No.

: 1231231
VIJAY
Test Booklet Code

Z1
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 Test (09-Oct)Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
Biology 1 - Section A
1 Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. Only three top-carnivores are supported in an
ecosystem based on production of nearly 6 million
plants.
2. Pyramid of biomass shows a sharp increase in
biomass at higher trophic levels.
3. Pyramid of biomass is inverted if small standing crop
of phytoplankton supports large standing crop of
zooplankton.
4. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
2 Assertion: In a food chain, members of successive 2. The base of each pyramid represents the producers or
higher levels are fewer in number.
Reason: Number of organisms at any trophic level
depends upon the availability of organisms which serve
as food at the lower level.
1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion
2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion
3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.
3 The sequence of communities of primary 3. Competitive exclusion results in the success of the
succession in water is
1. Phytoplankton, sedges, free-floating hydrophytes,
rooted hydrophytes, grasses, and trees.
2. Phytoplankton, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted
hydrophytes, sedges, grasses, and trees.
3. Free-floating hydrophytes, sedges, phytoplankton, primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the
rooted hydrophytes, grasses, and trees.
4. Phytoplankton, rooted submerged hydrophytes, 1. Gross primary productivity is always more than Net
floating hydrophytes, reed swamp, sedges, meadow, and primary productivity.
trees.
4 Why does pyramid of energy is always upright?
1. Because energy cannot be destroyed.
2. Smaller organisms have more potential energy than
larger ones
3. Because when energy flows from a particular trophic
level to the next trophic level, some energy is always
lost as heat at each step.
4. More than one statement is correct.
5 During ecological succession,
1. gradual and predictable change in composition of
species occurs in a given area
2. establishment of a new biotic community is very fast
in its primary phase
3. the number and types of animals are constant
4. changes lead to a community that is in equilibrium
with the environment and is called pioneer community.
6 Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. Any calculations of energy content, biomass or
numbers, has to include all organisms at that trophic
level.
the first trophic level while the apex represents tertiary
or top level consumer
3. The trophic level represents a functional level, not a
species as such.
4. A given species occupy only one trophic level in the
same ecosystem at the same time.
7 Through resource partitioning:
1. Two species can compete for the same prey
2. Slight variation in niche allow closely related species
to co-exist in the same habitat
superior species
4. Two species undergo character displacement that
allows them to compete
8 In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net
following statements is correct?
2. Gross primary productivity and Net primary
productivity are one and the same.
3. There is no relationship between Gross primary
productivity and Net primary productivity.
4. Gross primary productivity is always less than net
primary productivity.
9 The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
phosphorus, calcium, etc. present in the soil at any given
time, is referred to as the -
1. Nutrient status of a soil
2. Standing state
3. Standing crop
4. Mineral state.
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 Test (09-Oct)Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

10 Assertion (A) : A person goes to high altitude and 13 Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each
experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like with one or two blanks :
breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. (A) Bears go into ________ (1) _ during winter to
Reason (R) : Due to low atmospheric pressure at high ________ (2) _ cold weather.
altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen. (B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct _________ (3) human population.
answer from the options given below. (C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of
1. (A) is true but (R) is false ________ (4) _ .
2. (A) is false but (R) is true (D) An area with high levels of species richness is
3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct known as _________ (5) .
explanation of (A) Which of the following options, gives the correct fill ups
4. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct for the respective blank numbers from(1) to (5) in the
explanation of (A) statements ?
1. (1) - hibernation, (2) - escape, 3) - expanding, (5) - hot
11 Productivity is the rate of production of biomass spot
expressed in 2. (3) - stable, (4) - commensalism, (5) - marsh
(i) (kcal m
−3
) yr
−1
(ii) gm
−2
yr
−1 3. (1) - aestivation, (2) - escape, (3) - stable, (4) -
−1 −1 −2 −1
mutualism
(iii) g yr (iv) (kcal m ) yr
4. (3) - expanding, (4) - commensalism, (5) -
(1) (ii) biodiversity park
(2) (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv) 14 In which of the following, both the pairs have the
(4) (i) and (iii) correct combination?
(a) Gaseous nutrient cycle Carbon and nitrogen
12 Assertion: Small sized organisms are rarely found Sedimentary nutrient cycle Sulphur and phosphorous
in polar regions. (b) Gaseous nutrient cycle Carbon and sulphur
Reason: Small sized animals have larger surface-area Sedimentary nutrient cycle Nitrogen and phosphorus
relative to their volume and they have to spend much
energy to generate body heat through metabolism. (c) Gaseous nutrient cycle Nitrogen and sulphur
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is Sedimentary nutrient cycle Carbon and Phosphorous
the correct explanation of the assertion (d) Gaseous nutrient cycle Sulphur and phosphorous
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is Sedimentary nutrient cycle Carbon and nitrogen
not the correct explanation of the assertion 1. a
3. Assertion is true but reason is false 2. b
4. Both assertion and reason are false 3. c
4. d

15 What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained

with the following data?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Primary consumer : 60 g
Primary producer : 10 g
1. Inverted pyramid of biomass
2. Upright pyramid of biomass
3. Upright pyramid of numbers
4. Pyramid of energy

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 Test (09-Oct)Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

16 Niche is 20 Which one of the following statements is correct for

1. all the biological factors in the organism's secondary succession?
environment 1. It occurs on a deforested site
2. the functional role played by the organism where it 2. It follows primary succession
lives 3. It is similar to primary succession except that it has a
3. the range of temperature that the organism needs to relatively slow pace
live 4. All of the above
4. the physical space where an organism lives
21 Read the following statements:
17 Consider the following four statements (a-d) and (i) Success of mammals on earth is mainly due to their
select the correct option stating which ones are true (T) ability to maintain a constant body temperature
or false (F) (ii) Migration is restricted to animals only. In plants,
a. Organisms at each trophic level depends on those at even the propagules (spores and seeds) cannot migrate
higher trophic level for their energy demands. (iii) Diapause is a stage of suspended development in
b. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living many zooplanktons
material at a particular time called standing crop. (iv) Most of the animals can maintain internal
c. Each trophic level has a certain mass of non-living homeostasis
material at a particular time called standing state. (v) In conformers, the body temperature changes with
d. The number of trophic levels in a grazing food chain the ambient temperature but the osmotic concentration
is not restricted. of the body fluids does not change with that of ambient
Options water osmotic concentration
a b c d Which of the above statements are correct?
1. T T F F 1. (ii), (iv) and (v)
2. F T F T 2. (i) and (iii)
3. T F T F 3. (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. F T T F 4. (ii) and (iii)

Biology 1 - Section B 22 At any time during succession, natural or human

induced disturbances (fire, deforestation, etc.), can-
18 Which of the following is not entirely true fact? 1. convert a particular seral stage of succession to an
earlier stage.
1. Competition occurs when closely related species
2. create new conditions that encourage some species
compete for the same resources that are limiting
and discourage or eliminate other species.
2. Totally unrelated species could compete for the same
3. have no effect on the continuous process of
resource
succession.
3. Resources need not be limiting for competition to
4. more than one options are correct.
occur. In interference competition, the feeding efficiency
of one species might be reduced due to the interference
and inhibitory presence of the other species, even if 23 A species whose distribution is restricted to a small
resources are abundant. geographical area because of the presence of a
4. A complex interplay of interspecific interactions and competitively superior species is found to expand its
environmental variability characterizes community distributional range dramatically when the competing
structure species is experimentally removed. This is called:
1. Competitive Exclusion
19 Which one of the following is categorised as a 2. Competitive Release
3. Competitive Supremacy
parasite in true sense?
4. Competitive Inclusion
1. Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws
nourishment from the mother
2. Head louse living on the human scalp as well as
laying eggs on human hair
3. The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow's nest.
4. The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from
humans.

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 Test (09-Oct)Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

24 How do Lichens play a vital role in succession? 29 The best example for pleiotropy is:-
1. They grow in pollution free area 1. Skin color
2. They secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in 2. Phenylketonuria
weathering and soil formation. 3. Colour Blindness
3. They are symbiotic association between fungi and 4. ABO Blood group
algae.
4. More than one options are correct. 30 In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was
crossed with a white flower and in F1 generation, pink
25 “Detritus food chain may be connected with the flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed,
grazing food chain at some levels”. This is evident from the F generation showed white, red and pink flowers.
2

(i) Some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC
animals
(ii) In a natural ecosystem, some animals like
cockroaches, crows, etc., are omnivores.
(iii) Some of the organisms of GFC are facultative
Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
1. Law of Segregation does not apply in this experiment
2. This experiment does not follow the Principle of
Dominance
3. Pink colour in F is due to incomplete dominance
1

decomposers 4. Ratio of F is 1/4(red):2/4(pink):1/4(white)

2

1. i and iii
2. i and ii 31 A dihybrid test cross leads to a frequency of
3. ii and iii recombinants of 50% in progeny. The most obvious
4. i only conclusion will be:
1. The two genes likely are located on different
B iology 2-S ection A chromosomes.
2. All of the offspring have combinations of traits that
26 Which of the following observations regarding a match one of the two parents.
3. Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
monohybrid cross cannot be explained with the Law of
4. Independent assortment is hindered
Dominance?
1. Expression of only one of the parental characters in F1
32 The number of recessive traits in garden pea in the
2. Expression of both parental characters in F2
list given in the box below is:
3. 3:1 phenotypic ratio in F2 dwarf stem height, wrinkled seed shape, yellow seed
4. A gamete receives only one of the two-unit factors color; yellow pod color, inflated pod shape, terminal
present in the parent. flower position, violet flower color
1. 2
27 A dihybrid test cross results in a 50% frequency of 2. 3
recombinants in progeny. This shows that: 3. 4
1. The two genes are most likely located on different 4. 5
chromosomes
2. One of the genes must be located on the X 33 The progeny of a dihybrid test cross AaBb x aabb
chromosome show the following genotypes: AaBb 160, Aabb 460,
3. The two genes are closely linked on the same aaBb 440, aabb 140. The recombination frequency
chromosome between the two loci is:
4. The two genes must be pleiotropic 1. 12.5 %
2. 25 %
28 An F2 phenotypic ratio of 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1 from a 3. 15 %
cross AaBb X AaBb is expected in the case of: 4. 30 %
1. Dominant epistasis
2. Complementary genes 34 If the F1 progeny in a monohybrid cross resembles
3. Polygenic inheritance both parents, most likely the alleles exhibit:
4. Independent assortment 1. Incomplete dominance
2. Co-dominance
3. Complete dominance
4. Lack of segregation

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 Test (09-Oct)Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

35 When a cluster of genes show linkage behaviour 41 Match the terms in Column I with their description
they : - in Column II and choose the correct option.
(1) Do not show a chromosome map Column I Column II
(2) Show recombination during meiosis A. Dominance 1. Many govern a single character
(3) Do not show independent assortment
B. 2. In a heterozygous organism only one
(4) Induce cell division
Codominance allele expresses itself
36 Assuming independent assortment, the ratio of C. Pleiotropy 3. In a heterozygous organism both
alleles express themselves fully
progeny with the genotypes AaBb : Aabb : aaBb : aabb
from a dihybrid cross AabB X AaBb will respectively D. Polygenic 4. A single gene influences many
be: inheritance characters
1. 4 : 3 : 2 : 1
2. 4 : 4 : 2 : 1 A B C D
3. 4 : 2 : 2 : 1 1. 2 3 4 1
4. 4 : 2 : 1 : 1 2. 4 1 2 3
3. 4 3 1 2
37 The number of types of gametes produced by a 4. 2 1 4 3
plant with the genotype AaBbCCDd will be:
1. 2
42 Mating between a male with blood group A and a
2. 4
3. 8 female with blood group B results in the progeny with
4. 16 blood group AB can be explained by:
1. Complete dominance
38 A cross that involves the breeding of an 2. Incomplete dominance
3. Co-dominance
phenotypically dominant individual with a 4. Epistasis
phenotypically recessive individual, in order to
determine the zygosity of the former by analyzing
proportions of offspring phenotypes is termed as a: B iology 2-S ection B
1. Monohybrid cross
2. Test cross 43 Two individual plants heterozygous at two unlinked
3. Back cross loci are crossed. What proportion of progeny is expected
4. Reciprocal cross to be homozygous recessive at least at one of the loci?
1. 1/16
39 Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD? 2. 3/4
1. LNG-20 3. 9/16
2. Multiload-375 4. 7/16
3. Lippes loop
4. Cu-7 44 The father and the mother of a child, with blood
group O, have the blood groups A and B respectively. If
40 The rediscovery of Mendel’s Laws is credited these parents then have non-identical twins, what is the
independently to: probability that both twins will have blood group B?
1. de Vries, Correns and von Tschermak 1. ¼
2. Sutton and Boveri 2. 1/8
3. Garrod 3. ¾
4. Beadle and Tatum 4/ 1/16

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 Test (09-Oct)Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

45 A dihybrid test cross results in a recombination 49

frequency of 50%. Most likely the two genes under Which of the following approaches does not give the
consideration: defined action of contraceptive?
1. are closely linked on the same autosome
2. are located on heterologous chromosomes
3. are present on X chromosome
4. are located on the same chromosome, one on either
side of the centromere

46
Multiple alleles are present
1. on different chromosomes
2. at different loci on the same chromosome
3. at the same locus of the chromosome
4. on non-sister chromatids 1. a
2. b
47 In a dihybrid cross between two pea plants with 3. c
round and yellow seeds [heterozygous at both loci], the 4. d
yellow and green color will segregate in a ratio:
1. 1 : 1 50 The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis
2. 3 : 1 is for
3. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 1. detecting sex of the unborn foetus
4. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 2. artificial insemination
3. transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate
48 Which of the following characteristics represent mother
'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans? 4. detecting any genetic abnormality
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance C hemistry -S ection A
c. Multiple allelism
d. Incomplete dominance 51 Which of the following have only one type of
e. Polygenic inheritance
1. b, c and e carbon atoms :-
2. a, b and c
3. b, d and e
4. a, c and e 1.

2.

3.

4.

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 Test (09-Oct)Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

52 The IUPAC name of the compound 57 Among the following, the aromatic compound is:-

is:
1. 3, 3-Dimethyl-1-hydroxycyclohexane
2. 1,1-Dimethyl-3-hydroxycyclohexane 1.
3. 3,3-Dimethyl-1-cyclohexanol
4. 1,1-Dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol

53 Sum of α -hydrogens in the following two

compounds is :
2.

3.
(i) (ii)
1. 13
2. 14
3. 15
4. 16
4.
54 Arrange the following groups in order of decreasing
- I (inductive) effect : 58 The order of stability of the following carbocations
NO2 , C(CH3 ) ,
3
CH3 , OCH3 , Br
is-
1. NO2 > Br > OCH3 > C(CH3 )
3
> CH3

2. NO2 > Br > OCH3 > CH3 > C(CH3 )

3

3. NO2 > OCH3 > Br > C(CH3 )

3
> CH3

4. NO2 > OCH3 > C(CH3 )

3
> Br > CH3

55 The number of chiral centers present in 3,4-

dibromo-2-pentanol is/are : 1. I > II > III
1. 1 2. III > I > II
2. 2 3. III > II > I
3. 3 4. II > III > I
4. 4
59 The incorrect IUPAC name is:-
56 The correct IUPAC name of the following
compound is :
1.

1. 6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol 2.
2. 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
3. 6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methylhaxan-4-ol 3.
4. 1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chorohexan-3-ol

4.

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 Test (09-Oct)Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

60 Assertion: The compound tetraene has the 64 In the following benzyl/allyl system
following structural formula.

decreasing order of inductive effect is-

It is cyclic and has conjugated 8π-electron system but it 1. (CH3)3C- > (CH3)2CH- > CH3CH2-
is not an aromatic compound. 2. CH3CH2- >(CH3)2CH- > (CH3)3C-
Reason (R) (4n + 2)π electrons rule does not hold good
for this compound and the ring is not planar. 3. (CH3)2CH- > CH3CH2- > (CH3)3C-
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is 4. (CH3)3C- > CH3CH2- > (CH3)2CH-
the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is 65 (CH3)4N+ is neither an electrophile, nor a
not the correct explanation of assertion. nucleophile because it:
3. Assertion is true but the reason is false. 1. does not have an electron pair for donation and it also
4. Assertion is false but the reason is true. cannot attract an electron pair
2. neither has an electron pair available for donation nor
61 The electromeric effect in organic compounds is a can accommodate electrons since all shells of N are fully
1. Temporary effect occupied.
2. Permanent effect 3. can act as Lewis acid and base
3. Electromeric effect is only observed in inorganic 4. none of the above
molecules
4. None of the above 66 Match the items in column I with column II.
62 The compound, among the following, that will
Column I COLUMN II
show geometrical isomerism is-
1. 1-Phenyl-2-butene
2. 3-Phenyl -1-butene a. (CH3)3N: i. Electrophile
3. 2-Phenyl-1-butene
4. 1,1-Diphenyl-1-propene ii. Nucleophile
b.
63 The correct statement regarding the comparison of
staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane is c.
1. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable
than staggered conformation because eclipsed d. H2N:-
conformation has no torsional strain
2. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable
than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed
conformation has a torsional strain
3. The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable
than the eclipsed conformation because staggered 1. a=ii; b=ii; c=ii; d=i;
conformation has no torsional strain 2. a=ii; b=ii; c=ii; d=ii;
4. The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable 3. a=ii; b=i; c=i; d=ii;
than eclipsed conformation because staggered 4. a=ii; b=i; c=ii; d=ii;
conformation has torsional strain

67 In the compound, the most

electronegative carbon is:
1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV

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 Test (09-Oct)Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Chemistry - Section B 71 The most stable canonical structure among the

given structures is/are :
68 What is the hybridization shown by C1 and C2
carbons, respectively in the given compound?
OHC – CH = CH – CH2COOCH3
1. sp2 and sp3
2. sp2 and sp2
3. sp3 and sp2
1. I
4. sp3 and sp3 2. II
3. III
69 The most stable resonating structure of HCOOH is 4. All are equally stable

72 The number of resonating structures that can be

drawn for the following anion (including the starting
structure) is-
1.

2. 1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

3. 73 The incorrect curved-arrow notation that shows the

formation of reactive intermediates in the following
compound is-
1.

4.

70 The total number of structural isomers of molecular 2.

formula C 4 H8 are
1. 3
2. 4 3.
3. 5 4. All of the above
4. 6

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 Test (09-Oct)Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

74 Consider the following four compounds. Physics - Section A

(I)
76 An electron of mass meinitially at rest, moves
through a certain distance in a uniform electric field in
time t . A proton of mass m also initially at rest takes
1 p

(II) time t to move through an equal distance in this

2
t2
uniform electric field. The ratio of t1
is nearly equal
to- (Neglect the effect of gravity.)
1. 1
(III) mp
1/2

2. ( me
)

1/2

3. (
me
)
mp

(IV) 4. 1836

77 Two parallel plates of area A are separated by two

different dielectrics as shown in the figure. The net
capacitance is:
Consider the following pairs of compounds.
(a) II and III
(b) II and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) I and II
Which of the pairs given above are not functional group
isomers?
1. (a, b)
2. (b, c)
3. (c, d) 4ε0 A

4. (a, c) 1. 3d
3ε0 A
2.
75 The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is- 4d
2ε0 A
3. d
ε0 A
4. d

78 A thin, metallic spherical shell contains a charge Q

on it. A point charge q is placed at the centre of the shell
1. 3,5,6-Trimethyloctane and another charge q1 is placed outside it as shown in
2. 1,2,3,6-Tetramethylheptane
3. 3,4,6-Trimethyloctane the figure. All the three charges are positive. The force
4. None of the above on the charge at the centre is:

1. towards left
2. towards right
3. upward
4. zero

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 Test (09-Oct)Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

79 Assertion: If the distance between parallel plates of 83 A battery does 200 J of work in charging a
a capacitor is halved and the dielectric constant is made capacitor. The energy stored in the capacitor is:
three times, then the capacitor becomes 6 times. 1. 200 J
Reason: The capacity of the capacitor does not depend 2. 100 J
upon the charge. 3. 50 J
1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is 4. 400 J
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is 84 Assertion: If three capacitors of capacitance
not the correct explanation of the Assertion. C1 < C2 < C3 are connected in parallel, then their
3. Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false. equivalent capacitance C > CP S

4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements. Reason: 1

=
1
+
1
+
1

CP C1 C2 C3

(Where C is equivalent capacitance in parallel & C is

80 A system has two charges, qA = 2.5 x 10-7 C and qB P S

equivalent capacitance in series.)

= -2.5 x 10-7 C, located at point A: (0, 0, -15 cm) and
1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is
B: (0, 0, +15 cm) respectively. The electric dipole the correct explanation of the Assertion.
moment of the system is: 2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is
1. 7.5 × 10-8 C-m (along negative z-axis) not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
-8
2. 8.5 × 10 C-m (along positive z-axis) 3. Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false.
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.
3. 5.5 × 10-8 C-m (along positive z-axis)
4. 3.5 × 10-8 C-m (along negative z-axis) 85 The plates of a parallel plate capacitor have an area
2
81 The figure shows the variation of electric field of 90 cm each and are separated by 2.5 mm. The
capacitor is charged by connecting it to a 400 V
intensity E with distance x. What is the potential
supply. How much electrostatic energy is stored by the
difference between two points at x=2 m and at x=6 m
capacitor?
from O?
1. 1.7 × 10-6 J
2. 2.12 × 10-6 J
3. 2.55 × 10-6 J
4. 1.66 × 10-6 J

86 Three capacitors of capacitances 2 pF, 3 pF, and 4

pF are connected in parallel. The charge on the 4 pF
capacitor, if the combination is connected to a 100 V
supply, is:
1. 30 V 1. 4 × 10-10 C
2. 60 V
2. 3 × 10-9 C
3. 40 V
4. 80 V 3. 2 × 10-10 C
4. 1 × 10-9 C
82 Equipotential surfaces:
1. are closer in regions of large electric fields compared
to regions of lower electric fields.
2. will be more crowded near the sharp edges of a
conductor.
3. will always be equally spaced.
4. both (1) and (2) are correct.

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 Test (09-Oct)Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

87 Two charges q and q are placed 30 cm apart, as

1 2 90 In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the
shown in the figure. A third charge q is moved along plates, each plate has an area of 6 × 10 3 m2, and the
3
−

the arc of a circle of radius 40 cm from C to D. The distance between the plates is 3 mm. The capacitance of
q3
change in the potential energy of the system is k, the capacitor is:
4π∈0

where k is: 1. 16.12 pF

2. 17.71 pF
3. 15.01 pF
4. 11.32 pF

91 A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of an

isolated charged capacitor. Which of the following
quantities will remain the same?
(a) The electric field in the capacitor
(b) The charge on the capacitor
(c) The potential difference between the plates
(d) The stored energy in the capacitor
1. 8q 2
Choose the correct option:
2. 6q 2
1. (a), (b)
3. 8q 1
2. (b) only
4. 6q 1
3. (c), (a)
4. (a), (d)
88 An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an
electric field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a 92 The charge on a drop of water is 3 × 10 −8
C. If its
position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle θ surface potential is 500 V, its radius must be equal to:
with the direction of the field. Assuming that the 1. 81 cm
potential energy of the dipole to be zero when θ = 90°, 2. 54 cm
the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will 3. 27 cm
respectively be: 4. 108 cm
1. pE sin θ, −pE cos θ
2. pE sin θ, −2pE cos θ Physics - Section B
3. pE sin θ, 2pE cos θ
4. pE cos θ, −pE sin θ 93 Assertion: The number of field lines drawn from a
charge is proportional to the magnitude of the charge
89 The equivalent capacitance of the following Reason: The electric field at any point is proportional to
arrangement is: the magnitude of the source charge.
1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
3. Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false.
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

1. 18 μF
2. 9 μF
3. 6 μF
4. 12 μF

Page: 12
 Test (09-Oct)Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

94 Assertion: The tyres of aircraft's are slightly 98 If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed
conducting. surface respectively is ϕ and
1 ϕ2 , the electric charge
Reason: If a conductor is connected to the ground, the inside the surface will be:
extra charge induced on the conductor will flow to the 1. (ϕ − ϕ )ε
1 2 0

ground. 2. (ϕ − ϕ )ε
2 1 0

1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is 3. (ϕ + ϕ )ε

1 2 0

the correct explanation of the Assertion. 4. (ϕ + 2ϕ )ε

2 1 0

2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is

not the correct explanation of the Assertion. 99 A spherical capacitor has an inner sphere of radius
3. Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false.
12 cm and an outer sphere of radius 13 cm. The outer
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.
sphere is earthed and the inner sphere is given a charge
of 2.5 μC. The space between the concentric spheres is
95 When the separation between two charges is filled with a liquid of dielectric constant 32. The
increased, the electric potential energy of the charges: capacitance of the capacitor is:
1. increases 1. 4.0 × 10 F −9

2. decreases 2. 4.5 × 10 F −9

3. remains the same

3. 5.5 × 10 F −9

4. may increase or decrease

4. 3.3 × 10 F −9

96 Charge q is uniformly distributed over a thin half-

100 Assertion: Electric field is always directed
ring of radius R. The electric field at the centre of the
ring is: perpendicular to an equipotential surface.
q Reason: Equipotential surface is a surface on which
1. 2
2π ε0 R
2
potential at each point is the same.
q
2. 2
4π ε0 R
2
1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is
q the correct explanation of the Assertion.
3. 4πε0 R
2
2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is
q
4. 2
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
2πε0 R
3. Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false.
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.
97 The figure shows two capacitors connected in series
and joined to a battery. The graph shows the variation in
potential as one moves from left to right on the branch Fill OMR Sheet*
containing the capacitors. Then:
*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
for the questions in the test.

1. C > C
1 2

2. C = C
1

3. C < C
1
2

2
CLICK HERE to get
4. the information is not sufficient to decide the relation
between C and C 1 2
FREE ACCESS for 2
days of ANY
NEETprep course

Page: 13