly Ration Commodities provided by
YSR Sampurna Poshana:- 2 Kg Ragi Flour, 1
Kg Atukulu, 250 gm Jaggery, 250 gm
Chikki, 250 gm Dry Dates, 3 Kg Rice, 1 Kg
Dal, Half Liter Cooking Oil, 25 Eggs, 5 Liters
Milk.
• YSR Sampurna Poshan Plus Monthly
Ration Commodities:- 1 Kg Ragi Flour, 2 Kg
Multi Grain Atta, 500 gm Jaggery, 500 gm
Chikki, 500 gm Dry Dates, 3 Kg Rice, 1 Kg
Dal, Half Liter Cooking Oil, 25 Eggs, 5 liters
of milk.
Source: https://telugu.samayam.com/andhra-
pradesh/news/ap-cm-ys-jagan-launches-
ysr-sampoorna-poshana-take-home-
ration/articleshow/102368378.cms
29. Which of the following universities hosted a
three-day national conference on “Ancient
Telugu Literature: Historical, Social, and
Cultural Perspectives” recently?
(1) Andhra University
(2) Acharya Nagarjuna University
(3) Adikavi Nannaya University
(4) Yogi Vemana University
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Adikavi Nannaya University (AKNU)
hosted a three-day national conference
on 'Ancient Telugu Literature: Historical,
Social and Cultural Perspectives' at AKNU
from February 2 to 4.
• This conference was organised under the
joint auspices of AKNU Telugu
Department, Centre of Excellence in
Classical Telugu (Nellore), Central Institute
of Indian Languages (Mysore), Higher
Education Department of the Union
Ministry of Education.
• It invited research papers on the topic
'Ancient Telugu Literature: Historical,
Social and Cultural Perspectives' to be
submitted to this National Conference
along with some other suggested topics.
Source:
https://www.thehansindia.com/andhra-
pradesh/3-day-meet-on-ancient-telugu-
literature-at-aknu-from-feb-2-
776599?infinitescroll=1
11
30. Which one of the following commemorative
coin was released by President Draupadi
Murmu featuring N.T. Rama Rao recently?
(1) ₹50 (2) ₹75
(3) ₹100 (4) ₹125
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 The release of a ₹100 commemorative
coin featuring N.T. Rama Rao (NTR) by
President of India Draupadi Murmu at the
RashtraPati Bhavan in New Delhi on
Monday was a solemn occasion for the
family members.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/nation
al/andhra-pradesh/president-murmu-
releases-100-commemorative-coin-on-nt-
rama-rao-to-mark-his-birth-
centenary/article67245287.ece
31. Which of the following group of countries are
part of the “Golden Crescent”?
(1) Myanmar, Laos, and Thailand
(2) Saudi Arabia, UAE, and Qatar
(3) Afghanistan, Pakistan, and Iran
(4) Argentina, Peru, Brazil
Answer:3
Explanation:
 The “Golden Crescent” includes the
countries of Afghanistan, Pakistan, and
Iran, which are known for their significant
cultivation and production of opium
poppy, a key raw material for heroin
production.
32. With respect to expansion of the BRICS
membership, Which of the following
countries is not part of BRICS at present?
(1) Argentina (2) Egypt
(3) Ethiopia (4) Iran
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• In August 2023, at the 15th BRICS Summit,
South African President Cyril Ramaphosa
announced that six emerging market
group countries (Argentina, Egypt,
Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the
United Arab Emirates) had been invited to
join the bloc.
• Full membership was scheduled to take
effect on January 1, 2024.
AMIGOS IAS
• However, the Argentine general election
in November 2023 led to a change in
president to Javier Milei, who had
committed to withdrawing the country's
membership application.
33. Which of the following statements is/are not
correct with reference to the “Five Eyes”
intelligence-sharing alliance?
I. The Five Eyes alliance includes the United
States, the United Kingdom, France,
Australia, and New Zealand.
II. These partner countries share a broad
range of intelligence with one another.
Select the correct answer using the options
given below:
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The Five Eyes alliance comprises the
United States, United Kingdom, Australia,
Canada, and New Zealand, sharing
intelligence extensively.
• Canadian Prime Minister Justin Trudeau’s
allegations against the Indian government
regarding the assassination of a Sikh
Canadian were based on information
shared within the ‘Five Eyes’ intelligence
alliance.
• U.S. Ambassador David Cohen confirmed
the use of shared intelligence by Canada in
making these allegations.
• A Canadian official had previously
mentioned that the allegations were
supported by surveillance of Indian
diplomats in Canada and intelligence from
a major ally, without specifying the ally.
34. Consider the following countries.
I. Cook Islands II. Fiji
III. Marshall Islands IV. Solomon Islands
V. Philippines
How many of the above are part of the Forum
for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC)?
(1) All Five (2) Only Four
(3) Only Three (4) Only Two
Answer:2
Explanation:
India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC):
12
 • PM Modi co-chaired the third summit of
the Forum for India-Pacific Islands
Cooperation (FIPIC) in Port Moresby,
Papua New Guinea.
• The Forum for India-Pacific Islands
Cooperation (FIPIC) was launched in
November 2014 during the visit of Prime
Minister Narendra Modi to Fiji.
• FIPIC was launched in line with India’s Act
East Policy.
• This initiative of India is also part of South-
South Cooperation.
• The FIPIC involves India and 14 Pacific
Island countries, namely, Fiji, Papua New
Guinea, Tonga, Tuvalu, Kiribati, Samoa,
Vanuatu, Niue, the Federated States of
Micronesia, the Republic of the Marshall
Islands, the Cook Islands, Palau, Nauru,
and the Solomon Islands.
• The key objective of the initiative is to
expand India’s engagement in the Pacific
region.
• India, through the FIPIC, has offered some
major assistance projects, which include
setting up a special fund for adapting to
climate change, setting up a trade office in
India, efforts to improve digital
connectivity, extending visas on arrival at
Indian airports for all 14 Pacific Island
countries, cooperation in space
technology, and training the diplomats
from these countries, among others.
• Further, India has increased the annual
“Grant-in-Aid” from USD 125,000 to
200,000 for each of these 14 Pacific Island
countries.
• The first summit of FIPIC was held in Suva,
Fiji, in November 2014.
• The second summit of FIPIC was held in
Jaipur in August 2015.
35. The General Data Protection Regulations,
which have been in the news recently, are
related to?
(1) World Trade Organization
(2) European Union
(3) United States of America
(4) India
Answer: 2
Explanation:
AMIGOS IAS
• The General Data Protection Regulation
(GDPR) is an EU law on data protection
and privacy in the European Union (EU)
and the European Economic Area (EEA).
• It was approved by the EU in April 2016
and came into force on 25th May 2018.
36. Recently, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
agreed to construct an iconic Hybrid Cable
Bridge on the River Krishna at?
(1) Jurala (2) Nagarjuna Sagar
(3) Somasila (4) Srisailam
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• For the first time after the bifurcation of
Andhra Pradesh, the new state of
Telangana and the residuary state of AP
agreed on one important project and
conveyed their approval to the Union
Government.
• The issue on which both states have
shown great interest is the construction of
an iconic Hybrid Cable Bridge on the River
Krishna at Somasila in Nagarkurnool
district, bordering the two states.
• This bridge, when completed, would
reduce the travel time between
Hyderabad, Tirupati, and other major
towns in Andhra Pradesh.
• Distance wise, it would be 80 km less. The
Centre has allocated Rs 500 crore in its
2023-2024 budget.
Source:
https://www.thehansindia.com/news/citi
es/hyderabad/bridge-to-bring-telugu-
states-together-784288?infinitescroll=1
37. Consider the following statements with
respect to Natural farming in Andhra
Pradesh.
I. It is promoted by the Rythu Sadhikara
Samstha under the brand name of “AP
Community Manged Natural Farming.”
II. AP got the first place in Jaivik India Awards
2023 organized by the International
Competence Centre for Organic
Agriculture (ICCOA).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 3
13
 Explanation:
• For 2023, Andhra Pradesh has bagged
three Jaivik India Awards in the national
level competitions organized by the
International Competence Centre for
Organic Agriculture (ICCOA), Greater
Noida. AP got first place in the category of
States promoting natural farming. It has
also won awards in two other categories.
More than 8 lakh farmers are practicing
natural farming in the State. Hence,
Statement I is correct.
• A.P.C.N.F – primacy to farmers own
practices. In 2020, the name of the
programme was changed to A.P
Community managed natural farming, to
emphasize farmers’ ownership. Even
when the programme was called A.P Zero
budget natural farming programme, our
farmers were following a mix of Z.B.N.F
practices and other biological and non-
chemical inputs : farmyard manure, vermi
compost, NADEP compost, dung from
buffaloes, using inoculants like VAM, PSB,
etc. It is to respect farmers’ choices in the
matter of practices. It is regarded all of
them as NF farmers, as long as they are
not using synthetic chemical fertilisers,
pesticides, herbicides, weedicides.
• Andhra Pradesh Community Managed
Natural Farming (APCNF) is being
implemented by Rythu Sadhikara
Samstha. Hence, Statement II is correct.
Source1:
https://www.newindianexpress.com/stat
es/andhra-pradesh/2023/aug/27/natural-
farming-andhra-pradesh-gets-3-jaivik-
india-awards-2609163.html
Source 2: https://apcnf.in/about-apcnf/
38. Which of the following statements is correct
With respect to Garimella Balakrishna
Prasad?
I. He received Sangeet Natak Akademi
Award 2023.
II. He is the Asthana Vidwan of the Tirumala-
Tirupati Devasthanams and Kanchi
Kamakoti Peetham.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below.
AMIGOS IAS
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Garimella Balakrishna Prasad, an Indian
classical devotional singer and composer,
received the Central Sangeet Natak
Akademi Award 2023 from President
Draupadi Murmu.
• Prasad is the Asthana Vidwan of the
Tirumala-Tirupati Devasthanams and
Kanchi Kamakoti Peetham. He is the first
one to be appointed in that capacity at
Ahobila Mutt.
• A disciple of Guru's Nedunuri Krishna
Murthy, Prasad has been a pioneer in
composing and rendering Annamacharya
Sankeerthanas. He is known for his
innumerable contributions to the field of
music.
• He composed a record number of 1,000
Annamacharya Sankeerthanas till now,
out of which over 700 were recorded for
TTD only, which is a record.
Source:
https://www.thehansindia.com/news/citi
es/tirupathi/ttd-chairman-in-ayodhya-
852881?infinitescroll=1
39. Which of the following cities from Andhra
Pradesh got the 3rd rank in the Swachh Vayu
Sarvekshan 2023 Awards in the population
category of 3–10 lakh?
(1) Visakhapatnam (2) Guntur
(3) Anantapur (4) Vijayawada
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Guntur city has been ranked 3rd in the
Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2023 in the
population category of 3–10 lakh.
• The Ministry of Environment, Forestry,
and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) had
framed the guidelines for ranking cities
under the National Clean Air Programme
(NCAP) for the financial years 2022–23 to
2025–26.
• Guntur Municipal Corporation
Commissioner Keerthi Chekuri said, the
city got the third rank because of its
continuous efforts to reduce pollution and
increase green cover.
14
 • The civic body increased greenery from Development, and Inclusive
17% in 2021 to 30% in 2023. Earlier, the Multilateralism.
median on only 10 km of roads had plants. (4) BRICS Partnership for Global
It has now increased to 23 km. Avenue Sustainability, Shared Health and
plantation was spread over 20 km earlier, Innovative Technology.
which has now reached 30 km. Answer: 3
Source: Explanation:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/a  The theme of BRICS 2023 is: “BRICS and
ndhra-pradesh/guntur-city-ranks-third-in- Africa: Partnership for Mutually
swachh-vayu-sarvekshan-2023-thanks-to- Accelerated Growth, Sustainable
increased-green-cover-reduction-in-air- Development, and Inclusive
pollution/article67263855.ece Multilateralism”
40. The Andhra Pradesh Police has initiated 42. “Atlantic Declaration Action Plan (ADAPT)” is
'Operation Parivartan', a special operation focused on building a resilient, diversified,
undertaken to? and secure supply chain, reducing strategic
(1) Change the behaviour of the drunks and dependencies. This is a declaration between
drivers. (1) USA and European Union
(2) Crack down on cannabis cultivation in the (2) USA and France
state. (3) USA and UK
(3) Change the eve-teasing culture on the (4) USA and Germany
college premises.
Answer: 3
(4) Crack down on the illegal mining.
Explanation:
Answer: 2
• The United States and the United Kingdom
Explanation: have announced the Atlantic Declaration
• The Andhra Pradesh Police has initiated for a Twenty-First Century U.S.-UK
'Operation Parivartan', a special operation Economic Partnership.
undertaken to crack down on cannabis • The Atlantic Declaration is focused on
cultivation in the state. building a resilient, diversified, and secure
• The operation was led by the Andhra supply chain, reducing strategic
Pradesh Police, collaborating with the dependencies.
Special Enforcement Bureau (SEB) in • The partnership aims to leverage the
Visakhapatnam. energy transition and technological
• Operation Parivartan is aimed at curbing breakthroughs to drive shared growth,
the supply side of the ganja menace in the create employment opportunities, and
state. uplift communities.
Source: Atlantic Declaration Action Plan (ADAPT):
https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/o • The ADAPT sets forth a comprehensive
peration-parivartan-andhra-pradesh- strategy to enhance economic growth,
police-ganja-cultivation-1911424-2022- competitiveness, and resilience while
02-10 prioritizing workers, businesses, climate,
41. What is the theme of the 15th BRICS summit, and national security.
which took place August 22–24, 2023, in • The plan encompasses five key pillars and
South Africa? involves regular high-level meetings to
(1) BRICS and Africa: Partnership for Global drive progress and increase ambition over
Security, Shared Destiny and Innovative time.
Ideas. 43. Consider the following statements with
(2) BRICS and Africa : Partnership for Global reference to International North South
Stability, and Innovative Growth. Transport Corridor (INSTC):
(3) BRICS and Africa: Partnership for Mutually
Accelerated Growth, Sustainable

AMIGOS IAS 15
 I. Russia, India, and Iran are the founding
member states of INSTC.
II. It connects Russia with Iran and India via
the Black Sea.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct?
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• The International North– South Transport
Corridor (INSTC) is a 7,200-km long multi-
mode network of ship, rail, and road
routes for moving freight between India,
Iran, Azerbaijan, Russia, Central Asia and
Europe.
• Russia, Iran & India signed the
International North-South Transport
Corridor (INSTC) project in 2002. Hence,
Statement I is correct.
• It connects Russia with Iran and India via
the Caspian Sea. Hence, Statement II is not
correct.
44. Which of these countries are part of the
‘NATO plus five’ arrangement?
(1) Australia, New Zealand, Japan, Israel and
South Korea
(2) India, New Zealand, Japan, Israel and
South Korea
(3) India, New Zealand, Ukraine, Israel and
South Korea
(4) Australia, New Zealand, Japan, Ukraine
and South Korea
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• The North Atlantic Treaty Organization
(NATO) is a collective security system: its
independent member states agree to
defend each other against attacks by third
parties. During the Cold War, NATO
operated as a check on the threat posed
by the Soviet Union.
• At present, NATO has 31 member
countries. These countries, called NATO
Allies, are sovereign states that come
together through NATO to discuss political
and security issues and make collective
decisions by consensus.
AMIGOS IAS
• NATO was created by 12 countries from
Europe and North America on 4 April
1949.
• Finland became NATO’s newest member
today, upon depositing its instrument of
accession to the North Atlantic Treaty
with the United States at NATO
Headquarters in Brussels.
• The US Senate India Caucus will introduce
legislation to give India ‘NATO plus five’
defence status.
• Currently, NATO Plus 5 is a security
arrangement that brings together
Australia, New Zealand, Japan, Israel, and
South Korea.
45. Consider the following statements with
reference to ASEAN (Association of Southeast
Asian Nations):
I. ASEAN currently has 11 member
countries.
II. It primarily focuses on economic and
military cooperation among its member
states.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• ASEAN was established in 1967 with the
signing of the ASEAN Declaration, but it
currently has 10 member countries.
• It primarily focuses on economic and
political cooperation, not military.
46. The Andhra Pradesh Guaranteed Pension
Scheme (GPS) ensures government
employees a monthly pension equivalent to
how much of their last-drawn salary?
(1) 20 (2) 35
(3) 50 (4) 60
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Andhra Pradesh’s Guaranteed Pension
System (GPS) blends elements from both
old and new pension schemes, offering
the advantages of a guaranteed pension
while not overly straining the state’s
finances.
16
 • This innovative system holds the potential
to preserve India’s hard-won pension
reforms.
• A Hybrid Approach: The Andhra Pradesh
Guaranteed Pension System Bill, 2023,
recently approved by the state assembly,
introduces a unique blend of the Old
Pension Scheme (OPS) and the New
Pension Scheme (NPS) implemented in
2004.
• Andhra’s Middle Path: Andhra Pradesh’s
GPS offers a middle ground, preventing a
regressive return to the old scheme while
addressing concerns about NPS.
• With 5.07 lakh government employees
working in the state, the number of OPS
employees is more than 2.02 lakh, while
that of CPS employees is more than 3.73
lakh. The bill entailed a financial
implication of approximately Rs 2,500
crore by 2040.
• The GPS subscriber will get a monthly
guaranteed pension at the rate of 50% of
the last drawn basic pay.
• It will also ensure a monthly spouse
pension at the rate of 60% of the
guaranteed pension, in case of a shortfall
in the annuity received by the spouse of
the deceased APGPS subscriber.
Source:
https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/a
ndhra-pradesh/2023/sep/28/guaranteed-
pension-system-bill-passed-by-ap-
assembly-2618924.html
47. Andhra Pradesh was recognised for its best
efforts in the implementation of e-
Sanjeevani Telemedicine services in India.
What is the rank of Andhra Pradesh in its
implementation?
(1) 1st (2) 2nd
(3) 3rd (4) 4th
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• Andhra Pradesh stood in first place in the
implementation of e-Sanjeevani
Telemedicine services in India,
contributing 32% of teleconsultations, i.e.,
3.1 crores, against 9.7 crores of total
teleconsultations across India.
AMIGOS IAS
• The government of AP extended
teleconsultation services to all PHCs and
YSR Village Health Clinics. Currently, 27
telemedicine hubs are established in the
state.
• 8,351 Village Health Clinics are the
spokespeople in the state.
Source:
https://www.newindianexpress.com/stat
es/andhra-pradesh/2023/Feb/08/andhra-
pradesh-ranks-1st-to-implement-e-
sanjeevani-telemedicine-2545439.html
48. Who among the following received the
Gadicherla Award in 2023?
(1) Prof. K. Hemachandra Reddy
(2) Mandali Buddha Prasad
(3) Prof. G. Gnana Mani
(4) Raavi Sarada
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Former Deputy Speaker Mandali Buddha
Prasad was honoured with the Gadicherla
Award in 2023. Governor S. Abdul Nazeer
presented the award to him at a function
held at Krishna University (KRU) in
Rudravaram village in Krishna district.
• The programme was jointly organised by
the Gadicherla Foundation and the
Andhra Pradesh Library Association,
commemorating the 140th birth
anniversary of freedom fighter Gadicherla
Harisarvottama Rao, said Chandrasekhar
Kalkura, president of the foundation.
• Harisarvottama Rao was called the ‘Father
of the Library Movement’ as he devoted a
part of his life to the library movement. He
encouraged the youth to cultivate the
habit of reading books to gain knowledge.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/a
ndhra-pradesh/gadicherla-award-
presented-to-mandali-buddha-
prasad/article67307855.ece
49. The Crop Cultivators Rights Act of Andhra
Pradesh 2019 tries to mutually benefit both
the landowner and cultivator. The Crop
Cultivators Rights Card be issued for a period
of
(1) 15 Months (2) 11 Months
(3) 18 Months (4) 24 Months
17
 Answer: 2 III. Sudan IV. Israel
Explanation: Select the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
(3) Only I, II, and III (4) All the above
Answer: 3
Explanation:

Source:
https://www.newindianexpress.com/stat
es/andhra-
pradesh/2023/May/10/amend-crop-
cultivator-rights-act-to-protect-tenant-
farmers-rsv-to-andhra-pradesh-govt-
2573970.html
50. Which of the following government
departments in Andhra Pradesh has signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
the International Baccalaureate recently?
(1) Department of Industries
(2) Department of Education
(3) Department of Skill Development
(4) Department of Panchayat Raj
Answer: 2  The Red Sea is bordered by multiple
Explanation: countries including Saudi Arabia, Egypt,
• Andhra Pradesh Wednesday set the road Sudan, Yemen, Djibouti, and Eritrea.
for imparting quality education of global 52. Consider the following statements with
standards to government school students respect to Shanghai Cooperation
through the International Baccalaureate Organization (SCO):
(IB) syllabus that nurtures critical thinking, I. The SCO was founded in 2001 by China,
creativity, and global citizenship. Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan,
• The state government has signed an and Uzbekistan.
agreement with IB Organisation in this II. India and Pakistan became full members
regard in a videoconference meeting held of the SCO in 2017.
at Chief Minister Y S Jagan Mohan Reddy’s III. The SCO’s main focus is on security
office. cooperation, including combating
• Education Department officials said that terrorism and extremism.
with this partnership, the IB syllabus will Which of the statements given above are
be made available to students in over correct?
45,000 government schools. (1) Only I, II (2) Only II, III
Source: (3) Only I, III (4) All the above
https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/hyde Answer: 4
rabad/andhra-pradesh-international-
Explanation:
baccalaureate-syllabus-govt-schools-
• The SCO was established by six founding
8948823/
members in 2001, and India and Pakistan
51. Which of the following are border countries
joined as full members in 2017.
of the Red Sea?
I. Saudi Arabia II. Eritrea

AMIGOS IAS 18
 • The organization’s primary focus is on
security cooperation, particularly in
countering terrorism and extremism.
53. Consider the following statements with
respect to Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG):
I. The NSG was formed in the wake of the
nuclear tests conducted by India in 1974.
II. India subsequently joined NSG in 1998.
III. There are 48 participating governments at
present.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
(3) Only I and III (4) All I, II, III
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a
transnational body comprised of nuclear
supplier countries that aim to control the
proliferation of nuclear weapons by
curbing the export of nuclear weapons
development materials and related
technology.
• It seeks to improve the existing safeguards
on existing nuclear materials.
• The NSG was formed in the wake of the
nuclear tests conducted by India in May
1974 which proved that certain non-
weapons nuclear technology could be
used to develop nuclear weapons. Hence,
Statement I is correct.
• The group had its first meeting in
November 1975. A series of meetings held
in London produced agreements on
export guidelines.
• Although initially there were only 7
countries as members, there are 48
participating governments as of now.
Hence, Statement III is correct.
• India is not one of them. Hence,
Statement II is not correct.
54. The new Global Financing Pact aims to lay the
groundwork for a new financial system suited
to the common challenges of the 21st
century, such as fighting inequalities and
climate change and protecting biodiversity.
The Summit is co-organized by?
(1) USA and India (2) Japan and India
(3) France and India (4) Egypt and India
AMIGOS IAS
Answer: 3
Explanation:
What is the new Global Financing Pact?
• The aim of the Summit is to lay the
groundwork for a new financial system
suited to the common challenges of the
21st century, such as fighting inequalities
and climate change and protecting
biodiversity. The Summit is co-organized
by France and India.
• In other words, the aim of this Summit is
to concurrently tackle the challenges of
climate change, biodiversity protection,
and the fight against inequality in order to
achieve the Sustainable Development
Goals (SDGs).
Four major objectives for this Summit have
been announced and will be followed up by
four working groups:
• Restoring fiscal space to countries facing
short-term difficulties, especially the most
indebted countries
• Promoting private sector development in
low-income countries
• Encouraging investment in green
infrastructure for the energy transition in
emerging and developing countries
• Mobilising innovative financing for
countries vulnerable to climate change.
55. ‘Climate Shift Index’ (CSI) model, recently
seen in news has been developed by:
(1) Sustainable Development Solutions
Network (SDSN)
(2) United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC)
(3) United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP)
(4) Climate Central
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• The Climate Shift Index model has been
developed by a U.S Non-profit
organization called Climate Central.
• It reveals how much climate change
influences the temperature on a particular
day.
56. Supporting Andhra’s Learning
Transformation (SALT) is a project
19
 undertaken by the Government of Andhra
Pradesh with support from
(1) Japan International Cooperation Agency
(JICA).
(2) World Bank.
(3) Asian Infrastructure and Investment Bank.
(4) New Development Bank.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Recently, the World Bank extended an
unconditional loan of $250 million for the
SALT project in Andhra Pradesh.
• Supporting Andhra’s Learning
Transformation (SALT) is a project
undertaken by the Government of Andhra
Pradesh with support from the World
Bank.
• The SALT is the first project in the school
education sector to be funded by the
World Bank without any precondition.
• To transform the state’s school education
system by strengthening the quality of
foundational learning through various
pathways including improving teacher
professional development, classroom-
based assessments, and early childhood
education.
• Establishing and strengthening foundation Source:
schools is in tune with the National https://www.thehindu.com/news/nation
Education Policy, 2020. al/andhra-pradesh/mecon-ltd-to-select-
Source: construction-firm-through-global-
https://www.thehindu.com/news/nation tenders-for-central-tribal-university-of-
al/andhra-pradesh/education- ap/article67493342.ece
department-officials-upbeat-over-world- 58. Consider the following government
bank-validation-of-schemes-introduced- beneficiaries:
under-salt/article66673010.ece I. Tailors of all communities
57. Central Tribal University is coming up in II. Rajakas (washermen)
Andhra Pradesh in III. Nayee Brahmins
(1) Vizianagaram District IV. Kapus
(2) Parvatipuram Manyam District Who among the above is eligible for the
(3) Alluri Seetharamaraju District Jagananna Chedodu Scheme?
(4) Visakhapatnam District (1) Only I, II and III (2) Only II and III
Answer: 1 (3) Only III and IV (4) All the above
Explanation: Answer: 1
Explanation:
• The Jagananna Chedodu Scheme is a state
government welfare scheme launched on
June 10, 2020, for small businessmen
residing in Andhra Pradesh (AP).

AMIGOS IAS 20
 • This scheme is implemented by the B.C.
Welfare Department, Govt. of Andhra
Pradesh.
• The beneficiaries of the scheme include
Tailors (all communities), Rajakas
(washermen), and Nayee Brahmins
(barbers) of the state.
• The main objective of this scheme is to
provide financial assistance to small shop
owners whose businesses were affected
by the COVID pandemic.
• The beneficiary will be provided a one-
time amount of ₹ 10,000 per year for a
period of 5 years, i.e., ₹ 50,000/- in five
instalments.
• This fund can be utilized by the
beneficiaries for purchasing tools,
equipment, and other essentials to grow
their source of income and work
establishment.
Source:
https://telugu.hindustantimes.com/andh
ra-pradesh/kurnool-cm-jagan-tour-
jagananna-chedodu-funds-released-on-
october-19th-121697548014982.html
59. Who is not a member of the Apex Council for
the supervision of the functioning of the
Godavari River Management Board and
Krishna River Management Board?
(1) Minister of water resource, Government
of India
(2) Chief Minister of State of Andhra Pradesh
(3) Chief Minister of State of Telangana
(4) Governors of both states
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 The Central Government shall constitute
an Apex Council for the supervision of the
functioning of the Godavari River
Management Board and Krishna River
Management Board.
• The Apex Council shall consist of (a)
Minister of Water Resources, Government
of India—Chairperson; (b) Chief Minister
of State of Andhra Pradesh—Member; (c)
Chief Minister of State of Telangana—
Member.
• The functions of the Apex Council shall
include
AMIGOS IAS
• (i) supervision of the functioning of the
Godavari River Management Board and
Krishna River Management Board.
• (ii) planning and approval of proposals for
construction of new projects, if any, based
on Godavari or Krishna River water, after
getting the proposal appraised and
recommended by the River Management
Boards and by the Central Water
Commission, wherever required.
• (iii) resolution of any dispute amicably
arising out of the sharing of river waters
through negotiations and mutual
agreement between the successors
States.
• (iv) reference of any disputes not covered
under Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal, to
a Tribunal to be constituted under the
Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956
Source:
https://www.newindianexpress.com/hyd
erabad/2023/Dec/03/nsp-row-centre-to-
hold-meeting-on-december-6-
2638275.html
60. The Fishbone model of irrigation system has
been in the news with respect to the Krishna
Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS). It is known for
restoration of?
(1) Rare fish found in this sanctuary
(2) Mangrove cover in this area
(3) Crops that can sustain marine waters
(4) Pythons and other kind of snakes
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The Fishbone model of irrigation has
helped restore the mangrove cover in the
Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS) on
nearly 6,000 hectares since 2006.
• The method is used to artificially inundate
areas that do not get regular tidal
inundation. By flooding dried-up wetlands
near the intertidal zones, new mangroves
can be reforested.
• In this model, the water from a creek is
diverted to the targeted site through
feeder and field channels, converting the
barren land with high saline content into
fertile land to support the survival of
mangrove plant species.
21
 • The shape of the fishbone allows the development among West African
water to reach every corner of the field nations.
channels. The seeds of the mangrove • The Secretariat, headquartered in Abuja,
plant species are sown on the banks of all Nigeria.
the channels once the salinity is reduced • ECOWAS consists of 15 member states:
to the required level for the survival of the Benin, Burkina Faso, Cape Verde, Cote d’
plants. Ivoire, The Gambia, Ghana, Guinea,
Guinea Bissau, Liberia, Mali, Niger,
Nigeria, Sierra Leone, Senegal, and Togo.
Primary Goals and Objectives:
• Promoting economic integration among
member states.
• Facilitating the free movement of people,
goods, and services.
• Enhancing regional cooperation in various
sectors, including industry, transport,
Source: energy, and finance.
https://www.thehansindia.com/andhra- • Fostering a borderless region governed by
pradesh/amalapuram-fishbone-model- democratic principles, the rule of law, and
channels-for-mangrove-expansion- good governance.
800487 • Addressing security and political
61. Which of the following is/are correct challenges through collaboration and
statement about the Economic Community of conflict resolution.
West African States (ECOWAS)? 62. Which of the following pairs is correct with
I. ECOWAS has 15 member countries. regard to the missiles and their respective
II. It was established in 1975 with the signing countries of origin??
of the Treaty of Lagos. (1) Tomahawk: China
Select the correct answer using the options (2) SCALP: India
given below. (3) S-400: United States
(1) Only I (2) Only II (4) Hwasong 18 : North Korea
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II Answer: 4
Answer: 3 Explanation:
Explanation: • Tomahawk missile is developed and
• Recently, the Economic Community of produced by the United States.
West African States (ECOWAS), has • The SCALP-EG/Storm Shadow missile is a
emerged at the forefront of international joint development of France and the
attention due to its active involvement in United Kingdom.
addressing the aftermath of the coup in • The S-400 missile is developed and
Niger. produced by Russia.
• This coup, which ousted the • Hwasong Missiles are series of missiles
democratically elected President and developed by North-Korea.
ushered in a military coup, has raised 63. Consider the following islands.
alarm bells globally.
I. Scarborough Shoal
• The ECOWAS, also known as CEDEAO in
II. Paracel Islands
French, is a regional intergovernmental
organization established in 1975. III. Spratly Islands
• Created through the Lagos Treaty, IV. Natuna Islands
ECOWAS aims to foster economic Which of the above islands are located in
integration, cooperation, and South-China Sea?
(1) Only I, II, III (2) Only II, III, IV

AMIGOS IAS 22
 (3) Only I, II, III (4) All the above • The new Russian submarine-launched
Answer: 4 Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) is
Explanation: known as the Bulava.
 All the given islands are located in South- • The Bulava missile is designed to be
China Sea. The Islands in the South China deployed on Russia's Borey-class ballistic
Sea from North to South: Paracel Islands – missile submarines (SSBNs).
Scarborough Shoal – Spratly Islands – • Features: It measures 12–13.5 metres in
Natuna Islands. length, has a diameter of about 2.0
meters, and has a launch weight of 36,800
kilograms.
• The Bulava is a three-stage solid-fuel
missile capable of carrying multiple
warheads, each intended to strike a
different target.
• It can carry up to six Multiple Independent
Re-entry Vehicles (MIRVs), which have the
ability to maneuver in-flight and retarget
to evade hostile air defenses. The missile
is reported to have an accuracy of 350
64. "Wushu," a martial art form, belongs to meters.
which country?? 66. Consider the following statements with
(1) Japan (2) China respect to Jagananna Arogya Surakhsa
(3) Vietnam (4) Korea campaigns:
Answer: 2 I. It happened in 5-phases at Grama Ward
Explanation: Sachivalayam level.
• India recently won 10 gold medals at II. Diagnostic and specialist services have
Moscow Star Wushu Championship 2023. also been offered under this campaign.
• Wushu is a collection of Chinese martial Which of the above statements is/are correct?
arts. (1) Only I (2) Only II
• Wushu in Chinese literally means “martial (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
technique”. Answer: 3
• It has a history dating back thousands of Explanation:
years to the Qin Dynasty.
• The International Wushu Federation was
formed in 1990 to govern the distinct
types of martial arts under the “wushu”
banner.
65. Which intercontinental ballistic missile
capable of carrying nuclear warheads was
recently test-launched by Russia from a
submarine?
(1) Topol (2) Yars
(3) Bulava (4) Sarmat
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Russia recently carried out a successful
test launch of the Bulava ballistic missile,
designed to carry nuclear warheads.
Bulava ballistic missile:

AMIGOS IAS 23
 68.
67. Which of the following Railway Station in
Andhra Pradesh has been awarded IGBC’s
‘Green Railway Station’ certification with
platinum rating?
(1) Visakhapatnam (2) Tenali
(3) Vijayawada (4) Tirupati
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Vijayawada Railway Station was awarded
the ‘Green Railway Station’ certification
with the highest rating of Platinum by the
Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) for its
efforts in improving environmental
standards and providing eco-friendly
services to passengers.
• This is an upgrade of the station’s ratings,
from gold in 2019 to platinum in 2023.
• Divisional Railway Manager Narendra A.
Patil said this is second in the South-
Central Railway (SCR) zone after
Secunderabad, to have bagged the
platinum rating.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/a
ndhra-pradesh/vijayawada-gets-igbcs-
green-railway-station-certification-with-
platinum-rating/article67273356.ece
AMIGOS IAS
Consider the following statements regarding
YSR Sunna Vaddi Scheme.
I. It was launched in the year 2020.
II. The applicant must be a Self-Help Group
Member.
III. The applicant must belong to the below
poverty line.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
(1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) II and III only (4) All the above
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi interacted
with a member of a women Self Help
Group from Andhra Pradesh About YSR
Sunna Vaddi Scheme:
• This scheme was launched in the year
2020.
• The scheme intends to provide zero
interest loans for women in self-help
groups.
• To reduce interest burden on poor SHG
women, it is proposed to pay interest
portion for the FY 2019-20 on SHG bank
loan amount outstanding under YSR
Sunna Vaddi.
• The main objective of the scheme is to
provide a free credit loan to all of the self-
help groups of the Andhra Pradesh state.
• All SHG women from both the rural and
urban areas having the bank loan accounts
will receive an outstanding amount up to
Rs.5.00 lakhs under the YSR Sunna Vaddi
Pathakam.
• SHG loan accounts declared NPA as on
31/03/2019 as per SERP and MEPMA data
base will not get the YSR Sunna Vaddi
Pathakam.
Eligibility of the scheme:
• Only the permanent resident of Andhra
Pradesh state can avail for the scheme
benefits.
• The applicant must be a Self-Help Group
Member.
• The applicant must belong to the below
poverty line that is only the Poor SHG
member will get the chance to apply for
the scheme.
24
 • SHG women (both rural and urban) with • On the occasion of the observed World
bank loan accounts outstanding amount Day Against Child Labor, the Andhra
up to Rs.5.00 lakhs are eligible. Pradesh Crime Investigation Department
Source: (CID) unveiled a poster against child
https://www.thehindu.com/news/nation labour.
al/andhra-pradesh/govt-to-release-1353- • The AP CID is observing June as the action
crore-under-sunna-vaddi-scheme- month against child labour and
today/article67181302.ece conducting Operation Svechha Phase-II
69. Consider the following universities or from June 1 to June 30 in coordination
institutions: with local police and all stakeholder
I. KL University departments across the state.
II. Andhra University • Speaking on the occasion, CID chief and
III. Venkateswara University additional director general of police N
Sanjay said that this operation is a
IV. Vignans Foundation for Science,
continuation of Operation Svechaa phase
Technology and Research
1. “During phase-I, the CID made
Which of the above institutions have bagged a
significant efforts to rescue children,
place in the overall top 100 institutions in the
which received appreciation from the
country in the National Institutions Ranking
government,” he added.
Framework 2023?
Source:
(1) Only I and II (2) Only I and III
https://www.newindianexpress.com/vija
(3) Only I and IV (4) Only II and III yawada/2023/Jun/13/operation-svechha-
Answer: 1 phase-2-as-many-as-326-children-
Explanation: including-37-girls-rescued-2584538.html
• Only two institutions from Andhra 71. Which of the pairs of “Places in News:
Pradesh have bagged a place in the overall Country” are correct??
top 100 institutions in the country in the I. Bakhmut: Russia
National Institutions Ranking Framework II. Gaziantep: Turkey
2023.
III. Nusantara: Indonesia
Top 100 institutions category:
Select the correct answer from the options
• KL University-50 given below.
• Andhra University- 76 (1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
Top 100 universities category: (3) Only III and I (4) All I, II, III
• KL University-28 Answer: 2
• Andhra University-43 Explanation:
• Venkateswara University-60 • Bakhmut is a city in eastern Ukraine.
• Vignans Foundation for Science, • It is an administrative centre and an
Technology and Research-75 industrial hub in the Bakhmut Raion of
70. “Operation Svechha Phase-II” has been Donetsk region. Hence, Pair I is not
launched in Andhra Pradesh recently, which correct.
is aimed? • Gaziantep, which is still informally called
(1) Freeing up the marine ecosystem by Antep, is a major city in south-central
decreasing the usage of nets. Turkey. It is the capital of the Gaziantep
(2) Restricting human activities in wildlife Province and the sixth-most populous city
sanctuaries to provide space for wildlife. in Turkey. Hence, Pair II is correct.
(3) Against child labour. • Nusantara is the future capital of
(4) Aimed against domestic violence. Indonesia scheduled to be inaugurated in
Answer: 3 2024. Nusantara is located on the east
Explanation: coast of Borneo, which is the world’s

AMIGOS IAS 25
 third-largest island. Hence, Pair III is
correct.
72. Which two bodies of water does the
Tsushima Strait connect?
(1) East China Sea and the Philippine Sea
(2) South China Sea and the Sea of Japan
(3) East China Sea and the Sea of Japan
(4) South China Sea and the Philippine Sea
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 The Tsushima Strait connects the East
China Sea and the Sea of Japan in the
northwest Pacific Ocean.
73. “Nagorno-Karabakh issue” is often
mentioned in news related to?
(1) Ukraine and Russia
(2) Azerbaijan and Armenia
(3) China and India
(4) Israel and Syria
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Azerbaijan announced the establishment
of a roadblock at the opening of the Lachin
corridor, the sole land route connecting
Armenia and Nagorno-Karabakh, which
was followed by reports of border gunfire
by both Azeri and Armenian forces.
What is Nagorno-Karabakh?
• Nagorno-Karabakh, often known as
Artsakh by Armenians, is a hilly region in
the South Caucasus.
• After the fall of the Russian Empire in
1917, it was claimed by both Azerbaijan
and Armenia, and it has remained a
source of contention ever since.
AMIGOS IAS
• The territory is internationally recognised
as part of oil-rich Azerbaijan, but its
inhabitants are mostly ethnic Armenians
with their own government that has close
ties to the government in neighbouring
Armenia but is not officially recognised by
it or other U.N. member states.
• Armenian Christians claim a lengthy
history of supremacy in the region that
dates back several centuries before Christ.
• Azerbaijan, whose people are primarily
Muslim, also connects its historical
identity to its territory. It accuses
Armenians of forcibly displacing Azeris
who resided nearby in the 1990s. It wants
full control of the enclave and has
suggested that ethnic Armenians obtain
Azeri passports or leave.
74. “The Wagner Group” often seen in news is
(1) A China-backed hacking group
(2) A Russian paramilitary organisation
(3) A U.S based non-governmental militia
organisation
(4) Iranian hacker group
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 The Wagner Group also known as PMC
Wagner is a Russian paramilitary
organisation. It is believed to have been
founded in 2014.
75. The “East Container Terminal (ECT) project”
recently in the news, is located in which of
the following country?
(1) India (2) Iran
(3) Djibouti (4) Sri Lanka
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• After over two years since Sri Lanka’s
decision to cancel a joint memorandum of
understanding (MoU) between India and
Japan for the East Container Terminal
(ECT) project in Colombo, the three
nations are now exploring avenues to
rejuvenate trilateral collaboration.
• The cancellation of the MoU, estimated at
$500 million, and the suspension of the
Japanese-funded light rail transit (LRT)
project strained relations between Tokyo
and Colombo.
26
76. Adani Group began construction on the
nation's first integrated data centre and
technology business park in?
(1) Visakhapatnam (2) Tirupati
(3) Vijayawada (4) Guntur
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• In Visakhapatnam, the Adani Group began
construction on the nation's first
integrated data centre and technology
business park.
• The park would be the first of three
technological zones planned in Vizag.
• It houses a skill development centre and
has a potential for 200+ MW of data
centres, fueled by up to 100% renewable
energy.
Source:
https://cio.economictimes.indiatimes.co
m/news/big-data/adani-starts-work-on-
data-centre-at-vizag-in-andhra-
pradesh/100001292.
77. Andhra Pradesh Government’s “Helpline
Number 1091” is associated with?
(1) Anti-Ragging
(2) Anti-corruption
(3) Public Grievances
(4) Swabhiman Transgender Persons
Protection cell
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Andhra Pradesh CID launched Swabhiman
Transgender Persons Protection Helpline
number 1091 in the CID office at Guntur
on Wednesday. AP CID additional DGP N.
Sanjay proposed the helpline, which
aimed to protect the safety and dignity of
transgender persons by ending violence,
preventing discrimination against them,
including abuse and physical violence,
protecting their rights, monitoring cases
of crimes against them, and taking legal
action.
• This helpline would work in accordance
with the Transgender Persons (Protection
Rules) Act-2019 and the Transgender
Persons (Protection Rules)-2020 through
which they would analyse the complaints
of transgender persons, counselling,
AMIGOS IAS
taking legal action, and also undertaking
sensitisation programmes.
Source:
https://www.deccanchronicle.com/natio
n/in-other-news/180523/ap-cid-
launches-swabhiman-transgender-
persons-protection-helpline.html
78. Gundlakamma Project is located in which of
the following districts??
(1) Prakasam (2) Nandyala
(3) Bapatla (4) Palnadu
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• Power failure halted efforts to stop the
water flow from the damaged second gate
of the Gundlakamma project in Prakasam
district.
About Gundlakamma Project:
• This project is also known as Kandula
Obula Reddy Gundlakamma Reservoir
Project
• It is formed across Gundlakamma river
near Chinnamallavaram Village of
Maddipadu Mandal in Prakasam District.
• This Project is envisaged to utilize 12.845
TMC of water to provide irrigation
facilities to 62,368 Acres in Kharif and
80,060 Acres in Rabi seasons in 6 Mandals
of Prakasam District.
Source:
https://www.deccanchronicle.com/natio
n/current-affairs/091223/floodwaters-
damage-gundlakamma-projects-second-
gate-in-prakasam-distr.html
79. The Andhra Pradesh government has
released approximately 10 million fish into
the state’s water bodies to combat mosquito-
borne diseases like malaria and dengue.
Which of the following fish species is known
as a biological agent for controlling mosquito
larvae?
(1) Salmon (2) Gambusia
(3) Catfish (4) Catla Fish
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The Andhra Pradesh government has
released approximately 10 million
Gambusia fish into the state’s water
bodies to combat mosquito-borne
27
 diseases like malaria and dengue. The fish,
also known as mosquitofish, is widely used
as a biological agent for controlling
mosquito larvae.
• However, the release of these invasive
alien fish species has raised concerns
about the potential harm that will be
sustained by native species that abound in
the state’s freshwater bodies.
• Andhra Pradesh reported approximately
6,391 dengue cases and 2,022 malaria
cases in 2022, according to the Union
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare,
Government of India (MoHFW).
• However, the cases have risen
significantly, according to local news
reports: there have been 2,339 dengue
and 1,630 malaria cases registered in the
state in the last six months.
Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/
wildlife-biodiversity/gambusia-this-
solution-could-actually-be-an-invasive-
problem-90665
80. Which of the following industrial nodes are
present in Andhra Pradesh along the
Chennai-Bangalore Industrial Corridor?
(1) Kopparthy Node
(2) Donakonda Node
(3) Orvakallu Node
(4) Krishnapatnam Node
Answer: 1
Explanation:
AMIGOS IAS
Source:
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/
vijayawada/ap-to-reap-benefits-of-3-
industrial-
corridors/articleshow/102817993.cms
81. Which of the following statements is correct
with respect to Nuclear Test Ban Treaty?
I. It banned Nuclear Weapons Tests in the
Atmosphere, in Outer Space,
Underground and Under Water.
II. India, Pakistan, and North Korea are not
signatories to this treaty.
Select the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Nuclear Test Ban Treaty:
• Russian lawmakers will consider revoking
the ratification of a global nuclear test
ban.
• Russia could move to resume nuclear tests
to try to discourage the West from
continuing to offer military support to
Ukraine.
About the Nuclear Test Ban Treaty:
• Signed in Moscow in August 1963.
• Initial Parties (had Veto power): USA, UK,
USSR. (later 100 more nations joined)
• Formally called Treaty Banning Nuclear
Weapons Tests in the Atmosphere, in
Outer Space, and Under Water. (Didn’t
ban underground testing). Hence,
Statement I is incorrect.
• Trigger: Cuban Missile Crisis.
• 1977: Negotiations started on the
Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty
• Draft CTBT passed in UNGA in 1996.
• To enter into force, it needs to be signed
by all nuclear powers and 44 members of
the Conference on Disarmament who
have nuclear reactors.
• By 2007 all of these countries but three
(India, Pakistan, and North Korea) had
signed, though 10 of those that had signed
had not ratified, including the United
States and China. Hence, Statement II is
correct.
28
82. The “C+C5 grouping”, is a China plus
(1) Five Central American Republics
(2) Five Central Asian Republics
(3) Five ASEAN Countries
(4) Five European Countries
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The C+C5 grouping, which includes China
and central Asian countries (Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and
Uzbekistan), focuses on fostering
economic cooperation and regional
integration.
• These countries are strategically located
along the ancient Silk Road, and their
partnership with China aims to enhance
trade, investment, and infrastructure
development in the region.
• This collaboration promotes economic
growth and facilitates the flow of goods,
services, and capital.
• The C+C5 grouping is closely tied to
China’s ambitious Belt and Road Initiative.
Central Asian countries serve as important
nodes within the BRI, as they offer
connectivity between China, Europe, and
the Middle East.
• Energy cooperation is a significant aspect
of the C+C5 grouping. Central Asian
countries possess substantial energy
reserves, particularly in the form of oil,
natural gas, and uranium.
• China, as a rapidly growing economy,
requires a stable energy supply, and these
countries offer a potential source.
83. Which country is developing a smart city at
“Gelephu” on the border with India?
(1) Nepal (2) Bangladesh
(3) China (4) Bhutan
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Recently, Bhutan’s King has announced
plans to build a massive “international
city” in an area of over 1,000 sq. km. on its
border with Assam. This project is known
as the Gelephu Project.
AMIGOS IAS
84. With reference to the Indian Ocean Rim
Association (IORA), consider the following
statements:
I. IORA is an organization of 23 coastal
countries bordering the Indian Ocean.
II. ‘Reinforcing Indian Ocean Identity’ was
the banner theme at the Indian Ocean Rim
Association’s (IORA) Council of Ministers
(COM) held in Colombo on October 11,
2023.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Context: ‘Reinforcing Indian Ocean
Identity’ was the banner theme at the
Indian Ocean Rim Association’s (IORA)
Council of Ministers (COM) held in
Colombo on October 11, that was
attended by foreign ministers and senior
officials of the 23-nation grouping of
countries.
The IORA:
• The Indian Ocean Rim Association includes
23 countries from Africa, West Asia, South
Asia, Southeast Asia, Australia and littoral
states situated in and around the Indian
Ocean.
• IORA’s membership includes 23 countries:
Australia, Bangladesh, the Comoros,
France, India, Indonesia, Iran, Kenya,
Madagascar, Malaysia, the Maldives,
Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman,
Seychelles, Singapore, Somalia, South
Africa, Sri Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, the
UAE and Yemen.
• It also has 11 dialogue partners: China,
Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Germany, Italy, Japan,
South Korea, Russia, Türkiye, the U.K. and
the U.S.
• The grouping, whose apex body is the
Council of Foreign Ministers that meet
once a year, moves by rotation through
members every two years.
• Sri Lanka took charge as Chair this year
from Bangladesh, and India is Vice-Chair,
meaning that the troika of IORA is within
the South Asian region.
29
 • While the IORA was formed in 1997 (then
called the Indian Ocean Region-
Association for Regional Cooperation) in
Mauritius, its genesis came from a speech
Nelson Mandela gave in Delhi in 1995.
85. Which of the following pairs of places in the
news and their countries are correctly
matched?
I. Chashma: Pakistan
II. Newfoundland: Canada
III. Kharson: Ukraine
Select the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
(3) Only III and I (4) All I, II, III
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Chashma is located in Mianwali District
near Kundian, Punjab, Pakistan. Hence,
Pair I is correct.
• Pakistan and China signed an MoU to build
a new unit of the Chashma Nuclear Power
Plant.
• Newfoundland is a province of Canada
composed of the island of Newfoundland.
Hence, Pair II is correct.
• An underwater submersible “Titan” which
was to travel to the site of the Titanic
shipwreck on the ocean floor off
Newfoundland is missing.
• Kherson is a port city in Ukraine that
serves as the administrative centre of
Kherson Oblast. Hence, Pair III is correct.
• The Kakhovka Dam in Ukraine was
destroyed recently which has caused
extensive flooding along the lower
Dnieper River in Kherson and Kherson
Oblast region.
86. Consider the following statements regarding
the National Award for Empowerment of
Person with Disabilities.
I. These awards are presented by the
Minister for Social Justice.
II. The National Award for Empowerment of
Divyangjan 2023 was awarded to Sai
Kaustuv Dasgupta of Satya Sai district.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
AMIGOS IAS
(1) I only (2) II only
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• President Droupadi Murmu has conferred
the National Award for Empowerment of
Divyangjan 2023 to Sai Kaustuv Dasgupta
of Satya Sai district.
About National award for Empowerment of
Person with Disabilities:
• Empowerment of persons with disabilities
is an inter-disciplinary process, covering
various aspects namely, prevention, early
detection, intervention, education,
vocational training, rehabilitation and
social integration etc.
• Apart from resources, it requires
dedicated efforts of persons and
institutions involved in the process of
empowerment.
• In order to recognise their effort and
encourage others to strive to achieve
excellence in this field, the National
Awards for Empowerment of Persons with
Disabilities are being awarded every year.
• The National Awards for Empowerment of
Persons with Disabilities are being
awarded by the Department of
Empowerment of Persons with
Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment.
• Till 2017, the Award Scheme was
governed under the National Awards
Rules, 2013 which provided 7 categories
of disabilities as per the Persons with
Disabilities Act, 1995.
• However, with the coming into force of
the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act,
2016 with the effect from 19th April 2017,
the number of specified disabilities
increased from 7 to 21 under the new Law.
• Accordingly, all the 21 disabilities have
been included under the National Award
Guidelines which have been notified in the
Extraordinary Gazette of India dated 2nd
August 2018.
Source:
https://www.deccanchronicle.com/natio
n/in-other-news/031223/sai-kaustuv-
dasgupta-gets-presidents-
30
 award.html#:~:text=Anantapur%3A%20Pr
esident%20Droupadi%20Murmu%20has,t
he%20Wheelchair%20Warrior%20of%20I
ndia.
87. Recently, Justice Syed Abdul Nazeer took the
oath as Andhra Pradesh Governor. He will act
as the Executive Head of State under?
(1) Article 153 (2) Article 154
(3) Article 155 (4) Article 156
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Former Supreme Court Judge Justice Syed
Abdul Nazeer, sworn in as Governor of
Andhra Pradesh, replacing Biswa Bhusan
Harichandan.
• AP High Court Chief Justice Prashant
Kumar Mishra administered the oath of
office to Justice Abdul Nazeer, at a
ceremony held at Raj Bhavan.
• Justice Abdul Nazeer was appointed as
Governor of Andhra Pradesh on February
12. Born on January 5, 1958, in Beluvai,
Karnataka, he completed law at Sri
Dharmasthala Manjunatheshwara Law
College, Mangalore, and practiced in
Karnataka High Court and other courts for
about 20 years.
• On February 17, 2017, Justice Abdul
Nazeer was elevated to the Supreme
Court. After serving for almost six years in
the Apex Court, he retired on January 4,
this year.
• Article 153. Governors of States: There
shall be a governor for each state.
[Provided that nothing in this article shall
prevent the appointment of the same
person as governor for two or more
states.]
• Article 154: Executive Power of the State
(1) The executive power of the state shall
be vested in the governor and shall be
exercised by him either directly or through
officer’s subordinate to him in accordance
with this Constitution.
• Article 155: Appointment of Governor The
governor of a state shall be appointed by
the president by warrant under his hand
and seal.
AMIGOS IAS
• Article 156. Term of Office of Governor (1)
The Governor shall hold office at the
pleasure of the President.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/nation
al/andhra-pradesh/justice-syed-abdul-
nazeer-takes-oath-as-andhra-pradesh-
governor/article66548303.ece
88. Which of the following organisations in
Andhra Pradesh received the Digital
Technology Sabha Award in February 2023?
(1) Andhra Pradesh State Skill Development
Corporation
(2) Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport
Corporation
(3) Andhra Pradesh State Finance
Corporation
(4) Andhra Pradesh Industrial Development
Corporation
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport
Corporation (APSRTC) has received Digital
Technology Sabha Award in the category
of “Internet of Things”. RTC Vice-
Chairman and Managing Director RP
Thakur received the award from the RTC
House virtually.
• We won this award by competing with
many government institutions at national
level. The Corporation has been
implementing all types of digital payments
like UPI,QR code, net banking, credit/debit
cards and e-wallet on our mobile app. Seat
inventory of APSRTC was made available
on all online travel agency portals and
Apps like redBus, MakeMyTrip, Goibibo,
ixigo and AbhiBus,” Thakur said. He said
the APSRTC has provided 2,500 ticket
booking agent networks in Andhra
Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, Tamil
Nadu and Chhattisgarh.
• As part of Digital India programme,
APSRTC is mulling a new project (Unified
Ticketing Solution) in which passengers
can avail all types of services of the
Corporation like ticket booking and
cancellation, prepone/postponement of
journey, avail bus pass, live track buses
and send a parcel or courier on a single
31
 mobile App. All the above services will be
available through digital payments. After
the introduction of the new project, the
digital transaction share will go up to 50
per cent.
Source: https://www.sakshi.com/telugu-
news/andhra-pradesh/apsrtc-received-
digital-technology-sabha-award-5th-time-
1530238
89. Which one of the following sport/games is
not part of Aadudam Andhra programme?
(1) Cricket (2) Football
(3) Volleyball (4) Kabaddi
Answer: 2
Explanation:
91.
90. Recently, 25 primary health centres of which
district have been recognised by the Union
government and received National Quality
Assurance Standards (NQAS) certification?
(1) Vizianagaram (2) Srikakulam
(3) Guntur (4) Kurnool
Answer: 1
Explanation:
National Quality Assurance Standards
• Around 25 primary health centres (PHCs)
from the Vizianagaram district have been
recognised by the Union government and
received National Quality Assurance
Standards (NQAS) certification. 92.
About National Quality Assurance Standards
(NQAS):
• National Quality Assurance Standards
have been developed keeping in view of
specific requirements for public health
facilities as well global best practices.
AMIGOS IAS
• NQAS are currently available for District
Hospitals, CHCs, PHCs and Urban PHCs.
• Standards are primarily meant for
providers to assess their own quality for
improvement through pre-defined
standards and to bring up their facilities
for certification.
• The National Quality Assurance Standards
are broadly arranged under 8 "Areas of
Concern"– Service Provision, Patient
Rights, Inputs, Support Services, Clinical
Care, Infection Control, Quality
Management and Outcome.
• These standards are ISQUA accredited and
meets global benchmarks in terms of
comprehensiveness, objectivity, evidence
and rigor of development.
Source:
https://www.thehansindia.com/andhra-
pradesh/vizianagaram-25-phcs-get-nqas-
recognition-
842216#:~:text=Vizianagaram%3A%20Ar
ound%2025%20primary%20health,provid
ing%20services%20under%20their%20jur
isdiction.
“The Maitree Super Thermal Power Project”
is being developed by:
(1) Sri Lanka - India Friendship Power
Company
(2) Bangladesh India Friendship Power
Company
(3) Nepal India Friendship Power Company
(4) Indonesia and India Friendship Power
Company
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 The Maitree Super Thermal Power Project
is being developed by Bangladesh India
Friendship Power Company, a 50:50 joint
venture between India’s National Thermal
Power Corporation & Bangladesh Power
Development Board.
“Hiroshima AI Process (HAP)” was initiated
under the aegis of
(1) G20 (2) BRICS
(3) ASEAN (4) G7
Answer: 4
Explanation:
32
 • The annual G-7 summit took place in
Hiroshima from 19 to 21 May 2023. The
Hiroshima AI Process was initiated during
the summit.
• The annual G-7 summit was hosted by
Japan in Hiroshima from 19 to 21 May
2023.
• During the summit, the Hiroshima AI
Process (HAP) was initiated.
• HAP is an effort to determine a way
forward to regulate Artificial Intelligence
(AI).
• The ministerial declaration of the G-7
Digital and Tech Ministers’ Meeting (April
2023) discussed “responsible AI” and
committed to promoting human-centric
and trustworthy AI.
• Despite deliberations and accords to
regulate AI, each country is promoting
human-centric and trustworthy AI.
• Hiroshima AI Process:
• Despite several other issues, the
communiqué accorded more importance
to AI. It discussed inclusive AI governance
and trustworthy AI, in line with shared
democratic values.
• It also took stock of the opportunities and
challenges of generative AI.
• The G-7 communiqué aimed to establish
the Hiroshima AI process, through a G7
working group, in an inclusive manner and
in cooperation with the OECD and GPAI,
for discussions on generative AI by the end
of 2023.
93. Which of the following statements regarding
the ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
I. It is intended to assist developing
countries in adaptation and mitigation
practices to counter climate change.
II. It was founded under the aegis of UNEP,
OECD, the Asian Development Bank, and
the World Bank.
Select the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 1
Explanation:
AMIGOS IAS
• Green Climate Fund aims to assist
developing countries in adaptation and
mitigation practices to counter climate
change. Hence, Statement I is correct.
• The Green Climate Fund was established
in 2010 as a part of the UNFCCC’s financial
framework to channel funds from richer
nations to developing countries in order to
help them reduce climate change and
adapt to its effects. Hence, Statement II is
not correct.
94. Consider the following statements with
reference to the United Nations Security
Council (UNSC):
I. The UNSC is one of the six principal organs
of the United Nations.
II. It has 15 members, and each member has
two votes.
III. The UNSC can impose sanctions or
authorise the use of force to maintain or
restore international peace and security.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Only I and III (4) All the above
Answer: 3
Explanation:
 The UNSC has 15 members with one vote
each, and it can resort to imposing
sanctions or authorising the use of force
to maintain or restore international peace
and security. The UNSC is one of the six
principal organs of the United Nations.
95. What is the theme of the Ninth P20 Summit,
held in New Delhi on October 13–14, 2023?
(1) Parliaments for Global Peace and Security
(2) Parliaments for One Earth, One Family,
One Future
(3) Parliaments for Sustainable Development
(4) Parliaments for Democracy and Good
Governance
Answer: 2
Explanation:
The Ninth P20 Summit will have the theme
“Parliaments for One Earth, One Family,
One Future.” This theme is inspired by the
ancient Indian philosophy of Vasudhaiva
Kutumbakam, which means “The World is
One Family.”
33
96. Recently, Greater Vishakhapatnam
Municipal Corporation and the Forest
Department collaborated to conserve which
of the following species?
(1) Indian Star Tortoise
(2) Tiny Grass Blue
(3) Marsh Crocodile
(4) Olive Ridley Turtle
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Greater Vishakhapatnam Municipal
Corporation aims to collaborate with the
forest department to develop an Olive
Ridley Turtle Conservation Centre.
About Olive Ridley Turtles:
• The olive Ridley gets its name from the
olive green colour of its heart-shaped
shell.
• The species is among the smallest of the
world’s sea turtles and is found primarily
in the tropical regions of the Pacific,
Indian, and Atlantic oceans.
• These turtles are carnivores and get their
name from their olive-colored carapace.
• They are best known for their unique mass
nesting called Arribada, where thousands
of females come together on the same
beach to lay eggs.
• The species is listed as Vulnerable in the
IUCN Red List, Appendix 1 in CITES, and
Schedule 1 in Wildlife Protection Act,
1972.
About Olive Ridley Turtle Conservation:
• Olive Turtle conservation project started
in 2017.
• During December to March, many Olive
Ridley turtles come to the western coast
of Maharashtra and lay their eggs.
• These eggs are then guarded by a group of
volunteers against predators and
poachers.
• Eggs naturally hatched within 40 - 45 days
and the hatchlings will then be released to
the sea.
• Previously they were either sold in the
markets or were destroyed by dogs, but
now these conversational efforts helped
the rise of the Ridley family.
AMIGOS IAS
• And in this regard, the Olive Ridley Turtle
Conservation festival is celebrated with
great vigor.
Activities:
• Observe the Olive Ridley’s laying eggs
• Help the volunteers to release hatchlings
into the sea.
• Tourists can see different species of
turtles.
97. Consider the following Cities of Andhra
Pradesh.
I. Visakhapatnam
II. Tirupati
III. Amaravati
IV. Anantapuram
Which of the above are selected under Smart
Cities Mission of India?
(1) Only I and III (2) Only II and III
(3) Only I, II and III (4) All the above
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Four cities of Andhra Pradesh —
Visakhapatnam, Tirupati, Kakinada, and
Amaravati — were picked for the Union
government’s Smart Cities Mission (SCM)
between 2016 and 2017. Six years since
the launch of the ambitious project, the
progress across these cities paints a mixed
picture. Overall, projects worth 4,700
crore have been completed out of the
planned 6,900 crore in the four cities.
• APCRDA allocates Rs 40 crore for
developing Amaravati as a Smart city at
par with top 100 cities in the country
under CITIIS (City Investments to Innovate
Integrated and Sustain) → 15 E-health
centres to be set up in Amaravati.
Source:
https://www.newindianexpress.com/stat
es/andhra-pradesh/2023/feb/04/15-e-
health-centres-to-be-set-up-in-andhra-
pradeshs-
amaravati2544282.html#:~:text=GUNTUR
%3A%20Andhra%20Pradesh%20Capital%
20Region,100%20cities%20in%20the%20
country.
34
98. Andhra Pradesh Forest Department aimed to
develop how many Nagaravanams in urban
areas across the state.?
(1) 80 (2) 90
(3) 100 (4) 120
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Andhra Pradesh Forest Department
officials are gearing up to develop over
100 Nagaravanams in urban areas across
the state.
About Nagaravanam Initiative:
• The aim of the scheme is to provide
wholesome living environment to urban
areas and thereby contributing to the
creation of smart, clean, green and
healthy cities.
• During 2016-17 Ministry of Environment,
Forest & Climate Change, Government of
India have conceptualized the programme
for climate smart green cities by name
Nagarvan – Udyan Yojana.
• It is (Ek Kadam Hariyaliki) to
develop/create at least one city Forest in
each city over an extent of 25 ha. – 100 ha.
within the adjacent Forest areas.
• In continuation of the Nagarvan Udyan
Yojana Scheme, State Government of
Andhra Pradesh has taken initiative for
further development of Nagaravanams
across the state as urban lung spaces and
started a new scheme called
“Nagaravanam” as state development
programme.
• As part of AP Eco-Tourism Project, over 44
Nagaravanams are being developed
across the State, including in:
Rayadurgam, Kalyanadurgam,
Puttaparthi, Pampanuru, Hindupur, and
Palmaneru in Ananthapur circle,
Kondaveedu, Perecherla, Darsi-I, Darsi-II,
Perlavanipalem, Naidupeta, Kotturu in
Guntur circle, Potlampally,
Gargeyapuram, Dhone in Kurnool circle,
Kothuru-Tadepalli, Krishnalanka, Butterfly
Park, and Diwancheruvu
Rajamahendravaram, Divyaramam, RS
park in Tirupati, and Saripalli in
Visakhapatnam.
AMIGOS IAS
99. How many of the tourist police stations have
been launched by the Andhra Pradesh Chief
Minister recently across the state at
important religious and tourist places?
(1) 15 (2) 20
(3) 25 (4) 30
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Giving a boost to tourism security in
Andhra Pradesh, Chief Minister Y.S. Jagan
Mohan Reddy has inaugurated Tourist
Police Stations at 20 important religious
and tourist places in various districts
virtually from his Camp Office at Tadepalli.
• RK Beach in Visakhapatnam,
• Sri Kodanda Rama Swamy temple at
Vontimitta in YSR district,
• Kukkuteswara Swamy temple at
Pithapuram in Kakinada district,
• Pushkar Ghat at Rajahmundry,
• Sri Venkateswara Swamy temple at
Dwaraka Tirumala in Eluru district
• Manginapudi Beach and the Mopidevi
Temple in Krishna district,
• Indrakeeladri Temple and Bhavani Island
in NTR district,
• Mypadu Beach and the Sri Penusila
Lakshmi Narasimha Swami temple at
Penchalakona in SPSR Nellore district,
• Mahanandi and Ahobilam temples in
Nandyala district,
• Raghavendra Swamy temple at
Mantralayam in Kurnool district,
• Horsley Hills in Annamayya district and
• Lepakshi temple in Satya Sai district.
Source:
https://www.deccanchronicle.com/natio
n/current-affairs/140223/cm-
inaugurates-tourist-police-stations-at-20-
centres.html
100. Consider the following dams.
I. Paleru dam
II. Gollaleru dam
III. Thimmaraju dam
in Which of the above given dams form part of
Owk Tunnel Project?
(1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) II and III only (4) All the above
Answer: 4
35
 Explanation:
• Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister
Inaugurated the Owk Tunnel Project
About Owk Tunnel Project:
• Three earth dams comprising of Paleru,
Gollaleru and Thimmaraju form the Owk
Reservoir complex.
• It is a balancing reservoir in Srisailam Right
Bank Canal & Galeru-Nagari Sujala
Sravanthi systems.
• Previously the Paleru and Thimmaraju
earth dams are the tanks which feeds
water to Owk village ayacut of
approximately 600 acres and 2000 acres
respectively
• The Stage I of Owk reservoir was taken up
as part of the SRBC Scheme under World
Bank aided programme
• To raise the bund level to +224.00 M and
to impound water to a level of 220.00 M
with a capacity of 1.91 TMC to feed water
to SRBC ayacut from Blocks 12 to 21.
• It is to stabilse for an ayacut of around
80,000 acres. The work was taken up and
completed.
• The Stage II programme was taken up as
part of GNSS system raising the level of
the Owk Reservoir complex to +231.00 M
to impound water up to +227.00 M level
with a capacity of 4.148 TMC and the work
is also completed.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/nation
al/andhra-pradesh/andhra-pradesh-chief-
minister-inaugurates-tunnel-ii-of-owk-
project/article67590683.ece
101. Which of the following statements with
respect to the EU-India Trade and Technology
Council is/are correct?
I. It is the second bilateral forum for the EU.
II. It is the first bilateral forum established
with any partner for India.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
AMIGOS IAS
 The EU-India Trade and Technology
Council is the second bilateral forum for
the EU and the first one established with
any partner for India. The EU and the US
launched a TTC in June 2021.
102. Which of the following statements is/are
correct with reference to the International
Labour Organization (ILO)?
I. The ILO is a tripartite U.N. agency,
founded in 1919, bringing together
governments, employers, and workers of
member states to promote decent work.
II. India is a founding member of the ILO.
III. India has ratified all of its eight
core/fundamental ILO conventions.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II
(3) Only III (4) All the above
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 The ILO is a tripartite U.N. agency, and
India, a founding member, has ratified six
out of the eight core/fundamental ILO
conventions.
103. Which of the following countries and
organizations are part of the “Black Sea Grain
Initiative”?
(1) Ukraine, Russia, Turkey, Food and
Agricultural Organization
(2) Ukraine, Russia, Turkey, and the United
Nations
(3) Ukraine, Russia, United States and Food
and Agricultural Organization
(4) Ukraine, Russia, Turkey, and the European
Union
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The Black Sea Grain Initiative was
launched by Ukraine, Russia, Turkey, and
the United Nations.
• It aims to facilitate the export of grain
from Ukraine through the Black Sea.
104. “Mouvement du 23 Mars (M23)” is an
insurgent group active in which of the
following countries?
(1) Tunisia (2) Nigeria
(3) Democratic Republic of Congo
(4) South Sudan
36
 Answer: 3
Explanation:
 Mouvement du 23 Mars (M23) is an
insurgent group active in the Democratic
Republic of Congo. It is active in eastern
DRC leading to clashes with the Congolese
army.
105. Exercise ‘Al Najah’ Exercise ‘Eastern Bridge’
and Exercise ‘Naseem Al Bahr’ are joint
military exercises between India and
(1) Saudi Arabia
(2) United Arab Emirates
(3) Maldives
(4) Oman
Answer: 4
Explanation:
 Joint Military Exercises between India and
Oman are Al Najah (Army exercise),
Eastern Bridge (Air Force exercise), and
Naseem Al Bahr (Naval Exercise).
106. Which of the following organisations aims to
create 12,000 “Energy clubs” in Andhra
Pradesh to help students understand the
importance of energy conservation and
108.
efficiency?
(1) Energy Efficiency Services Limited
(2) Bureau of Energy Efficiency
(3) AP Power Generation Corporation
(4) International Energy Agency
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) aims
to create 12,000 Energy Clubs in Andhra
Pradesh to help students understand the
importance of energy conservation and
efficiency.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/nation
al/andhra-pradesh/bureau-of-energy-
efficiency-aims-to-create-12000-energy-
clubs-in-andhra-
pradesh/article66462669.ece
109.
107. Mulapeta Port is located in which district?
(1) Parvathipuram Manyam
(2) Srikakulam
(3) Vizianagaram
(4) Vishakhapatnam
Answer: 2
AMIGOS IAS
Explanation:
• Andhra Pradesh Fisheries and Animal
Husbandry Minister said that the first
cargo ship will berth at Mulapeta Port in
Srikakulam district September 2024.
About Mulapeta Port:
• The Mulapeta Port, being built in an area
of 1250 acre with an annual handling
capacity of 23.5 million tonnes in the
Srikakulam District.
• This port will have four loading and
unloading berths to handle exports and
imports of coal, multipurpose containers,
and general cargo.
• This port is expected to provide 25,000
jobs and play a key role in handling
exports and imports from states like
Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya
Pradesh, and Odisha.
Source:
https://infra.economictimes.indiatimes.c
om/news/ports-shipping/andhra-cm-lays-
foundation-stone-for-mulapeta-port-in-
srikakulam/99614705
The Andhra Pradesh Cabinet gave its
approval for the establishment of the
National Law University in the state. It is
establishing in?
(1) Anantapur (2) Kadapa
(3) Kurnool (4) Amaravati
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• The Andhra Pradesh Cabinet gave its
approval for the establishment of the
National Law University in the state.
• The university, the second of its kind in the
country, will come up on a 50-acre campus
at Kurnool.
Source: https://news.abplive.com/andhra-
pradesh/andhra-cabinet-s-nod-for-
national-law-university-at-kurnool-
1581031
“E-MIRCHA project” that was initiated by the
AP Horticultural Department. It is being
implemented in coordination with?
(1) Digital Green NGO
(2) Bill and Milinda Gates Foundation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)
37
 Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Nearly 49,000 chilli farmers had received
various benefits under the E-MIRCHA
project that was initiated by the AP
government.
• Andhra Pradesh is the major chili-
producing State in India.
• AP government- Horticulture department
in coordination with Digital Green NGO
including Bill and Milinda Gates
Foundation has introduced the E-MIRCHA
project to increase the quality of mirchi
produced in the state.
Source:
https://www.newindianexpress.com/stat
es/andhra-pradesh/2023/feb/13/49000-
chilli-farmers-of-andhra-benefit-under-e-
mircha-project-
2546951.html#:~:text=The%20main%20i
nitiative%20of%20this,production%20cap
acity%20of%20the%20farmers.&text=Ima
ge%20used%20for%20representational%
20purpose%20.
110. 2023 Edition “Global Tech Summit” was held
in?
(1) Vijayawada (2) Visakhapatnam
(3) Tirupati (4) Kakinada
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The co-convenor of the Global Tech
Summit and CEO of Pulsus Company
Gedela Srinubabu said that European
Business Technology Center (EBTC) would
set up a center of excellence in Vizag as AP
is an agricultural state
• Above 1,000 delegates from 25 countries
such as the UK, USA, Europe and also from
African countries would take part in it.
Source:
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/
visakhapatnam/two-day-global-tech-
summit-from-
today/articleshow/97965694.cms
111. Consider the following organisations.
I. International Development Association
(IDA)
II. International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD)
AMIGOS IAS
III. Multilateral Investment Guarantee
Agency (MIGA)
IV. International Finance Corporation (IFC)
V. International Centre for Settlement of
Investment Disputes (ICSID)
In how many of the above constituents of the
World Bank Group is India a member?
(1) Only two (2) Only three
(3) Only Four (4) All
Answer:3
Explanation:
• The World Bank Group is one of the
world’s largest sources of funding and
knowledge for developing countries. Its
five institutions share a commitment to
reducing poverty, increasing shared
prosperity, and promoting sustainable
development.
• India is a member of four of the five
constituents of the World Bank Group viz.,
the International Bank for Reconstruction
and Development (IBRD), International
Development Association (IDA),
International Finance Corporation (IFC),
and Multilateral Investment Guarantee
Agency (MIGA).
• India is not a member of ICSID
(International Centre for Settlement of
Investment Disputes).
• India has been accessing funds from the
World Bank (mainly through IBRD and
IDA) for various development projects.
112. This foreign policy of the Indian government
is an initiative to strengthen economic and
security cooperation with neighbouring
maritime countries. It was introduced in
response to the harsh reality that instability
in the marine environment anywhere would
not enhance India's maritime security and its
national interests. This policy demonstrates
the linkage between maritime cooperation,
maritime security, and economic
development. It brought to focus the
increasingly critical role that the Coast Guard
agencies of the Indian Ocean littorals will
play in ensuring the security of their
respective vast EEZs for facilitating economic
activities based on the blue economy.
38
 Which of the following Indian Foreign Policy is
described above?
(1) Malabar Exercise
(2) SAGAR Doctrine
(3) Quad Grouping
(4) Act East Policy
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The Security and Growth for All in the
Region (SAGAR) Doctrine is an initiative
introduced by the Modi government to
strengthen economic and security
cooperation with the maritime neighbor
countries.
Salient features of SAGAR doctrine:
• SAGAR doctrine effectively demonstrates
the linkages between maritime
cooperation, maritime security, and
economic development.
• Defence and security relations are
essential pillars of bilateral cooperation
with some of the IOR countries like the
Seychelles, Mauritius, and the Maldives.
• In this doctrine, India intended to expand
strategic partnerships with other IOR
littorals in Asia and Africa, and SAGAR
provided the mechanism to do so.
• SAGAR stressed the critical role of IONS
(Indian Ocean Naval Symposium), an
Indian initiative that had 35 navies as its
members; and IORA (Indian Ocean Rim
Association).
• After SAGAR, India actively continued to
pursue its program of capacity-building
initiatives in the IOR (Indian Ocean
Region).
• SAGAR brought to focus the increasingly
critical role that the Coast Guard agencies
of the Indian Ocean littorals will play in
ensuring the security of their respective
vast EEZs for facilitating economic
activities based on the blue economy.
113. Which of the following statements with
respect to the Kalapani dispute between
India and Nepal is/are correct?
I. Kalapani valley is located in Uttara
Pradesh.
II. The Kali river demarcates the border
between India and Nepal in this region.
AMIGOS IAS
Select the correct answer using the options
given below:
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Currently, India and Nepal have border
disputes over the Kalapani-Limpiyadhura-
Lipulekh trijunction between India-Nepal
and China and the Susta area (West
Champaran district, Bihar).
Kalapani Region:
• Kalapani is a valley that is administered by
India as a part of the Pithoragarh district
of Uttarakhand. It is situated on the
Kailash-Mansarovar route. Hence,
Statement I is incorrect.
• Kalapani is advantageously located at a
height of over 20,000 feet and serves as an
observation post for that area.
• The Kali River in the Kalapani region
demarcates the border between India and
Nepal. Hence, Statement II is correct.
• The Treaty of Sugauli, signed by the
Kingdom of Nepal and British India (after
the Anglo-Nepalese War) in 1816, located
the Kali River as Nepal's western boundary
with India.
• The discrepancy in locating the source of
the Kali river led to boundary disputes
between India and Nepal, with each
country producing maps supporting their
own claims.
39
114. The recent first ‘India-EU Joint Naval Exercise’ III. Vedic students are also covered under this
was held in? scheme.
(1) The Mediterranean Sea Which of the above given statements is/are
(2) The Gulf of Guinea incorrect?
(3) The Indian Ocean (1) I only (2) I and II only
(4) The Baltic Sea (3) II and III only (4) All the above
Answer: 2 Answer: 3
Explanation: Explanation:
The European Union (EU) and India conducted • Andhra Pradesh Brahmin Welfare
their first joint naval exercise in the Gulf of Corporation announced that they will be
Guinea. sending a proposal to the state
115. Consider the following statements with government to include Vedic students
respect to LiFE. under the Amma Vodi scheme.
I. The LiFE initiative was launched by Prime About Jagananna Amma Vodi:
Minister Narendra Modi at COP27 of • This scheme was launched in the year
UNFCC. 2020 by the Chief Minister of Andhra
II. “LiFE Lessons from India report” was Pradesh.
released by UNEP. • This scheme provides poor mothers (or
Which of the above statements is/are correct? recognized guardian in the absence of
(1) Only I (2) Only II mother) ₹15,000/- per annum for sending
their children to school.
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
• The scheme is managed by the School
Answer: 4
Education Department, Government of
Explanation:
Andhra Pradesh.
• The LiFE initiative was launched by Prime
• The objective of the scheme is to enhance
Minister Narendra Modi at COP26 in
access to schools, ensure equity, assuring
Glasgow in 2021.
quality education, improve attendance,
• It aims to encourage the adoption of and retention, achieve better learning
sustainable lifestyles in India and outcomes, and for the overall
internationally to tackle the challenges of development of the child from Classes 1st
environmental degradation and climate to 12th.
change.
• The scheme is expected to lead to a strong
• LiFE Lessons from India report was foundation for the increase in the overall
released by International Energy Agency. Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) at the
• As per the report the ‘Lifestyle for primary and secondary levels of education
Environment’ or LiFE initiative of India for of the state including Higher Education
the adoption of energy-efficient and framed Guidelines for
behaviour can save the world $440 billion implementation of the program.
in 2030. Benefits of the scheme:
• It would be equivalent to around 5% of all • The eligible mothers/guardians will be
fuel spending across the global economy sanctioned ₹ 14000/- which will be
in 2030. deposited directly into the beneficiary’s
116. Consider the following statements regarding savings account of the Nationalized Bank /
the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme: Post Office in January every year until the
I. This scheme provides BPL category child passes Class 12th.
mothers with ₹15,000 per annum for • An amount of ₹ 1000/- from each
sending their children to school. beneficiary shall be deducted at the
II. The scheme covers students studying source and released to School/College
from 1st to 10th grade in government Committee as District Toilet Maintenance
schools.

AMIGOS IAS 40
 Fund (DTMF) under the control of the
District Collector.
Eligibility of the scheme:
• Must be legal resident of AP.
• Must be from a BPL household with a
white ration card.
• The student must be studying in a
government school/ junior college
between class 1 and 12.
• If child discontinue the study in middle of
the session of academic year, then he will
not be able to avail the benefits of the
scheme.
117. NTPC is to set up a "New Energy Park" in
Andhra Pradesh to produce products out of
green hydrogen, green ammonia and green
methanol at a cost of Rs 1,10,000 crore in two
phases. It is establishing in?
(1) Kurnool District
(2) Anakapalli District
(3) Bapatla District
(4) Konassema District
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• NTPC is to set up a "New Energy Park" at
Pudimadaka in Anakapalli district of
Andhra Pradesh to produce products out
of green hydrogen, green ammonia and
green methanol at a cost of Rs 1,10,000
crore in two phases.
Source: https://www.business-
standard.com/article/companies/andhra-
govt-clears-rs-1-10-trn-proposal-of-ntpc-
for-new-energy-park-
123020701823_1.html#:~:text=NTPC%20
will%20set%20up%20New,55%2C000%20
crore%2C%20the%20release%20said.
118. Andhra Pradesh won five national-level
awards under the Ayushman Bharat Digital
Mission (ABDM). AP stood in which rank for
linking the number of health records
between October 20, 2022, and December
20, 2022, per 1 lakh population?
(1) 1st (2) 2nd
(3) 3rd (4) 4th
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• Andhra Pradesh won five national-level
awards under the Ayushman Bharat
AMIGOS IAS
Digital Mission (ABDM). AP stood first in
linking the maximum number of health
records between October 20, 2022, and
December 20, 2022, per 1 lakh population.
• Eluru, Visakhapatnam, and Palnadu stood
in the top three places in linking maximum
health records to ABDM. AP also achieved
an award for the maximum number of
records linked to ABHA by an integrator.
Source:
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/
vijayawada/ap-bags-5-awards-under-
abdm/articleshow/97336700.cms
119. The three-day 16th Global Health Summit,
organised by the American Association of
Physicians of Indian Origin (AAPI), called for a
new global health architecture that gives
priority to promoting health and preventing
disease rather than only treating the sick. It
was held in?
(1) Vijayawada (2) Tirupati
(3) Visakhapatnam (4) Rajahmundry
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• The three-day 16th Global Health Summit
organised by American Association of
Physicians of Indian Origin (AAPI) in
Visakhapatnam called for a new global
health architecture that gives priority to
promoting health and preventing disease,
rather than only treating the sick.
• The architecture must be based on
common vision, be inclusive, and
stimulate innovative solutions to health
challenges.
• The summit also discussed many
important issues related to Andhra
Pradesh. Taking forward the call of Chief
Minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy, AAPI
decided to provide mental healthcare for
school students to prevent suicides. For
this purpose, a pilot project is being
launched to train 10,000 teachers as
counselors.
Source :
https://www.deccanchronicle.com/natio
n/in-other-news/080123/vizag-summit-
calls-for-new-global-health-
architecture.html
41
120. Consider the following statements with ?PRID=1912123#:~:text=The%20Second%
reference to G20 meetings. 20G20%20Infrastructure%20Working,Vis
I. The second G20 Infrastructure Working akhapatnam%20on%20March%2029th%2
Group (IWG) meeting was held in C%202023.
Visakhapatnam. 121. Consider the following statements regarding
II. The theme of the meeting was “Financing the Henley Passport Index:
Cities of Tomorrow: Inclusive, Resilient, I. It ranks passports based on the number of
and Sustainable." countries their holders can access without
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a prior visa.
(1) I Only (2) II Only II. In 2023, India’s ranking on the Passport
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II Index declined to 80th place.
Answer: 3 How many of the statements given above
Explanation: is/are correct?
• The Second G20 Infrastructure Working (1) Only I (2) Only II
Group (IWG) meeting under the Indian (3) Both I and I (4) Neither I Nor II
G20 Presidency concluded successfully in Answer: 3
Visakhapatnam on March 29th, 2023. The Explanation:
two-day meeting was co-chaired by • In 2023, India’s ranking on the Passport
Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry Index improved to 80th place.
of Finance, Government of India, along • Singapore is currently the most powerful
with Australia and Brazil. 57 delegates passport in the world, allowing visa-free
from 14 G20 member countries, 8 access to 192 travel destinations.
invitees, and 10 international 122. Which of the pairs of defense exercises
organizations attended the meeting between India and countries involved is
physically. correctly matched?
• The G20 Infrastructure Working Group I. Ekuverin: Maldives
deliberates on various aspects of
II. Khaan Quest: Mongolia
infrastructure investments, including
III. Lamitye: Sri Lanka
developing infrastructure as an asset
class, promoting quality infrastructure IV. Dustlik: Kazakhstan
investment, and identifying innovative Which of the pairs given above are correctly
instruments for mobilizing financial matched?
resources for infrastructure investment. (1) Only I and IV (2) Only I and II
• The agenda for the meeting involved (3) Only II and III (4) Only III and IV
discussions on the ways to augment Answer: 2
financing in cities of tomorrow, along with Explanation:
other priorities outlined in the 2023 • Ekuverin: India and Maldives
Infrastructure Agenda. • Khaan Quest: Annual military exercise in
• During the discussion, members discussed Mongolia
and agreed on the way forward for • Lamitye: India-Seychelles joint military
important deliverables for the year, exercise
including the flagship theme of “Financing
• Dustlik: India and Uzbekistan
Cities of Tomorrow- Inclusive, Resilient
123. “The Shangri-La Dialogue (SID)” is an inter-
and Sustainable”. On this agenda,
governmental security forum held annually
members discussed various facets of
by an independent think tank in?
making cities economic centres of growth,
financing urban infrastructure, building (1) Malaysia (2) Singapore
future-ready urban infrastructure etc. (3) Philippines (4) Australia
Source: Answer:2
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx Explanation:

AMIGOS IAS 42
 • The International Institute for Strategic
Studies (IISS) Shangri-La Dialogue is Asia’s
premier defence summit.
• It’s a unique meeting where ministers
debate the region’s most pressing security
challenges, engage in important bilateral
talks and come up with fresh approaches
together.
• The 2023 event took place place in
Singapore on 2–4 June.
Shangri La Dialogue:
• The Shangri-La Dialogue (SID) is an inter-
governmental security forum held
annually by an independent think tank,
the International Institute for Strategic
Studies (IISS).
• It is attended by defence ministers,
permanent heads of ministries, and
military chiefs of 28 Asia-Pacific states.
• The forum gets its name from the Shangri-
La Hotel in Singapore where it has been
held since 2002.
• The Shangri-La Dialogue was conceived by
the current IISS Director-General and
Chief Executive Sir John Chipman in 2001
in response to the clear need for a forum
where the Asia Pacific defence ministers
could engage in dialogue aimed at building
confidence and fostering practical security
cooperation.
124. Which of the following organizations /
institutions releases the Global Findex
Report?
(1) Economist Intelligent Unit
(2) International Monetary Fund
(3) World Bank
(4) World Economic Forum
Answer:3
Explanation:
• The Global Findex Report is released by
the World Bank.
• It provides data on financial inclusion and
access to financial services worldwide.
125. Consider the following statements with
reference to the India-Middle East-Europe
mega economic corridor project:
AMIGOS IAS
I. It includes India, the UAE, Saudi Arabia,
the European Union, France, Italy,
Germany, and the US.
II. The project is part of the Partnership for
Global Infrastructure Investment (PGII).
III. It is part of China’s Belt and Road Initiative
(BRI).
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Only II and III (4) All the above
Answer: 3
Explanation:
India – Middle East – Europe mega economic
corridor:
• A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
was signed between the governments of
India, the US, Saudi Arabia, the European
Union, the UAE, France, Germany, and
Italy to establish the IMEC.
• IMEC is part of a broader initiative called
the Partnership for Global Infrastructure
Investment (PGII).
• The PGII was initially introduced during
the G7 summit in the UK in June 2021.
• The project aims to establish a network of
transport corridors, including railways and
sea lanes.
• IMEC is seen as a response to China’s Belt
and Road Initiative (BRI), providing an
alternative infrastructure network.
126. Which of the following statements is correct
with reference to “AMPHEX 2023”?
I. It is a biennial tri-services exercise.
II. It was conducted in Kakinada, Andhra
Pradesh.
43
 III. It is the first time that the exercise has
been undertaken at Kakinada.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
(3) Only I and III (4) All the above
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• The biennial Tri-Services Amphibious
Exercise, AMPHEX 2023, was conducted in
Kakinada, Andhra Pradesh, from January
17 to 22. AMPHEX is aimed at joint training
of elements of all three services in various
facets of amphibious operations to
enhance interoperability and synergy.
• AMPHEX 23 is the first time that the
exercise was undertaken at Kakinada and
was the largest ever AMPHEX conducted
till date.
• The participating forces undertook
complex exercises in all domains of
amphibious operations over five days.
• The exercise witnessed the participation
of a number of amphibious ships,
consisting of Large Platform Docks (LPD),
Landing Ships and Landing Crafts, Marine
Commandos (MARCOS), helicopters, and
aircraft from the Indian Navy.
• The Indian Army participated in the
exercise with over 900 troops, which
included Special Forces, artillery, and
armored vehicles. Jaguar fighters and C-
130 aircraft from the IAF also participated
in the exercise.
Source:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePag
e.aspx?PRID=1893205#:~:text=AMPHEX%
20is%20aimed%20at%20joint,ever%20A
MPHEX%20conducted%20till%20date.
127. “The Citizen Perception Survey” is conducted
by?
(1) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs,
Government of India
(2) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs,
Andhra Pradesh
(3) Ministry of Personnel Public Grievances
and Pensions, Government of India
(4) The National Consumer Disputes
Redressal Commission
Answer: 1
AMIGOS IAS
Explanation:
• Proving that people are living in Andhra
Pradesh with ease, as many as three cities
from the state secured top spots in the
Citizen Perception Survey.
• According to the official reports, three
cities from Andhra Pradesh, including
Guntur, Vijayawada, and Visakhapatnam,
secured positions in the top ten list in the
national-level survey.
• Meanwhile, Bengaluru topped the overall
national rankings.
• Guntur has reported the highest
percentage of the participation of city
population in the survey(51.37%) in the
entire country, while Vijayawada reported
32.12% and Visakhapatnam 16.72%.
• The Citizen Perception Survey conducted
by the Ministry of Housing and Urban
Affairs, Government of India, is part of the
Ease of Living Index, which seeks to
directly capture the perceptions of
citizens with respect to the quality of life
in their cities.
• The survey is conducted every year on
various parameters like city development,
basic amenities, sanitation, and other
aspects, provided by over 1,800 local
bodies.
Source:
https://www.newindianexpress.com/stat
es/andhra-pradesh/2023/jan/09/three-
ap-cities-top-in-ease-of-living-survey-
2536009.html#:~:text=According%20to%
20the%20official%20reports,in%20the%2
0national%20level%20survey.
128. 'Prabhala Theertham, often seen in the news
during the festive season, is associated with
which of the following regions in Andhra
Pradesh?
(1) Srikakulam (2) Konaseema
(3) Kurnool (4) Nellore
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• "The tableau of Andhra Pradesh depicts
'Prabhala Theertham'- a festival of the
peasantry during Makara Sankranti, at the
Republic Day parade."
• A 450-year-old tradition and culture of
peasantry is protected religiously and is
44
 followed by the residents of all villages in
the Konaseema district. The peasantry
bound with age-old customs and
traditions boasts of rich culture and
heritage.
• Sankranti is one of the main festivals for
the people of Andhra Pradesh, which
comes after the harvest season. Prabhala
Theertam festival entails taking out idols
built of bamboo frames and decorated
with colorful clothes, papers, feathers and
Kathirkula (rice sheaves woven together
signifying prosperity).
• The tableau showcased how these
decorated bamboo arches with Lord
Shiva's idols on them are taken around in
a huge procession from all villages. People
throng to the Prabhala Theertham and
enjoy the celebration amid the bursting of
firecrackers amid the playing of traditional
musical instruments and Garaga folk
dance, which was also on display on the
tableau.
Source :
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/
amaravati/state-to-showcase-prabhala-
teertham-during-r-day-
parade/articleshow/96926505.cms
129. Which the following statements is correct
with respect to YSR Rythu Bharosa scheme?
I. This Financial Assistance is also being
provided to SC, ST, BC, Minority Category
Landless tenant farmers.
II. The amount is paid in 3 equal instalments.
III. Of this scheme amount, Rs. 6,000 is paid
from PM KISAN Scheme.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
(3) Only I and III (4) All the above
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Investment Support to Farmer - YSR Rythu
Bharosa :
• Dr. YSR Rythu Bharosa - PM Kisan : This
scheme was launched on 15th October
2019.
• Under this scheme, Financial Assistance is
being provided to Agriculture Land
Owning farmer families @ of Rs. 13,500
AMIGOS IAS
per year per family. Of this amount Rs.
6,000 will be paid from PM KISAN
SCHEME.
• Financial Assistance is also being provided
to SC, ST, BC, Minority Category Landless
tenant farmers and ROFR cultivators.
(ROFR - Recognition of Forest Rights).
• The amount will be paid in 3 instalments
(not equal instalments) as detailed below.
Instalment Financial Assistance:
• May Rs. 7,500/- (P.M. Kisan Assistance Rs.
2000/-)
• October Rs. 4,000/- (P.M. Kisan Assistance
Rs. 2000/-)
• January Rs. 2,000/- (exclusively of P.M.
Kisan Assistance Rs. 2000/-)
• In 2021-22 the total beneficiaries 52.38
lakh families of this 1.51 lakh families
comes under tenant farmers category.
Source:
https://www.deccanchronicle.com/natio
n/in-other-news/310823/jagan-to-
release-rs-10974-crore-under-ysr-rythu-
bharosa-to-146324-t.html
130. Which of the following statements is correct
with respect to Dr YSR Abhaya Hastham
scheme?
I. It is a contributory cum insurance scheme.
II. It provides lifelong pension of 1000/-per
month to SHG Members.
III. It provides the life insurance cover for the
age group of 18 to 59 years.
Select the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
(3) Only I and III (4) All the above
Answer: 3
Explanation:
45
 Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/nation
al/telangana/abhaya-hastam-deposit-
money-to-be-returned-to-shg-
women/article65218261.ece
131. Which of the following is the correct
arrangement of these places often seen in
the news, from south to north on a map?
(1) Gaza Strip – Golan Heights – West Bank
(2) Gaza Strip – West Bank – Golan Heights
(3) Golan Heights – Gaza Strip – West Bank
(4) Golan Heights – West Bank – Gaza Strip
Answer: 2
Explanation:
 Golan Heights – West Bank – Gaza Strip is
the correct arrangement of these places
from North to South on a map.
132. Who won the 2023 Booker Prize for Fiction
for his or her novel ‘Prophet Song’?
(1) Geetanjali Shree (2) Margaret Atwood
(3) Salman Rushdie (4) Paul Lynch
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Irish author Paul Lynch won the 2023 Booker
Prize for his novel ‘Prophet Song’, which is
a dystopian work set in an Ireland that
descends into tyranny.
133. Who has been selected as the External
Auditor of the International Labour
Organization (ILO) for a four-year term from
2024 to 2027?
(1) Praveen Mehta
(2) Girish Chandra Murmu
(3) RG Vishwanathan
(4) Aditya Roy Chowdary
Answer: 2
Explanation:
AMIGOS IAS
• Girish Chandra Murmu, who is currently
the Comptroller and Auditor General of
India (CAG), has been selected as the
External Auditor of the International
Labour Organization (ILO) in Geneva for a
four-year term from 2024 to 2027.
• CAG will take over from the incumbent
External Auditor of ILO, Supreme Audit
Institution of Philippines.
134. The union Home minister recently visited
“Harami Nala” and Border Observation Posts
(BOPs) of the Border Security Force (BSF).
Where is “Harami Nala” located?
(1) Pak Occupied Kashmir (PoK)
(2) Sir Creek Area of Kutch
(3) Andaman Sea
(4) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Harami Nala:
• The union Home minister visited “Harami
Nala” and Border Observation Posts
(BOPs) of the Border Security Force (BSF)
in the Sir Creek area of Kutch, Gujarat,
along the India-Pakistan international
border.
• Harami Nala is known for its inhospitable
conditions and has been a hotspot for
cross-border crime and exploitation by
infiltrators.
About Harami Nala:
• Harami Nala is a natural water body
approximately 25 kilometres long that
flows west to east from Pakistan into
Kutch, south of the Vighakot sector.
• The channel is flanked by vast marshy
mudflats that are affected by low and high
tides.
• About 22 odd kilometres of the channel lie
on the Indian side of the “vertical line” of
the IB between India and Pakistan, which
is not contested.
• It is extremely rich in fishing, especially
prawns.
• Pakistani fishing boats try to enter the
Harami Nala on the Indian side, drawn by
the possibilities of better fish catch.
• The Indian side is mostly empty over the
entire spread of the Harami Nala except
46
 for factories producing salt, bromide, and
other chemicals.
135. Which two countries are conducting the
naval exercise "Sea Guardian-3" in the
Northern Arabian Sea?
(1) China and Pakistan
(2) Russia and Iran
(3) Japan and Philippines
(4) India and Oman
Answer: 1
Explanation:
 The naval exercise ‘Sea Guardian-3’ is
being conducted in the Northern Arabian
Sea by China and Pakistan. This is the 3rd
edition of the bilateral naval drill between
the two countries.
136. Which of the following statement is correct
with reference to Jagananna Vidhya Deevena
and Vasati Deevena Schemes?
I. Vasati Deevena provides Rs.10,000/- per
person to ITI students, Rs.15,000/- per
person to Polytechnic students and
Rs.20,000/- per person for other Degree
and above courses per year.
II. Any student whose annual family income
is less than Rs. 1.5 lakh are eligible under
Jagananna Vidya Deevena Scheme.
Select the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor 2
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• Under Jagan Anna Vidya Deevena Scheme,
the fee of students belonging to
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes,
backward classes, minorities, Kapus,
economically backward classes and
AMIGOS IAS
differently abled categories will be
reimbursed.
o Jagananna Vidya Deevena (RTF): to
provide full fee reimbursement to every
eligible student, i.e. Full Fee (Tuition Fee,
Special Fees,Other Fees & Exam Fees) as
defined in the G.O.Ms.No.66, SW(Edn)
Dept., dated 8-9-2010 and as fixed by the
competent authorities is reimbursed to all
eligible students. ii. Full fee shall be
credited to the respective College
accounts on behalf of students.
o Jagananna Vasathi Deevena (MTF): to
provide Rs.10,000/- per person to ITI
students, Rs.15,000/- per person to
Polytechnic students.Rs.20,000/- per
person for other Degree and above
courses per year to every eligible student
for food and hostel expenses.
JaganannaVasathi Deevena shall be
credited into the respective account of the
mother of the eligible student. In case of
the demise or absence of the mother, the
amount shall be credited to the account of
the natural guardian of the student.
• 75% aggregate attendance is mandatory
for the release of scholarship.
• Any student whose annual family income
is less than Rs. 2.5 lakh are eligible under
Jagananna Vidya Deevena Scheme.
• Those with 10 acres of wetland and 25
acres of dry land are also eligible for the
benefit.
• There is no income limit for students
hailing from families of sanitation works
and those who are professionally
dependent on taxis, auto, and tractor.
However, the income taxpayers will not be
eligible.
• Initially, the full fee reimbursement will be
extended to students pursuing B Tech, B
Pharmacy, M Tech, M Pharmacy, MBA,
MCA, BEd and such courses
In - eligible Students:
The students under the following categories
are not eligible for availing the Schemes.
i. Studying in Private Universities / Deemed
Universities.
ii. Pursuing Correspondence / Distance
education courses.
47
 iii. Admitted under Management / Sports
Quota.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/nation
al/andhra-pradesh/jsp-alleges-
misappropriation-of-120-crore-in-vidya-
kanuka-scheme/article67532545.ece
137. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Jagananna Civil Services
Prothsahakam.
I. It is to provide financial assistance as cash
incentive to the aspirants of socially,
educationally and economically
weaker/backward sections.
II. It provides Rs.1 lakh and Rs.50,000 who
qualified in the Preliminary and Mains Civil
Services Examination conducted by the
UPSC respectively.
Select the correct answer.
(1) I Only (2) II Only
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Government sanction new scheme
Jagananna Civil Services Prothsahakam to
provide financial assistance as cash
incentive to theaspirants of socially,
educationally and economically
weaker/backward sections of Andhra
Pradesh, who qualified in the Preliminary
and Mains Civil Services Examination
conducted by the UPSC for an amount of
Rs.1 lakh and Rs.50,000 respectively in
order to increase the representation of
A.P in the Civil Services.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/nation
al/andhra-pradesh/andhra-pradesh-
cabinet-gives-nod-to-jagananna-civil-
services-incentive-
scheme/article67327198.ece
138. Consider the following statements with
reference to “sponge cities mission.”
I. A sponge city is a city that is designed to
passively absorb, clean, and use rainfall in
an ecologically friendly way.
II. It will cover 15 urban local bodies in
Andhra Pradesh.
Select the correct answer.
(1) I Only (2) II Only
AMIGOS IAS
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• The Union government's 'sponge cities'
mission will cover 15 urban local bodies of
Andhra Pradesh, including
Visakhapatnam, Rajahmundry, Kakinada,
Guntur, Kadapa, Eluru, Bhimavaram,
Ongole, Adoni, etc.
• A sponge city is a city that is designed to
passively absorb, clean, and use rainfall in
an ecologically friendly way that reduces
dangerous and polluted runoff.
• There is a lack of a proper drainage
network in the cities.
• When we build cities, we build on
wetlands and ponds, which actually have
the ability to soak in extra water.
• Cities are getting bigger, and climate
change is threatening to bring more
extreme weather events.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead
/time-for-a-sponge-cities-mission-in-
india/article32985979.ece
139. Which of the following statements is correct
with reference to “YSR Kalayana Masthu
scheme”?
I. The bride must have passed Class 10th
and be at least 18 years old at the time of
marriage.
II. Brides belonging to construction worker
families are also eligible for this scheme.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
(1) I Only (2) II Only
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 3
Explanation:
48
 (4) Genetic engineering
Answer:3
Explanation:
 The Bletchley Declaration on responsible
development of Artificial Intelligence was
endorsed by 28 countries and the
European Union. It encourages
transparency and accountability from AI
developers on monitoring and mitigating
potentially harmful capabilities.
142. “MONDIACULT 2022 World Conference” aims
to?
(1) talk about sustainable development and
cultural policies.
Source: (2) encourage nuclear science and technology
https://www.thehindu.com/news/nation (3) highlight scientific and technological
al/andhra-pradesh/andhra-pradesh-govt- developments
releases-8164-crore-for-ysr-
(4) addressing global issues in the defence
kalyanamasthu-shadi-tohfa-
industry
beneficiaries/article67565398.ece
Answer: 1
140. The Fourth World Kuchipudi Day was
Explanation:
celebrated on?
 The UNESCO-MONDIACULT 2022 World
(1) October 20 (2) October 15
Conference focused on cultural policies
(3) October 7 (4) October 25
and sustainable development, aiming to
Answer: 2 shape a more robust and resilient cultural
Explanation: sector.
• Fourth World Kuchipudi Day was 143. Which of the following countries is a member
celebrated on October 15, 2023. of the Arab League??
• Kuchipudi, one of the major dance forms I. Syria
of India, originated in Andhra Pradesh. II. Saudi Arabia
Kuchipudi is the state classical dance of
III. Israel
Andhra Pradesh.
Select the correct answer from the options
• Kuchipudi derives its name from the
given below.
village of Kuchelapuram, where it was
(1) Only I (2) Only II
nurtured by great scholars and artists who
refined the dance technique. (3) Only I and II (4) All I, II, III
• It grew largely as a product of the Bhakti Answer: 3
movement beginning in the 7th century Explanation:
AD. • The Arab League re-admitted the Syrian
Sources: government, ending a more than decade-
https://www.thehansindia.com/hans/you long suspension and isolation.
ng-hans/world-kuchipudi-day-celebrated • In November 2011, the Arab League
141. “The Bletchley Declaration," was recently suspended Syria over its crackdown on
seen in the news, aims to promote peaceful protests that took the shape of a
responsible development of which civil conflict that led to the killing of over
technology? 5,00,000 people.
(1) Nuclear technology • After a 12-year suspension, Arab
(2) Space technology government delegates voted to reinstate
Syria in the Arab League in 2023.
(3) Artificial intelligence

AMIGOS IAS 49
 • The Arab League is a regional organisation
of Arab states in the Middle East.
• It was formed in Cairo in 1945 after a pact
of the League was signed by six members,
namely Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon,
Saudi Arabia, and Syria.
• The Arab League has 22 member states,
which include Algeria, Bahrain, Comoros,
Djibouti, Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Kuwait,
Lebanon, Libya, Mauritania, Morocco,
Oman, the Palestinian Authority, Qatar,
Saudi Arabia, Somalia, Sudan, Syria,
Tunisia, the United Arab Emirates, and
Yemen.
• Israel is not a member of the Arab League.
144. Consider the following statements:
I. Moscow Format is a dialogue platform on
the peace process in Afghanistan.
II. India is not a party to the Moscow Format.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 1
Explanation:
About Moscow Format:
• The Moscow format is one of the several
dialogue platforms on Afghanistan, which
began before the Taliban takeover of
Kabul.
• The key objective of the Moscow format
of consultations is to facilitate the national
reconciliation process in Afghanistan and
establish peace.
• A dialogue platform on Afghanistan,
initiated in 2017.
• To promote regional peace and
cooperation.
• 6 founding members; now 9 members:
China, India, Iran, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan,
Pakistan, Russia, Turkmenistan, and
Uzbekistan.
145. African Development Bank (AfDB) Group
comprises of how many of these entities?
I. African Development Bank (ADB)
II. African Development Fund (ADF)
III. Nigeria Trust Fund (NTF)
IV. African Union
AMIGOS IAS
Select the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Only I, II, III (2) Only II, III, IV
(3) Only I, III,IV (4) All the above
Answer:1
Explanation:
• ADB is a multilateral development finance
institution.
• It provides finance to African governments
and private companies investing in the
Regional Member Countries (RMC).
• It was founded in 1948.
• Its fundamental duty is to fight poverty
and improve the standard of living of the
continent by investing in projects and
programs which uplifts the socio-
economic conditions of the common
mass.
• The Headquarter is located in in Abidjan,
Côte d’Ivoire. But it moved to Tunis,
Tunisia in 2003, before returning in
September 2014.
• The AfDB is controlled by a Board of
Executive Directors, made up of
representatives of its member countries.
• Member governments are officially
represented at the AfDB by their Minister
of Finance, Planning or Cooperation who
sits on the AfDB Board of Governors.
• It is to be noted that Cabo Verde and Libya
are the only two countries are without the
beneficiary of AfDB or ADF.
• The AfDB comprises three entities: the
African Development Bank (ADB), the
African Development Fund (ADF) and the
Nigeria Trust Fund (NTF).
146. Consider the following statements with
respect to YSR Law Nestham.
I. The name of the applicant shall be entered
in the rolls of advocates being maintained
by the Andhra Pradesh State Bar Council.
II. It provides a monthly stipend of ₹ 3,000/-
for the first three years
III. Non-practicing advocates are also eligible
for the scheme to encourage them to
practice.
Which of the above statements is/are not
correct?
50
 (1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
(3) Only I and III (4) All the above
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• This scheme was launched in 2019.
• This scheme is being implemented by the
Law Department, Government of Andhra
Pradesh.
• Benefit: A monthly stipend of an amount
of ₹ 5,000/- for the first three years.
Eligibility:
• The applicant should be a which was developed by ConveGenius,
resident/domicile of the state of Andhra
Pradesh.
• The applicant shall possess bachelor’s
degree in law.
• The applicant should be a Law Graduate,
who passed out in the year 2016 and
afterward.
• The name of the applicant shall be entered
in the rolls of Advocates being maintained
by the Andhra Pradesh State Bar Council
under Section 17 of the Advocates Act,
1961.
• The Junior Advocates, who started
practice and have not crossed the first
three (3) years of practice, as of the date
of issue of the Government Order, are
eligible for a stipend for the remaining
period.
Exclusions:
• The Junior Advocates, who have crossed
the first three (3) years of practice, as of
the date of issue of the G.O., are not
eligible.
• The Applicant possessing four-wheelers in
his name is not eligible.
• A Non - Practicing Advocates are not
eligible.
Source: https://news.abplive.com/andhra-
pradesh/andhra-pradesh-cm-ys-jagan-
mohan-reddy-releases-ysr-law-nestham-
funds-for-over-2-000-lawyers-1583822
147. The Government of Andhra Pradesh is set to
introduce a generative artificial intelligence
(AI) bot called “Doubt Clearance Bot." For
whom is it targeted to clear the doubts?
AMIGOS IAS
(1) Consumers
(2) Students
(3) Government functionaries
(4) Citizens
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• The Government of Andhra Pradesh is set
to introduce a generative artificial
intelligence (AI) bot for students studying
in government schools.
• The bot called "Doubt Clearance Bot,"
will be available to students 24/7 to
answer their doubts and queries.
• It will answer queries in the subjects of
physics, chemistry, biology, mathematics,
English, and TOEFL preparation.
• The bot will be installed on all the tablets
and Interactive Flat Panels (IFPs) supplied
to teachers and students.
• The Doubt Clearance Bot is part of the
Andhra Pradesh government's
commitment to providing high-quality
education to students and preparing them
for the future.
Source:
https://www.deccanchronicle.com/natio
n/in-other-news/191023/andhra-
pradesh-to-introduce-generative-ai-bot-
for-students.html
148. Which of the following statements is/are
correct with respect to “Jaganannaku
Chebudham Program”.
I. It replaced the existing “ Spandana”
grievance redressal program.
II. Citizens can use this helpline by calling
1902 to register individual or household-
level grievances.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
(1) I Only
(2) II Only
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Chief Minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy
started an innovative Jaganannaku
Chebudam' programme to listen to the
51
 grievances from the public and resolve
them possibly on-the-spot.
• Jaganannaku Chebudham is a universal
grievance redressal helpline that allows
citizens to directly raise their issue to the
Chief Minister’s Office.
• As a part of the initiatives, the state
government has launched the new
outreach programme is an improvised
version of the Spandana. It is
improvisation of the existing Spandana
programme.
• Citizens can use this helpline by calling
1902 to ✓ Register individual or
household-level grievances ✓ Follow up
on the status of a registered grievance ✓
Enquire about government services and
schemes
Source:
https://www.deccanchronicle.com/natio
n/current-affairs/040223/cm-to-start-
jaganannaku-chebudam-grievance-
programme.html
149. Recently, Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister
Jagan Mohan Reddy launched the “INDGAP
programme.” What is the aim of this
programme?
(1) to bridge the gaps in the education
system.
(2) to bridge the gaps in the healthcare
system.
(3) to help the government facilitate export of
farm yield at a premium price.
(4) To bridge the gaps in public service
delivery.
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister Jagan
Mohan Reddy launched “INDGAP
programme.” The certification will help
the government facilitate export of farm
yield at a premium price not only
domestically but also to more than one
hundred countries, including Europe and
U.S.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/a
ndhra-pradesh/andhra-pradesh-chief-
minister-jagan-mohan-reddy-launches-
indgap-programme/article66785683.ece
AMIGOS IAS
150. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Jagananna Saswatha
Bhuhakku-Bhuraksha scheme:
I. A comprehensive resurvey programme
will be launched in order to store the
digital records of land.
II. The resurvey project resurvey properties
in only rural Areas.
Select the correct answer.
(1) I Only
(2) II Only
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I Nor II
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Jagananna Bhuhakku and Bhuraksha Scheme:
• The Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh
asked officials to complete the third phase
of the Jagananna Saswatha Bhuhakku-
Bhuraksha by January 2024. Jagananna
Bhuhakku and Bhuraksha Scheme.
• The Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh
launched Jagananna Saswatha Bhuhakku
Bhuraksha Scheme on 18th January 2022.
• Through this scheme, a comprehensive
resurvey programme will be launched in
order to store the digital records of land.
Hence, Statement I is correct.
• The registration of lands in ward/village
secretariat will commence soon after the
completion of the comprehensive
resurvey.
• The resurvey project includes properties
in urban areas apart from Rural Areas.
Hence, Statement II is not correct.
• The ultimate goal of the resurvey is to
create a database of all immovable
properties that serves as a conclusive
record of titles as per S&B (AP Survey and
Boundaries) act 1923.
Sources:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/nation
al/andhra-pradesh/cabinet-panel-asks-
officials-to-complete-third-phase-of-land-
resurvey-work-by-
january/article67430977.ece
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