No.

: 0070070
GREAT
Test Booklet Code

R4
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a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 25 questions in each subject are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below:
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100 multiple-choice attempting
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fromofPhysics,
a candidate attempting
Chemistry more than
and Biology five questions,
(Botany the first
and Zoology). six questions
25 questions answered
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are
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test is:4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
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Physics: (1) Motion in a Plane (2) Motion in a Straight Line
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Chemistry: (3) Structure of Atom (4) Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
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Biology: (5) Reproduction in Organisms (6) Biomolecules (7) Cell: The Unit of Life
6. Sy
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 Test #2 (28-Aug)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

4.
Choose the correct option for A, B, and C :

Botany - Section A

Plant group Fertilisation Embryogenesis

1.
Assertion(A): Individuals produced by asexual (i) Algae Internal or external A
reproduction are genetically simillar to parents.
(ii) Pteridophytes B Present
Reason(R): Asexual reproduction involves only mitotic (iii) Gymnosperm Internal C
divisions.
 
1. If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
A B C
the correct explanation of the assertion.

2. If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is 1. Present External Present
not the correct explanation of the assertion
2. Absent Internal Present
3. If Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false.
3. Present External Absent
4. If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

4. Absent Internal Absent

2.
Identify A and B

5.
A : Perennial plants are always polycarpic.

R :  Vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases are

clearly distinct.

1. If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is

the correct explanation of the assertion.

2. If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is

not the correct explanation of the assertion

3. If Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false.

4. If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

1. A-Archegoniphore, B-Anthediophore

2. A- Anthediophore, B- Archegoniphore

3. A-Anthridium, B-Style
6.
Given below is the sequence of events in the life cycle
4. A-Ovary, B-Blastopore

of a plant :

Juvenile phase → reproductive phase → senescent phase

In which of the given plants, clear-cut distinction among

3.
Asexual reproduction is the common method of these stages of the life cycle is not seen?

reproduction in organisms that have a relatively simple 1. Radish

organisation, like algae and fungi and that they shift to 2. Apple

amphimixis
3. Maize

1. During favorable conditions

4. Marigold

2. Just before the onset of adverse conditions

3. To produce identical progeny

4. To produce large number of off-springs

7.
Read the following statements A & B and choose the

correct option :

Statement A: Asexual reproduction is a fast process.

Statement B: Progeny of sexually reproducing

organisms shows variations due to crossing over.

1. Both statements A and B are correct

2. Both statements A and B are incorrect

3. Only statement A is correct

4. Only statement B is correct

Page: 1
 Test #2 (28-Aug)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

8.
Read the following statements w.r.t. sexual 12.
Match each item in Column I with one in Column II

reproduction and choose the correct option :

and select the correct match from the codes given:
A : In organisms exhibiting external fertilization, there is COLUMN I COLUMN
great synchrony between the sexes.
II
B : In organisms exhibiting internal fertilization, egg is A Asexual reproductive P Conidia
formed inside female body where it fuses with male structure in Penicillium
gamete.
B Vegetative propagule in Q Marchantia
1. Both statement A & statement B are incorrect
Agave
2. Both statement A & statement B are correct
C Monoecious plant R Chara
3. Statement A is correct, but statement B is incorrect
D Dioecious plant S Bulbil
4. Statement A is incorrect, but statement B is correct

Codes:
9.
Read the statements given below  A B C D
(a) The sizes of crow and parrot are not very different 
1. P S Q R
(b) The life span of fruit fly is much longer than that of a 2. S P Q R
tortoise 
3. P S R Q
(c) No individual is immortal except multiple-celled 4. S P R Q
organisms 

Select the correct option w.r.t. true and false

(a) (b) (c)

13.
Which of the following is/are vegetative
1. T T T propagule(s) ?

2. T F T (a) Eyes of Potato

3. F T T (b) Zoospore of Chlamydomonas 

4. T F F (c) Rhizome of Ginger

(d) Buds in Hydra 

(e) Bulbil of Agave 

Choose the most appropriate answer form the options

10.
  The event not included in category of post- given below :

fertilisation events is 

1. (e) only

1. Cell differentiation 
2. (a), (c), (e) only

2. Embryogenesis 
3. (a), (b), (c), (d) only 

3. Gamete formation 
4. (b), (d) only

4. Mitotic divisions in zygote 

14.
Select correct statement with respect to life span :

11.
  Read the given statements and select the correct 1. It is related to the size of organisms 

option :
2. It is correlated with the complexity of organisms 

1. An animal is mostly reproductively mature in the 3. Peepal tree has much shorter life span as compared to
juvenile phase 
a mango tree 

2. Juvenile phase is of fixed duration in different 4. It is a specific trait of each organism 

organisms 

3. Juvenile phase is followed by morphological and

physiological changes prior to active reproductive 15.
Why asexual reproduction is sometimes
behaviour 
disadvantageous? 

4. The reproductive phase can never be of variable 1. It allows animals that do not move around to produce
durations in different organisms 
offsprings without finding mates 

2. It allows an animal to produce many offsprings

quickly 

3. It saves the time and energy of gamete production 

4. It produces a genetically uniform population 

Page: 2
 Test #2 (28-Aug)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

16.
Read the following statements and find the incorrect 19.
Which of the following statement is not correct? 

statements :
1. Gamete receives only one set of chromosomes 

a. Asexual reproduction is common among single celled 2. Meiosis is a reductional division occuring in both
organisms, and in plants and animals with relatively haploid and diploid organisms 

complex organisation.
3. Male gametes are always produced in less quantity
b. In yeast, the division is unequal and small buds are than female gametes 

produced that remain attached initially to the parent cell 4. In seed plants, pollen grains are the carriers of male
which eventually get separated and mature into new gametes  

yeast organisms (cell) 

c. Vegetative reproduction is also a type of asexual

reproduction 
20.
Read the following statements and find out the
d. While in animals and other simple organisms, the incorrect statement

term vegetative reproduction is used unambiguously, in 1. In organims, exhibiting internal fertilisation the male
gamete is non-motile but in seed plants the male gamete
plants, the term asexual reproduction is frequently used 

e. Water hyacinth is also called 'Terror of Bengal'

is motile 

1. a and d 
2. Organisms exhibiting external fertilization show great
2. b and c 
synchrony between the sexes and release a large number
3. a and e 
of gametes into the water in order to enhance the
4. b and d 
chances of syngamy 

3. In frogs and bony fishes, large number of offspring

are produced as they are extremely vulnerable to
17.
Choose the option with the correct identification of predators threatening their survival up to adulthood 

A, B, C, D and E given below :

4. In an organism exhibiting internal fertilisation even
though the number of sperms produced is very large,
there is a significant reduction in the number of eggs
produced

A B C D E 21.
In castor, lipid or fat is stored in

1. Tuber Rhizome Eyes Leaf buds Offset 1.  Aleuroplasts

2. Offset Eyes Leaf buds Stolon Sucker 2.  Proteinoplasts

3.  Elaioplasts

3. Offset Leaf buds Eyes Stolon Sucker 4.  Amyloplasts 

4. Tuber Rhizome Bulbil Leaf buds Offset

22.
Extranuclear inheritance is a consequence of the
presence of genes in :

Botany - Section B 1. Endoplasmic reticulum & mitochondria

2. Ribosomes and chloroplast

18.
Which one of the following statement is not correct? 
3. Lysosomes and ribosomes

1. Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction are 4. Mitochondria and chloroplasts

called clone 

2. Microscopic motile asexual reproductive structures

are called zoospores 
23.
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two
3. In potato, banana, and ginger, the plantlets arise from equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred
the internodes present in the modified stem 
as :

4. Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water, drains 1. Sub-metacentric

oxygen  from water that leads to the death of fishes 

2. Acrocentric

3. Metacentric

4. Telocentric

Page: 3
 Test #2 (28-Aug)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

24.
Plasmodesmata
28.
Consider the given two statements:

(a) is found in cell wall

Statement 1: Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including the
(b) are lined by plasma membrane
carboxyl carbon.

(c) are found in both plant and animal cells.

Statement 2: Arachidonic acid has 20 carbons including
Choose the correct one(s).
the carboxyl carbon.

1. (a) only
1. Only Statement 1 is correct

2. (b) only
2. Only Statement 2 is correct

3. Both (a) and (b)

3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct

4. All (a), (b) and (c)

4. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect

25.
Protein synthesis in a plant cell occurs in
29.
If we consider the average composition of cells the
1. Cytoplasm and nucleus
correct descending order of the components will be:

2. Mitochondria, chloroplast and cytoplasm

1. Proteins → Nucleic acids → Carbohydrates → Lipids

3. ER and nucleus
2. Proteins → Carbohydrates → Nucleic acids → Lipids

4. Chloroplast and nucleoplasm

3. Lipids → Carbohydrates → Nucleic acids → Proteins

4. Carbohydrates → Proteins → Lipids → Nucleic acids

Zoology - Section A

30.
Consider the given two statements:

26.
All the following are examples of basic amino acids Statement 1: A protein is a heteropolymer.

except:
Statement 2: There are 20 types of proteinogenic amino
1. Lysine
acids and they are linked by peptide bonds to form
2. Histidine
polypeptides.

3. Arginine
1. Only Statement 1 is correct

4. valine
2. Only Statement 2 is correct

 
3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct

4. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect

27.
Identify the given nitrogenous base:

31.
The true macromolecular fraction of any living tissue
or cells includes all the following biomolecules except:

1. Nucleic acids

2. Polysaccharides

3. Lipids

4. Proteins

32.
A pyrimidine found uniquely in DNA is:

1. Adenine
1. Uracil

2. Guanine
2. Thymine

3. Thymine
3. Cytosine

4. Cytosine

4. Guanine

Page: 4
 Test #2 (28-Aug)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

33.
Identify the given nitrogenous base:
38.
In a nucleic acid:

I: a phosphate moiety links the 5’ carbon of one sugar of

one nucleotide to the 1’ carbon of the sugar of the
succeeding nucleotide

II: the backbone of the strand is made up of alternate

sugar and nitrogenous bases.

1. Only I is correct

2. Only Ii is correct

3. Both I and II are correct

4. Both I and II are incorrect

1. Thymine
 

2. Uracil

3. Adenine

4. Guanine
39.
The metabolic pathways in a living system:

 
I. are linear or circular                                   

II. are series of linked reactions

III. are characterized by a definite rate and direction of

34.
The double helix model of DNA by Watson and flow of metabolites through them

Crick exhibits its:

1. Only I and II are correct

1. Primary structure
2. Only I and III are correct

2. Secondary structure
3. Only II and III are correct

3. Tertiary structure
4. I, II and III are correct

4. Quaternary structure

35.
The strands of the DNA double helix are:
40.
The number of metabolic steps in the glycolytic
1. identical
pathway is:
2. coiled around each other
1.  5

3. parallel to each other

2.  9

4. complementary to each other

3.  10

4. 11

36.
At each step of ascent, the helical strand of DNA

turns

1. 36 degree
41.
The living state can be best described as a:

2. 34 degree
1. non equilibrium steady state

3. 20 degree
2. non equilibrium non steady state

4. 180 degree

3. equilibrium non steady state

4. equilibrium steady state

37.
The pitch of DNA helix is:

1. 0.34 nm
42.
The blood concentration of glucose in a normal

2. 3.4 nm
healthy individual is:

3. 34 nm
1. 3.5 – 4.0 mM

4. 340 nm

2. 4.0 – 4.5 mM

3. 4.2 – 6.1 mM

4. 5.0 – 5.5 mM

Page: 5
 Test #2 (28-Aug)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Zoology - Section B 48.

The graph shown below shows the effect of a certain

factor on the rate of a reaction catalyzed by an enzyme.

43.
The substrate concentration at which the enzyme The X-axis would show the said factor and that will be:

catalyzed reaction achieves ½ Vmax is its ____ value.

1. Km

2. Kcat

3. pKa

4. Q10

44.
In general, with every 100C rise in the temperature
[in the range 00C to 400c], the rate of enzyme catalyzed
reaction:

1. Becomes half

2. Gets doubled

3. Remains same

4. There is no such correlation in general

1. substrate concentration

2. pH

3. enzyme concentration

45.
Enzymes that catalyze removal of groups from 4. temperature

substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving

double bonds are:

1. Dehygdrogenases
49.
The inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
2. Transferases
malonate is an example of:

3. Lyases
1. Non-competitive reversible inhibition

4. Ligases

2. Non-competitive irreversible inhibition

3. Competitive inhibition

4. Allosteric inhibition

46.
The non protein constituent present in many

enzymes is called:

1. Co-enzyme
50.
Consider the following enzymes:

2. Co-factor
I. Catalase

3. Apoenzyme
II. Peroxidase

4. Holoenzyme

III. Carboxypeptidase

Which of these enzymes require haem as a cofactor for

their activity?

47.
Haem in hemoglobin:
1. I only

1. is loosely bound
2. I and II only

2. is the co-enzyme
3. II and III only

3. is the prosthetic group

4. I, II and III

4. has no influence on activity of Hb

Page: 6
 Test #2 (28-Aug)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

54.
Match List I with List II 

Chemistry - Section A

List I List II
51.
The maximum number of neutrons are present in the Different regions of the spectrum Frequencies
nuclei of
I. Radiofrequency  A. 106 Hz
16
1.  O
8

24
II. Microwave B. 1013 Hz
2.   Mg
12
III. Ultraviolet region C. 1010 Hz
56

D. 1016 Hz
3.   Fe
26
IV. Infra-red region
88
4.   Sr
38

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
52.
Which element/ion amongst the following has the I II III IV
lowest energy of 1st shell? 

1. B A C D
1. H 

2. H e
+ 2. A C D B
3. Li
2+
3. D B A C
4. Be
3+
4. B C D A

53.
Match the model/theory in List I with their related
concept given in List II. 55.
The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the
List I List II electron in He+ is :

A. Thomson I. Work function 1. 26.5

B. Rutherford's model II. Radioactive rays 2. 105.8

C. Bohr's model III. Raisin pudding 3. 0.0

4. 52.9

D. Photoelectric effect IV. Principal quantum number 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below 56.
Which of the following conclusions could not be
: derived from Rutherford's  α-particle scattering
A B C D experiment?

1. I IV II III 1. Most of the space in the atom is empty

2. II IV I III 2. The radius of the atom is about 10-10 m while that of

3. III II IV I nucleus is 10-15 m

4. III IV II I 3. Electrons move in circular path of fixed energy called

orbits

4. Electrons and the nucleus are held together by

electrostatic forces of attraction

57.
Two atoms are said to be isobars if :

1. They have same atomic number but different mass

number

2. They have same number of electrons but different

number of neutrons

3. They have same number of neutrons but different

numbers of electrons

4. Sum of the number of protons and neutrons is the

same but the number of protons is different

Page: 7
 Test #2 (28-Aug)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

58.
Chlorine exists in two isotopic forms, Cl-37 and Cl- 63.
Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an

35, but its atomic mass is 35.5. This indicates the ratio of atom can be determined by which of the following
Cl-37 and Cl-35 is approximately :
formula :

1. 1:2
1. 4l + 2

2. 1:1
2. 2l + 1

3. 1:3
3. 4l - 2

4. 3:1

4. 2n2

59.
Energy of H-atom in the ground state is -13.6 eV.
64.
Based on equation E = –2.178 × 10–18J, 
2
Z
  certain
Hence, it can be concluded that the energy in the second 2
n

excited state will be : 

conclusions are written. Which of them is not correct ?

1.  -6.8 eV 

1. Larger the value of n, larger is the orbit radius.

2. -3.4 eV 
2. Equation can be used to calculate the change in
3. -1.51 eV 
energy when the electron changes orbit.

4. -4.53 eV 

3. For n = 1, the electron has a more negative energy

than it does for n = 6 which means that the electron is

more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit.

60.
According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum 4. The negative sign in equation simply means that the
of an electron in 5th orbit is : 
energy of  electron bound to the nucleus is lower than
1. 25

h
what it would be if the electrons were at an infinite
π
distance from the nucleus.

2. 1. 0
h

3. 10

4. 2. 5

h 65.
The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by :

π
1. azimuthal quantum number

2. spin quantum number

61.
Assertion: Emitted radiation will fall in visible range 3. magnetic quantum number

when an electron jumps from n=4 to n=2 in H-atom.

4. principal quantum number

Reason: Balmer series radiations belong to the visible

range for hydrogen atoms only.

66.
The molality of 0.01 M Na2CO3 solution is -

1. Both the statements are TRUE and Reason is the (density of the solution is 1.1 g/ml)

correct explanation Assertion.

1. 9 × 10

−3

2. Both statements are TRUE but Reason is NOT the 2. 1. 8 × 10

−3

correct explanation of Assertion.

3. 4. 5 × 10
−3

3. Assertion is TRUE and Reason is FALSE.

4. 1. 1 × 10
−3

4. Assertion is FALSE and Reason is TRUE.

67.
The volume of carbon dioxide gas evolved at STP by
heating 7.3 g of Mg(HCO3)2 will be -

62.
A gas absorbs a photos of 355 nm and emits at two 1. 1000 mL

wavelengths. If one of the emissions is at 680 nm, the 2. 1120 mL

other is at:
3. 2230 mL

1. 1035 nm
4. 3240 mL

2. 325 nm

3. 743 nm

4. 518 nm

Page: 8
 Test #2 (28-Aug)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Chemistry - Section B 73.

The number of moles of magnesium phosphate, 

M g (P O )  that contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms are

3 4
2

68.
  The empirical formula of an oxide of iron, which - 

has 69.9% iron and 30.1% oxygen by mass is -

1.  0.02 

1. FeO
2.  3. 125  ×  10
−2

2. Fe2O3
3. 1. 25  ×  10
−2

3. Fe3O4
4. 2. 5  ×  10

−2

4. Fe3O2

74.
The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 750
mL of 0.5(M)HCl with 250 ml of 2(M)HCl will be-

69.
The molality of a solution containing 18.25 g of HCl 1. 1.75 M

gas in 500 g of water is -

2. 0.975 M

1. 0.1 m
3. 0.875 M

2. 1 M
4. 1.00 M

3. 0.5 m

4. 1 m

75.
Percentage of C, H & N are given as follows :

C = 40%  H = 13.33% N = 46.67%

70.
The mass of ammonia in grams produced when 2.8 The empirical formula will be :

kg of dinitrogen quantitatively reacts with 1 kg of

1. CH N
2
dihydrogen is- .
2. C H N
2 4
1. 3600 g
3. CH N
4
2. 3000 g
4. CH N

3
3. 3400 g

4. 4000 g

Physics - Section A

71.
6.023 × 1022 molecules are present in 10 g of 2
substance ‘x’. The molarity of a solution containing 5 g 76.
If the velocity of a particle is v =At + Bt , where A
of substance ‘x’ in 2L solution is-
and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it
1. 0.00025
between 1 s and 2 s is:

2. 2.5
1. 3A + 7B

3. 0.025
2. A + B

2
7

4. 25

3. +
A B

2 3

4. A + 4B

72.
One mole of oxygen gas at STP is equal to -

(a). 6. 022 × 10  molecules of oxygen

23

(b). 6. 022 × 10  atoms of oxygen

23 77.
A stone falls freely from rest from a height h and it
travels a distance   in the last second. The value of h is

9h
(c). 16 g of oxygen molecule
25

(d). 32 g of oxygen 
1. 145 m

1. (a), (b)
2. 100 m

2. (a), (c)
3. 122.5 m

3. (a), (d)
4. 200 m

4. (c), (d)

Page: 9
 Test #2 (28-Aug)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

78.
Assertion: The relative velocity between any two 82.
Assertion: Generally, the path of a projectile from

bodies may be equal to the sum of the speeds of the two the earth is parabolic but it is elliptical for projectiles
bodies.
going to a very large height.

Reason: Sometimes, the relative velocity between two Reason: The path of a projectile is independent of the
bodies may be equal to the difference in the speeds of gravitational force of earth.

the two.
1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

the correct explanation of the Assertion. 2. Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.

3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.

4. Both Assertion and Reason are false.

4. Both Assertion and Reason are false.

 

83.
If the range of a gun which fires a shell with muzzle
79.
A swimmer wishes to cross a 800 m wide river speed v, is R, then the angle of elevation of the gun is:

flowing at 6 km/hr. His speed with respect to water is 4 1. cos −1

(
v
2

km/hr. He crosses the river in shortest possible time. He Rg

is drifted downstream on reaching the other bank by a 2. cos −1

(
Rg

2
)

distance of
v

1. 800 m
3.  1

2
sin
−1
(
Rg
v
)

2. 1200 m
Rg
4.  1
sin
−1
( )

3. 400√13 m
2 v
2

4. 2000 m

84.
A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of
80.
Assertion: Path of the particle thrown with some 500 m/s and a bomb is released from it. The bomb
velocity at some angle  θ (not 90° with the horizontal) is strikes the ground in 10 sec. Angle at which it strikes the
a parabola.
ground will be (g = 10 m/s2) 

Reason: If the angle between acceleration and velocity is

1. tan −1
(
1
)

0° and 180°, the trajectory of the particle is a straight 5

line.
2. tan( 1
)

1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is 5

the correct explanation of the assertion

3. tan–1(1)

2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not 4. tan–1(5)

the correct explanation of the assertion

3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statement.

85.
A projectile is fired from level ground at an angle θ
 
above the horizontal. The elevation angle ф of the

highest point as seen from the launch point is related to θ

by the relation :

81.
Assertion: A projectile has only vertical component 1. tan ф = 2tan θ

of velocity at the highest point of its trajectory.

2. tan ф = tan θ

Reason: At the highest point, only one component of 3. tan ф =  tan θ

1

velocity is present.
2

1. Both the assertion and reason are true and reason 4. tan ф =   tan  θ

explains the assertion.

2. Both the assertion and reason are true but reason does
not explain the assertion.

3. Assertion is true but reason is false.

4. Assertion is false but reason is true.

Page: 10
 Test #2 (28-Aug)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

86.
Assertion: When a particle moves in a circle with a 90.
Which one of the following is not true?

uniform speed, both its velocity and acceleration change.

1. The net acceleration of a particle in a circular motion
Reason: The centripetal acceleration in circular motion is  always  along the radius of the circle towards the
is independent of the angular velocity of the body.
center.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is 2. The velocity vector of a particle at a point
the correct explanation of assertion.
is always along the tangent to the path of the particle at
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is that point.

not the correct explanation of assertion.

3. The acceleration vector of a particle
3. Assertion is true but the reason is false.
in uniform circular motion averaged over one cycle is a
4. Both assertion and reason are false.
null vector.

4. None of the above.

87.
Assertion: In a two-dimensional motion, there are
two accelerations acting on the particle.
91.
Which of the following is the angle between
Reason: Both the components of velocity, i.e., horizontal velocity and acceleration of a body in uniform circular
and vertical, in case of free fall keep on changing w.r.t. motion?

time.
1. 30°

 
2. 45°

1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is 3. 60°

the correct explanation of the assertion

4. 90°
2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not

the correct explanation of the assertion

3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

92.
The horizontal range is four times the maximum
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.
height attained by a projectile. The angle of projection is

 
1.  90°

2.  60°

3.  45°

88.
If two particles are moving in circular paths of radii 4.  30°

r   and  r
1 2 with the same linear speed, then the ratio of

their centripetal accelerations is:

1.  1: 1
Physics - Section B
2.  r   :  r

1 2

3.  r   :  r

2 1 93.
The effective acceleration of a body, when thrown
4.  r   :  r

2
2

1
upwards with acceleration a will be: 

1. √a − g
2

2. √a + g
2 2

89.
An insect trapped in a circular groove of radius 12
cm moves along the groove steadily and completes 7 3. (a − g)

revolutions in 100 s. Is the acceleration vector a constant 4. (a + g)

vector? What is its magnitude?

1.  yes, 2.3 cm /s

94.
If ar and at represent radial and tangential
2.  no, 5.3 cm /s

accelerations, the motion of a particle will be uniformly

3.  yes, 5.3 cm /s

circular if 

4.  no, 2.3 cm /s

1. ar = 0 and at = 0

2. ar = 0 but a ≠ 0

3. a ≠ 0 but at = 0

4. a ≠ 0 and a ≠ 0

r t

Page: 11
 Test #2 (28-Aug)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

95.
Which of the following statement/s is/are 100.
A stone is thrown with a speed of 20 m/s at an

incorrect regarding the motion in a plane?

angle of 60°  with the ground. Speed of stone when it
1. A body can't move on a curved path with  constant makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal is

acceleration.
1. 10 m/s

2. The angle between acceleration and velocity  can be 2. 10√3 m/s

90°.
3.   m/s

20

3. The angle between acceleration and velocity  can be √3

other than 90°.

4. None of these

4. All of the above.

96.
A cricketer can throw a ball to a Fill OMR Sheet*
maximum horizontal distance of 50 m. How much high
above the ground can he throw the same ball?
*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
1. 50 m
where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
2. 25 m
filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
3. 75 m
for the questions in the test.
4. 100 m

97.
A particle is thrown from the ground with a speed u
at an angle θ above the horizontal. The rate of change of
velocity of the particle at the highest point of the path is:

1. gsinθ

CLICK HERE to get

2. gcosθ

3. g

FREE ACCESS for 2

4. Zero

days of ANY
98.
A man runs along a horizontal road holding his
NEETprep course
umbrella vertical in order to afford maximum protection
from the rain. The rain is actually:

1. falling vertical.

2. coming from the front of the man.

3. coming from the back of the man.

4. either of 1, 2 or 3.

99.
Assertion: A body can have a velocity varying in
both magnitude and direction but still have constant
acceleration.

Reason: Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of

speed with respect to time.

1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is

the correct explanation of the assertion

2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
the correct explanation of the assertion

3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Page: 12