APPSC – GROUP-II, Prelims – TEST 9 (10-01-2024) (NOV-DEC BATCH)3

Directions for questions (1-20): Select the 4. In a certain code language, if the word
correct alternative from the given choices “CREATIVE” is coded as TIVECREA, then how
1. In a certain code language, if the word will you code the word “ACTION” in that
“PERMIT” is coded as TIMREP, then how will language?
you code the word “REJECTION” in that 1) NOCIAT 2) NOIACT
language? 3) NOAICT 4) IONACT
1) NOICTEJRE 2) NOITCEJER Answer: 4
3) NOITECJER 4) None of these Explanation:
Answer: 2 The given word is divided into exactly two
Explanation: halves and then the second half and the first
All the letters in the word are reversed from half of the letters have interchanged their
right to left. P E R M I T is coded as T I M R E P places in the same order.
Similarly, REJECTION is coded as NOITCEJER. CREA TIVE is coded as TIVE CREA
2. In a certain code language, if the word 1 2 2 1
“COMMUNICATION” is coded as Similarly,
OCMMNUCITAOIN, then how is the word ACT ION is coded as ION ACT
“LANGUAGE” coded in the language? 1 2 2 1
1) ALGNUAGE 2) ALGNAUEG 5. In a certain code language, if the word
3) ALNGUAEG 4) ALGNUAEG “INFERNO” is coded as FOREINN, then how
Answer: 2 will you code the word “PLACATE” in that
Explanation: language?
The first two letters are interchanged and the 1) AEAPLTC 2) AEACPTL
next two letters are interchanged and so on. 3) AEACTPL 4) CEPTLAA
COMMUNICATION is coded as Answer: 2
OCMMNUCITAOIN Explanation:
Similarly, LANGUAGE is coded as ALGNAUEG. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
3. In a certain code language, if the word I N F E R N O
“MARKET” is coded as MREAKT, then how F O R E I N N
will you code the word “FORMAL” in that 3 7 5 4 1 8 2
language?
Similarly,
1) FARMOL 2) FRLOMA
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
3) FROAML 4) FRAOML
P L A C A T E
Answer: 4
A E A C P T L
Explanation:
3 7 5 4 1 6 2
M A R K E T is coded as M R E A K T
6. In a certain code language, if the word
i.e., the letters at odd place are written first in “PRINTER” is coded as TRINPRE, then how
increasing order and then the letters in the will you code the word “BAMBOOS” in that
even places are written in increasing order language?
123 4 56 13 5 2 4 6 1) BMBOOAS 2) BOMBOAS
F O R M A L is coded as F R A O M L 3) OSMBBAO 4) AMBBSOO
Answer: 3

AMIGOS IAS Nov-Dec BT 1

 Explanation: Word : F A C U L T Y
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Logic : -2 -2 -2 - 2 -2 -2 -2
P R I N T E R Code : D Y A S J R W
T R I N P R E 10. In a certain code language, if the word
5 7 3 4 1 2 6 “SEGMENT” is coded as RFFNDOS, then how
Similarly, will you code the word “RITUAL” in that
BAMBOOS the letters will come in the order of language?
5, 7, 3, 4, 1 2, 5, 6, O S M B B A O 1) SHUTBM 2) QJUTBK
7. In a certain code language, if the word 3) QJSVZM 4) QHUBTK
“COVER” is coded as DPWFS, then how will Answer: 3
you code the word “CRACK” in that language? Explanation:
1) DBSTL 2) DBSBL Word : S E G M E N T
3) DSBDL 4) DLSBA Logic : -1 +1 -1 +1 -1 +1 -1
Answer: 3 Code : R F F N D O S
Explanation: Similarly,
Word : C O V E R Word : R I T U A L
Logic : +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 Logic : -1 +1 -1 +1 -1 +1
Code : D P W F S Code : Q J S V Z M
Similarly, the code for C R A C K is D S B D L 11. In a certain code language, if the word
8. In a certain code language, if the word “HARVARD” is coded as IZTTDOH, then how
“STRONG” is coded as UVTQPI, then how will will you code the word “WHARTON” in that
you code the word “DOCILE” in that language?
language? 1) XGCPWLR 2) XGEEPWL
1) FQEKMG 2) FQEKNG 3) XGCCWRL 4) None of these
3) FQEJNG 4) FQDKNG Answer: 1
Answer: 2 Explanation:
Word : S T R O N G Word : H A R V A R D
Logic : +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 Logic : +1 -1 +2 -2 +3 -3 +4
Code : U V T Q P I Code : I Z T T D O H
Similarly, Similarly,
Word : D O C I L E Word : W H A R T O N
Logic : +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 Logic : +1 -1 +2 -2 +3 -3 +4
Code : F Q E K N G Code : X G C P W L R
9. In a certain code language, if the word 12. In a certain code language, if the word “RISK”
“CODING” is coded as AMBGLE, then how will is coded as SKVO, then how will you code the
you code the word “FACULTY” in that word “TAKE” in that language?
language? 1) USTI 2) UKNI
1) HCEWOVA 2) HCEWOAV 3) UKLP 4) UCNI
3) DYAWJRW 4) DYASJRW Answer: 4
Answer: 4 Explanation:
Explanation: Word : R I S K
Word : C O D I N G Logic : +1 +2 +3 +4
Logic : -2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2 Code : S K V O
Code : A M B G L E Similarly,
Similarly, Word : T A K E
Logic : +1 +2 +3 +4
Code : U C N I

AMIGOS IAS 2
13. In a certain code language, if the word Answer: 3
“FOCUS” is coded as TVDPG, then how will Explanation:
you code the word “LIGHT” in that language? By following all these RESULT is coded as,
1) UIHJM 2) UHIJM 244322
3) UIJHM 4) None of these 18. If in a certain code “A” is represented by 1,
Answer: 1 “B” by 2 “C” by 3. All letters represented by a
Explanation: prime number are coded as 1 and all letters
The word FOCUS is reversed like SUCOF and represented by non prime numbers are
then written by adding one letter to each coded as 2, then the code of “PRIME” would
letter. be
14. If “SQUARE” = 87 and “RECTANGLE” = 94, 1) 21212 2) 21211
then what is the value of “ROMBUS”? 3) 22111 4) 22211
1) 96 2) 94 Answer: 4
3) 89 4) None of these Explanation:
Answer: 2 P R I M E is coded as
Explanation: P R I M E
The sum of all the letter values is added to the 2 2 2 1 1
number of letter to get the final value. 19. If in a certain code “COPIER” is coded as
15. If “OPPOSE” = 12 and “RETAINS” = 14, then 123456, “BRAND” is coded as 76890, then
what is the value of “PARK”? “BRIBE” is coded as
1) 12 2) 36 1) 78475 2) 76474
3) 18 4) 8 3) 76127 4) 76475
Answer: 4 Answer: 4
Explanation: Explanation:
The number of letters are multiplied by 2. So COPIER–123456
PARK is 4 x 2 = 8 BRAND – 7 6 8 9 0
16. If “EXAMINATION” = 121 and “PAPER” = 25, B R I B E is coded as 7 6 4 7 5
then what is the value of “TREASURE”? 20. If in a certain code, “BRING” is coded as
1) 64 2) 360 45321, “PRICK” is coded as 65390, then
3) 290 4) None of these “BRICK” is coded as
Answer: 1 1) 43590 2) 46390
Explanation: 3) 45390 4) 45380
The number of letters in the word is squared. Answer: 3
Number of letters in the word EXAMINATION Explanation:
= 11 and (11)2 = 121 BRING–45321
Number of letters in the word PAPER = 5 and PRICK–65390
(5)2 = 25 B R I C K is coded as 4 5 3 9 0
Number of letters in the word TREASURE = 8 Directions for questions (21-25): Complete the
and (8)2 = 64 following series
17. If in a certain code “A” is represented by 1, 21. 49, 1625, 3649, 6481, ____
“B” by 2, “C” by 3. For the rest of the letters 1) 81100 2) 100144
all the multiples of 2 are given a code of 2, the
3) 100121 4) 121169
multiples of 3 are given a code of 3. In case of
Answer: 3
a clash 2 will prevail, and the rest of the
letters in the alphabet are given a code of 4, Explanation:
what is the code for “RESULT”? 49, 1625, 3649, 6451
1) 243322 2) 244324 The above series can be written as
3) 244322 4) 344322 22 32 , 4252 , 6272 , 8292 , 102 112

AMIGOS IAS 3
 102 = 100 and 112 = 121 Answer: 3
100121 Explanation:
22. 23, 57, 1113, 1719, ____ 2, 12, 36, 80, 125, 252, 392
1) 1921 2) 2321 = 12 2, 22 3, 32 4, 425, 52 5, 627, 728
3) 2329 4) 2931 So the wrong one is 525 it should be 526
Answer: 3 27. 0, 7, 98, 1029, 9604, 84045, 705894
Explanation: 1) 705894 2) 84045
Successive prime numbers are written in 3) 1029 4) 98
increasing order as a pair in each number in Answer: 2
the series. Next prime numbers to 17 and 19 Explanation:
are 23 and 29. The given series is 0, 7, 98, 1029, 9604, 84045,
23. 12, 14, 18, 26, 38, 62, ____ 705894 which can be expressed as
1) 76 2) 72 70  0, 71  1, 72  2, 73  3, 74  4, 75  5 + 10,
3) 74 4) 80 76 6
Answer: 3 So the wrong number is 75  5 + 10 = 84045, it
Explanation: should be 755
12, 14, 18, 26, 38, 62 28. 21, 51, 81, 111, 141, 201, 291
The product of the digits in each number, is 1) 141 2) 51
added to the number to get the next number 3) 201 4) 81
in the series. Answer: 4
12  1  2 = 2 and 12 + 2 = 14 Explanation:
14  1  4 = 4 and 14 + 4 = 18 and so on The given series is
24. 3, 15, 35, 63, 99, _____ 21, 51, 81, 111, 141, 201, 291
1) 138 2) 132 This can be expressed as
3) 143 4) 156 7  3, 17  3, 27  3, 37  3, 47  3, 67  3, 97  3
Answer: 3 Here only 273 is composite number 3. So 81
Explanation: is the wrong number of series
Products of the consecutive odd numbers are 29. 390625, 79125, 15625, 3125, 625, 125
given in the series 1) 79125 2) 390625
3, 15, 35, 63, 99, 143 3) 3125 4) 15625
13 35 57 79 911 1113 Answer: 1
25. 12, 36, 150, 392, 1452, _____ Explanation:
1) 2452 2) 2197 The given series is 390625, 79125, 15625,
3) 2246 4) 2366 3125, 625, 125 which can be expressed as
Answer: 4 58, 57, 56, 55, 54, 53
Explanation: 56 633 = 79125, it should be 57 = 78125
12, 36, 150, 392, 1452 30. 21, 91, 161, 241, 301, 371, 441
The given series can be written as 1) 371 2) 161
(2)3 + (2)2 (3)3 + (3)2 (5)3 + (5) 2 (7)3 + (7)2 3) 241 4) 441
(11)3 +(11) 2, (13)3 + (13)2 Answer: 3
Explanation:
(13)3 + (13)2 = 2197 + 169 = 2366
The given series is
Directions for questions (26-35): In the following
number series, only one number is wrong. Find the 21, 91, 161, 241, 301, 371, 441 which can be
wrong number in the series. expressed as 37, 137, 237, 337 + 10,
437, 537, 637
26. 2, 12, 36, 80, 125, 252, 392
So the wrong number of the series
1) 36 2) 80
= 33  7 + 10
3) 125 4) 252
= 231 + 10 = 241. It should be 337 = 231

AMIGOS IAS 4
31. 5, 16, 50, 153, 459, 1394, 4188 Directions for questions 36-40: Complete the
1) 50 2) 153 following series.
3) 459 4) 1394 36. 1K1, 3M1, 7Q1, 9S1, 3W2, 9C2, ____
Answer: 3 1) 3E1 2) 2F6
Explanation: 3) 1E3 4) 3D1
5, 16, 50, 153, 459, 1394, 4188 Answer: 3
Here 53 + 1 = 16; 163 + 2 = 50; Explanation:
503 + 3 = 153; 1533 + 4 = 463; 1K1, 3M1, 7Q1, 9S1, 3W2, 9C2, 1E3
4633 + 5 = 1394; 13943 + 6 = 4188
32. 2, 5, 10, 25, 250, 3105, 781250
11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31
1) 25 2) 250
are prime numbers, by writing the digits from
3) 3105 4) 781250
right to left. The respective letters are taken to
Answer: 3
the prime numbers.
Explanation:
37. 4B2, 8G1, 9H1, ____, 7B5
2, 5, 10, 25, 250, 3105, 781250
510
1) 8E2 2) 9C7
Here 25 = 10; 2
= 25; 10  25 = 250 3) 6C3 4) 7D4
25250
= 3125; 250  3125 = 781250 Answer: 3
2
33. 2, 3, 7, 16, 62, 321, 4546 Explanation:
1) 62 2) 16 4 B 2 4 – 2 = 2, and 2nd letter is B
3) 321 4) 4546 8 G 1 8 – 1 = 7, and 7th letter is G
Answer: 1 Similarly, 6C3  6 – 3 = 3, and the 3rd letter C.
Explanation: 38. B3Z, D9W, H27T, _____, V243N
2, 3, 7, 16, 62, 321, 4546 1) N64Q 2) N51Q
Here 22 + 3 = 7; 32 + 7 = 16, 72 + 16 = 65 3) N81R 4) N81Q
162 + 65 = 321; 652 + 321 = 4546 Answer: 4
34. 1, 5, 12, 39, 88, 209, 378 Explanation:
1) 39 2) 12 Consider the corresponding letters in each of
3) 88 4) 209 the given setoff letters
Answer: 2 B+2, D+4, H+6, N+8, V
Explanation: (3)1, (3)2, (3)3, (3)4, (3)5
1, 5, 12, 39, 88, 209, 378 Z-3, W-3, T-3, Q-3, N
Here 1 + 22 = 5; 5 + 32 = 14 + 52 = 39 Hence, the missing letters are N81Q
39 + 72 = 88; 88 + 112 = 209; 209 + 132 = 378 39. A – 1, B – 16, C – 81, D – 256, ____
35. 5, 7, 17, 52, 225, 1131, 6793 1) E – 125 2) E – 225
1) 17 2) 52 3) E – 625 4) E – 425
3) 1131 4) 225 Answer: 3
Answer: 2 Explanation:
Explanation: The given series is
5, 7, 17, 52, 225, 1131, 6793 A – 1 B – 16 C – 81 D – 256 E – 625
Here 5  1 + 2 = 7; 7  2 + 3 = 17; 14, 24, 34, 44, 54
𝐀 𝐇 𝐀 𝐋 𝐔
17  3 + 4 = 55 40. , , , , , _____
𝟏 𝟒 𝟗 𝟏𝟔 𝟐𝟓
55  4 + 5 = 225; 225  5 + 6 = 1131;
J I
1131  6 + 7 = 6793 1) 2)
36 36

G H
3) 4)
36 36

AMIGOS IAS 5
 Answer: 4
Answer: 4 Explanation:
Explanation: Except ‘Page’ all are living places of some living
The given series is beings.
1 8 27 64 125 216 48. 1) Violet 2) Indigo
A H A L U H 3) Brown 4) Green
1 4 9 16 25 36 Answer: 3
Explanation:
Directions for questions 41-53: In each question three All except ‘Brown’ are the constituent colours
out of the given four numbers/group of letters/ of the rainbow.
words follow a certain pattern and hence form a 49. 1) Seven 2) Two
group. One is different from these four. Find the one 3) Three 4) Five
which does not belong to that group
Answer: 2
41. 1) Oat 2) Meat
Explanation:
3) Cheat 4) heat
All except the word ‘Two’ have two vowels
Answer: 1 each
Explanation: 50. 1) RROATC 2) IONNO
All except ‘Oat’ are rhyming words 3) ATTOOP 4) NGAOM
42. 1) Cricket 2) Football Answer: 4
3) Baseball 4) Hockey Explanation:
Answer: 2 All except ‘MANGO’ are vegetables.
Explanation: 51. 1) BBLU 2) ATNNLER
All except ‘Football’ require a stick or a bat to 3) PALM 4) NFA
hit the ball.
Answer: 4
43. 1) River 2) Lake
Explanation:
3) Pond 4) Dam
All except ‘FAN’ are the appliances used for
Answer: 4 getting light.
Explanation: 52. 1) UIRTAG 2) RTAIS
All except ‘Dam’ are natural water bodies. 3) ABTLA 4) ADROI
44. 1) Digit 2) Sentence Answer: 4
3) Text 4) Letter Explanation:
Answer: 1 All except ‘RADIO’ are musical instruments.
Explanation: 53. 1) Book : Read 2) Pen : Write
Except ‘Digit’ all are related to each other. 3) Table : Sit 4) House : Live
45. 1) Can 2) Bottle Answer: 3
3) Vessel 4) Lid Explanation:
Answer: 4 Book is used to road.
Explanation: Pen is used to write.
Except ‘Lid’ all are types of containors. House is used to live.
46. 1) Mechanics 2) Optics Bed is to sleep.
3) Trignometry 4) Magnetism But Table is not used to sit.
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Except ‘Trignometry’ all are branches of
physics.
47. 1) Pen 2) Cage
3) Nest 4) Page

AMIGOS IAS 6
Directions : (54-63) : Select the correct alternative Answer : 3
from the given choices.
54. A person who is the husband of my son’s sister
is my
1) Nephew 2) Son-in-law
3) Son 4) Brother
Answer : 2

Explanation : Ramu’s son

58. How is my son’s son’s mother’s daughter
related to me?
1) Niece 2) Grand Daughter
Explanation : My son’s sister husband is my
3) Daughter 4) Aunt
son-in-law
Answer : 2
55. How is my father’s mother’s only daughter-
in-law’s sister related to me?
1) Aunt 2) Sister
3) Cousin 4) Niece
Answer : 1

Explanation : She is my grand daughter

59. How is my father’s brother’s only sibling’s
mother related to me?
My mother’s sister 1) Mother 2) Grandmother
56. How is my grandmother’s only child’s 3) Daughter 4) Aunt
husband’s mother related to me? Answer : 2
1) Mother 2) Grandmother
3) Aunt 4) Sister
Answer : 2

Explanation : My grand mother

60. A is the father of B. C is the son of D. E is the
She is my paternal grand mother. brother of C while D is the sister of B. How is
57. How is Ramu’s mother-in-law’s only B related to E?
daughter’s son related to Ramu? 1) Uncle 2) Aunt
1) Nephew 2) Brother 3) Mother 4) Either (1) or (2)
3) Son 4) Uncle Answer : 4

AMIGOS IAS 7
 Son
Directions for questions (64-68) : These questions are
based on the information given below.
In a family of three generations, there are eight
Uncle or Aunt members. M and N are brothers. R is the grandson of
61. Diya’s father, pointing towards a person, Q. T is the only niece of M. P is the sister-in-law of N.
said, “He is the brother of my father’s only O is the mother-in-law of S. There are thre married
sibling”. How is the person related to Divya? couples in the family. T is the daughter of S.
1) Father 2) Uncle
3) Brother 4) Grandfather 64. How is R related to T?
Answer : 4 1) Cousin 2) Uncle
3) Brother
4) Cannot be determed.
Answer : 1

Grand father
62. Tinku, introducing a person to Rinku, said “He
is the father of your sister’s son and he is also
my mother’s husband’. How is Tinku’s father
related to Rinku’s mother?
1) Nephew 2) Uncle Explanation : R is T’s cousin
3) Son-in-law 4) None of these 65. How is Q related to S?
Answer : 3 1) Grandfather 2) Uncle
3) Father-in-law 4) None of these

Son-in-law
63. Sanjana’s brother-in-law is the son of Ramya. Answer : 3
How is Sanjana’s husband related to Ramya’s
Explanation : Father – in law
husband if sanjana had no siblings?
66. How is P related to O?
1) Nephew 2) Son
1) Aunt 2) Mother
3) Son-in-law
3) Daughter-in-law 4) Mother-in-law
4) Cannot be determined
Answer : 3
Answer : 2

AMIGOS IAS 8
 Answer : 2
Solution

Explanation : P is O’s daugther-in-law

67. How is O related to R? A = Engineer
1) Uncle 2) Grandmother H = Doctor
3) Aunt 4) Grandfather B = Teacher
Answer : 2 C = Architect
E = Student
D = Manager
D is manager
70. Who is the mother of F?
1) A 2) B
3) H
4) Cannot be determined
Answer : 4
Explanation : ‘O’ is R’s grand mother Explanation : F’s mother is either H or A.
68. In the family the ratio of number of male We can’t say exact answer.
members to that of female members 71. B is related to G as
1) 3 : 5 2) 5 : 3 1) Mother-in-law 2) Mother
3) 1 : 1 4) None of these 3) Grandmother 4) None of these
Answer : 3 Answer : 3
Explanation : B is G’s grand mother
72. The profession of H is
1) Manager 2) Engineer
3) Doctor 4) None of these
Answer : 3
Explanation : ‘H’ is a doctor
73. The profession of G is
1) Manager 2) Engineer
Number of womens : Number of mens = 1 : 1 3) Doctor 4) Data insufficient
Directions for questions (69-73) : These questions are Answer : 4
based on the information given below : Explanation : Data is insufficient to find the
In a family of a eight numbers, there are two married answer.
couples and a widow. A, the engineer, is married to a Directions for questions : 74-78 : Use the relations
doctor. C, an architect is the wife of D, E a student is defined below and answer the following questions.
the only child of C. A + B means A is the mother of B.
G is the son of H whose sister. F is the niece of the A-B means A is the sister of B.
manager. B, a teacher, is the mother of only A and D. A x B means A is the father of B
69. Who is the manager? A  B means A is the son of B.
1) G 2) D A = B means A is the brother of B.
3) H 4) A A  B means A is the daughter of B.

AMIGOS IAS 9
74. Which of the following means P is the aunt of C+
Q? |
1) P − R  Q 2) P + R  Q A+
3) P  R x Q 4) P – R + Q
|
Answer : 4
D− − E
Explanation : C is Grand father
78. Which of the following means I is the mother
of L?
1) I + B – C  D x L 2) I  B + C x L
3) I + B x C  D - L 4) I + B – C x L
Explanation : “P” is aunt of “Q Answer : 1
75. Which of the following means, S is the son of
T’s daughter?
1) T x M + S + N 2) T x M + S = N
3) T + M x S – N 4) S + M ÷T – N
Answer : 2
Explanation : I is mother of L

Directions : (79-83) : Use the relationships given

below ans answer the questions followed.
P  Q means P is the husband of Q.
P $ Q means P is the father of Q
P £ Q means P is the mother of Q.
P @ Q means P is the brother of Q.
P Ꙩ Q means P is the sister of Q.
P  Q means P is the son of Q.
Explanation : S is son of ‘T’s daughter P  Q means P is the daughter of Q.
76. Which of the following means W is the uncle P  Q means P is the wife of Q.
of Z
1) W x A – B + Z 2) W = A + B – Z
79. If A  B £ C $ D, then A is the _____of D
3) W = A + B + Z 4) W – A + B – Z
1) father 2) uncle
Answer : 2
3) brother 4) None of the above
Answer : 2

Explanation : W is Z’s mother’s Brother

77. Which of the following means C is the
grandfather of both D and E? Explanation : ‘A’ is uncle of D
1) C x A ÷ D – E 2) C + A + D  E 80. E @ F  G $ H means
3) C + A  D = E 4) C x A x D – E 1) H is the niece of E
Answer : 4 2) H is the nephew of E
3) E is the paternal uncle of H.
4) Either (1) or (2)

AMIGOS IAS 10
 Answer : 4 Answer : 2

Explanation : H is the Niece or Nephew of ‘E’

81. I $ J  K  L ↑ M means
Explanation : W is Niece of Z
1) I is the son of M Directions : (84-90) : In each of the questions below is
2) I is the nephew of M. given a statement followed by two assumptions I and
3) M is the father in-law of I. II. An assumption is something supposed of taken for
4) I is the son-in-law of M. granted. You have to consider the statement and the
Answer : 4 assumptions, and decide which of the assumptions
(is/are) implicit in the statement. Mark your answer as.
1) If only assumption I is implicit
2) If only assumption II is implicit
3) If neither I nor II is implicit
4) If both I and II are implicit.
84. Statement : It glitters. So it is gold!!
Assumptions :
I. All that glitters is gold.
II. Glittering things are not gold.
Answer: 1
Explanation : I is son-in-law of M Explanation:
82. If P Ꙩ Q  R @ S and T  S, then which among In this statement, the author concludes tha
the following is a true statement? the glittering thing is gold. His reason for this
conclusion is that. “It glitters”. This points to
1) S is the aunt of P
the fact that the author of this statement
2) Q is the niece of S. opines that only gold glitters and no other
3) S is the father of P and Q. thing glitters. This opinion of the author can
4) P is the niece of S. also be said to be his assumption. Hence Only
Answer : 4 (1) is an assumption. (II) is not an assumption
as it contradicts the author’s view.
85. Statement : “Enjoy your challenges” – an
advertisement of a car brand.
Assumptions :
I. People wish to enjoy challenges
II. There are people who are willing to buy a
car.
Answer: 2
Explanation : P is Niece of S
Explanation:
83. If W  X  Y £ Z, then which among the
As the advertisement reads – enjoy
following is definitely true?
challenges. It is as if an advise is given
1) Z is the uncle of W
So, I is not implicit.
2) W is the niece of Z.
Only II is implicit
3) W is the daughter of Z.
4) None of these

AMIGOS IAS 11
86. Statement : “We produce the best footballs”.
Claimed company X in an advertisement.
Assumptions :
I. People would respond to such
advertisements
II. There is demand for footballs.
Answer: 4
Explanation:
The purpose of any advertisement is to attract
people and that people would respond
favourably. (I) is an assumption. This company
claims to be producing the best footballs, this
implies there are some other companies
which are producing footballs. The advertiser
gives the ad believing that demand exists for
such a product. Hence. (II) is also an inherent
assumption.
87. Statement : A says to B, “If you want coffee,
buy Nescafe”.
Assumptions :
I. B wants to buy coffee.
II. Nescafe is a good coffee.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
The given statement is an opinion which A tells
B and hence we cannot determine whether B
wants to buy coffee or not. But it is true that
according to A. Nescafe is a good coffee. Thus,
Assumption I is not implicit whereas II is
implicit.
88. Statement : Read this book for the exam.
Assumptions :
I. This book is good for the exam.
II. The person is preparing for an exam.
Answer: 1
Explanation:
The fact that this suggestion is given means
that the book could be useful for the exam.
Hence, assumption I follows. The person may
be preparing for the exam or he may be the
publishere of the book who makes this
statement to gamer publicity. Hence (II) is not
implicit.
89. Statement : The ticket for Balcony class is
atrociously priced at Rs. 200
Assumptions :
I. The tickets for other classes are decently
priced.
AMIGOS IAS
II. Rs. 200 is a very big amount to pay for a
balcony ticket.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
(I) is taking about other classes which cannot
be informed from the given statement. This is
not an assumption. (II) is an assumption as this
is clearly expressed in the given statement
with the use of the words ‘atrociously priced.
90. Statement : Everybody loves watching
Bushkashi.
Assumptions :
I. Bushkashi is the only sport which is liked by
everybody.
II. Bushkashi is a sport.
Answer: 3
Explanation:
From the statement, we cannot say whether
Bushkashi is a sport or not. Hence (II), is not an
assumption. “Everybody loves watching
Bushkashi.” From this we cannot say that
Bushkashi is the only thing that is liked by
everybody. henceI does not follow.
Directions (91 – 95) : Each question below is followed
by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to
decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument
and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Mark your answer as
1) If only argument I is strong.
2) If only argument II is strong
3) If neither I nor II is strong
4) If both I and II are strong
91. Should there be a law to punish parents who
get their minor children married?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A minor girl is physiologically not
prepared to conceive a baby.
II. No, This has been a custom prevailing
since many centuries.
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Argument I explains a valid reason to go
against such marriages because it is wrong to
encourage anything that jooparadises the
health of a person. Hence, (I) is a strong
argument.
Argument II is not valid argument because a
custom being followed since a long time does
not necessary make it good. Only I is wrong.
12
92. Should the teachers be stopped from beating
the students?
Arguments :
I. Yes, Child psychologists say that beating
hinders the learning process in a child.
II. No, Spare the cane and spoil the child.
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Anything which hinders the learning process in
a child must be controlled and, if possible, be
prohibited. The aim of a teacher should be to
make a child learn. According to argument I,
beating causes hindrance to learning process
of a cjhild thus defeating the ultimage goal. If
also supports its argument by referring to the
findings of psychologists. Hence, I is a strong
argument. Argument II states that a child will
be spoiled if it is not caned. Caning is an
extreme measure, there are also other softer
methods to rectify a child. Morover, the
argument is not substituted by any facts.
Hence, II is a weak argument.
93. Should there be an upper age limit for a
person to assume the post of prime minister?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A leader must not only be wise and
experienced but also be energetic and
young enough to understand the trends of
the world.
II. No, Older the leader, better he is, as he
can lead more effectively owing to his
experience.
Answer:4
Explanation:
Argument I says that the prime minister must
be “young enough” for some explained
reasons. This implies that the prime minister
must not be older persons can perform better
because of the experience gained. This also is
strong.
94. Should the manufacturing of leather
products be prohibited?
Arguments :
I. Yes, Killing animals for any reason other
than survival is making the environment
dangerous.
II. No, Leather products are the biggest
foreign exchanged earners.
Answer: 3
AMIGOS IAS
Explanation:
Argument I : There are two points to be
considered.
a) Whether clothing is for survival or not?
b) Can we use the leather of those animals
which are killed for food.
Because argument I is not explaining the
answers to the above questions. It is
considered to be a weak argument.
Argument II : It is most likely that the reason
behind the proposal is more related to morals
and feelings rather than money. Foreign,
exchange cannot be a valid argument in this
context. Hence, both are weak arguments.
95. Should Yoga be introduced as a part of the
curriculum by schools?
Arguments :
I. Yes, This will help students improve their
mental ability.
II. No, This will not help students improve
studentship qualities but will burden them
with extra school-hours.
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Both the arguments, if true, are valid and
strong.
Directions : (96-100) : Consider the everying in the
statement to be true, then decide which of the two
suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for
pursuing. Mark your answer as
1) If only I follows
2) If only II is follows
3) If neither I nor II follows
4) If both I and II follow
96. Statement :
Children fall sick when they eat roadside food.
Courses of Action :
I. Parents should not allow their children to
eat roadside food but rather try to
prepare that type of food at home.
II. The children should be taught about what
is healthy food and that the type of food
prepared on the road side cause illness.
Answer: 4
Explanation:
The reasons for children falling sick could be
that either the road side food is cooked in
unhygienice conditions or the food is not good
for health or both.
13
 If food is cooked in unhygienic conditions,
then I follows.
If the kind of food is not good for health, then
II follows
But both can also be the reasons for children
falling sick. Hence, both I and II follow
97. Statement :
More than 50% of today’s working youth, who
have surplus money, are addicted to drugs.
Courses of Action :
I. Work stress should be reduced in the
office.
II. The salaries should be cut down.
Answer: 3
Explanation:
We do not know the reason for the addiction,
so neither I nor II is a proper course of action.
98. Statement
Pedestrians find it very difficult to cross the
road at the peak hours.
Courses of Action:
I. The traffic Control Authority should
provide more number of traffic signals and
zebra crossings, which enable the
pedestrians to cross the road easily.
II. The authority should build more number
of skywalks across the busy roads, which
will provide easy crossing for the
pedestrians without disturbing the
movement of traffic.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
The course of action I can solve the problem
but it would affect the free flow of traffic. So,
I is not a proper course of action. Course of
action II provides easy crossing without
disrupting the traffic. So, II is a proper course
of action.
99. Statement :
Many deaths are occurring in Village ‘X’, which
has experienced heavy rains in the last three
monsoons, due to outbreak of epidemics.
Courses of Action :
I. The government should dig a side canal to
pass the excess rainwater.
II. Health care system in the village should be
strengthened.
AMIGOS IAS
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Course of action I is a time taking process.
Hence I is not a proper course of action.
Since the deaths are occurring due to
epidemics, II is a proper course of action.
100. Statement :
The Indian cricket team reached the finals of
the previous six major tournaments, but failed
to win even a single tournament.
Courses of Action :
I. The Indian cricket board should set up a
committee to find out the reasons.
II. The team should change its game plan.
Answer: 4
Explanation:
As the Indian cricket team lost continuous six
finals, a proper investigation is necessary. So, I
follows.
So, II does not follow.
Directions (101-107) : Each question given
below consists of a statement followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
assume everything in the statement to be true
and then consider the two conclusions and
decide which of them logically follows beyond
a reasonable doubt from the information
given in the statement. Give your answer as :
1) If only conclusion I follows
2) If only conclusion II follows
3) If neither I nor II follow
4) If both I and II follow
101. Statement :
Maruti Suzuki is preparing to roll out its
compact car, A-star in mid November, this
year in India. A-star will be the eighth model
to be launched by Suzuki in less than 40
months.
Conclusions :
I. There is huge demand for new models of
the cars in India
II. Suzuki had launched its first car among the
eight models three years ago.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
There is no clear information given regarding
the demand in India. I is not a conclusion.
From the statement, A star will be…in less
than 40 months it can be concluded that 40
14
 months ago its first car was launched. 40
months means 3 years and four months.
Conclusion II follows.
102. Statement :
Experts say work overload leads to stress. But
some celebreties say that they find work an
antidote to stress.
Conclusions :
I. Some celebreties are overloaded by work.
II. Experts do not judge property every time.
Answer: 2
Explanation:
In the second part of the statement, the
experts opinion is proved wrong. Hence, we
can conclude that the experts judgement is
not proper. Hence II follows.
There is no information given about the
celebrities who are not stressed. Hence I does
not follow.
103. Statement :
Start to think of travelling by train for a
holiday.
A train journey can give one a better view of
places on the way which an air journey cannot
give.
Conclusions :
I. While going for a holiday, people want to
enjoy the view of the places on the way.
II. People should not travel by air when they
are going for a holiday.
Answer: 3
Explanation:
I is an assumption, II is a suggestion but not a
conclusion. Hence, neither I does not follow
104. Statement
Government has scheduled some special
trains between Delhi and Kolkata during the
month of October. More than 50% of the
tickets of these special trains are booked on
the first day itself.
Conclusions :
I. There is a huge demand for railway tickets
for Delhi-Kolkata route in the month of
October.
II. The regular trains in the Delhi-Kolkata
route are not sufficient to cater to the
demand in the month of October
AMIGOS IAS
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Scheduling new trains and early booking of the
tickets shows that, there is a huge demand in
the route during that month. Hence I follows.
As people are going for the ticke in the special
train that shows that the regular trains are not
sufficient to cater to the demand II follows
∴ Both I and II follows
105. Statement
Women have given up their exclusive rights to
home décor as more and more men are
becoming rather particular about the look and
feel of their living spaces.
Conclusions :
I. Earlier, home décor was taken care solely
by women.
II. Men have better aesthetic sense than
women.
Answer: 1
Explanation:
In the statement home doctor is explained as
the exclusive right of women hence It can be
concluded that home décor was taken care
solely by women. Hence, I follows
It is out of context as there is comparison
given about the aesthetic sense of men and
women.
106. Statement :
U.S.A is helping Pakistan to build up a massive
military
Conclusions :
I. U.S.A wants Pakistan to attack India.
II. Pakistan’s intention is to attack India.
Answer: 3
Explanation:
The statement tells us that USA is helping
Pakistan build up a massive military. This
means that USA is an ally of Pakistan and we
could also infer that USA, in terms of military,
is much stronger than Pakistan, Students
should be very cautious here as to not bring in
their general awareness and relate this aspect
to India, as the passage does not mention
India in any way, nor does it explicity state the
reason as to why Pakistan intends to build up
its military. Hence, any reason given for the
same would be pure conjuecture and not
supported by evidence from the passage.
15
 Conclusion I is rejected as the statement does 109.
not hint at the reason for USA helping 7
6
Pakistan. In much the same way the sentence 8 3 4
does not give any reason for Pakistan building 3 2
up its military. Hence II also does not follow. ? 8
5
107. Statement : 4 7
Many big time cinema producers are 1) 1 2) 2
becoming T.V. serial producers these days.
3) 4 4) 3
Conclusions :
Answer : 1
I. T.V. Serials are not risky.
II. Movie making is very expensive.
Answer: 3
Explanation:
As per the statement, we know that many
cinema producers are producing TV serials
nowadays. The statement does not throw any
light on the reason for this kind of a trend. It
could be that cinema’s have become money The missing number is 1
guzzlers, or that the audience for movies has 110.
shrunk, or that TV serials have become major
16 25 12 16
money spinners or it could be any 20
combination of the above factors. We could,
however, conclude that producing serials
36 ?
involves very much the same processes as
movies, as a result of which we can see movie 17 8
producers turning to television serials. The 1) 5 2) 23
conclusions given in the question are both not 3) 25 4) 9
supported by evidence from the statement,
Answer : 2
hence both do not follow.
Directions : 108 to 115 : Find the missing term(s) in
the given figure (s)
108.

3 16
7 ?
6 49 16 + 25 = 41  41 – 5 = 36
4 9 17 + 8 = 25  25 – 5 = 20
Similarly
1) 25 2) 5 12 + 16 = 28 28 – 5 = 23
3) 36 4) 81 111.
Answer : 3
9 4 9 12

6 8 7 8
3 6 5 9

7 5 4 ?

 (6)2 = 36 1) 7 2) 9
The missing number is 36.

AMIGOS IAS 16
 3) 11 4) 12 Similarly, in the third
Answer : 2 row
10 12
The given logic is + =9
2 3
The outside number is half of the sum of all the The missing number is 9
numbers which are inside of the 114.
corresponding part
i.e. 6 + 4 + 8 = 18
93 45
18/2 = 9
Similarly,5 + 9 + 4 = 18 18/2 = 9
112. 12 6 ? 4 6 2 3 7

9 14
14
2 1) 1 2) 2
5 3 4
3) 6 4) 3
6 3
7 Answer : 2
2
The given logic is,
4 6 4 2 The sum of the numbers on the base of the
14
? 12 triangle is equal to two times of the number
which is at the top of the triangle in the
corresponding part.
1) 13 2) 14
3) 9 4) 22 i.e. 12 + 6 = 18 2  9
Answer : 1 Similarly,
The given logic is ?+4=23
?=2
The missing number is 2
115.

6 8 5 3

7 4 6 9

13 12 11 ?
The missing number is 13
1) 10 2) 11
113.
3) 12 4) 9
6 9 6 Answer : 3
8 15 9 The given logic is
10 12 ? 6 + 7 = 13
4 18 8 8 + 4 = 12
5 + 6 = 11
1) 16 2) 11 Similarly
3) 9 4) 10 3 + 9 = 12
Answer : 3 The missing number is 12
The given logic is,
in the first row
6 9
2
+3=6
In the second row
8 15
2
+ 3
=9

AMIGOS IAS 17
116. Find the number of triangles in the given 118. Find the number of Triangles?
figure.

1) 8 2) 9
3) 12 4) More than 12
1) 12 2) 16 Answer : 4
3) 18 4) More than 18
Answer : 4
Let us represent the given figure as shown
below:

The triangles are ABF, ACG, AGF,

ABD, ADF, BDE, BFH, BCE, BHC,
CEH, CGH, DFG, DEG
There are more than 12 triangles.
119. Find the number of Triangles?

The triangles are ABC, ABD, ABC,

ABE, ACD, ACE, ADE, BEJ, BCK,
BKF, BGF, BJF, BCF, DEL, DIE,
EIJ, EIH, EIL, FGJ, FHJ, GHJ,
GIJ, HIJ
Directions for questions : 117-120, find the number of 1) 8 2) 10
triangles in the given figure. 3) 11 4) 12
117. Answer : 4

1) 8 2) 9
3) 11 4) More than 13 The triangles are AIH, AEF, AKF, ABE,
Answer : 4 AKB, BFE, BKE, BLC, DME, EKF,
FJG, ABF
There are more than 12 triangles.
120. Find the number of Triangles?

The triangles are ABE, BEF, BCF, CGF,

CDG, DGH, CKI, DKG, FEI, FJI,
FGJ, GIK, GHK, DJK 1) 8 2) 9
There are more than 13 triangles. 3) 10 4) 11
Answer : 3

AMIGOS IAS 18
 The triangles are AHI, ABI, BIJ, BGE, The squares are, abcd, we have two squares
DEJ, DGI, DFI, DGH, FGI, GHI 3
There are 10 triangles. In rectangle begf, we have two squares2
121. Find the number of semicircles in the given In rectangles jklm, we have two squares  2
figure and in fghi is another square
Therefore total number of squares
=3+2+2+1=8
123. Find the number of squares in the given
figure.

1) 6 2) 8
3) 4 4) 3
Answer : 2
Let us represent the given figure as shown
below.
1) 15 2) 4
3) 5 4) 3
Answer : 3
Let us represent the given figure as shown
below
Line A divides the left circle into two
semicircles.
Line B divides the left circle into two
semicircles.
And Line C divides the left circle into two
semicircles and right circle into two semi The squares are ABCD, AEIH, EBFI, FCGI and
circles. IGDH
Therefore 8 semi circles are there in the given Therefore, there are 5 squares.
figure. 124. Find the number of rectangles in the given
122. Find the number of squares in the given figure.
figure.

1) 10 2) 12
1) 6 2) 7 3) 8 4) 9
3) 8 4) 11 Answer :2
Answer : 3 Let us represent the given figure as shown
Let us represent the given figure as shown below
below.

AMIGOS IAS 19
 127. If ‘2’ is on the front face, then which of the
following is on the back face?

The rectangles are ABDC, ABJI, ABGF, CDGF, 1) 1 2) 3

DEGH, FGJI, GHKJ, CEHF, CDJI, CEKI, DEKJ, FHKI
3) 4 4) 6
There are 12 traingles.
Answer : 3
125. Find the number of rectangles in the given
figure.

After folding the cube in such a way that ‘2’ is

1) 3 2) 4 on the front face, the cube appears shown
3) 5 4) 7 below.
Answer : 3 128. Which of the following is true?
Let us represent the given figure as shown
below

1) ‘c’ and ‘3’ are on opposite faces

The rectangles are, ABJI, BCFE, BCFE, BCKJ,
CDHG, EFKJ,
Therefore, there are 5 rectangles
126. Answer the following question on the basis of
the different faces of a dice
2) ‘2’ and ‘1’ are on opposite faces
3) ‘b’ and ‘3’ are on opposite faces
4) ‘1’ and ‘b’ are on opposite faces
Answer : 4
After folding the cube, it appears as shown
below.

Therefore ‘1’ and ‘b’ are on opposite faces

Which number is on the face opposite to Directions for questions 129-130: These
number 6? questions are based on the following
1) 1 2) 3 information.
3) 4 4) 5 A survey is conducted among 90 people to find
Answer : 2 out how many of them drink Coke, Pepsi and
From figures (a) and (b), 3 is adjacent to 1, 2, 4 Thumps Up. The data collected are shown in
and 5. Hence 3 is opposite 6. the diagram below.

AMIGOS IAS 20
129. How many people drink at most two drinks?
1) 70 2) 54
3) 79 4) 83
Answer : 4
The number of people who drink at most two
drinks = none + exactly one drink + exactly two
drinks
n + (a + b + c) + (d + e + f) = 9 + (11+21+18) +
(3 + 15 + 6) = 83
Total – exactly three = 90 – 7 = 83
130. How many people drink Pepsi or Thumps Up?
1) 63 2) 31
3) 83 4) 24
Answer : 2
The number of people who drink at least two
drinks = exactly two + exactly three
= (d + e + f) + g = (3 + 15 + 6) + 7 = 31.
131. With reference to Koya Tribe, consider the
following.
A. They live in the forests, plains, and valleys
on both sides of the Godavari River.
B. The Permakore flute is a significant
cultural form of Koyas.
C. Most of them speak either Gondi or
Telugu, in addition to Koyi.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) A, C only 2) C only
3) A, B, C 4) B, C only
Answer: 3
Source
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/
Visakhapatnam/koya-tribe-rides-the-eco-
friendly-wave-to-help-conserve-the-
indian-bison-of-eastern-
ghats/article67614617.ece#:~:text=In%20
a%20move%20to%20conserve,of%20eco
%2Dfriendly%20palm%20leaf
Explanation:
• Context: In a move to conserve the Indian
Bison in their forests, the indigenous Koya
tribes inhabiting the Papikonda hill range
in Andhra Pradesh have made an
exemplary transition by shedding the use
of bison horns to make their traditional
flute called Permakore.
• Koya Tribe: Koya are one of the few multi-
racial and multi-lingual tribal communities
in India. They live in the forests, plains,
and valleys on both sides of the Godavari
AMIGOS IAS
River, which lies in Andhra Pradesh. Many
also live in the states of Madhya Pradesh
and Orissa.
• They believe their main deity still resides
in a cave in the Bastar region.
• Language: Most Koya speak either Gondi
or Telugu, in addition to Koyi. Koyi is
closely related to Gondi and has been
strongly influenced by Telugu.
• Occupation: Traditionally they are
pastoralists and shifting cultivators but
now-a-days, they have taken to settled
cultivation supplemented by animal
husbandry and seasonal forest collections.
They erect menhirs in memory of the
dead.
• Culture: The Koyas adopted Bison horns to
discover their two cultural forms: the
Kommu Koya dance, during which two
Bison horns are adorned on the head as
part of the attire, and the Permakore
flute, which is made of a single horn.
• They have retained their rich and varied
heritage of colourful dance and music
which form an integral part of their
festivals and rituals. Many Koya deities are
female, the most important being the
"mother earth."
132. Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve is located in
which of the following state?
: 1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Maharashtra
3) Andhra Pradesh 4) Chhattisgarh
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve: It is
located in the Chandrapur district of
Maharashtra. The origin of the name
"Tadoba" lies with the name of the God
"Tadoba" or "Taru", worshipped by the
tribes who live in the dense forests of the
Tadoba and Andhari region.
• While "Andhari" refers to the Andhari
River that meanders through the forest.
The total area of the reserve is 625.4 sq.
KM. This includes Tadoba National Park,
covering 116.55 sq. KM and Andhari
Wildlife Sanctuary of 508.85 sq. KM.
• Corridor: The reserve has corridor linkages
with Nagzira-Navegaon and Pench Tiger
Reserves within the State. Habitat:
21
 Biogeographically, the reserve falls in the
Central plateau province of the Deccan
peninsula, with tropical dry deciduous
forests and a typical Central Indian faunal
assemblage.
• Flora: Teak is the dominant tree species.
Other major tree species include Ain,
Bamboo, Bija, Dhaoda, Haldu, Salai, Semal
and Tendu. Along the moist areas, species
like Mango, Jamun and Arjun are found.
Fauna: The notable faunal species include
tiger, leopard, sloth bear, wild dog, gaur,
chital and sambar. As many as 280 species
of birds are found, apart from reptiles (54
species), amphibians (11 species) and
fishes (84 species).
133. Isthmus of Kra is located between which of
following waterbodies?
1) The Caribbean Sea and the Pacific Ocean
2) Gulf of Mexico and the Pacific Ocean
3) The Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea
4) The Andaman Sea and the Gulf of Thailand
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Context: The Kra Isthmus, located on the
Malay Peninsula in Thailand, has gained
strategic importance due to a proposed
transit artery that could connect the
Andaman Sea and the Gulf of Thailand.
• This isthmus, just 44 km wide at its
narrowest point, has the potential to
impact international trade and security
similarly to the historical significance of
the Suez and Panama Canals.
• Recently, the Thai Prime Minister officially
presented a multi-billion-dollar land-
bridge project. An isthmus is a narrow
strip of land that connects two larger land
masses and is bordered by water on two
sides.
• The Kra Isthmus in Thailand is the
narrowest part of the Malay Peninsula.
The isthmus is bordered to the west by the
Andaman Sea and to the east by the Gulf
of Thailand.
134. Which of the following Wildlife Sanctuary is
NOT located in Andhra Pradesh?
1) Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary
2) Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary
AMIGOS IAS
3) Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary
4) Mookambika Wildlife Sanctuary
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Context: The Eastern Ghats Nature
Interpretation Centre in Visakhapatnam, a
first-of-its-kind project by the Andhra
Pradesh Forest Department (in the
Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary), offers
an immersive experience highlighting the
diverse ecosystems of the Eastern Ghats,
stretching from Odisha to Tamil Nadu.
• The Nature Interpretation Centre aims to
inform, educate, and inspire visitors to
care about the rich biodiversity of the
Eastern Ghats. The project, scheduled for
completion by the end of December, is
part of the larger Eastern Ghats
Biodiversity Centre.
• The centre is a collaboration between
wildlife artists, illustrators, sculptors,
architects, wildlife biologists, translators,
and content creators. Kambalakonda
Wildlife Sanctuary: Location: Near
Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. It refers
to the local hill, Kambalakonda. Forest
Type: Dry evergreen forest mixed with
scrub and meadows.
135. Ministry of Women and Child Development
launched ‘Amrit Generation Campaign: Naye
Bharat Ke Sapne’ along with which company?
1) Meta 2) Microsoft
3) Google 4) Apple
Answer: 1
Explanation:
• Meta ‘Amrit Generation Campaign: Naye
Bharat Ke Sapne’ was launched recently
by Meta and Ministry of Women and Child
Development. Its aim is to empower and
engage the youth of India by encouraging
them to express their aspirations and
dreams for the future.
136. Hallmark Unique Identification (HUID) is
given to which of the following?
1) Automobiles 2) Electronics
3) Jewellery 4) All the above
Answer: 3
Explanation:
22
 • Hallmarks are thus official marks used in
many countries as a guarantee of the
purity or fineness of precious metal
articles.
• The principle objectives of the
Hallmarking Scheme is to protect the
public against adulteration to obligate
manufacturers to maintain legal standards
of fineness.
• Bureau of Indian Standards issues
Hallmark for products of Gold and silver
jewellery. It is applicable for gold since
2000 and for silver since 2005.
• The certificate of registration is granted
instantly to the jeweller without the need
to upload any document or pay any fees
for the same. The certificate of
registration stands valid for a lifetime.
• Hallmark Unique Identification (HUID) is a
six-digit alphanumeric code. It is given to
every piece of jewellery at the time of
hallmarking and is unique for each piece.
It is being implemented by the Bureau of
Indian Standards (BIS) in a phased
manner.
• Hallmarking & HUID are mandatory for 14-
, 18- and 22-carat gold jewellery and
artefacts.
137. Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC), that
was in news, was established by which of
these two organizations?
1) FAO and UNICEF 2) FAO and WHO
3) UNICEF and UNESCO
4) World Bank and IMF
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) is
an intergovernmental body that develops
food standards, guidelines, and codes of
practice. The CAC was established in 1963
by the Food and Agriculture Organization
(FAO) and the World Health Organization
(WHO). The CAC’s headquarters are in
Rome.
• Recently, India’s proposal at Codex
Alimentarious Commission (CAC) meet for
standards for millets, covering parameters
like moisture content and quality, was
unanimously endorsed.
AMIGOS IAS
• The standards cover 15 varieties and will
aid the promotion of millets in global
trade and food markets. The CAC praised
India’s specifications. The decision comes
as 2023 was declared the International
Year of Millets to boost production and
consumption.
138. With reference to "YSR EBC Nestham"
consider the following.
A. It provides financial assistance of ₹ 60,000
to all EBC women.
B. The applicant may or may not be a
permanent resident of Andhra Pradesh.
Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
1) A only 2) B only
3) Both A and B 4) Neither A nor B
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• The scheme "YSR EBC Nestham" is a Social
Empowerment Scheme by the Backward
Classes Welfare Department, Govt. of
Andhra Pradesh.
• The objective of the scheme is to extend
financial assistance to the women
belonging to Economically Backward
Classes who are in the age group of 45 –
60 years with a sum of ₹ 45,000/- in three
phases (₹ 15,000/- per annum for a period
of three years).
• This will create access to enhanced
livelihood opportunities, income
generation, and wealth creation at the
household level, on a sustainable basis
leading to better standards of living.
• The applicant should be a permanent
resident of Andhra Pradesh.
139. What is the expanded form of the SAMAR air
defence system tested by the Indian Air Force
recently?
1) Strategic Aerial Munition for Adaptive
Response
2) Surface-to-Air Missile for Assured
Retaliation
3) Supersonic Airborne Missile for Assertive
Repulsion
4) Supersonic Airborne Mechanism for
Advanced Repulsion
Answer: 2
23
 Explanation:
• In a major success for its in-house design
and development efforts, the Indian Air
Force has successfully testfired its SAMAR
air defence missile system.
• The IAF has developed the Surface to Air
Missile for Assured Retaliation (SAMAR)
air defence missile system by using its old
Russian-origin air-to-air missile systems.
• Developed using refurbished Russian-
origin air-to-air missile systems, SAMAR is
a short-range, quick reaction surface-to-
air missile system.
• Key Features and Operational Details:
Platform and Capabilities: The SAMAR
system involves a twin-turret launch
platform capable of launching two
missiles in single or salvo mode.
• Engagement Range and Speed: Operates
within a speed range of 2 to 2.5 Mach with
a 12-kilometer engagement range.
• Target Scope: Designed to engage low-
flying aerial threats including fighter
planes, helicopters, and unmanned aerial
vehicles (UAVs).
140. Which is the first country in the world to be
officially validated by WHO for eliminating
kala azar as a public health problem?
1) India 2) USA
3) Indonesia 4) Bangladesh
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Bangladesh became the first country in
the world to be officially validated by the
World Health Organisation (WHO) for
eliminating kala azar as a public health
problem.
• After missing the deadline thrice, India is
set to achieve the elimination target for
visceral leishmaniasis or kala azar this year
with no block in the country reporting
more than one case per 10,000 people.
• India needs to sustain its momentum over
the next three years in order to receive
the WHO certification. Kala azar is a
parasitic infection transmitted by
sandflies. It causes fever, weight loss, and
spleen and liver enlargement.
AMIGOS IAS
141. With reference to YSR Sanchara Pasu
Aarogya Seva (Mobile Veterinary Clinics)
consider the following.
A. In the case of an animal emergency
services, residents can call the toll-free
number 1962.
B. The ambulances will transport animals in
distress to the closest veterinary hospital
for better care.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) Only A 2) Only B
3) Both A and B 4) Neither A and B
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• In an effort to strengthen veterinary care
across the state, Andhra Pradesh Chief
Minister YS Jagan Mohan Reddy flagged
off 165 veterinary ambulances. The
project, which is the second phase of the
YSR Sanchara Pasu Aarogya Seva (Mobile
Veterinary Clinics), cost over Rs 127 crore.
• It was launched from CM Jagan’s camp
office in Vijayawada. With these, the
number of animal ambulances in Andhra
Pradesh has risen to 340.
• In the case of an animal needing
emergency services, residents can call the
toll-free number 1962, similar to the 108
ambulances. Each ambulance has
veterinarians, certified assistants, and
drivers/ co-attendants on staff.
• The ambulances will transport animals in
distress to the closest veterinary hospital
for better care. After recovery, the animal
is returned at no additional cost to the
livestock farmer's home.
142. With reference to Minor Irrigation (MI)
Schemes consider the following.
1. The ownership of MI schemes is primarily
under Government.
2. Uttar Pradesh holds the highest number of
MI schemes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) A only 2) B only
3) Both A and B 4) Neither A nor B
24

Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Context: The Ministry of Jal Shakti has
released the 6th census report on minor
irrigation (MI) schemes, providing crucial
data for effective planning and policy-
making in this sector.
• Key Highlights: The census reveals that
there are a total of 23.14 million minor
irrigation schemes in India, with 94.8%
(21.93 million) being Ground Water (GW)
schemes and 5.2% (1.21 million) being
Surface Water (SW) schemes.
• Uttar Pradesh holds the highest number of
MI schemes, followed by Maharashtra,
Madhya Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.
• The report indicates a growth of 1.42
million MI schemes compared to the
previous census, with a 6.9% increase in
GW schemes and a 1.2% increase in SW
schemes.
• The ownership of MI schemes is primarily
private (96.6%), with a notable finding
that 18.1% of individually owned schemes
are owned by women.
143. Which of the following countries are part of
Horn of Africa?
A. Djibouti B. Ethiopia
C. Somalia D. Egypt
Select the correct answer:
1) A, B, C, D 2) A, C, D
3) B, C, D 4) A, B, C
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• The Horn of Africa (alternatively
Northeast Africa, and sometimes Somali
Peninsula) is a peninsula of East Africa that
juts for hundreds of kilometers into the
Arabian Sea, and lies along the southern
side of the Gulf of Aden.
• It is the easternmost projection of the
African continent. It indeed resembles in
outline the horn of an animal — perhaps
especially, the horns of the Black
Rhinoceros, whose historic range includes
parts of Ethiopia.
AMIGOS IAS
• The term also refers to the greater region
containing the countries of Djibouti,
Ethiopia, Eritrea and Somalia. As such, it
covers approximately 2,000,000 km² and
is inhabited by about 86.5 million people.
Sudan and Kenya are sometimes included
as well.
• The Horn of Africa is a UNESCO
Biodiversity Hotspot and one of the two
entirely arid ones. However, the Horn of
Africa suffers largely from overgrazing and
only 5% of its original habitat still remains.
144. Kashi Tamil Sangamam, that was recently
inaugurated, is an initiative of which
ministry?
1) Ministry of Culture
2) Ministry of Cooperation
3) Ministry of Education
4) Ministry of Tourism
Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Kashi Tamil Sangamam is an initiative by
the Ministry of Education, government of
India aimed at celebrating the
civilizational connect between Kashi
(Varanasi) and Tamil Nadu. Being held
from December 17-31 this year, it involves
cultural groups from Tamil Nadu
showcasing various art forms in Kashi.
• The objectives are to revive ancient bonds
between the two knowledge and cultural
centres, and provide a platform for
exchange of literature, philosophy,
spirituality, music, dance and more. 27
shops showcasing special products of both
regions have also been set up.
145. Al-Haouz province in the recent news is
located at:
1) Greece 2) Morocco
3) Saudi Arabia 4) Iraq
Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Context: Moroccans witnessed a
devastating earthquake that killed more
than 2,100 people as rescue teams raced
to find survivors trapped under the rubble
of flattened villages.
• About the Morocco earthquake: It was the
strongest-ever quake recorded in the
25
 North African country that killed at least Department of Drinking Water and
2,122 people and injured over 2,400. Sanitation for consideration in addressing
• The quake was the deadliest in Morocco water and sanitation challenges.
since a 1960 earthquake destroyed Agadir 147. With reference to JT-60SA, consider the
and killed more than 12,000 people. following.
Friday’s 6.8-magnitude quake struck 72 A. It is the world’s largest nuclear fusion
kilometres southwest of the tourist hub of reactor in Japan.
Marrakech, wiping out entire villages in B. It is the joint project between the
the hills of the Atlas mountain range. European Union and Japan.
• Al-Haouz province, site of the epicentre, Which of the above statements is/are correct?
suffered the most deaths with 1,351. The 1) A only 2) B only
Red Cross warned that it could take years 3) Both A and B 4) Neither A nor B
to repair the damage.
Answer: 3
146. Consider the following statements regarding
Explanation:
‘AMRIT Technology’.
• Context: The world’s largest nuclear
A. It is water purification technology
fusion reactor, the JT-60SA in Japan’s
developed by IIT- Madras.
Ibaraki Prefecture, has commenced
B. It aligns with the broader goals of the Jal operations, marking a significant step
Jeevan Mission. toward achieving clean energy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• The joint project between the European
1) A only 2) B only Union and Japan aims to explore the
3) Both A and B 4) Neither A nor B viability of nuclear fusion as a sustainable
Answer: 3 and virtually limitless power source.
Source: • The achievement follows recent
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePag breakthroughs in nuclear fusion, including
e.aspx?PRID=1985137#:~:text=The%20In a net energy gain by scientists at the
dian%20Institute%20of%20Technology,w Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory
ater%20is%20passed%20through%20it. in California. Another, even larger fusion
Explanation: reactor is currently under construction in
• Recently, the Ministry of Jal Shakti has France and is set to begin operations in
shed light on the progress of the Jal Jeevan 2025.
Mission and the Arsenic and Metal 148. Consider the following.
Removal by Indian Technology (AMRIT). Cyber Threat Meaning
• AMRIT Technology: The technology was Spoofing Attack the network
developed by the Indian Institute of with false requests
Technology (IIT) - Madras. It is designed Password Using a single
for the removal of arsenic and metal ions common password
from water, addressing water quality
Denial-of-Service Disguises themselves
issues. The technology utilizes nano-scale
iron oxy-hydroxide, which selectively as a known or trusted
removes arsenic when water passes source
through it. Phishing Uses email, SMS,
• AMRIT is applicable for both domestic and phone, social media
community-level water purification. The Which of the above pairs is/are correct?
technology aligns with the broader goals 1) A, B, D 2) C, D
of the Jal Jeevan Mission, which aims to 3) B, D 4) A, B, C, D
provide safe and potable tap water to Answer: 3
rural households in India. Explanation:
• The technology has been recommended
by the 'Standing Committee' of the

AMIGOS IAS 26
 • A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is a complexities, high costs, a longer route,
malicious, targeted attack that floods a and security concerns in a region marked
network with false requests in order to by ongoing military threats.
disrupt business operations. • Suez Canal: It is an artificial sea-level
• Phishing is a type of cyberattack that uses waterway in Egypt (completed in 1869),
email, SMS, phone, social media, and connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the
social engineering techniques to entice a Red Sea through the Isthmus of Suez and
victim to share sensitive information — dividing Africa and Asia. The 193 km long
such as passwords or account numbers — canal is a key trade route between Europe
or to download a malicious file that will and Asia.
install viruses on their computer or phone. 150. Which Indian-origin scientist received the
• Spoofing is a technique through which a Spinoza Prize also known as the Dutch Nobel
cybercriminal disguises themselves as a Prize?
known or trusted source. Spoofing can 1)Joyeeta Gupta 2) Amit pawar
take many forms, such as spoofed emails, 3) Kamlesh Modi 4) Sarah Ahmed
IP spoofing, DNS Spoofing, GPS spoofing, Answer: 1
website spoofing, and spoofed calls. Explanation:
• The basics of a password spraying attack Joyeeta Gupta Joyeeta Gupta, a scientist of
involve a threat actor using a single Indian origin, has received the prestigious
common password against multiple Spinoza Prize, the highest honor in Dutch
accounts on the same application. This science. It is often known as the Dutch Nobel
avoids the account lockouts that typically Prize. She was recognised for her scientific
occur when an attacker uses a brute force work focusing on a 'just and sustainable
attack on a single account by trying many world', alongside Toby Kiers, another scientist
passwords. chosen for the award.
149. Ben Gurion Canal Project passes through
which of the following.
A. Gulf of Aqaba B. Israel
C. Jordan D. Mediterranean Sea
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) A, B 2) A, B, C
3) B, C, D 4) A, B, C, D
Answer: 4
Explanation:
• Context: The current Israel-Palestine crisis
in the Middle East has refocused attention
on the ambitious Ben Gurion Canal
Project.
• Ben Gurion Canal Project was first
envisioned in the 1960s and seen as an
alternative to Suez canal route. The
proposed project is to cut a canal through
the Israeli-controlled Negev Desert from
the tip of the Gulf of Aqaba – the eastern
arm of the Red Sea that juts into Israel’s
southern tip and south-western Jordan –
to the Eastern Mediterranean coast.
• However, the project faces immense
challenges, including logistical

AMIGOS IAS 27