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FASTLEARN EXAMINER
10 - 12
TOPICAL REVISION
SCIENCE
Past Exam Questions
RABSON BANDA
www.fastlearnexaminer.com
©2018 FASTLEARN PUBLISHERS

1
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FASTLEARN EXAMINER GRADE 10 – 12
SCIENCE
TOPICAL REVISION
Cover design: Nelson C. Nkhoma
Cover photo: Kennedy Space Center, Florida, USA.
Copyright © FASTLEARN PUBLISHERS 2018
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval
system, or transmitted, in any form or by any means electronic, mechanical,
photocopying, recording or otherwise, without the prior permission of the publisher.
2
NOTE TO USERS
The Authors dedicated time and effort in researching the best solutions to various problems in this book.
However, feedback on the suggested solutions is welcome. Users are encouraged to study extensively
before attempting to use the material.
3
ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS
I wish to sincerely thank my friend and colleague, Mr Zeb Kabaya, Chemisty teacher at Nyumba Yanga
Secondary School and my former Physics teacher, Mr Chiyenu, Kamwala Secondary School, for their
assistance. Sincere thanks to Mr. S. Bulaya, HOD at the Natural Resource Development College (NRDC)
for his encourage.
Special thanks to my former teacher and now colleague, Mwiya Namakando and his beautiful family, for
the encouragement and having influenced my passion for education. Thank you to Nelson Nkhoma, for the
beautiful cover design. Last, but not the least, I would like to appreciate all the people I have helped
academically for their positive feedback which significantly contributed to my coming up with this book. I
thank the Almighty God.
Rabson Banda (B.Sc. Engineering)
4
NOTICE FROM THE EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ZAMBIA (ECZ)
The council urges all registered candidates for the examinations to prove their skills, knowledge and attitudes acquired
during the course of instruction rather than involving themselves in examination malpractices. The council further urges
all the candidates to prepare adequately for examinations. The council strongly warns parents, teachers, guardians,
candidates and members of the public against involving themselves in examination malpractices. DURING THE
EXAMINATION PERIOD
1. Candidates should NOT:

• smuggle any form of pre-written materials into the examination room.
• accept to be assisted by anyone.
• accept to write an examination for someone else (impersonation).
• copy from each other.
• substitute the written script in the examination room with an illegal script.
• display improper conduct or violent behaviour in and around the examination room.
• be cheated into buying or selling fake examination papers as all examination question papers are kept under
lock and key prior to the examination date.
2. Teachers, invigilators, and supervisors should:

• not assist the candidates in any way before, during and after examinations .
• not allow anyone to write an examination on behalf of someone else.
• not allow candidates to copy from each other.
• not substitute candidates scripts.
• search the candidates thoroughly before entering the examination room.
3. Members of the community should be cautious and alert when photocopying or printing any examination related
materials at their premises.
4. Anyone attempting to photocopy any examination related materials should immediately be reported to the ECZ.
PENALTY Those found guilty of involvement in examination malpractice will:

• immediately be expelled from the entire examination.
• have the results cancelled in all subjects.
• be liable to prosecution. For details refer to the "candidates beware!" posters that are in all schools and
examination centres countrywide.
Be proactive and report any suspected examination irregularity to the Provincial Education Office (PEO), District
Education Board Secretary (DEBS), nearest Police Station or calling the following numbers: 211 252930 or 211 254896
or 211 250904 or 0977-749578 or 0955-749578. Let's all work together to fight examination malpractices to protect and
uphold the integrity of our education system.
5
STUDY TIPS
The Materials
Make sure your class notes are up to date. Buy text books, pamphlets and reference materials like a dictionary and
atlas. PAST EXAMINATION PAPERS will help you know how questions are asked in exams as well as enable you to
practice. Have at least 2 pens, a pencil, sharpener, math set, ruler, papers or note book for calculations. Some materials
can be borrowed from the school or public library.
The Place
The school or public library provides an environment completely free from noise and distraction which is conducive for
any meaningful reading or study. You can also study in any quiet place, study room, classroom during prep. Don’t study
on your bed or while lying on a sofa to avoid the temptation to sleep. Avoid studying while listening to music or watching
television as these will affect your concentration. Switch off your phones or put them on silence WITHOUT VIBRATION
when studying.
The Time
Have a study time table and be disciplined in following it. Make adjustments when necessary. Know the time of the day
when your concentration is highest or your mind is very fresh. For most people it is the early hours of the morning while
for others it is just before they go to bed. Subjects you find difficult (Maths for some people) should be studied first and
the easiest like English should be studied last. Your time table should be comprehensive. It should indicate what time
you wake up, study, bath, start off to school, have prep, do your home work, wash plates, cook, clean your room, go to
Church, go to bed, watch TV, listen to the radio (news and educative programmes) e.t.c. Do your home work
immediately after class before you forget the examples given in class by your teacher. Spend 45 minutes or one hour
on one subject. Take a break when you are no longer concentrating, take a walk and get back to study. Spend at least
45 minutes early in the morning, another 45 minutes in the afternoon and another 45 minutes before you go to bed.
The Partners
Form a study group with hard working pupils from your school or other schools. Meet regularly to solve problems,
discuss topics and refer difficult questions to your teachers. Don’t be ashamed or afraid of asking questions where you
don’t understand.
Principles of Solving Problems in Mathematics
Mathematics is an indispensable subject that is dreaded by many pupils. Since each class builds on the previous ones,
you must attend classes regularly and punctually and also participate actively by taking complete notes and asking
questions. You must go an extra-mile by studying the topics ahead of the class and also meeting your teacher or any
other person who is very good in the subject to clear whatever confusion you have on any topic.
Mathematics is learned by DOING. Do your homework, solve every question in the exercises in your textbook, look for
other books as well as past exam questions and solve every question you can lay hold on. The problems help you learn
the formulae and techniques you need to know as well as improve your problem-solving prowess.
6
CONTENTS
PHYSICS ....................................................................................................................................... 8
TOPIC 1: GENERAL PHYSICS ......................................................................................... 9
TOPIC 2: MECHANICS ..................................................................................................... 29
TOPIC 3: THERMAL PHYSICS ....................................................................................... 68
TOPIC 4: WAVE MOTION ................................................................................................ 87
TOPIC 5: SOUND ............................................................................................................... 95
TOPIC 6: LIGHT ................................................................................................................. 99
TOPIC 7: MAGNETISM ................................................................................................... 112
TOPIC 8: STATIC ELECTRICITY ................................................................................. 120
TOPIC 9: CURRENT ELECTRICITY ............................................................................ 126
TOPIC 10: ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION ........................................................... 143
TOPIC 11: ATOMIC PHYSICS ........................................................................................ 150
TOPIC 12. BASIC ELECTRONIC ................................................................................... 165
CHEMISTRY ............................................................................................................................. 168

TOPIC 1: PARTICULATE NATURE OF MATTER ..................................................... 169
TOPIC 2: EXPERIMENTAL TECHNIQUES................................................................. 175
TOPIC 3: ATOMS, ELEMENTS, COMPOUNDS AND MOLECULES .................... 189
TOPIC 4: ACIDS BASES AND SALTS ........................................................................ 211
TOPIC 5: MOLE CONCEPT ........................................................................................... 224
TOPIC 6: CHEMICAL REACTIONS ............................................................................. 234
TOPIC 7: PERIODIC TABLE ......................................................................................... 241
TOPIC 8: METALS ........................................................................................................... 249
TOPIC 9: NON METALS ................................................................................................. 266
TOPIC 10: ORGANIC CHEMISTRY ................................................................................ 280
7
PHYSICS
TOPICAL
8
TOPIC 1: GENERAL PHYSICS
SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q1]. The diagram below shows part of the micrometer screw gauge. What is the reading shown in
the diagram?
A 5.68 mm B 6.69 mm C 6.68 cm D 6.86 mm
2. [2015-P1-Q4]. To find the density of a liquid, a pupil noticed that 90 g of the liquid occupied the same
volume as 114 g of water of density 1000 kg⁄m3 . What was the density of the liquid?
A 0.79 g/cm3
B 1.27 g/cm3
C 4.90 g/cm3
D 2.04 g/cm3
3. [2013-P1-Q1]. The diagram below represents a pendulum. The length of the pendulum is...
A 2 cm. B 10 cm. C 12 cm. D 11 cm.
4. [2013-P1-Q2]. Which of the following numbers has three significant figures?
A 0.0003
B 0.0030
C 0.0300
D 0.3000
5. [2013-P1-Q4]. An Astronaut goes to the moon where the gravitational field strength is 1.6 N/kg. What will
be the changes, if any, in his mass and weight when he lands on the moon?
9
Mass Weight
A Same on earth and moon Less on moon
B Less on moon Same on earth and moon
C Less on earth Less on moon
D More on earth More on moon
6. [2012-P1-Q1]. The diagram shows part of a vernier calliper used to measure the width of a rectangular glass
block. The correct reading is...
A 2.54 cm
B 2.36 cm
C 1.46 cm
D 2.25 cm
7. [2012-P1-Q2]. Which of the following represents an SI unit?
Name Symbol
A gram g
B second s
C centimetre cm
D kilojoule kJ
8. [2012-P1-Q4]. The diagram below shows a cross-section through the centre of a triangular prism. M is the
position of the centre of Mass of the prism. PQ may be considered to have maximum stability because...
A the centre of mass M is furthest from point P.
B the centre of mass M has the greatest vertical height at this base.
C it is above M and far away from R.
D it has the greatest contact base area.
10
9. [2011-P1-Q1]. Which of the following is not an S.l unit?
A W
B °C
C m/s
D N
10. [2011-P1-Q3]. What is the weight of a 500g mass on the moon where gravitational field strength is 1.6N/kg?
A 0.8 N
B 8N
C 12.5 N
D 800 N
11. [2011-P1-Q5]. A stone of mass 24 g and density 2.5 g/cm3 is split into two pieces of mass 18 g and 6 g
respectively. What is the density of the smaller piece?
A 2.5 g/cm3
B 0.8 g/cm3
C 1.3 g/cm3
D 4.0 g/cm3
12. [2010-P1-Q1]. A plumber needs to measure the internal diameter of a water pipe as accurately as possible.
The instrument that should be used is the...
A measuring tape
B engineer's calipers
C meter rule
D vernier calipers
13. [2010-P1-Q3]. Which property of a body cannot be changed if a force is applied to it?
A velocity
B volume
C shape
D mass
14. [2009-P1-Q1]. All measurable features or properties of objects are called...
A SI units
B Physical quantities
C Measurements
D Images
15. [2009-P1-Q2]. Which of the following numbers has four significant figures?
A 0.2000
B 0.0020
C 0.0200
D 0.0002
11
16. [2009-P1-Q4]. A stone of mass 400 g is lowered into a measuring cylinder containing water. The water level
rises from 300 cm3 to 500 cm3 . What is the density of the stone?
A 1.33 g/cm3
B 2.00 g/cm3
C 0.80 g/cm3
D 0.50 g/cm3
17. [2004-P1-Q1]. Figure 1.1 shows part of a vernier calliper used to measure the width of a rectangular glass
block. The correct reading is...
A 32.6 mm
B 32.4 mm
C 3.25 cm
D 31.4 mm
18. [2004-P1-Q3]. The diagram shows a solid toy resting on the ground.
At which of the four points A, B, C or D, should the weight of the solid toy be concentrated so that it does not
topple over easily?
19. [2004-P1-Q4]. What is the volume of a block of expanded polystyrene of mass 400g and density16kg/m3 ?
A 0.205 m3
B 0.0025 m3
C 0.025 m3
D 2.57 m3
20. [2003-P1-Q1]. The diagram below shows a pendulum of length (L) moving from A to C and back again to A.
12
If the period of this pendulum is 0.5 seconds, then after 0.75 seconds the bob would be at...
A B C D
21. [2003-P1-Q3]. The mass of a body measures its ...

A inertia
B acceleration
C volume
D density
22. [2003-P1-Q4]. To find the density of copper, a pupil weighed a piece of copper of volume 10 cm3 three
times. The masses obtained were 88 g, 87 g and 89 g. Using the average value of the masses, the density
of copper is ...
A 8.9 g/cm3
B 8.7 g/cm3
C 88 g/cm3
D 8.8 g/cm3
23. [2001-P1-Q4]. A block of iron is weighed in air, hydrogen, water and salty water. The highest reading will be
in…
A air.
B hydrogen.
C water.
D salty water.
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q1]
A pile of 500 sheets of paper has a mass of 2 kg. The pile is 300mm long, 200mm wide and 50mm
thick. Calculate
(a) the thickness of one sheet [1]
(b) the mass of one sheet [1]
(c) the volume of one pile [3]
(d) the density of one sheet of paper in g/cm3. [2]
13
2. [2013-P2-Q2]
(a) State one difference between mass and weight. [1]

(b) What two factors will make an object stable? [2]
(c) A mass of an object is 50 kg on earth, what will be its mass on the moon? [1]
3. [2013-P2-Q3]
(a) Briefly describe how the mass of a liquid can be determined. Show how the final result can be
calculated. [3]
(b) An empty relative density bottle has a mass of 35 g. When filled with water, its mass becomes
85 g. Calculate the
(i) mass of water. [1]
3
(ii) volume of the bottle (take the density of water to be 1 g/cm ). [2]
4. [2012-P2-Q1]
(a) Figure 1.1 below shows part of a Vernier Calliper used to measure a physical quantity.
(i) What is the reading shown above on the Vernier Calliper? [1]
(ii) What physical quantity does the Vernier Calliper measure? [1]
(b) State two precautions that must be taken when taking measurements using a micrometer
screw gauge. [2]
5. [2012-P2-Q11]
(a) Describe an experiment you would carry out to determine the density of an irregularly shaped
object which floats on water. [5]
(b) Figure 11.1 shows a uniform meter rule balanced horizontally on a knife-edge placed at the
58 cm mark when a mass of 20 g is suspended from the end.
14
(i) Find the mass of the rule. [2]
(ii) What is the weight of the rule, (taking g = 10 m/s2 )? [2]
(c) A candle stand has a wide heavy base. Explain why the base has both heavy mass and wide
area. [1]
6. [2011-P2-Q2]
(a) What is meant by the centre of mass of an object? [1]
(b) Explain why a minibus is more likely to topple over when the roof rack is heavily loaded than
when the roof rack is empty. [2]
(c) A metre rule is supported on a knife-edge placed at the 40 cm mark. It is found that the metre
rule balances when a mass of 45 g is suspended from the 15 cm mark as shown in Figure 2.1.
If the centre of mass of the metre rule is at the 52.5 cm mark, calculate the mass of the metre
rule. [2]
7. [2011-P2-Q3]
A girl whose mass is 45kg carries a box of mass 25 kg up a flight of steps. There are 40 steps each
40 cm high. She takes 16s to climb up the steps. (Take g = 10 m/s2 )
(a) What is her weight? [1]
(b) What is the weight of the box? [1]
(c) Calculate the total gravitational potential energy of the girl and the box when she reaches the
top. [2]
(d) Calculate the total power. [2]
8. [2011-P2-Q10].
(a) Define density of a substance. [1]

(b) Describe an experiment you would perform to determine the density of an irregularly shaped
object such as a stone. [5]
(c) An empty tin of mass 20 g and capacity 25 cm3 was used to measure the density of mercury.
When full of mercury, the mass of the tin and mercury was 360 g.
What is the density of mercury? [4]
15
9. [2010-P2-Q1].
Figure 1.1 shows part of a micrometer screw gauge, an instrument used to measure a physical
quantity.
(a) What is the reading shown on the micrometer? [1]
(b) What physical quantity is measured by the instrument? [1]
(c) What is the function of the ratchet? [1]
10. [2010-P2-Q2].
Figure 2.1 shows a simple pendulum that oscillates between position A and C. It takes 2.05 seconds
to go from A to C and back to mid-point B.
(a) (i) Calculate the period of a pendulum. [2]
(ii) Calculate the frequency of the pendulum. [2]
(b) Briefly describe how the period of a pendulum would be measured. [1]
11. [2010-P2-Q4].
Figure 4.1 represents a thick-walled bottle used to carry out an experiment to determine the density
of air. The bottle was fitted with a rubber bung and a tap.
16
Rubber bung
The following results were obtained:
Mass of the bottle containing air = 410 g

Mass of empty (evacuated) bottle = 409 g
Mass of bottle filled with water = 1150 g
(a) What mass of water was needed to fill the bottle? [1]
(b) What was the internal volume of the bottle? Take the density of water as 1 g/cm3 . [2]
(c) What mass of air filled the bottle? [1]
(d) What was the density of air? [2]
12. [2009-P2-Q4].
(a) Figure 4.1 shows a bus.
(a) State 3 modifications that should be made in the design of the bus to make it more stable. [3]
(b) An astronaut with a mass 75 kg on Earth travels to the moon whose gravitational field
strength is 1.6 N/Kg.
17
(i) What is meant by mass? [1]
(ii) What is the mass of an astronaut on the moon? [1]
(iii) What is his weight on the moon? [1]
13. [2004-P2-Q1].
(a) What physical quantity can be measured using a micrometer screw gauge? [1]
(b) State two precautions needed in the usage of the instrument. [2]
14. [2004-P2-Q2]
(a) A small boy placed an iron ball into a trough filled with mercury. Given that the densities of
mercury and iron are 13.6 g/cm3 and 7.86 g/cm3 respectively:
(i) State whether the ball will sink or float in mercury. [1]
(ii) Give a reason for your answer in (i). [1]
(b) Calculate the mass of iron that would occupy a volume of 3.33 cm3 . [2]
15. [2003-P2-Q1]
The diagrams show the measuring cylinder, the vernier caliper and the micrometer screw gauge.
What are the readings indicated?
(a) (b)
(c)
18
16. [2003-P2-Q3]
A measuring cylinder contains 30 cm3 of liquid. When a stone of mass 92 g is dropped into the
liquid, it sinks to the bottom and the liquid rises to the 70 cm3 mark.
(a) What is the volume of the stone? [1]
(b) Calculate the density of the stone. [1]
(c) Explain why it would not be possible to use this method to determine the density of cork which
would float in the liquid. [1]
17. [2003-P2-Q11]
(a) Describe an experiment to determine the period of a pendulum, given a metal bob, a string
and a stop clock. Mention at least one precaution you would take. [6]
(b) Explain how the motion performed by the metal bob is similar to wave motion. [1]
(c) State the wave equation and use it to calculate the speed of a wave with wavelength 2 cm, if
10 complete waves pass through a certain point in 1 second. [3]
18. [2002-P2-Q1]
(a) State two precautions that must be taken when measuring the diameter of a ball bearing using
a micro meter screw gauge. [2]
(b) State what is measured by the following instruments and the units in which the quantities are
measured. [3]
19. [2002-P2-Q2]
The graph above is for a pendulum bob which is pulled to one side and then released to swing.
Assume that there is no friction of any sort as the bob swings.
19
(a) What do you understand by Period of a pendulum? [1]

(b) After how long does the pendulum bob reach the maximum distance of travel? [1]
(c) If the pendulum bob swings at the rate of 5cm/s, how far from the starting position is it 8
seconds later from the time it started swinging? [2]
(d) Explain why this pendulum would be suitable for keeping or measuring time. [1]
20. [2001-P2-Q2]
(a) State the SI unit of density. [1]
(b) A stone of mass 20 g and density 0.5 g/cm3 was immersed into water in a measuring cylinder
whose initial volume was 30 cm3 .
Find the final volume of water in the measuring cylinder. [3]
(c) If the density of the stone was unknown, mention another piece of apparatus that could be
used to find the density in addition to the one already mentioned. [1]
20
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. B - Micrometer has an accuracy of 0.01 mm. Read the highest scale division that can be seen on the
sleeve. Read the scale on the thimble, multiplying it by 0.01 and add the two values.
Sleeve = 6.5 mm, thimble = 19 × 0.01 = 0.19 mm
Adding: 6.50mm + 0.19mm = 6.69 mm
2. A. Find volume of the liquid by finding the volume occupied by 114g of water. Note that density of
M 114g 90g
water 1000kg⁄m3 is the same as 1g/cm3 . V = = = 114cm3. Density of liquid = =
D 1g/cm3 114cm3
0.79g/cm3
3. D - Length is from the fixed point to the centre of the bob.
4. C - In decimal numbers, zeros after the decimal point are NOT significant. However, zeros after and
between NON-ZERO digits are significant.
5. A - Mass remains the same, while weight reduces due to a smaller gravitational pull on the moon
compared to that of the earth. The earth has a gravitational pull of 10N/kg.
6. B – Vernier Calliper has an accuracy of 0.1mm. Read the highest scale division that can be seen on the
main scale before the zero mark. Read the division on the vernier scale that coincides with a mark on
the main scale, multiplying it by 0.1mm and add the two values.
Main scale = 2.30cm, Vernier = 6 × 0.1 = 0.6mm = 0.06cm
Adding: 2.30cm + 0.06cm = 2.36cm
7. B – S.I Units of mass, time and length are kilogram (kg), second (s) and metre (m).
8. D – Stability is increased when base area is greatest or having a lower centre of mass.
9. B – S.I Unit for temperature is the Kelvin, K.
10. A – Change mass to kg and multiply by 1.6N/kg, giving 0.8N.
11. A – Density is the same for all the pieces. Density of 5000kg of water is the same as that of 5kg of water.
12. D.
13. D - Volume, shape and velocity may change when a force is applied but mass does not.
14. B.
15. A. In decimal numbers, zeros after the decimal point are not significant. However, zeros after and between
non-zero digits are significant.
16. B. Density = mass/volume. Volume of stone equals difference in reading of cylinder.
17. C.
18. D. Has the lowest centre of mass. Hence most stable point.
19. C. Use Density formula, D = Mass (kg) / Volume (m3 ). Mass should be in kg if density is in kg/m3 .
20. C. Period is from A to C and back again to A. A to C takes 0.5/2 = 0.25s. After 0.75s the bob will be at C.
21. A. The more mass something has, the more the inertia it has. Inertia is resistance of an object to change
in velocity, even if the velocity is zero.
22. D. Average volume = (88+87+89)/3 = 88g. Use Density formula, D = Mass (g) / Volume (cm3 ).
23. B. Hydrogen has the least density. The lesser the density, the less the upthrust and the greater the
reading. Salty water is denser that normal water, which is denser than air, which is denser than
hydrogen.
21
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q1]
(a) Thickness of one sheet = total thickness/number of sheets = 50mm/500 = 0.1mm.
(b) Mass of one sheet = total mass of pile/number of sheets = 2kg/500 = 0.004 kg or 4g.
(c) Volume of one pile = length × width × thickness. [use centimeters: 1cm = 10mm]
= 30 cm × 20 cm × 5 cm
= 3000 cm3
(d) Density = mass of one sheet(g)/volume of one sheet(cm3 )
volume of one sheet = length × width × thickness of one sheet = 30cm × 20cm × 0.01cm = 6 cm3
4g
∴ Density = = 0.67 g/cm3
6 cm3
2. [2013-P2-Q2]
(a) Mass does not depend on where an object happens to be, whereas weight can vary from place to
place.
(b) Factors:
 The Object must have a wider base area.
 The Centre of Mass of the object must be closer to the ground.
(c) The mass will still be 50kg because mass does not depend on where an object happens to be, whether
on earth or on the moon.
3. [2013-P2-Q3]
(a) A container is needed to hold the liquid. First, measure the mass of container without the liquid on a
balance. Pour the liquid into the container and weigh again. Mass of the liquid will be mass of container
with liquid minus mass of container without liquid.
Mass of liquid = mass of container with liquid − mass of container without liquid
(b) (i) Mass of water = mass of bottle with water − mass of empty bottle = 85 − 35 = 50 g
(ii) When filled, volume of the bottle equals volume of water inside it. Using density equation,
mass of water 50 g
volume = = = 50 cm3
density of water 1 g/cm3
4. [2012-P2-Q1]
(a) (i) Vernier Calliper has an accuracy of 0.1mm. Read the highest scale division that can be seen on the
main scale before the zero mark. Read division on the vernier scale that coincides with main scale,
multiplying it by 0.1 mm or 0.01 cm and add the two values.
Main scale = 3.70 cm, Vernier = 3 × 0.01 = 0.03 cm
Adding: 3.70 cm + 0.03 cm = 3.73 cm
(ii) Vernier calliper measure lengths of small objects.
(b) Precautions when using a micrometer screw gauge:
 Face of the anvil and spindle should be wiped clean to remove any dirty particles which
would cause false readings.
 The ‘zero-error’ should be recorded and the answers adjusted accordingly.
22
5. [2012-P2-Q11]
(a) Weigh the mass of the irregular object on a balance and record it. Use a measuring cylinder to find its
volume. Fill the cylinder with water to a known volume. Since it floats on water, attach a steel block
(whose volume has been determined in a separate experiment) to the irregular object and lower both
until they are completely submerged. Read the new volume in the cylinder (rise in water level equals
volume of object and steel block). The volume of the irregular solid is:
Volume of irregular solid = rise in water level − volume of steel block
Then the density is determined by:
mass of object
Density =
volume of object
(b) (i) Using principle of moments, sum of clockwise moments must equal sum of anticlockwise moments.
The pivot is at the 58 cm mark. The centre of mass of the rule is at the 50 cm mark.
20g × (100 − 58) = M × (58 − 50)

20 × 42 = M × 8
20 × 42
Implying, M= = 105 g
8
Note ‘Uniform metre rule’ means that the centre of mass is at half the length of the rule (for this
example it is at the 50cm mark). Use principle of moments.
(ii) Weight = mass(kg) × g [Change mass to kg: 1000g = 1kg]

= 0.105kg × 10m/s2
= 1.05 N
(c) Objects are more stable when the centre of mass is closer to the ground and have a wide base. This is
achieved by making the base of the candle stand heavy and wide.
6. [2011-P2-Q2]
(a) Centre of mass: point on an object where the entire mass seems to be concentrated.
(b) When the roof rack is loaded, the centre of mass of the entire body moves further up from the ground.
A small shift will cause the centre of mass to pass beyond the base and the bus will topple.
(c) Using principle of moments, sum of clockwise moments must equal sum of anticlockwise moments. The
pivot is at the 40cm mark.
M × (52.5 − 40) = 45 × (40 − 15)
M × 12.5 = 45 × 25
45 × 25
Implying, M= = 90 g
12.5
Note: Recall that the centre of mass is at 52.5 cm mark. Use principle of moments.
7. [2011-P2-Q3]
(a) Weight of girl = mass(kg) × g [Mass must be in kg: 1000g = 1kg]
= 45kg × 10m/s2 = 450 N
23
(b) Weight of box = mass(kg) × g [Mass must be in kg: 1000 g = 1 kg]

2
= 25kg × 10m/s
= 250N
(c) Total gravitation potential energy = mass × g × vertical height
Or PE = mgh [Height must be in m: 100 cm = 1 m]
= (45 + 25) × 10 × (40 × 0.4)
= 70 × 10 × 16
= 11 200 Joules
(d) Power is given by:
Energy 11 200J
Power = = = 700W
time 16s
8. [2011-P2-Q10]
(a) Density is the amount of substance contained in an object (mass) per unit volume.
(b) Weigh the stone on a balance and record its mass. Use a measuring cylinder to find its volume. Fill the
cylinder with water to a known volume. Low the stone into the water until it is completely submerged.
Note the rise in the water level in the cylinder (rise in water level equals volume of stone). The volume
of the stone is:
Volume of stone = Final volume − Initial volume
mass of stone
Density =
volume of stone
(c) When filled, the volume of mercury equals volume of the tin (i.e. 25 cm3 ). Mass of mercury = 360 – 20 =
340 g. density is therefore,
mass 340 g
Density = = = 13.6 g/cm3
volume 25 cm3
9. [2010-P2-Q1]
(a) Micrometer has an accuracy of 0.01mm. Read the highest scale division that can be seen on the
sleeve. Read the scale on the thimble, multiplying it by 0.01 and add the two values.
Sleeve = 4.50mm, thimble = 31 × 0.01 = 0.31mm
Adding: 4.50mm + 0.31mm = 𝟒. 𝟖𝟏𝐦𝐦
(b) Micrometer screw gauge measures small lengths of objects.
(c) Ratchet: to prevent users from exerting too much pressure on the object clamped between the anvil and
spindle.
10. [2010-P2-Q2]
(a) (i) Time to move from A to B is 2.05/3 = 0.68s. A complete period is from A to C and back to A.
Period = 4 × 0.68 = 2.72 s
(ii) Frequency is the number of oscillations made per second and is given by:
1 1
Frequency = = = 0.37 Hz
period 2.72
24
(b) Period is found by dividing the time the bob takes to make a certain number of swings by the number of
swings. For example, if time for 25 swings = 50 seconds, time for 1 swing = 50/25 = 2.0 seconds.
Therefore, the period of the pendulum is 2.0 seconds.
11. [2010-P2-Q4]
(a) Mass of water = mass of bottle with water − mass of empty bottle
= 1150g − 409g
= 741g
(b) Internal volume of bottle equals volume of water that filled it. Volume of water = mass/density.
mass 741 g
volume = = = 741 cm3
density 1 g/cm3
[Use the density equation: Density=Mass/Volume]
(c) Mass of air that filled the bottle equals mass of bottle containing air minus mass of empty bottle.
Mass of air = 410g − 409g = 1 g
(d) Use the density equation
mass of air 1g
Density of air = = = 0.0013 g/cm3
volume of the botle 741 cm3
12. [2009-P2-Q4]
(a) Modifications:
 Make the width of the bus wider to increase the base area.
 Stop using the roof rack as a luggage carrier. Make luggage compartment below the
sits.
 Use wheels of smaller diameter to lower the centre of mass or bring it near to the
ground.
(b) (i) Mass is the quantity of matter contained in a substance.
(ii) His mass is still 75kg. Mass does not depend on where an object happens to be.
(iii) Weight = mass × moon′ s gravitational force
W=m×g
W = 75kg × 1.6N/kg
= 120N
13. [2004-P2-Q1]
(a) Micrometer screw gauge measure small lengths of objects.
(b) Precautions:
 Face of the anvil and spindle should be wiped clean to remove any dirty particles which would
cause false readings.
14. [2004-P2-Q2]
(a) (i) The ball will not sink.
(ii) Substances with density less than that of the fluid in which they float will float. Iron is less dense than
the mercury.
25
(b) Knowing the density and volume of the iron and using the density formula,
Mass
Density = , Implying, Mass = volume × density = 3.33 cm3 × 7.86 g/cm3 = 26.17g
Volume
15. [2003-P2-Q1]
(a) Measuring cylinder: refer to the figure. The reading is 34 cm3 .
(a) Micrometers has an accuracy of 0.01mm. Read the highest scale division that can be seen on the
sleeve.
Read the scale on the thimble, multiplying it by 0.01 and add the two values.
Sleeve = 2.50 cm, thimble = 23 × 0.01 = 0.23mm or 0.023 cm
Adding: 2.50 cm + 0.023 cm = 2.523 cm
(b) Vernier Calliper has an accuracy of 0.1mm.
Read the highest scale division that can be seen on the main scale before the zero mark. Read the
division on the vernier scale that coincides with a main scale division, multiplying it by 0.1 mm and add
the two values.
Main scale = 1.8 cm,
Vernier = 8 × 0.1 mm = 0.8 mm or 0.08 cm
Adding: 1.8 cm + 0.08 cm = 1.88 cm
16. [2003-P2-Q3]
(a) Volume of stone = rise in water level in the cylinder = 70 − 30 = 40 cm3
(b) Use the density equation
Mass of stone 92 g
Density = = = 2.3 g/cm3 .
Volume of stone 40 cm3
26
(c) Since the cork can float, the water level will not rise to give its volume. Volume is required to calculate
its density.
17. [2003-P2-Q11]
(a) Refer to the diagram. While holding a stop watch in one hand, displace the mass slightly. Release it at
the same time the stop watch is started. Count 25 swings and record the time it has taken. For example,
if time for 25 swings = 50 seconds, then time for 1 swing = 50/25 = 2.0 seconds
Precaution: Use smaller amplitudes (angular displacements) for simple harmonic motion to hold.
(b) Both motions are oscillatory and have common characteristics of having an amplitude, frequency,
period and sinusoidal waveform.
(c) The Wave Equation:
Speed (m/s) = frequency(Hz) × wavelength(m)
v=f×λ
Wavelength = 2 cm = 0.02 m
Frequency = 10 oscillations per second = 10 Hz
Therefore, v = 10 × 0.02
v = 0.2 m/s
18. [2002-P2-Q1]
(a) Precautions:
 Face of the anvil and spindle should be wiped clean to remove any dirty particles which would
cause false readings.
(b) Quantity and unit used are:
Instrument Quantity SI Unit
Thermometer temperature Kelvin, K.
Vernier Calliper Length Metre, m.
Voltmeter Electric voltage Volts, V.
27
19. [2002-P2-Q2]
(a) Period is the time the bob takes to make one complete swing or oscillation.
(b) From the graph, it takes 5 seconds for the bob to reach maximum displacement.
(c) Total displacement after 10s is
D = 5 cm/s × 10s = 50 cm. and diplacement after 8s = 5 cm/s × 8s = 40 cm
The bob will be 50 – 40 = 10 cm from the starting point.
(d) Because it takes the same amount of time for it to swing in one direction as it does for it to swing in the
other direction.
20. [2001-P2-Q1]
(a) S.I unit of density is kg⁄m3 .
(b) The water level in the cylinder will rise after the stone is immersed. First find the volume of the stone
given its mass and density.
M M 20
D= or V = = = 40cm3 . Final volume in cylinder = 30 + 40 = 70cm3
V D 0.5
(c) A beam balance to measure the mass, then use the volume found in (a) above to calculate the density.
28
TOPIC 2: MECHANICS
SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q2]. The velocity time graph for the motion of a trolley is shown below.
What distance did the trolley travel when there was no resultant force acting on it?
A 320 m
B 400 m
C 200 m
D 520 m
2. [2015-P1-Q3]. Which of the following quantities changes when a body is accelerating?
A Mass of the body.
B Weight of the body.
C Velocity of the body.
D The force acting on the body.
3. [2015-P1-Q5]. A number of forces are acting on a body as shown in the diagram below.
What is the magnitude of the resultant force acting on the body?
A 0N
B 5N
C 3N
D 12 N
4. [2015-P1-Q6]. A toy car of mass 600g moves through 6m in 2 seconds. The average kinetic energy of the
toy car is...
A 0.27 J B 0.027 J C 2.7 J D 66.67 J
29
5. [2015-P1-Q7]. The diagram below shows an inclined plane used to lift a load of 2000N.
What is the velocity ratio of the inclined plane as a simple machine?
A 20 B 0.5 C 40 D 2
6. [2013-P1-Q3]. Which graph shows the motion of a body thrown vertically upwards into the air with
negligible air resistance?
7. [2013-P1-Q4]. An astronaut goes to the moon where the gravitational field strength is 1.6 N/kg. What will be
the changes, if any, in his mass and weight when he stands on the moon?
Mass Weight
A Same on earth and moon Less on moon

B Less on moon Same on earth and moon
C Less on earth Less on moon
D More on earth More on moon
8. [2013-P1-Q5]. A body has a mass of 2 kg. It accelerates from 20 m/s to 40 m/s in 4 seconds. The resultant
force is...
A 30 N
B 10 N
C 20 N
D 8N
30
9. [2013-P1-Q6]. A force of 500 N is applied to a box in the direction shown to move it up an incline.
It takes 3 seconds to move this box from R to S. The useful power generated is...
A 833.3 W
B 666.7 W
C 500.0 W
D 1500.0 W
10. [2013-P1-Q8]. The figure below shows an ideal pulley system.
Assuming g = 10 m/s2 , the minimum effort required to raise the load is...
A 1N
B 10 N
C 5N
D 9N
31
11. [2012-P1-Q3]. Which of the following graphs represents an increasing velocity?
12. [2012-P1-Q5]. The graph below was obtained by a pupil in a physics experiment to investigate the effect of
forces on a spring.
What is the approximate value of the force required to start pulling the turns of the spring away from each
other?
A 10.0 N
B 15.0 N
C 5.0 N
D 7.5 N
13. [2012-P1-Q6]. A person exerts a horizontal force of 500 N on a box, which also experiences a friction force
of 100 N.
32
How much work is done against friction when the box moves a horizontal distance of 3m?
A 1500 J
B 300 J
C 1200 J
D 1800 J
14. [2012-P1-Q7]. The diagram shows an ideal system of pulleys.
The Mechanical Advantage of the system is...
A 4
B 5
C 6
D 2
15. [2011-P1-Q2]. The diagram below shows a velocity-time graph for a man who moves from village X to
village Y on a bicycle.
Which of the following is true? The...
A distance moved by the man in 50 s is 30 m
B final velocity of the man after 50 s is 1500 m/s.
C acceleration of the man in 50 s is 1500 m/s2.
D acceleration of the man in 50 s is 0 m/s2 .
33
16. [2011-P1-Q3]. What is the weight of a 500 g mass on the moon where gravitational field strength is 1.6
N/kg?
A 8N
B 312.5 N
C 800 N
D 0.8 N
17. [2011-P1-Q4]. A man of mass 80kg lies on the ground as shown below.
Assuming the acceleration of free fall, g = 10 m/s2 , the gravitational potential energy of the man is...
A 0J
B 800 J
C 88 J
D 8J
18. [2011-P1-Q6]. The diagram shows a pulley system being used to lift a block from the ground.
What is the velocity ratio of the pulley system?
A 2
B 3
C 0
D 1
19. [2010-P1-Q2]. Starting from rest at t = 0, an object moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration
of 2 cm/s 2 . At what time is the speed of the object 2 cm/s?
A 0s
34
B 1s
C 5s
D 2s
20. [2010-P1-Q3]. Which property of a body cannot be changed if a force is applied to it?
A velocity
B shape
C mass
D volume
21. [2010-P1-Q4]. Give the name of the force which gives a mass of 1 kg an acceleration of 1m/s2 ?
A Friction
B Centripetal force
C Newton
D Weight
22. [2010-P1-Q5]. A load is to be moved using a wheelbarrow. The total mass of the load and wheelbarrow is
60 kg. The gravitational field strength is 10 N/kg.
What is the size of force F needed just to lift the loaded wheel barrow?
A 840 N
B 430 N
C 600 N
D 350 N
23. [2009-P1-Q3]. A motorist travels 320 km at 80 km/h and then 320 km at 100 km/h. What is the average
speed of the motorist for the entire trip?
A 89 km/h
B 90 km/h
C 91 km/h
D 84 km/h
24. [2009-P1-Q5]. A force acts on a mass of 1 kg producing an acceleration of 1 m/s2 . This force is called...
A Newton (N)
35
B friction (F)
C tension (T)
D weight (W)
25. [2009-P1-Q6]. A uniform plank of length 10cm is in equilibrium as shown in the figure below. A force of
100N is applied at point A in the direction shown.
What is the weight of the plank?
A 100N
B 50N
C 150N
D 200N
26. [2009-P1-Q7]. A ball of mass 5kg moves vertically upwards from ground level till it reaches a maximum
height of 4m. What is its Kinetic energy when it is half way up? Assume g = 10m/s2 .
A 100J
B 5J
C 200J
D 50J
27. [2004-P1-Q2]. A train accelerates uniformly from rest at 0.2m/s2 over a distance of 1 km. The final velocity
is...
A 2.0m/s
B 0.2m/s
C 20m/s
D 200m/s
28. [2004-P1-Q5]. A toy car of mass 0.5kg is swung in a vertical circular path on the end of a string of length
100cm so that it moves with a constant speed of 5m/s.
36
Which of the following statements is false about the motion of the toy car?
A The net force on the body is always directed towards the centre of the circle.
B The net force on the car is constant in magnitude.
C if the string breaks, the body will move radially outwards.
D The tension in the string is greater at L than at M.
29. [2004-P1-Q6]. Fig 6.1 below shows a wheelbarrow being used to carry a load.
What is the value of the force, F?
A 7.5N
B 0.75N
C 750N
D 75N
30. [2004-P1-Q7]. Fig. 7.1 below shows a block being pulled from the ground using two pulleys.
What is the mechanical advantage of this pulley system?
A 1
B 0
C 3
D 2
37
31. [2004-P1-Q8]. In Fig. 8.1 below a ball of mass 2kg rolls from point A through B to C and then back to A.
What is the greatest velocity attained by the bail during its motion? (Ignore friction and take the value of g to
be 10N/kg).
A 5m/s
B 20m/s
C 100m/s
D 10m/s
32. [2003-P1-Q2]. On a velocity-time graph, the motion of a car travelling along a straight road with a uniform
acceleration of 2m/s2 would appear as a ...
A curved line whose slope to the right increases with time
B straight line sloping downward to the right
C horizontal straight line
D straight line sloping upward to the right
33. [2003-P1-Q5]. The figure below shows a block of mass 5kg being pulled along a horizontal bench by a force
of 200N and is being opposed by a frictional force of 50N.
The acceleration of the block in m/s2 is...

A 40
B 30
C 0.04
D 10
34. [2003-P1-Q6]. Eating a banana enables a person to perform about 4 × 104 J of work. To what vertical height
does eating a banana enable a 50kg woman to climb? (g = 10m/s2 )
A 60m
B 80m
C 50m
D 70m
38
35. [2002-P1-Q1]. A stone is dropped from rest. How far does it fall in 3 seconds? (g = 10m/s2 )
A 45m
B 75m
C 90m
D 60m
36. [2002-P1-Q2]. What is the maximum amount of work that can be done in 15 seconds by an engine working
at 30 kW?
A 2 kJ
B 45 kJ
C 450 kJ
D 20 kJ
37. [2002-P1-Q3]. An object accelerates from 5 m/s to 23 m/s in 10 seconds. What is its average velocity?
A 5.6 m/s
B 18.0 m/s
C 14.0 m/s
D 7.6 m/s
38. [2002-P1-Q4]. A force of 40 N acts on an 8 Kg mass. Calculate its acceleration.
A 5 m/s2
B 3 m/s2
C 6 m/s2
D 4 m/s2
39. [2002-P1-18]. The figure below shows the velocity - time graph for a car travelling along a straight road.
How far has the car travelled in 20 seconds?
A 100 m
B 200 m
C 300 m
D 400 m
40. [2001-P1-Q1]. A body accelerates when...
A the displacement of the body is changed.
B the mass of the body is changed.
39
C the velocity of the body is changed.
D the speed of the body is changed.
41. [2001-P1-Q2]. The forces that act on an aircraft in flight are...
A weight, lift, thrust and inertia.
B weight, lift, thrust and drag.
C weight and lift.
D weight, lift, and thrust.
42. [2001-P1-Q3]. When a car stops suddenly, you appear to be thrown forward. This is because of...
A Newton's first law of motion.
B Newton's third law of motion.
C Inertia.
D Forward force.
43. [2001-P1-Q5].A builder carries 24 bricks to the top of a 3 m wall. Each brick weighs 25 N. The potential
energy transferred to the bricks is...
A 18.00 kJ
B 0.75 kJ
C 1.80 kJ
D 75.00 kJ
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q2]
A pump lifts 500kg of water per minute from a borehole.
(a) At what position A, B or C does the water have the greatest potential energy? [1]
(b) Calculate the potential energy gained by the water if it moves a vertical distance of 20 m during
this time. (Take g = 10 m/s2 ) [2]
(c) Calculate the useful power of the pump. [2]
40
2. [2013-P2-Q1]
A car of mass 1400 kg starts from rest and moves along a straight road with a constant acceleration
to reach a speed of 10m/s in 6 seconds.
(a) On the axes below, draw a graph of speed against time for the first 6 seconds of the motion.
(b) For the motion of the car in the first 6 seconds, calculate the
(i) distance travelled by the car [1]
(ii) acceleration of the car [1]
(iii) resultant force acting on the car. [1]
3. [2013-P2-Q4]
Figure 4.1 below shows a door well secured on the door frame.
(a) What is meant by moment of force? Include its SI unit? [2]

(b) Calculate the moment of force if a force of 10 N is applied at point 1 to open or close the
door. [2]
(c) Explain why it is easier to open or close the door if the handle is fixed at point 1 than at
point 2 or 3. [2]
41
4. [2013-P2-Q5]
Figure 5.1 below shows a simple bottle opener made by fixing two screws into a piece of wood.
(a) What is meant by a simple machine? [1]

(b) Which of the points X, Y or Z is;
(i) the pivot [1]
(ii) the effort [1]
(c) Is the force applied at X less or greater than the force applied at Z? [1]
(d) State one modification that should be made on the design of the bottle opener so that
less effort is used to open the bottle. [1]
5. [2012-P2-Q2]
Figure 2.1 shows a velocity time graph of an object moving along a straight road.
42
(a) What is the total time for the journey? [1]
(b) What is the maximum velocity for the journey? [1]
(c) What is the acceleration during the first part of the journey? [1]
(d) Calculate the total distance covered by the car. [3]
6. [2012-P2-Q3]
Figure 3.1 shows an object of mass 0.7kg resting on a horizontal surface.
If the object is pulled to the left by a force of 6.0 N and to the right by a force of 2.5 N and assuming
that no other forces act on the object.
(a) Calculate;
(i) the resultant force. [1]
(ii) the acceleration produced by the resultant forces in (i). [2]
(b) Explain why in practice the actual acceleration for the object may be lower than your answer
to (a) (ii) above. [1]
7. [2012-P2-Q4]
(a) Define work and power. [2]
(b) A pupil of mass 50kg runs up a flight of 20 stairs each 25 cm high in a time of 20 seconds.
[Take g = 10 N/kg]
Calculate,
(i) the pupil's gain in potential energy. [2]
(ii) the useful power developed by the pupil in climbing the stairs. [2]
8. [2012-P2-Q11]
(a) Describe an experiment you would carry out to determine the density of an irregularly
shaped object which floats on water. [5]
(b) Figure 11.1 shows a uniform meter rule balanced horizontally on a knife-edge placed at
the 58cm mark when a mass of 20g is suspended from the end.
43
(i) Find the mass of the rule. [2]

(ii) What is the weight of the rule, (taking g = 10 m/s2 )? [2]
(c) A candle stand has a wide heavy base. Explain why the base has both heavy mass and
wide area. [1]
9. [2011-P2-Q1].
A cyclist accelerates uniformly from rest to a velocity of 10m/s in 3 s. He then moves with a constant
velocity of 10 m/s for 6s, before decelerating uniformly to rest in a further 5 s.
(a) Draw a velocity-time graph representing the cyclist’s motion.
(b) Calculate the distance travelled by the cyclist during the journey. [2]
10. [2011-P2-Q2].
(a) What is meant by the centre of mass of an object? [1]

(b) Explain why a minibus is more likely to topple over when the roof rack is heavily loaded than
when the roof rack is empty. [2]
44
(c) A metre rule is supported on a knife-edge placed at the 40cm mark. It is found that the metre
rule balances when a mass of 45g is suspended from the 15cm mark as shown in Figure 2.1.
If the centre of mass of the metre rule is at the 52.5cm mark, calculate the mass of the metre rule. [2]
11. [2011-P2-Q3].
A girl whose mass is 45 kg carries a box of mass 25 kg up a flight of steps. There are 40 steps each
40 cm high. She takes 16s to climb up the steps. (Take g = 10 m/s2 )
(a) What is her weight? [1]
(b) What is the weight of the box? [1]
(c) Calculate the total gravitational potential energy of the girl and the box when she reaches
the top. [2]
(d) Calculate the total power. [2]
12. [2010-P2-Q3].
Figure 3.1 shows a uniform metre rule of mass 120 g suspended at its mid-point from a spring
balance, which is calibrated in Newtons (N).
(a) Calculate the mass of the stone. [2]
(b) Why does the mass of the metre rule play no part in the calculation in (a)? [1]
(c) What is the reading on the spring balance? [2]
13. [2010-P2-Q5].
Figure 5.1 shows the path taken by a ball thrown vertically up into the air.
45
(a) (i) State at which position A, B, C or D the ball travels fastest. [1]
(ii) Explain your answer in (i). [1]
(b) Wind is a renewable source of energy. The windmill is used for electrical generation and to
pump water.
(i) What is meant by renewable source of energy? [1]
(ii) State one disadvantage of depending on wind energy. [1]
(iii) Give an example of a non-renewable source of energy [1]
14. [2010-P2-Q10].
Figure 10.1 shows an arrangement for demonstrating the relationship between force and
acceleration.
In one particular experiment, the mass of the trolley was kept constant. The time for the trolley to
move a distance of 1.00m from rest was determined for various values of the pulling force F.
1
The acceleration a was then calculated using the equation S = at 2 , where S = 1.00m. The
2
following values were obtained.
46
F/N 0.40 0.80 1.20 1.60 2.00
a/(m/s2) 0.08 0.22 0.43 0.57 0.74
(a) Plot a graph of F against a [5]

(b) (i) Determine the slope/gradient of your graph. [2]
(ii) What physical quantity does the gradient represent? [1]
(c) In this experiment explain why a pulling force is needed to give zero acceleration. [2]
15. [2009-P2-Q1].
Figure 1.1 shows a graph of how the speed of a car changed over 20 seconds as the car
accelerated along a straight road.
(a) Calculate the acceleration of the car. [2]

(b) The mass of the car was 1200kg. Calculate the force which produced the acceleration in (a). [2]
(c) Calculate the distance travelled by the car during the 20 seconds. [2]
16. [2009-P2-Q2]
A girl who has a mass of 50kg runs up some stairs in 7.0 seconds. The stairs are 8.0m high. Take
the gravitational field strength as 10N/kg. What is:-
(a) The girl’s weight? [1]
(b) The girl’s potential energy when she is at the top of the stairs? [2]
(c) Her power output? [2]
17. [2009-P2-Q5].
Figure 5.1 shows the diagram of rotating gear wheels. The driving wheel has 36 teeth and the
driven wheel has 12 teeth.
47
(a) Find the velocity ratio. [2]
(b) If the driven wheel makes 15 rotations, how many rotations would the driving wheel make? [2]
18. [2004-P2-Q3]
A pupil running with a constant acceleration takes 50 seconds to complete a race.
(a) If the speed of the pupil at the finishing line is 5m/s, sketch a speed-time graph for the race
on the axes shown below. [2]
(b) What was the total distance covered by the pupil in the race up to the finishing line? [2]
(c) Calculate the average speed of the pupil for the entire race. [2]
48
19. [2004-P2-Q4]
A man of height 1.8m lifts a bucket of water of mass 16kg from the ground and places it on top of
his head. Assume g = 10N/kg.
(a) What type of energy has the water acquired? [1]
(b) Calculate this energy [2]
(c) Explain why the temperature of a piece of metal that is being hammered rises. [1]
20. [2004-P2-Q6]
The Figure 6.1 below shows the diagram of a uniform rod used by a man to lift buckets of water
suspended from points A and B with 25kg and 20kg of water respectively. The rod is balanced
when the man's shoulders support the rod at point C.
(a) What would happen if the bucket at A was moved away from C? [1]
(b) Mention two measures which should be taken to restore equilibrium apart from bringing
the bucket A back to its original position. [1]
(c) Mention one condition of equilibrium [1]
21. [2003-P2-Q2]
The table below shows the readings obtained by a group of pupils performing an experiment to determine
variation of velocity with time for a car starting from rest.
49
(a) On the axes above, draw the velocity time graph. [2]
(b) Calculate the acceleration of the car for the first 4 seconds of the journey. [2]
(c) Determine the total distance travelled by the car. [2]
22. [2003-P2-Q4]
A conveyor lift can carry a maximum load of 1 500 N in a high rise flat of 4 storeys. Each storey has
a height of 2.5m.
(a) Describe the energy changes which take place when the lift moves from the basement to
the third floor. [1]
(b) Calculate the energy which the lift has when it is on the third floor/storey if it has a total
mass of 125 kg. [2]
(c) The rope of the lift is cut when it is on the third floor. What will be the speed of the cabin of
the lift just before it hits the floor of the basement if we neglect all frictional forces? [2]
23. [2003-P2-Q5]
Complete the energy changes in
50
24. [2002-P2-Q3]
(a) State what is meant by moment of a force. [1]
(b) A uniform half-metre rule AB is balanced horizontally across a knife-edge placed 20 cm
from A. A mass of 22.5 g is hung from end A as shown below.
(i) What is the mass of the rule? [2]
(ii) What is the force exerted on the rule by the knife edge? Take g = 10 N/kg [2]
(iii) Name one application of the turning effect of a force. [1]
25. [2002-P2-Q11]
An experiment is done to investigate the motion of a trolley of mass 2.0kg under the action of a force.
Time(s) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Velocity 0 2.5 5.0 7.5 10.0 12.5 16.5 21.5 27.0
(a) Plot a velocity - time graph for the trolley's motion. [3]
(b) Use your graph to:
(i) find the acceleration of the trolley for the first 5 seconds.
(ii) find the distance moved by the trolley up to 5 seconds of travel.
(iii) find the constant force which acts on the trolley during the first five seconds
(iv) describe the motion of the trolley after the 5th second. [7]
26. [2001-P2-Q1]
(a) An object of mass 3kg was thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 2 m/s and after
some time it was caught again at the starting point.
Neglecting air resistance
(i) Sketch the velocity-time graph for this motion.
51
(ii) Mark a letter x on your sketch where the velocity is zero.

(iii) Shade on your graph the total distance covered. [4]
(b) If the same object is thrown vertically upwards on the moon with its velocity as in (a) above,
will the total distance covered increase, decrease or remain the same? Explain your answer. [2]
27. [2001-P2-Q3]
A technician has the option of applying a force F at points p and q as shown above.
(a) What name is given to the turning effect of a force? [1]
(b) What would be the advantage of applying the force F at q when tightening a nut on a bolt
or an axle? [2]
(c) Suppose that the frictional force when the nut is tightened is 2000 N. If the bolt carrying
the nut has radius 0.5 cm and the force F is applied 10 cm from the axis of the nut,
calculate the magnitude of F. [3]
28. [2001-P2-Q4]
A 25kg bag of mealie meal is lifted from the ground to the top of a wall 1.8 metres high in 0.6
seconds.
(a) What type of energy has the mealie meal bag gained? [1]
(b) If the bag is released from the wall, with what velocity does it strike the ground? [2]
(c) Calculate the power which was developed. [2]
(d) On striking the ground, into what form is the energy of the bag [1]
52
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. B – An object moves at constant velocity (between 20 t0 40s) when there is no resultant force. Distance travelled
is equal to the are under the graph i.e. 20 × 20 = 400m.
2. C- Acceleration is the change in the velocity of an object.
3. B – First find resultant forces in the horizontal and vertical directions. Take right as positive and up and down as
negative. Resultant in the horizontal = 13 – 10 = 3N and in the vertical 24 – 20 = 4N.
Then, Resultant force = √32 + 42 = √25 = 5N

4. C – Find velocity (6m/2s = 3m/s) and use the formula for kinetic energy given by:
1 1
KE = mv 2 = × 0.6 × 32 = 2.7Joules
2 2
5. D – For an inclined plane, mechanical advantage = length of inclined side / height of the inclined = 100/50 = 2.
6. B – Throwing something in the air requires effort. This means the object leaves the hand at a certain speed. The
speed reduces as the stone goes up because of the pull of gravity. Speed is zero at its highest point.
7. A - Mass remains the same, while weight reduces due to a smaller gravitational pull on the moon compared to
that of the earth.
8. B – Resultant force, F = mass × acceleration. Acceleration = (40-20)/4 = 5m/s2 . F = 2 × 5 = 10N.
work
9. A - Power is rate of doing work. P = .
time
But work = force × distance = F × d = 500 × 5 = 2500N.

2500
Then power, P = = 833.3W
3
10. B – There are five (5) strings supporting the load beside the effort. Mechanical advantage (M.A) is 5.
load load 5×10
Also, M. A = , meaning that effort = Then, effort = = 10N
effort M.A 5
11. A – Option B shows constant velocity. Gradient of option C represents uniform (constant) velocity. Gradient of
option D represents non-uniform but reducing velocity.
12. D
13. C – Resultant force is 500 – 100 = 400N. Work done = force × distance = 400 × 3 = 1200J
14. A - There are four (4) strings supporting the load beside the effort. Mechanical advantage (M.A) is 4.
15. D – There is no change in velocity and hence no acceleration.
16. D - Weight = mass(kg) × gravitationalfield strength = 0.5kg × 1.6N/kg = 0.8N
17. A- Gravitational potential energy is energy possessed by on object by virtue of its distance from the ground. The
man is lying flat on the ground.
18. A- Velocity ratio is distance travelled by effort/distance travelled by load. In the question, two (2) strings support
the load besides the free end where the effort is applied. When the load moves up by 1m, then the two strings
must shorten by 1m each, meaning the free end will extend by 2m. Then, V. R = 2/1 = 2.
19. B
20. C
21. C
22. D – Use the principle of moments (clockwise moments = anticlockwise moments).
53
23. A – Average speed = total distance travelled/total time taken. For the first 320km and 80km/hr, time is 320/80 =
4hr. For the last 320km at 100km/hr, time was 3.2hr. Total time = 4+3.2=7.2hr. Average speed = (320+320)/7.2 =
89km/hr.
24. A
25. C - Use the principle of moments (clockwise moments = anticlockwise moments).
W × 2 = 100 × 3 giving W = 150N
26. A – At its highest point, the ball has gravitational potential energy P = mgh = 5 × 10 × 4 = 200J. Half this energy
is changed into kinetic energy when it is 2m below its maximum height.
27. C- Given initial velocity, u=0, acceleration, a = 0.2, displacement, s = 1000m, use the equation: v 2 = u2 + 2as to
find the final velocity: v 2 = 0 + 2 × 0.2 × 1000 giving v = 20m/s.
28. D- The tension is greater due to the weight acting downwards.
29. D - Use the principle of moments (clockwise moments = anticlockwise moments).
F × 1.6 = 200 × 0.6 giving F = 75N
30. D - There are two (2) strings supporting the load beside the effort. Mechanical advantage (M.A) is 2.
31. D- all the gravitational potential energy at A turns into kinetic energy at B.
P. E at A = K. E ar B.
1
mgh = mv 2 giving v = √2gh
2
v = √2 × 10 × 5 = 10m/s
32. D
33. B- Resultant force is 200 – 50 = 150N. Use the formula F = m × a.
34. A- 4 × 104 J = potential energy at highest point.
mgh = 4 × 104 giving h = 60m
35. A - Given initial velocity, u=0, acceleration, g = 10, time, t = 3, use the equation to find displacement, s:
1
s = ut + gt 2
2
1
s = 0 + × 10 × 32 = 45m.
2
work
36. C- Power is rate of doing work. P = .
time
Then work = P × t = F × d = 30kW × 15s = 450kJ.

37. C – Average velocity = sum of speeds/2.
38. A - F = mass × acceleration. Acceleration = 40/8 = 8m/s2 .
39. C- Distance travelled is area under the graph.
40. C- Velocity is a vector quantity. Acceleration is change in velocity.
41. B
42. C
43. C
54
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q2]
(a) Point C. Potential energy is the energy an object has due to its position from the ground. The higher it
is, the greater the potential energy.
(b) Potential energy = mgh = 500 × 10 × 20 = 100 000 joules or 100 kJ
(c) Power is rate of doing work. The pump has done work (equal to the potential energy of the water at
20m) by lifting the water to 20m height.
work done 100kJ
Power = = = 1.67Kw
time 60s
2. [2013-P2-Q1]
(a) The graph will be a straight line sloping upwards to the right. Its gradient at every point is equal to the
acceleration.
(b) (i) Distance travelled is equal to the area under the graph from 0 to 6 seconds.
1 1
Distance = bh = × 6 × 10 = 30m
2 2
(ii) Acceleration is equal to the change in velocity divided by the time.
10 − 0 10
Acceleration = = = 1.67m/s2
6−0 6
(iii) The resultant force causes the acceleration produced in b(i) above.
Force = acceleration × mass = 1.67 × 1400 = 2333.33N
3. [2013-P2-Q4]
(a) Moment of a force is the product of the force and the perpendicular distance from the pivot to where the
force is applied. Its SI unit is the newton-metre (Nm).
(b) The pivot is at the hinges since the door turns about the hinges. Perpendicular distance is 0.5 + 0.25 =
0.75m.
Moment = force × distance = 10 × 0.75 = 7.5Nm.
(c) A lesser force or effort is required to produce the same turning effect when the perpendicular distance
from the pivot to where the force is applied is increased.
55
4. [2013-P2-Q5]
(a) A simple machine is any device by means of which a force applied at one point is used to overcome a
force at some other point.
(b) (i) The pivot is at Y since the opener turns about this point.
(ii) The effort is at Z. That is where a force is applied to open the bottle top.
(c) The force applied at X is greater than the force applied at Z. This follows from the principle of moments.
(d) Increase the distance between Y (the pivot) and Z (the effort).
5. [2012-P2-Q2]
The object accelerated from rest to 10m/s in 20s. It moved at this constant speed for 20s, then started
slowing down uniformly to a halt in 10s.
(a) Total time for the journey is 50s.
(b) The maximum velocity attained was 10m/s.
(c) Acceleration is equal to the change in velocity divided by the time.
10 − 0 10
Acceleration = = = 0.5m/s2
20 − 0 20
(d) Total distance travelled is equal to the area under the graph from 0 to 50 seconds. The graph is a
trapezium.
1
Distance = (a + b)
2
1
= (50 + 20) × 10 = 350m
2
6. [2012-P2-Q3]
(a) (i) Resultant force is 6.0 – 2.5 = 3.5N to the left.
(ii) Resultant force, F = mass × acceleration.
3.5 N
Acceleration = = 5 m/s2
0.7 kg
(b) Other forces (e.g. friction) were not included in the calculation. If friction force was included, the
resultant force would be reduced even further, causing a lower acceleration value.
7. [2012-P2-Q4]
(a) Work is done when a force moves an object a distance. It is the product of the force and the distance.
Power is the rate at which work is done.
(b) (i) Potential energy = mass × g × height .
Height attained is 20 × 25 cm = 500 cm or 5 m.
P. E = 50 × 10 × 5 = 2500 Joules
(ii) Power is rate of doing work. The pupil has done work (equal to the potential energy of the water at
20m) climbing the stairs.
work done 2500J
Power = = = 125W
time 20s
56
8. [2012-P2-Q11]
(a) Weigh the mass of the irregular object on a balance. Fill a measuring cylinder with water to a known
volume. Since it floats on water, attach a steel block, whose volume has been determined in a separate
experiment, to the irregular object and low both until they are completely submerged. Note the rise in
the water level in the cylinder (rise in water level equals volume of object and steel block). The volume
of the irregular solid is:
Volume of irregular solid = rise in water level − volume of steel block
mass of object
density =
volume of object
(b) (i) Using the principle of moments, sum of clockwise moments must equal sum of anticlockwise
moments. The pivot is at the 58 cm mark.
20g × (100 − 58) = M × (58 − 50)
20 × 42 = M × 8
20×42
Implying, M= = 105 g
8
Hint: ‘Uniform metre rule’ means that the centre of mass is at half the length of the rule (i.e. at 50cm
mark). Use principle of moments.
(ii) Weight = mass(kg) × g [Change mass to kg: 1000g = 1kg]
= 0.105kg × 10m/s2
= 1.05N
(c) Objects are stable when the centre of mass is closer to the ground and the base area so that the centre
of mass does not pass beyond it after a disturbance.
9. [2011-P2-Q1]
(a) First 3s of the graph is a straight line (constant acceleration for 3s) sloping upward from 0 to 10m/s.
From 3 to 9s is a horizontal line (constant velocity for 6s). From 9 to 14s is a straight line slanting
downwards (uniform deceleration).
(b) Total distance travelled is equal to the area under the graph from 0 to 14 seconds. The graph is
trapezoidal.
1 1
Distance = (a + b) = (6 + 14) × 10 = 100m
2 2
57
10. [2011-P2-Q2]
(a) Centre of mass: point on an object where the entire mass seems to be concentrated.
(b) When the roof rack is loaded, the centre of mass of the entire body moves further up from the ground.
A small shift will cause the centre of mass to pass beyond the base and the bus will topple.
(c) Using principle of moments, clockwise moments must equal anticlockwise moments. Pivot is at the
40cm mark.
M × (52.5 − 40) = 45 × (40 − 15)
M × 12.5 = 45 × 25
45 × 25
Implying, M= = 𝟗𝟎𝐠
12.5
Hint: Recall that the centre of mass is at 52.5 cm mark. Use principle of moments.
11. [2011-P2-Q3]
(a) Weight is the product of the mass and gravitational force. Weight of girl is:
W = mg = 45 × 10 = 450N
(b) Weight is the product of the mass and gravitational force. Weight of box is:
W = mg = 25 × 10 = 250N
(c) Total mass of girl and the box is 45 + 25 = 70kg.
Potential energy = mass × g × height .
Height attained is 40 × 40cm = 1600cm or 16m.
P. E = 70 × 10 × 16 = 11 200J
(c) Power is rate of doing work. The girl has done work (equal to the potential energy at 16m) climbing the
stairs with the box.
work done 11 200J
Power = = = 700W
time 16s
12. [2010-P2-Q3]
(a) Using principle of moments. Sum of clockwise moments must equal sum of anticlockwise moments.
The pivot is at the 50 cm mark.
M × (50 − 20) = 100 × (60 − 50)
M × 30 = 100 × 10
100 × 10
Implying, M= = 𝟑𝟑. 𝟑𝐠
30
(b) The mass of the rule plays no part because it is acting exactly at the pivot. Distance between it and the
pivot is zero. There is zero or no turning effect due to the mass of the rule in this case.
(c) The reading on the spring balance is equal to the sum of all the forces acting downward.
(i.e. mass of stone + mass of rule + 100g) times gravity.
Mass = 33.3 + 120 + 100 = 253.3 g or 0.2533 kg.
Therefore, the reading on the spring reading = 0.2533kg × 10N/kg = 2.533 N
58
13. [2010-P2-Q5]
(a) (i) At D.
(ii) As it goes up, the ball slows down due to the pull of gravity. It has maximum potential energy when it
reaches point C. All of the potential energy at C then changes to kinetic energy at D.
(b) (i) Renewable energy sources are sources of energy that get replaced after being used up.
(ii) Wind is inconsistent, unsteady and unpredictable.
(iii) Crude oil.
14. [2010-P2-Q10]
(a) Draw a best fit line through the points.
(b) (i) Pick two points on the curve and use the gradient formula:
change in 𝐅 0.95 − 0.5 0.45
Gradient = = = = 2.25
change in 𝐚 0.3 − 0.1 0.2
(ii) Mass of the trolley.
59
(c) A pulling force is needed to overcome the static friction of the trolley. The trolley stays stationery (zero
acceleration) as this force is being applied. The force increases until it is greater than the static friction
and the trolley begins to accelerate.
15. [2009-P2-Q1]
(a) Acceleration is equal to the gradient of the curve. Pick points (0, 0) and (25, 20).
25 − 0 25
Acceleration = = = 1.25 m/s2
20 − 0 20
(b) Resultant force causing an acceleration of 1.25 m/s2 , F = mass × acceleration.
F = 1200 × 1.25 = 1500 N
(c) Total distance travelled is equal to the area under the graph from 0 to 20 seconds. The graph is
triangular.
1 1
Distance = bh = × 20 × 25 = 250 m
2 2
16. [2009-P2-Q2]
(a) Weight is the product of the mass and gravitational force. Weight of girl is:
W = mg = 50 × 10 = 500N
(b) Potential energy = mass × g × height .
Height attained is = 8m.
P. E = 70 × 10 × 8 = 4 000J
(c) Power is rate of doing work. The girl has done work (equal to the potential energy of the water at 20m)
climbing the stairs.
work done
Power =
time
4000J
=
7s
= 571.43W
17. [2009-P2-Q5]
(a) Velocity ratio of gears = number of teeth on driven wheel/ number of teeth on driving wheel.
No. of teeth on driven wheel 12 1
Velocity ration = or V. R = =
No. of teeth on driving wheel 36 3
(b) Velocity ratio is distance (or rotations) moved by the driving wheel (effort) divided by the distance (or
rotations) moved by the driven wheel (load).
rotations of driving wheel

V. R =
rotations of driven wheel
Rotations of driving wheel = V. R × rotation of driven wheel

1
= × 15
3
= 5 rotations
60
18. [2004-P2-Q3]
(a)
(b) Total distance travelled is equal to the area under the graph from 0 to 50 seconds. The graph is
triangular.
1 1
Distance = bh = × 50 × 5 = 125 m
2 2
125
(c) Average speed = distance covered/total time. Speed = = 2.5m/s
50
19. [2004-P2-Q4]
(a) Gravitational potential energy.
(b) Potential energy = mass × g × height .
Height attained is = 1.8 m.
P. E = 16 × 10 × 1.8 = 288 Joules
(c) When a hammer is raised it gains gravitational potential which gets converted to kinetic energy on its
way down. On impact some of this energy is lost as sound, while the rest is absorbed by particles within
the metal structure. The absorbed energy increases their vibrations and the temperature rises also.
Temperature of the metal is the average kinetic energy possessed by its particles.
20. [2004-P2-Q6]
(a) The rod will tilt to the left (anticlockwise moment).
(b) Measures
- Move the bucket at B further away from C.
- Move the shoulder from C towards A.
(c) Condition of equilibrium: sum of clockwise moments must equal sum of anticlockwise moments for a
system to be in equilibrium.
61
21. [2003-P2-Q2]
(a) Refer to diagram.
(b) Acceleration is equal to the gradient of the curve. Pick points (0,0) and (4, 20).
20 − 0 20
Acceleration = = = 5 m/s2
4−0 4
(c) Total distance travelled is equal to the area under the graph from 0 to 8 seconds. The graph is
trapezoidal.
1 1
Distance = (a + b)h == × (4 + 8) × 20 = 120 m
2 2
22. [2003-P2-Q4]
(a) The lift leaves the ground at a certain velocity (meaning it has kinetic energy) it will have potential
energy at the third floor.
(b) On the third floor, the lift is 2.5 × 3 = 7.5 m.
Potential energy = mass × g × height

.
Height attained is = 7.5m.
P. E = 125 × 10 × 7.5 = 9375 Joules
(c) All of the potential energy gets converted into kinetic energy just before the cabin hits the ground.
K. E = P. E at third floor
1 2×K.E
Kinetic energy is: K. E = mv 2 giving v = √
2 m
2 × 9375
v=√
125
v = 12.25 m/s
62
23. [2003-P2-Q5]
24. [2002-P2-Q3]
(a) Moment of a force is the product of the force and the perpendicular distance from the pivot to where the
force is applied. Its SI unit is the newton-metre (Nm).
(b) (i) Using principle of moments. Sum of clockwise moments must equal sum of anticlockwise moments.
The centre of mass of the half metre rule is at the 25 cm mark, which is 5 cm away from the pivot.
The 22.5 g mass is 20 cm from the pivot.
M × (25 − 20) = 22.5 × (20 − 0)

M × 5 = 22.5 × 20
22.5 × 20
Implying, M= = 𝟗𝟎 𝐠
5
(ii) The force exerted on the rule by the knife is equal to the sum of all the forces acting downward.
Mass acting downward = 90 + 22.5 = 112.5 g

112.5
Total force acting downward = kg × 10 N/kg
1000
= 1.125 N
(iii) Application: use of a bottle opener.
63
25. [2002-P2-Q11]
(a) Refer to the graph
(b) (i) Acceleration is equal to the gradient of the curve. Pick points (0,0) and (5, 12.5).
12.5 − 0 12.5
Acceleration = = = 2.5 m/s2
5−0 5
(ii) Total distance travelled is equal to the area under the graph from 0 to 20 seconds. The graph is
triangular.
1 1
Distance = bh == × 5 × 12.5 = 31.25 m
2 2
(iii) Resultant force causing an acceleration of 2.5m/s2 , F = mass × acceleration. F = 2 × 2.5 = 5 N
(iv) The trolley began to accelerate after the 5 th second but not uniformly.
26. [2001-P2-Q1]
(a) (i) Refer to the graph.
64
(ii) Velocity is zero where the curve cuts the time axis.
(iii) Refer to the graph.
(b) The total distance would increase.

The gravitational pull on the moon is smaller than on earth. The object will experience lesser
gravitational pull on its way up. As a result it will go higher before it stops to come down.
27. [2001-P2-Q3]
(a) Moment.
(b) Less effort (force) would be applied for the same turning effect as compared to applying the force at
point p.
(c) The friction force is between the bolt and nut threading. Apply the principle of moment to find the
magnitude of F that just overcomes the friction force and causes turning about the axis of the bolt.
Clockwise moments = anticlockwise moments
2000 × 0.5 = F × 10
F = 100 N
65
28. [2001-P2-Q4]
(a) Gravitational potential energy.
(b) All of the potential energy gets converted into kinetic energy just before the bag hits the ground.
P. E = mgh = 25 × 10 × 1.8 = 450 J
K. E = P. E at 1.8 m height
1 2×K.E
Kinetic energy is: K. E = mv 2 giving v = √
2 m
2 × 450
v=√
25
v = 6 m/s
(c) Power is rate of doing work. Work done (equal to the potential energy of the bag at 1.8m).
work done
Power =
time
450 J
=
0.6 s
= 750W
(d) The energy conversion is from gravitational potential, kinetic and then thermal energy.
66
67
TOPIC 3: THERMAL PHYSICS

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q8]. Which of the following processes shows that particles of matter are in a random motion?
A A small drop of oil spreads into a large circular patch on water.
B Particles of smoke are seen to move haphazardly.
C Particles of smoke are seen to move in one direction only.
D Bromine gas spreads slowly into a vacuum.
2. [2013-P1-Q7]. Which of the following gives the states of matter in which molecules at a given temperature
have the highest speed and the strongest cohesive force?
Highest speed Strongest force between them
A gas solid
B. gas gas
C. solid gas
D. solid solid
3. [2013-P1-Q9]. Warm water which is left in a clay pot gradually cools. This is because...
A there is no condensation.
B of convection currents in water.
C of evaporation of water from the pot.
D heat no longer reaches the water
4. [2012-P1-Q8]. Heat travels in a solid by conduction. Heat flows from one end of a solid to the other by the...
A flow of electrons and convection currents.
B flow of electrons and movement of atoms.
C vibration of atoms and convection currents.
D vibration of atoms and flow of electrons.
5. [2012-P1-Q9]. The diagram shows a thermocouple thermometer. Which of the following is true?
A The letter Y represents a thermometer.
B The instrument is calibrated at boiling point of water.
C Side W is the cold junction.
D Material X is made of iron.
68
6. [2011-P1-Q7]. Which substance does not contract if cooled from 2°C to 0°C?
A Brass
B Gold
C Pure oil
D Pure water
7. [2011-P1-Q8]. What happens when a liquid is being heated at its boiling point? The...
A number of molecules increases.
B molecules become bigger.
C intermolecular spaces increase.
D intermolecular spaces decrease.
8. [2010-P1-Q6]. The diagram below shows a copper disc X with a circular hole Y.
When the disc is heated...

A x and y have the same area as before
B the area of x increases and the area of y stays the same
C the area of x decreases and the area of y increases
D the area of x increases and the area of y decreases
9. [2010-P1-Q7]. Which of the following contains the molecules with the highest average speed?
10. [2009-P1-Q8]. The Kelvin temperature of a liquid is 300K. Its temperature in °C is...
A 273
B 57
C 27
D 100
69
11. [2009-P1-Q9]. An experiment is arranged as shown below.
X is a radiation entering the thermopile. If the galvanometer needle shows a deflection,
A X has a lower frequency than Radio waves.
B X has a shorter wavelength than X-rays.
C X has a longer wavelength than X-rays.
D X has the same frequency as light
12. [2004-P1-Q9]. Why does a hot air balloon rise up in the air?
A The air inside is cold and less dense.
B The air expands and becomes less dense.
C The air contracts and becomes less dense.
D The air inside is hot and denser
13. [2004-P1-Q10]. A student arranges an experiment to find out which surface is a better emitter of infra-red
radiation than the other.
What observation is made on the galvanometer when the cube is turned so that the black surface now faces
the thermopile? The galvanometer...
A needle deflects less.
B needle does not deflect.
C needle deflects more.
D needle deflects.
70
14. [2003-P1-Q7]. One advantage of alcohol over mercury as a thermometric liquid is that...
A it freezes at -39°C
B its thread does not break
C it has a greater expansion
D it has a higher boiling point
15. [2003-P1-Q8]. A beaker of hot water was left on a table. After 10 minutes the temperature of water was
found to have dropped. The heat was lost to the surrounding by...
A cooling and evaporation
B cooling and convection
C evaporation and radiation
D radiation only
16. [2002-P1-Q5]. What happens to gas molecules when they are heated?
A They become hot.
B They expand.
C They evaporate.
D They vibrate faster.
17. [2002-P1-Q6]. Why is alcohol useful in thermometers to measure quite low temperatures?
A low freezing point
B high freezing point
C low boiling point
D high boiling point
18. [2002-P1-Q7]. Why do highly polished teapots keep hot longer than unpolished ones?
A They reflect heat
B They do not give out heat so well
C They keep all the heat
D They refract heat within
19. [2002-P1-Q10]. Which surface reflect heat best?
A Black
B Red
C White
D Green
20. [2002-P1-Q11]. What volume changes occur when water freezes?
A Cooling
B Decreases
C Increases
D Contraction
21. [2002-P1-Q17]. A piece of copper and a piece of rubber are both at room temperature. Why does the
copper feel colder than the rubber?
A Rubber melts easily.
B Copper is a good insulator of heat
C Rubber is a bad insulator of heat
D Copper is a good conductor of heat
71
22. [2001-P1-Q6]. Car radiators are usually painted black so that they...
A lose heat quickly.
B are hardened.
C absorb heat quickly
D function properly
23. [2001-P1-Q8]. Two cups made from different materials were filled with hot coffee and allowed to cool. Their
cooling curves are shown in the diagram below.
Which of the following best describes the process?

A Cup B may have been lagged.
B Cup A may have been lagged.
C Cup A could be made from copper
D Cup B may have been covered.
24. [2001-P1-Q9]. Aluminium expands more than copper. What will happen when the strip shown in the diagram
below is heated?
A bends downwards
B it gets shorter
C bend upwards
D it gets longer
25. [2001-P1-Q10]. The diagram below shows how the temperature of a solid changes when it is heated
steadily until it has turned into a gas.
What is the state of the substance at point x?

A Liquid and solid
72
B Solid
C Liquid
D Gas and liquid
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q3].
Figure 3.1 shows a copper rod and an iron rod of the same dimensions welded together at their
ends and being heated at the welded point using a Bunsen burner. A pin is stuck using wax at the
free end of each rod.
(a) State what will be observed after a few minutes. [2]

(b) What can be deduced from these observations? [1]
2. [2015-P2-Q10]
(a) Figure 10.1 shows how the temperature of a substance varies as it increases from 50°C
to 250°C.
(i) What is the melting point of the substance? [1]

(ii) What is the boiling point of the substance? [1]
(iii) Explain why the temperature remains constant over sections BC and DE despite the fact
that the substance is receiving heat. [3]
(b) With the aid of a labelled diagram, describe an experiment to demonstrate that a black
surface is a better emitter of radiation than a white one. [5]
73
3. [2013-P2-Q6]
Figure 6.1 below shows how the temperature of some liquid in a beaker changed as it was heated
until it boiled.
(a) What was the boiling point of the liquid? [1]

(b) State and explain what difference, if any, there would be in the final temperature if the
liquid was heated more strongly. [2]
(c) State two differences between boiling and evaporation. [2]
4. [2013-P2-Q10]
(a) Describe an experiment to show that a blackened metal surface is a better absorber of
infrared radiation than a polished metal surface at the same temperature. [5]
(b) An electric light bulb quickly reaches a constant high temperature when switched on.
Explain how heat is lost from the bulb and also why the temperature of the bulb becomes
constant. [5]
5. [2013-P2-Q11]
(a) Describe an experiment to determine the upper fixed point of a liquid - in glass thermometer. [4]
3
(b) (i) The volume of a gas at a temperature of -73°C and a pressure of 380mm Hg is 1 000 cm .
Find the volume of the same gas at a pressure 760mm Hg and temperature of 127°C. [2]
(ii) State two advantages of mercury over alcohol as thermometric liquids. [2]
(c) Give two advantages of a thermocouple thermometer over liquid in glass thermometers. [2]
6. [2012-P2-Q5]
Figure 5.1 shows a laboratory thermometer.
74
(a) Name the substance labelled A. [1]

(b) Name the section labelled B. [1]
(c) Why is part B narrow? [1]
(d) Explain why the wall of the thermometer bulb marked D is thin. [1]
(e) Give two advantages of a thermocouple thermometer compared with a mercury
thermometer for measuring temperature. [2]
7. [2011-P2-Q5]
(a) The pressure of air in a tyre of an empty lorry is 3.0 × 105 Pa and the volume of the air in the
tyre is 0.080m3 . Calculate the volume of the air in the tyre when the lorry is loaded until the
pressure of the air in the tyre rises to 3.6 × 105 Pa. (Assume that the air temperature is
constant). [3]
(b) The tyre pressure of a lorry that has been moving for some time is usually greater than the
pressure when the lorry has been standing at rest. Why is this so? [2]
8. [2011-P2-Q8]
Figure 8.1 shows a diagram of a clinical thermometer with some features labelled.
Explain why it has each of the following features:-

(a) A thin glass walled bulb, [1]
(b) A constriction, [1]
(c) A short range of temperature calibration, [1]
(d) A narrow bore [1]
(e) An oval shaped glass stem. [1]
75
9. [2010-P2-Q6]
(a) Figure 6.1 shows a cooler box used to keep food cool.
Describe how the cooler box keeps food cool for a long period. [2]
(b) With the aid of a labeled diagram describe an experiment to determine the lower fixed point of
a thermometer. [4]
10. [2010-P2-Q11]
(a) Describe an experiment you would perform to demonstrate that water is a poor conductor of
heat. [4]
(b) Figure 11.1 shows, the essential features of a solar heating panel. A small electric pump
circulates a liquid through the pipes.
State why,
(i) the pipes and back plate are blackened [2]
(ii) there is a mineral fibre backing to the panel [2]
(iii) the glass sheet increases the energy collected. [2]
76
11. [2009-P2-Q3]
Figure 3.1 shows one form of an apparatus used to observe Brownian motion of smoke particles
in air. A pupil looking through the microscope sees tiny bright specks which he described as
“dancing about”.
(a) What are the bright specks? [1]

(b) Why are the specks “dancing about”? [1]
(c) State the conclusion that can be drawn from Brownian motion. [1]
12. [2009-P2-Q7]
Figure 7.1 shows how the temperature of two identical cans, one with polished surface and the
other one with black painted surface, varied over a short period of time after they were placed into
strong sunlight.
(a) State the name of the process that transfers energy to the cans. [1]
(b) Which Can A or B is with the polished surface? [1]
(c) Give a reason for your answer. [1]
77
13. [2004-P2-Q5]
(a) Recently the Americans sent their spaceship called Challenger into outer space. Comment on
its mass and weight both on Earth and in outer space. [2]
(b) The figure 5.1b below shows a cross-section of the food warmer.
Describe briefly how the food warmer is able to keep food warm for longer periods. [2]
14. [2003-P2-Q6]
The diagram below shows a saucepan with a thick copper base containing water. It is placed on a
flat electric hot plate.
(a) State the process by which energy is

(i) transferred from the hot plate to the water. [1]
(ii) spread through the water. [1]
(b) The sides of a saucepan are often polished, how does this reduce heat loss? [1]
15. [2003-P2-Q12]
(a) Describe a simple experiment to show that dull black metal surfaces are better absorbers
of radiant heat than shiny polished ones. [5]
(b) How do conduction and convection differ from each other as processes of heat transfer? [2]
78
(c) Distinguish between evaporation and boiling in liquids. [2]

(d) Why is it advisable to use a thermocouple thermometer in a furnace? [1]
16. [2002-P2-Q4]
Equal quantities of water are placed in identical containers as shown above. The water is heated
by sources which produce the same amount of heat.
(a) What do you understand by boiling point? [2]
(b) Why does the water in X boil faster than in Y? [1]
(c) Name the processes responsible for the difference in (b). [2]
(d) Explain why water heater elements in electric kettles are placed at the bottom. [2]
17. [2001-P2-Q5]
(a) Two identical metal cans, one shiny and the other dull black are initially filled with water at
100°C. Each can contains a thermometer.
(i) Explain what would be observed after a few minutes.
(ii) What conclusion can be made from your observation? [2]
(b) Explain the following in terms of heat transfer
(i) A woollen sweater keeps you warm.
(ii) The blackboard in a classroom stays at the same temperature as the rest of the room,
although it absorbs more heat than the light coloured walls. [3]
79
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. D
7. C
8. D
9. D
10. C
11. C
12. B
13. C
14. C
15. C
16. D
17. A
18. A
19. C
20. C
21. D
22. A
23. B
24. A
25. A
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q3]
(a) Both pins will drop off, starting with the one on the copper rod then the one on the iron rod.
(b) That copper is a better conductor of heat than iron.
2. [2015-P2-Q10]
(a) Melting point is 75°C.
(b) Boiling point is 210°C.
(c) A metal container is filled with hot water and a thermopile placed at the some distance from each face in
turn. One of the faces is painted white, while the other is coated black by holding it in the flame of a
80
candle. The hot water heats the surfaces to the same temperature. In each case the steady deflection
of the obtained on the galvanometer is recorded. The results will show that the blackened surface
produces the largest and the white surface the smallest deflection. This means the blackened surface is
a better emitter of radiation than a white surface.
3. [2013-P2-Q6]
(a) Boiling point is 80℃.
(b) As long as the liquid is not completely evaporated, the temperature will remain unchanged at 80℃. Any
additional energy is being used to change the liquid to gas. The temperature will begin to change or
increase only after the entire liquid has evaporated.
(c) Differences:
 Evaporation occurs at the surface of a liquid, while boiling occurs within the liquid.
 Evaporation occurs at any temperature, while boiling occurs at a definite temperature called the
boiling point.
4. [2013-P2-Q10]
(a) Two corks are fixed by means of a melted wax to two sheets of metal, one polished and the other
painted black. The plates are set up vertically, a short distance apart, with the radiant heater midway
between.
81
Both surfaces receive equal quantities of radiation. After a while, the wax behind the black surface melts
and the cork slides off. The polished plate, however remains cool and the wax unmelted. The black
surface, therefore absorbed radiation better than the polished one.
(b) Conduction, convection and radiation are all at play when a light bulb is turned on. Heat moves from the
filament to the gas by conduction, then by convection through the argon gas. The glass receives this
heat by conduction and radiates it to the surrounding.
5. [2013-P2-Q11]
(a) The upper fixed point of a liquid in glass thermometer can be determined by placing the thermometer in
steam above boiling water at standard atmospheric pressure. The heat in the steam is transferred to the
thermometer and the mercury expands by rising up the tube. The steady point at which it stops rising is
its upper limit or 100℃ point.
(b) (i) Use the combined gas law:
P2 V2 P1 V1
=
T2 T1
Convert the temperatures given to Kelvin by adding 273. The units of volume and pressure can remain
the same. Temperature in Kelvin = 273 + ℃
T1 = 273 − 73 = 200K
T2 = 273 + 127 = 400K
760 × V2 380 × 1000

=
400 200
760V2 = 760 000

V2 = 1000 cm3
(ii) Advantages of mercury over alcohol.

 Mercury does not wet sides of glass.
 Mercury has a higher boiling point than alcohol.
82
(c) Advantages of a thermocouple over thermometer.

 Operates on a wider temperature range of over 1000 degrees.
 Operator does not need to be at the point of measurement. Readings are computerized.
6. [2012-P2-Q5]
(a) Substance A is mercury.
(b) B is called the thread.
(c) To have more sensitivity to temperature change. The narrower the tube, the higher the sensitivity.
(d) To let heat in and out quickly, allowing a quick response to temperature change.
(e) Advantages of a thermocouple over thermometer.
 Operates on a wider temperature range of over 1000 degrees.
 Operator does not need to be at the point of measurement. Readings are computerized.
7. [2011-P2-Q5]
(a) Use the combined gas law. Since T1 = T2 ,
P1 V1 3.0×105 Pa×0.080m3
Then P1 V1 = P2 V2 . Then V2 = = = 0.067m3
P2 3.6×105 Pa
(b) Because continuous ‘bending and unbending’ action of the tyre as it rolls produces heat. This heat
expands the air inside and causes the pressure to increase. The pressure will reduce back when the
tyre cools down.
8. [2011-P2-Q8]
(a) To let heat in and out quickly, allowing a quick response to temperature change.
(b) To prevent the mercury from flowing back to the bulb when it is removed from the patient.
(c) Because it is used to measure human body temperature.
(d) To have more sensitivity to temperature change. The narrower the tube, the higher the sensitivity.
(e) So that the heat is evenly transferred around to the mercury.
9. [2010-P2-Q6]
(a) It keeps food cool by reducing heat gain from the surrounding. The polythene and polystyrene that it is
made of are good insulators that reduce heat gain by conduction keeping food cooler for a long time.
(b) The thermometer is placed in a funnel filled with pure ice with a beaker underneath to collect the melted
water. Since the mercury is being cooled by the ice, it will contracted. The point at which the thread
stops moving down is the lower fixed point for the thermometer.
83
10. [2010-P2-Q11]
(a) Place some dry ice in a test tube and hold them down by means of a wire gauze. Pour some water into
the test tube and let its level be above the midpoint of the test tube. Tilt the test tube slightly and heat
the water above the ice. After a while, the water at the top will boil without the ice melting. If water was a
good conduct of heat, the ice must melt first before the water boiled.
(b) (i) Black surfaces absorb heat better than surfaces painted in other colours.
(ii) To prevent heat loss to the outside by conduction.
(iii) To reduce heat loss to the outside by trapping the heat within the small air space.
11. [2009-P2-Q3]
(a) Tiny bits of ash particles.
(b) They are continuously changing direction as they collide with fast moving air molecules
(c) That matter is made up of particles that are constantly in motion.
12. [2009-P2-Q7]
(a) Radiation. Heat from the sun reaches the earth and heats up by radiation.
(b) B has a polished surface.
(c) Polished surfaces are poor absorbers of radiation and so the temperature is lower than Can A. Black
surfaces good absorbers.
13. [2004-P2-Q5]
(a) Mass remains the same, while weight reduces due to a smaller gravitational pull in outer space
compared to that of the earth.
(b) It keeps food warm by reducing heat loss to the surrounding. The polished stainless steel lining reflects
the heat back to the centre of the warmer, while the inner material and lid and polythene outer cover,
being good insulators, prevent heat loss by conduction.
14. [2003-P2-Q6]
(a) (i) Heat travels from the hot plate into the pan and its contents by conduction.
(ii) Heat is spread through the water by convection.
(b) A polished surface is a poor absorber and reflects the heat back to the centre of the pan.
84
15. [2003-P2-Q12]
(a) Two corks are fixed by means of a melted wax to two sheets of metal, one polished and the other
painted dull black. The plates are set up vertically, a short distance apart, with the radiant heater
midway between.
Both surfaces receive equal quantities of radiation. After a while, the wax behind the dull black surface
melts and the cork slides off. The polished plate, however remains cool and the wax unmelted. The
black surface, therefore absorbed radiation better than the polished one.
(b) Conduction is the movement of heat through a material without carrying any of the material with it, while
convection involves flow of particles in the heated material.
(c) Differences:
 Evaporation occurs at the surface of a liquid, while boiling occurs within the liquid.
 Evaporation occurs at any temperature, while boiling occurs at a definite temperature called the
boiling point.
(d) Because they have a wider temperature range of over a thousand degrees.
16. [2002-P2-Q4]
(a) Temperature at which the vapour pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure.
(b) Because the heater is in direct contact with the water as compared to Y.
(c) Conduction.
(d) To have a continuous convection current within the liquid. The water at the bottom gains heat and
expands. Being less dense, it rises and the cooler water at the top, being denser, sink to replace the
hotter water at the bottom, setting up a convection current.
17. [2001-P2-Q5]
(a) (i) The thread of the thermometer in the shiny can will rise higher than of the dull black can.
(ii) Dull black bodies are better radiators of heat than shiny ones.
(b) (i) Wool contains air pockets within its fibres. Air, being a bad conductor of heat, prevents heat loss by
trapping the heat close to the body.
(ii) Blackboards are also good radiators of heat. They radiate heat as soon as they receive it, until their
temperature becomes equal to that of the surrounding.
85
86
TOPIC 4: WAVE MOTION

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q9]. Which of the following describes the difference between x-rays and gamma rays?
A Gamma rays and x-rays have different sources.
B Gamma rays do not affect photographic films.
C Gamma rays travel faster than x-rays.
D Gamma rays have a longer wavelength than x-rays.
2. [2015-P1-Q10]. A ripple tank with a vibrator hitting the surface of water with a frequency of 60Hz produces
10 complete waves in a distance of 15 cm. What is the velocity of the water waves produced?
A 0.9 m/s
B 900 m/s
C 9 m/s
D 90 m/s
3. [2013-P1-Q10]. The figure below shows a graph of wave motion.
P Q
A Amplitude Period
B Half the amplitude period
C Amplitude wavelength
D half the amplitude wavelength
4. [2013-P1-Q11]. All of the following are properties of a radio wave except...

A It does not travel in a vacuum.
B it travels with a speed approximately 300 000 000 m/s in air.
C it causes particles of a medium to vibrate perpendicular to its direction.
D It is undeflected by electric or magnetic fields.
87
5. [2011-P1-Q9] The diagram shows a displacement-time graph for a transverse wave.
A 2.25 sec
B 1.5 sec
C 0.25 sec
D 2.50 sec
6. [2010-P1-Q8] The diagram below shows the cross-section of a water wave.
The values that correctly represent the period and frequency of this wave are shown...
Period (s) Frequency (HZ)
A 0 1
B 1 1
C 1 2
D 2 1
7. [2004-P1-Q11] A wave has a frequency of 4Hz and a wavelength of 200cm. What is the speed and the
period of the wave?
SPEED PERIOD
A 0.8 m/s 0.25 s

B 8 m/s 0.25 s
C 800 m/s 0.0025 s
D 800 m/s 8s
88
8. [2003-P1-Q9]. Radio waves of frequency 106 Hz have a wavelength of...

A 1 × 102 m
B 3 × 103 m
C 3 × 102 m
D 1 × 106 m
9. [2001-P1-Q7] A ruler is clamped at one end and set into vibration. If it vibrates 300 times in 2 seconds, the
frequency is
A 150 Hz
B 600 Hz
C 700 Hz
D 300 Hz
10. [2001-P1-Q11] Ripples are sent across a pond and a small floating object goes up and down 6 times in 15
seconds. If the wave crests are 40 cm apart, the speed of the waves across the pond is
A 10 cm/s
B 18 cm/s
C 15 cm/s
D 16 cm/s
11. [2001-P1-Q12]. An example of a purely longitudinal wave is…
A a sound wave.
B an electromagnetic wave.
C a water wave
D a wave in a stretched string.
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q4].
(a) The radiation that reaches the earth from the sun is electromagnetic in nature.
State one way in which the components of the electromagnetic spectrum are different. [1]
(b) A wave travels across the surface of water. At one point, the water level moves up 0.2cm
and downward 0.2cm from the undisturbed water level completing 12 oscillations in 3 seconds.
The distance between adjacent wave crests is 10cm.
For this wave, what is
(i) the amplitude? [1]
(ii) the frequency? [1]
(iii) the wavelength? [1]
(c) Calculate the speed of the wave in metres per second (m/s) [2]
2. [2012-P2-Q6]
(a) Light and gamma rays are both examples of electromagnetic radiation.
(i) Name two other types of electromagnetic radiation. [2]
(ii) State two differences between light and gamma rays. [2]
(b) The speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s. Calculate the frequency of yellow light of wavelength
6 × 107 m. [2]
89
3. [2012-P2-Q8]
Figure 8.1 shows a boat which uses ultrasonic waves to calculate the depth of the sea.
The speed of sound in water is 1400m/s and an ultrasonic wave has a frequency of 28000 Hz.
(a) Calculate the wavelength of the ultrasonic wave in water. [2]
(b) The pulse takes 0.2s to travel from the transmitter to seabed and back to the detector.
Calculate the distance to the seabed. [2]
4. [2011-P2-Q6]
Two successive crests of an approaching water wave are separated by a distance of 1.5m. It
takes 0.2s for one crest to cover the distance of 1.5m.
(a) At what speed is the wave travelling? [2]
(b) What is the frequency of the wave? [2]
(c) Distinguish between the nature of water wave and a sound wave. [2]
5. [2010-P2-Q7]
Figure 7.1 shows some of the components of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Radio waves Microwaves Infra-red Visible light A X-ray Gamma-rays
(a) What component is represented by A? [1]

(b) State the speed of the following components in a vacuum in m/s
(i) infra-red [1]
(ii) gamma rays [1]
(c) All electromagnetic waves are transverse.
(i) What is the meaning of the term “transverse”? [1]
(ii) Give another example of a transverse wave, but which is not an electromagnetic wave. [1]
90
6. [2003-P2-Q11]
(a) Describe an experiment to determine the period of a pendulum, given a metal bob, a string
and a stop clock. Mention at least one precaution you would take. [6]
(b) Explain how the motion performed by the metal bob is similar to wave motion. [1]
(c) State the wave equation and use it to calculate the speed of a wave with wavelength 2cm, if
10 complete waves pass through a certain point in 1 second. [3]
7. [2002-P2-Q5]
One end of a string is moved to and fro so that a travelling wave is produced shown in the figure
below.
(a) What is the wavelength of the wave? [1]

(b) If it is moved to and fro 2 times per second,
(i) What is the frequency of the wave?
(ii) What is the velocity of the wave? [4]
8. [2002-P2-Q6]
(a) Name two forms of electromagnetic waves with a wavelength longer than that of visible light. [2]
(b) State two common properties of all the electromagnetic radiations. [2]
9. [2001-P2-Q6]
A wave travels from left to right as shown above.

(a) Describe the changes which occur as the wave travels from region A to region C. [2]
(b) Calculate the wavelength if the speed and frequency of the wave in the region A are
2200 cm/s and 103 Hz respectively. [2]
(c) State one difference between a sound wave and a ripple in a pond. [1]
91
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. A
2. A
3. A
4. A
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. D
11. A
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q4]
(a) They have different wavelengths and frequencies.
(b) (i) Amplitude is 0.2 cm or 0.002 m. (Amplitude is vertical distance a point moves from the undisturbed
position).
(ii) Frequency = 12/3 = 4Hz (Frequency is the number of oscillations produced per second).
(iii) Wavelength = 10 cm or 0.10 m (Wavelength is the distance between adjacent wave crests).
(c) Use the wave equation: frequency must be in hertz (Hz), wavelength in metres (m) for speed to be in
m/s.
Speed = frequency × wavelength = 4 Hz × 0.10 m = 0.40 m/s
2. [2012-P2-Q6]
(a) (i) Ultraviolet rays and X-rays.
(ii) Differences:
 Light waves have a longer wavelength than gamma rays.
 Light waves have a lower frequency than gamma rays.
(b) Use the wave equation: frequency must be in hertz (Hz), wavelength in metres (m) for speed to be in
m/s.
speed 3×108
Speed = frequency × wavelength Then, frequency = = = 5 Hz
wavelength 6×107
3. [2012-P2-Q8]
(a) Use the wave equation,
speed(m/s) = frequency(Hz) × wavelength(m)
speed 1400
So, wavelength = = = 0.05m
frequency 28000
1400m
(b) Distance travelled by wave = speed × time = × 0.2s = 280 m.
s
But the wave has to travel down and back. So depth of water is 280/2 = 140 m
92
4. [2011-P2-Q6]
(a) Use the motion equation: V=λ×f
1 1
First find frequency = f = = = 5 Hz. Wavelength has been given us 1.5 m/s.
T 0.2
v = 1.5 m × 0.2
= 7.5 m/s
(b) Frequency is the number of oscillations produced per second. It takes 0.2 s for a crest to cover 1.5 m
(which is the wavelength, since it is the distance between two successive waves). 0.2s is therefore the
period.
1 1
Frequency = = = 5 Hz
period 0.2 s
(c) A water wave is transverse in nature whereas a sound wave is longitudinal in nature.
5. [2010-P2-Q7]
(a) Ultraviolet rays.
(b) Electromagnetic waves all travel through a vacuum at 300 000 000 m/s
 Infra-red speed is 300 000 000 m/s
 Gamma rays speed is 300 000 000 m/s.
(c) (i) A transverse wave is a wave where the movement of the particles of the medium is perpendicular to
the direction of travel of the wave.
(ii) A water wave is transverse in nature.
6. [2003-P2-Q11]
(a) Setup a simple pendulum consisting of a small mass attached to the end of a length of wire. Attach the
other end of the wire to a fixed point P (refer to the figure). While holding a stop watch in one hand,
displace the mass slightly and release it immediately after starting the watch. Count 25 swings and
record the time it has taken.
For example, time for 25 swings = 50 seconds
So: time for 1 swing = 50/25 = 2.0 seconds

Precaution: the angular amplitude should be small.
93
(b) Both motions are oscillatory and have common characteristics of having an amplitude, frequency,
period and sinusoidal waveform.
(c) The wave equation: speed is the product of the frequency and wavelength.
Wavelength = 2cm or 0.02m. Frequency is the number of waves produced in a second = 10 waves in 1s
or 10Hz.
Therefore,
speed = 10 × 0.02 = 0.2m/s
7. [2002-P2-Q5]
(a) Wavelength = 10 cm or 0.10 m (Wavelength is the distance between successive points on the wave).
(b) (i) Frequency = 2 Hz (Frequency is the number of oscillations (to and fro) produced per second).
(ii) The wave equation: speed or velocity is the product of the frequency and wavelength.
Speed(m/s) = frequency(Hz) × wavelength(m)
= 2 × 0.1
= 0.2 m/s or 2 cm/s
8. [2002-P2-Q6]
(a) EM waves with longer wavelength than visible light are:
 Radio waves
 Infra-red.
(b) Two properties:
 They all travel through a vacuum at a speed of 300 000km/s.
 They are all transverse in nature.
9. [2001-P2-Q6]
(a) From A to B, the amplitude of the wave increases whereas the amplitude and wavelength both reduce
at C.
(b) Use the wave equation. Speed = 2200cm/s or 22m/s.
So,
speed 22m/s
wavelength = = = 0.022m or 2.2cm
frequency 1000Hz
(c) A sound wave is longitudinal in nature whereas a ripple in a pond is transverse in nature.
94
TOPIC 5: SOUND
SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q11]. When a sound wave passes through air, the particles of air...
A oscillate up and down.
B oscillate perpendicular to the direction of the wave.
C do not move at all.
D oscillate parallel to the direction of the wave.
2. [2013-P1-Q11]. All of the following are properties of a radio wave except...

A it causes particles of a medium to vibrate perpendicular to its direction.
B it travels with a speed approximately 3 × 108 m/s in air
C It is undeflected by electric or magnetic fields.
D It does not travel in a vacuum.
3. [2012-P1-Q10]. The diagram below represents a sound wave.
In a space of 120cm there are ten compressions and ten rarefactions. What is the speed of the sound
wave?
A 150cm/s
B 350cm/s
C 340cm/s
D 300cm/s
4. [2011-P1-Q11]. In order to produce a sound wave, there should always be...

A air.
B vibrations.
C a drum.
D longitudinal waves.
5. [2010-P1-Q10]. Echo-sounding equipment on a ship receives sound pulses reflected from the sea bed 0.03
seconds after they were sent out. If the speed of sound in sea water is 1500m/s, what is the depth of water
under the ship?
A 50 000m
B 25 000m
C 45.0m
D 22.5m
95
6. [2009-P1-Q11]. A loud sound is made in front of a tall building. An echo is heard 4 seconds after the sound
is produced. If the speed of sound in air is 320m/s, how far away is the building?
A 80m
B 160m
C 640m
D 1280m
7. [2003-P1-Q10]. Mary hears a sound of a lightning flash, 6.0 seconds after the flash. How far was she from
the lightning source? Take the speed of sound in air to be 320m/s.
A 980m
B 320m
C 1920m
D 53m
8. [2002-P1-Q8]. Which of the following determines the characteristic of a musical note?
A Quality
B Pitch
C Loudness
D Frequency
9. [2001-P1-Q12]. An example of a purely longitudinal wave is…
A an electromagnetic wave.
B a water wave.
C a wave in a stretched string.
D a sound wave.
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q6]
A captain of an aeroplane sends out sound waves in air beneath the plane and detects an echo
from the ground exactly 6 seconds later. The air below the plane is 5000m high.
96
(a) How far, in metres, has the sound wave travelled in 6 seconds? [2]
(b) Calculate the speed of sound in air. [2]
2. [2012-P2-Q8]
Figure 8.1 shows a boat which uses ultrasonic waves to calculate the depth of the sea.
The speed of sound in water is 1400m/s and an ultrasonic wave has a frequency of 28000 Hz.
(a) Calculate the wavelength of the ultrasonic wave in water. [2]
(b) The pulse takes 0.2s to travel from the transmitter to seabed and back to the detector.
Calculate the distance to the seabed. [2]
97
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. D. Sound is a longitudinal wave.

2. D. All electromagnetic waves travel in a vacuum.
3. D. Wavelength in a longitudinal wave refers to the distance between two consecutive compressions or
between two consecutive rarefactions. In this case, wavelength is 120/10 = 12cm. Speed = wavelength/time
= 12cm/0.04s = 300cm/s.
4. B
5. D. Distance travelled by wave = speed × time = 0.03s × 1500m/s = 45m. But the wave has to travel down
and back. So depth of water is 45/2 = 22.5m
6. C. Distance travelled by wave = speed × time = 4s × 320m/s = 1280m. But the wave has to travel to the
building and back. So distance to building is 1280/2 = 640m
7. C. From the speed, sound travels 320m in 1 second. In six sends it will travel 6s × 320m/s = 1920m.
8. A
9. D – Sound is a longitudinal waves.
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q6]
(a) The wave has to travel to the ground and back. So distance travelled is
= 2 × 5000m = 10 000m.
(b) Use the formula:

distance travelled 10000
Speed = = = 1666.67m/s
Time 6
2. [2012-P2-Q8]
(a) Use the wave equation,
So,
speed 1400
wavelength = = = 0.05m
frequency 28000
(b) Distance travelled by wave = speed × time = 0.2s × 1400m/s = 280m.
But the wave has to travel down and back. So depth of water is 280/2 = 140m
98
TOPIC 6: LIGHT
SECTION A
1 [2015-P1-Q12]. A ray of light from a ray box is directed on one side of a parallel sided glass block. Which
diagram shows the path of the ray of light through the glass block?
A B C D
2 [2011-P1-Q10]. Which statement about refraction is true? When light passes from air to glass, it...
A slows down and wavelength decreases.
B speeds up and the frequency decreases.
C slows down and the frequency decreases.
D speeds up and wavelength decreases.
3 [2010-P1-Q9]. A typist uses new carbon-paper under her top typing paper for making a copy of a letter.
When she holds the carbon-paper close to a plane mirror, she can read the letter. This is because the
mirror...
A forms an image the same size as the object.
B forms an image the same distance
C produces a laterally inverted image.
D forms a virtual image
4 [2009-P1-Q10]. The diagram shows a ray of red light passing from air into glass.
Which ratio gives the refractive index for red light?
99
sin p
A
sin x
sin p
B
sin y
sin q
C
sin x
sin q
D
sin y
5 [2004-P1-Q12]. One side of the main bedroom has a modern clock while the opposite side has a large
dressing mirror. A child enters this room and sees the image of the clock in the mirror as shown below.
What is the correct time shown by the actual clock?
A 11:10 hours
B 10:10 hours
C 13:50 hours
D 14:50 hours
6 [2003-P1-Q11]. Light goes from medium A to medium B at an angle of incidence of 40°. The angle of
refraction is 30°. The speed of light in B ...
A may be greater or less than that in A
B is the same as that in A
C is less than that in A
D is greater than that in A
7 [2002-P1-Q9]. A converging lens is used as a magnifying lens (glass) when the object is...
A at three times the focal point.
B at two times the focal point.
C between the lens and the focal point.
D at the focal point.
8 [2001-P1-Q13]. The image formed by a plane mirror is NOT

A real.
B the same size as the object.
C virtual.
D laterally inverted.
100
9 [2001-P1-Q14]. Which diagram below represents the path of light ray through a glass block in air?
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q5]
Figure 5.1 shows a ray of green light passing into and out of a semi-circular glass block.
(a) Why is the ray not refracted at A? [1]

(b) What is the angle of incidence in Figure 5.1? [1]
(c) What is the angle of refraction in Figure 5.1? [1]
(d) Calculate the refractive index of the glass. [2]
2. [2015-P2-Q11]
(a) State two laws of reflection. [2]
(b) Describe an experiment to illustrate the laws above. [5]
(c) In another experiment, a girl stands 2.0m in front of a plane mirror.
(i) How far is she from her image? [1]
(ii) State the nature of her image. [2]
101
3. [2013-P2-Q7]
Figure 7.1 below shows an incomplete ray diagram.
Figure 7.1
(a) Complete the ray diagram above to show the position of the image. [3]
(b) Give two characteristics of the image formed. [2]
4. [2012-P2-Q7]
Figure 7.1 shows a ray of light from air to water. The diagram is not drawn to scale.
(a) Determine the:

(i) angle of incidence. [1]
(ii) angle of refraction. [1]
(b) Calculate the refractive index. [1]
5. [2011-P2-Q7]
A 4cm high object is placed 8cm from a convex lens of focal length 3cm. Draw a scale diagram to
find the position and size of the image. [4]
102
6. [2009-P2-Q6]
(a) Figure 6.1 shows a ray of light incident on a rectangular glass block. Complete the path taken
by the ray of light through and out of the block. The angle of refraction is 18.2°.
(b) If the ray strikes the glass block at an angle of 60° as shown in Figure 6.1. Find ...
(i) the angle of incidence. [1]
(ii) the refractive index of the glass block. Use the data below,
sin 18.2° = 0.3125
sin 30° = 0.500
sin 45° = 0.707
sin 60° = 0.866.
103
7. [2009-P2-Q11]
(a) Describe an experiment you would perform to determine the focal length of a converging lens
using a distant object. [5]
(b) An object 2cm high is placed 30cm from a converging lens of focal length 10cm. Find by scale
(c) drawing the position and size of the image. [5]
8. [2004-P2-Q13]
(a) Define refractive index. [2]
(b) Describe an experiment you would perform to determine the refractive index of a rectangular
glass block. [5]
(c) A liquid is 25cm deep. What is its apparent depth when viewed from above, if the refractive
index of the liquid is 1.25? [3]
9. [2002-P2-Q7]
An experiment, as shown above, is done to study refraction of light from air into glass.
(a) Label on the diagram the angle of incidence with a letter i. [1]
(b) Calculate the refractive index of the glass. [2]
(c) Refraction of light occurs as light enters our eyes. Suggest the importance of refraction
of light in the eyes. [2]
10. [2002-P2-Q9]
(a) Describe an experiment to determine the refractive index of glass given a rectangular glass
block. [7]
(b) The diagram below shows the path of a ray of light through one corner of a cube of ice.
104
Find
(i) the angle of incidence on the face AB
(ii) the angle of refraction [3]
11. [2001-P2-Q9]
(a) By drawing a thin converging lens with parallel rays of light passing through it; show what
is meant by the following:
(i) Principal axis
(ii) Focal length [2]
(b) A thin converging lens of focal length 2.5 cm is used to produce an image of an object which
is 2.0 cm tall and placed 3.5 cm away from the optical center of the lens.
(i) Representing the object by an arrow, draw a ray diagram to locate the image
produced.
(ii) Explain why this image is real. [5]
(c) A converging lens can be used as a magnifying glass.
(i) Under what condition is this possible?
(ii) Describe the image produced by a magnifying glass [3]
105
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. D – Glass is denser than air. From air to glass the ray bends toward the normal line, whereas from glass to air it
bends away from normal.
2. A – Glass is denser than air. Frequency remains constant as this depends only on the frequency of the light
source. However, speed and wavelength reduce.
3. C - The image is laterally inverted. This means that the image is inverted from side to side or back to front.
sin i
4. A – Refractive index = , where i and r are angles of incidence and refraction respectively.
sin r
5. B – The image is laterally inverted. This means that the image is inverted from side to side or back to front. Refer
to 3 above.
6. C – Since angle of incidence is greater than angle of refraction, the ray will bend towards the normal in medium
B. B is therefore denser than A and speed reduces.
7. C – Converging lens form a magnified, upright and virtual image when an object is placed close to it (between
the focal point and lens).
8. A –it cannot be formed on a screen. It is virtual.
9. C - Glass is denser than air. From air to glass the ray bends toward the normal line, whereas from glass to air it
bends away from normal.
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q5]
(a) Because the ray enters the semi-circular glass block at 90 degrees. It is parallel to the normal at point A
and it does not bend.
(b) Since the ray is from glass to air, angle of incidence is 27°.
(c) Since the ray is from glass to air, angle of refraction is 40°.
(d) Using the law of reversibility of light, angle of incidence from air to glass is , i = 40°, while angle of
refraction is , r = 27°.
sin i sin 40°
Refractive index of glass = = = 1.42
sin r sin 27°
Note: Law of reversibility of light states that light will take the same path if the direction of travel is changed.
2. [2015-P2-Q11]
(a) Laws of reflection:
- The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
- The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal all lie in the same plane.
106
(b) Apparatus required are sheet of paper, pins, mirror, pencil, protractor and rule. Place the mirror vertically on
the paper and trace its edge. Draw the normal line perpendicular to the edge of the mirror. With angle of
incidence = 30°, draw a ray and place two pins P and Q along it. With the eye positioned as shown, place
two other pins R and S to coincide with the images P’ and Q’.
Remove pins R and S and join the dots left with a straight line. Measure and record angle r. Repeat the
above procedure for different angles e.g. 45°, 60° etc.
It will be found that the angles of incidence and reflection

are equal and that the incident, reflected rays and the
normal all lie on the paper plane.
(c) (i) The girl is 4m from her image.

(ii) The image formed is upright, virtual, laterally inverted and same size as the object.
3. [2013-P2-Q7]
(a) Refer to figure 7.1.
(b) Characteristics: image formed is

 Magnified.
 Upright.
107
4. [2012-P2-Q7]
(a) (i) Angle of incidence is between the incident ray and the normal.
i = 90° − 20° = 70°
(ii) Angle of refraction is between the refracted ray and the normal.
r = 131° − 90° = 41°
(b) Refractive index is for light passing from air to glass.
sin i sin 70°
Refractive index of glass = = = 1.43
sin r sin 41°
5. [2011-P2-Q7]
Refer to the graph.
Object is 5cm from the centre of the lens and on the opposite side.
Size of image = 2.2cm high.
6. [2009-P2-Q6]
(a)
(b) Angle of incidence is between the incident ray and the normal.
i = 90° − 60° = 30°
(c) Refractive index is for light passing from air to glass.
sin i sin 30° 0.500
Refractive index of glass = = = = 1.6
sin r sin 18.2° 0.3125
108
7. [2009-P2-Q11]
(a) Rays from distant objects are considered to be parallel to each other. They form an image at the focal
point of the lens after refraction through the lens.
Arrange the lens and screen as shown in the diagram. Choose a tree outside as the distant object.
Position the screen to get a sharp inverted image of the tree. Measure and record the distance between
the lens and screen. Move the lens and screen to new points and position either the lens or screen to get
sharp images. Measure the distances every time they have been moved. The average of the distances
gives the focal length of the lens.
(b) Refer to the graph below.
Image is 15cm from the centre of the lens and is 1cm in height.
8. [2004-P2-Q13]
(a) The refractive index of a material is the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to its speed in the
medium and gives an indication of how difficult it is for light to get through the material.
(b) Place a glass block on a piece of paper and trace its edge. Draw a normal line to the edge at A using a
protractor. Measure 30° from the normal and position the ray box so that the path of the ray is 30° to the
normal through A as shown. The light bends upon entry into the glass block. Follow the ray through the
glass and place a pin at the exit point, B. Remove the glass block and join point B to A.
Measure the angle between AB and the normal. Then,
109
sin i
Refractive index of glass =
sin r
Repeat the procedure for different values of the incident angle i (e. g. 40°, 60° etc) then take the average,
(c) Real depth is 25cm and refractive index is 1.25.

real depth
Refractive index =
Apparent depth
real depth 25cm
Implying, Apparent depth = = = 𝟐𝟎𝐜𝐦
refractive index 1.25
9. [2002-P2-Q7]
(a) Angle of incidence is between the incident ray and the normal.
(b) The angle of incidence is , i = 90° − 46° = 44°. Refracted angle is, r = 38°.
sin i sin 44°
Refractive index of glass = = = 𝟏. 𝟏𝟑
sin r sin 38°
(c) Refraction enables images of objects to be focused on the retina (screen) that sends impulses to the
brain to interpret the outside world.
10. [2002-P2-Q9]
(a) Setup the experiment as shown. Place the glass block on a piece of paper and trace its edge. Draw a
normal line to the edge at A using a protractor. Measure 30° from the normal and position the ray box
so that the path of the ray is 30° to the normal through A as shown. The light bends upon entry into the
glass block. Follow the ray through the glass and place a pin at the exit point, B. Remove the glass
block and join point B to A. Measure the angle between AB and the normal. Then,
sin i
Refractive index of glass =
sin r
Repeat the procedure for different values of the incident angle i (e. g. 40°, 60° etc) then take the average,
110
(b) (i) Indicate the normal on the diagram. Angle of incidence is between the incident ray and the normal.
i = 90° − 20° = 70°
(ii) Angle of Refraction is between the refracted ray and the normal. r = 131° − 90° = 41°
11. [2001-P2-Q9]
(a) Refer to diagram.
(i) Principle axis is the perpendicular line to the surface of the lens and through its centre.
(ii) Focal length is the distance between the centre of the lens and the point where all the rays
converge after passing through the lens,
(b) (i) Refer to the graph.
(ii) It is real because it can be cast or projected on a screen.
(c) (i) It is possible when the object is between the focal point and the lens.
(ii) the image is upright, magnified, virtual and on the same side of the lens as the object.
111
TOPIC 7: MAGNETISM
SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q13]. The diagram below shows a soft iron rod placed inside a solenoid connected to a d.c
supply. The ends of the soft iron rod are marked X and Y.
When current is switched on which of the following occurs?

A Y does not attract pieces of iron filings.
B Y becomes the North Pole.
C X becomes the South Pole.
D X attracts pieces of iron filings.
2. [2013-P1-Q12]. The diagram below shows a bar of iron placed near a magnet. Both the iron bar and the
magnet remain undisturbed.
3. [2012-P1-Q12]. Which of the following is a property of magnetic field lines?

A They run from north pole to the south pole.
B They run from south pole to north pole.
C They cross each other at the poles.
D Magnetic field is weak when they are close.
112
4. [2011-P1-Q16]. The diagram shows a magnet moving into a solenoid.
Which of the following is true?

A If 'R' is a north pole, the induced current flows in the direction shown by arrow 'M'.
B If 'B' is a north pole no current is induced in the solenoid.
C If 'R' is a south pole, the induced current flows in the direction shown by arrow 'M'.
D If 'B' is a south pole, the induced current on face T of the solenoid flows clockwise.
5. [2009-P1-Q12]. The figure below shows the magnetic field lines on two pieces of permanent magnets.
The field pattern is produced by...

A a south pole and an unmagnetized iron bar.
B a north pole and a south pole
C two north poles
D two south poles
6. [2004-P1-Q13]. A circuit is arranged as shown below. S1, S2 and S3 are switches.
113
In order for the lamp to produce light...

A S2 and S3 should be ON while S1 should be OFF.
B S1 should be ON while S2 and S3 should be OFF.
C S1 and S2 should be ON while S3 should be OFF.
D the reed should be made of copper.
7. [2004-P1-Q17]. Fig. 17.1 below shows a solenoid connected to a sensitive galvanometer, G. The needle of
the galvanometer is pointing at zero.
From the diagram above, we can conclude that...

A the magnet is moving towards X.
B the magnet is moving towards Y.
C the solenoid is made of copper.
D the magnet is stationary.
8. [2003-P1-Q12]. When a magnetized bar is strongly heated, its magnetic field ...
A becomes stronger
B reverses its direction
C becomes weaker
D is unchanged
9. [2003-P1-Q13]. The diagram below shows a circuit used to magnetise an iron nail.
114
Which of the following gives the correct set of poles?

P Q R T
A N S N S
B S N S N
C S S N S
D S N N S
10. [2002-P1-Q12]. A permanent Magnet is placed inside a coil as shown in the diagram below.
What is the reading on the meter G?

A Minimum
B Zero
C Half
D Maximum
11. [2001-P1-Q15]. The diagram below shows the magnetic field lines on two pieces of a permanent magnet.
The pattern is produced by

A a north pole and a south pole.
B two south poles.
C a south pole and unmagnetised iron bar.
D two north poles.
115
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q7]
The diagram below shows a small plotting compass placed between two strong magnets. The tip of
the arrow represents the N pole of the compass.
(a) What is the polarity of the end C of the right-hand magnet? [1]
(b) Draw a diagram of the magnets only as seen from above and sketch the magnetic field lines
in the region between B and C. [2]
2. [2011-P2-Q4]
(a) The diagram below represents a bar of soft iron which is to be magnetised with a north pole
at end A.
Complete the diagram to show how you would arrange a coil connected to a cell to achieve this.
Make clear on your diagram the windings of the coil and the polarity of each cell terminal. [3]
(b) What would be the effect of disconnecting the cell on the magnetisation of the bar? [1]
3. [2004-P2-Q8]
A student carried out an experiment to determine the magnetic properties of two metals A and B using a
permanent magnet as shown in Fig 8.1 below.
116
(a) Identify the metals A and B. [2]

(b) Mention one use of metal A due to its behaviour in the experiment above. [1]
(c) Give two advantages of using electromagnets rather than permanent magnets in cranes used to
lift metal sheets. [2]
4. [2003-P2-Q7]
(a) Figure 7.1 shows a view from above of a compass needle placed near a solenoid with a bar of
unmagnetised steel AB. In the diagram the switch has been opened and the compass needle
is pointing North.
(i) Mark the direction of current in the wire after the switch has been closed. [1]
(ii) What is the polarity of end of A of the steel bar? [1]
(iii) Draw the direction of the compass needle after the switch has been closed. [2]
(b) (i) State what happens to the compass needle when the switch is opened again. [1]
(ii) Explain your answer in (b) (i) [1]
117
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. C. If R is south, then U part of solenoid becomes south too and vice versa. The coil repels the magnet.
Apply right hand grip rule to find current flow.
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. B
10. B. only when there is motion between the coil and magnet is current induced in the coil.
11. B
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q7]
(a) End C is the north pole. The compass needle points away from the north pole to show direction of
magnetic field lines.
(b) The field lines run from the end C to B as shown below.
2. [2011-P2-Q4]
(a) The north pole A is found using the Right Hand Grip rule (imagine gripping the coil with the fingers
pointing in the conventional current direction. Then the thumb points toward the north end of the coil.
118
(b) With a soft iron core, the magnetism is temporal, and is lost as soon as the current through the coil is
switched off.
3. [2004-P2-Q8]
(a) Metal A is iron and B is steel. Magnetism induced in iron is temporal whereas it is permanent in steel.
(b) Metal A is used as a core for electromagnets.
(c) Advantages:
 Electromagnets can be made stronger by increasing current or number of turns in the coil whereas
permanent magnets cannot.
 Magnetism of electromagnets can be switched on and off whereas that for permanent magnet
cannot.
4. [2003-P2-Q7]
(a) (i) Direction of conventional current is from positive to negative terminal of the cell or battery.
(ii) End A is the north pole of the steel bar. Using the Right Hand Grip rule (imagine gripping the coil
with the fingers pointing in the conventional current direction. Then the thumb points toward the
north end of the coil.
(iii) Magnetic field lines run from the north to the south pole. The needle of the compass points toward
the south pole.
(b) (i) The position of the needle will not change.
(ii) The steel has become a permanent magnet with field lines running from the north to south pole.
Steel is a hard magnetic material that does not lose its magnetism easily.
119
TOPIC 8: STATIC ELECTRICITY

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q14]. The diagram below shows a charged polyethene rod which is moved near to end R of a
charged metal sphere mounted on an insulating stand.
Which of the following shows the correct charge distribution on the sphere?
2. [2013-P1-Q13]. A positively charged sphere is moved close to an isolated metal bar. Which diagram shows
the charges induced on the bar?
3. [2012-P1-Q13]. The diagram below shows an experimental set up on electrostatics.
120
When the switch is closed...

A protons flow from the ground to the metal ball.
B electrons flow from the ground to the metal ball.
C protons flow from the metal ball to the ground.
D electrons flow from the metal ball to the ground.
4. [2011-P1-Q12]. The figure shows a negatively charged polythene rod moving closer to a metal sphere,
which is on an insulator. There's a wire from the sphere to the ground.

A Side 'x' of the sphere is charged negatively.
B Conventional current flows to the sphere.
C Side 'y' of the sphere receives protons from side 'x'.
D Side 'x' of the sphere receives protons from side 'y'
5. [2010-P1-Q12]. A metal ball is charged by induction. To do this, a positively charged rod is held close to one
side of the ball and the other side is earthed. The diagram that shows the charge distribution at this stage of
the experiment is ...
6. [2009-P1-Q13]. The figure below shows a negatively charged polythene rod getting closer to a metal sphere
which is on an insulator. A copper wire connects the sphere to the Earth.
121

A Current flows from the sphere to the Earth
B Current flows from the Earth to the sphere
C The sphere is negatively charged
D The Earth is at a positive potential
7. [2002-P1-Q20]. When a positively charged rod is brought towards the cap of an uncharged electroscope the
leaf...
A rises
B loses charges
D falls
C gains charges
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q8]
Two metal spheres A and B each stand on an insulating base and are in contact. A negatively
charged rod is brought near to the sphere A as shown in Figure 8.1.
(a) Explain, in terms of electrons, the difference between conductors and insulators. [2]
(b) What effect does the charged rod have on the electrons in A and B? [1]
(c) In what way will A and B differ if separated while the rod is near? [2]
(d) State one use of static charge. [1]
2. [2011-P2-Q9]
Figure 9.1 shows two metal spheres A and B being charged by induction using a negatively charged
rod brought near A. In figure 9.2, the two spheres are separated. In figure 9.3, the charged rod is
removed.
122
(a) What should be the nature of material used as the support of each sphere? [1]
(b) On each sphere in 9.1, 9.2 and 9.3, indicate the charge distribution. [4]
3. [2003-P2-Q10]
The figure below illustrates some of the stages in the charging of a metal sphere mounted on a
stand made of an insulator.
(a) Briefly describe the reasons why the charges rearrange themselves as shown in the diagram
in stage 2. [2]
(b) What is the direction of movement of negative charges in stage 3 when a connection is made
between the ground and point A? [1]
(c) State the first law of electrostatics. [1]
4. [2001-P2-Q7]
(a) Two light conducting balls, suspended on nylon threads, come to rest with the threads making
equal angles with the vertical, as shown in the diagram: Explain how this could be possible.
(b) Explain in terms of electron movement, why a polythene rod which is rubbed with a cloth repels the
copper block when brought closer to it.
123
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. B – Electrons are repelled away from the rod since it carries a negative charge.
2. B – Electrons are in the metal are attracted to the positive sphere
3. D – Electrons are repelled away from the rod and flow into the ground. If the rod was positive, electrons would
flow from the ground to the sphere.
4. B- Electron flow is from sphere to ground. Conventional flow is opposite of electron flow.
5. B
6. A – Current is movement of electrons. Electrons move from the sphere to the earth.
7. A - All the electrons flow to the metal cap, leaving the gold leaves positively charge and they repel.
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q8]
(a) Electrons in conductors are loosely bound to the atoms and are free to move within the material, whereas
in insulators they are tightly bound to their atoms.
(b) Since the rod is negatively charged, electrons are repelled away from A and accumulate in sphere B.
(c) Sphere will carry a positive charge, while B will have a negative charge because of electrons that have
accumulated.
(d) Spray painting.
2. [2011-P2-Q9]
(a) An insulator such as wood.
(b) The charges are shown in the figures below.
3. [2003-P2-Q10]
(a) Before the rod is introduced, the electrons and protons are in equilibrium with each other. The positive
charge on the rod attracts free electrons in the metal sphere, leaving the remote end deficient of
electrons and positively charged.
(b) Because the remote end of the metal sphere is deficient of electrons, electrons will flow from the ground
to the metal sphere to replace those that migrated toward the positive rod.
124
(c) First Law of Electrostatics: Like charges repel, while opposite charges attract each other.
4. [2001-P2-Q7]
(a) It is possible when the spheres are given the same electric charge. There will be a repulsive
electrostatic force that will make them swing away from each other and come to equilibrium when each
string is at a certain angle with the vertical. The opposite is also true.
(b) When a polythene rod is rubbed with a cloth, the polythene pulls electrons from the cloth. Because there
are more electrons than normal, the polythene will have a net negative charge. When brought closer to
the copper block, which is also negatively charge, repulsion occurs. Like charges repel, unlike charges
attract.
125
TOPIC 9: CURRENT ELECTRICITY

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q15]. A battery moves a charge of 60C around a circuit at a constant rate in 20 seconds. What is
the current flowing in the circuit?
A 40 A
B 80 A
D 3.0 A
C 0.3 A
2. [2015-P1-Q16]. A heater is connected to a 200V supply. If the heating element has a resistance of 10Ω how
much electrical energy is supplied to the heater in 2 minutes?
A 8 000 J
B 480 000 J
D 800 000 J
C 4 000 J
3. [2013-P1-Q14]. The diagram below represents a parallel circuit.
The current through the Ammeter is...

A 0.5 A
B 9.0 A
C 2.0 A
D 1.0 A
4. [2013-P1-Q15]. In wiring a house a switch is always connected to the live wire. This is...
A because the circuit can never be switched off if the switch is on the neutral wire
B to avoid short circuits and overheating of elements.
C because no current flows through the neutral wire.
D to make it easier to isolate any device connected in the circuit thus making it safe.
5. [2013-P1-Q16]. An electric appliance is rated 5000W, 250V. A man uses this appliance for 10 hours and
pays K25.00 for the electrical energy used. What is the cost of electrical energy per unit?
A K0.80
B K2.00
D K0.10
C K0.50
126
6. [2012-P1-Q14]. The instrument commonly used for measuring the charge which is passing per second is....
A a gold leaf electroscope.
B a cathode ray oscilloscope.
C an ammeter.
D a voltmeter.
7. [2012-P1-Q15]. The figure below shows a circuit diagram.
The value of the resistor R is....

A 5.0 Ω
B 6.0 Ω
C 0.5 Ω
D 1.5 Ω
8. [2012-P1-Q16]. What is the cost of running a 750W electric fan for 4 hours and a 2kW heater for 2 hours if
electric energy costs K150 per kWh?
A K700
B K1 050
C K500
D K650
9. [2011-P1-Q13]. Which of the following quantities is expressed in the same unit as potential difference?
A Positive charge.
B Electric power.
C Electric current.
D Electromotive force.
10. [2011-P1-Q14]. Which of the following circuits containing identical resistors will give the highest current?
127
11. [2011-P1-Q15]. The formulae used to find electrical power is ...

A P = IV.
B P = wt.
C P = VQ.
D P = VR.
12. [2010-P1-Q11]. Which of the following units is the same as a coulomb?
A V/A
B As
C V/Q
D ws
13. [2010-P1-Q13]. In the circuit shown the reading on the ammeter is 1A.
What readings are shown by the voltmeters V1 and V2?
14. [2010-P1-Q14]. Which of the following equations cannot be used to determine electrical energy?
A E = VQ
B E = VIt
C E = I2 Rt
V2 t
D E=
I
15. [2010-P1-Q15]. An electrical appliance is rated 250V, 500W. Find the cost of using this appliance for 120
minutes if electrical energy costs K100 per unit.
A K 800
B K1, 200
C K 200
D K 100
128
16. [2009-P1-Q14]. The figure below shows part of a circuit in which current is flowing.
If the p.d between N and M is 3V, the current is...

A 1A
B 12 A
C 3A
D 6A
17. [2009-P1-Q15]. A heater used on a 250V mains circuit has a 5A fuse in its plug. Which is the highest power
rating for this heater?
A 1000 W
B 2000 W
C 1250 W
D 50 W
18. [2009-P1-Q16]. Induced current is such that it opposes the change which is causing it. This is...
A Faraday's law
B Snell's law
C Ohm's law
D Lenz's law
19. [2004-P1-Q14]. A battery drives 60C of charge in a circuit for 20s. The current in the circuit is ...
A 0.03 A
B 300 A
C 0.3 A
D 3A
20. [2004-P1-Q15]. Fig 15.1 below shows a circuit with three junctions X, Y and Z and four lamps. The lamps
between junction Y and Z are identical.
129
What current is flowing through the ammeter?

A 5A towards Z.
B 4A towards Z.
C 3A towards Z.
D 4A towards Y.
21. [2004-P1-Q16]. In the circuit below the potential difference (p.d) between A and B is 4V.
The current in the circuit is...

A 0.4 A
B 2.5 A
C 2.0 A
D 1.0 A
22. [2003-P1-Q14]. Electric charge is measured in ...
A ohms
B coulombs
C amperes
D volts
23. [2003-P1-Q15]. The graph in the figure below shows how the current (I) changed with the voltage (V)
applied to a sample of a material.
From the graph, it can be deduced that the...

A material used was copper.
B current through the material decreased as the voltage increased.
C material used was a good Ohmic conductor.
D resistance of the material increased as the voltage increased.
130
24. [2003-P1-Q16]. A circuit is arranged as shown below.
The current measured by the ammeter is...

A 1.2A
B 2A
C 3A
D 1A
25. [2003-P1-Q17]. An electric appliance is rated 4,000W, 250V. What is the cost of using this appliance for 8
hours if electrical energy costs K2.000.00 per unit?
A K64, 000.00
B K32, 000.00
C K1, 560.00
D K16, 000.00
26. [2002-P1-Q14]. What will be the reading on the voltmeter when the switch S is closed in the circuit below?
A 4.0 V
B 7.0 V
C 6.9 V
D 3.9 V
27. [2001-P1-Q17]. A heater is rated at 3000W and its voltage is 250V. The resistance of the wire is…
A 48.8 ohms
B 12 ohms
C 250 ohms
D 20.8 ohms
131
28. [2001-P1-Q18]. The diagram below shows an electric circuit containing an ammeter A, a power supply of 6V
and a set of lamps each of resistance 3 ohms.
What would be the ammeter reading if all the switches were closed?
A 10 A
B 2A
C 8A
D 4A
SECTION B
1. [2013-P2-Q8]
Study the circuit diagram in Figure 8.1 below.
(a) Calculate the current through the battery. [2]

(b) (i) How long would it take a charge of 2.0C to flow through the battery? [2]
(ii) How much energy would be used in moving this charge round the circuit? [2]
2. [2012-P2-Q12]
A 4Ω DVD, 6Ω shaving machine and a 12Ω radio cassette are connected at the same time in
parallel across 24V power supply.
(a) Draw a circuit diagram to represent this connection. [2]
(b) Find the total resistance in the circuit offered by all the three appliances. [2]
(c) Calculate the current in each appliance. [6]
132
3. [2011-P2-Q12]
Figure 12.1 shows a bucket with a heating element at the bottom. The bucket has a plastic body with the
outside casing of the element which is a metal.
(a) Explain why;

(i) a fuse is included in the circuit and what happens when the fuse blows. [2]
(ii) the metal casing of the heating element is connected to the earth. [2]
(b) The electrical power input to the bucket is 2000W and the bucket is switched on for 6 minutes.
Calculate the electrical energy, in Joules supplied to the bucket. [3]
(c) Explain, in molecular terms, how evaporation causes loss of energy from the water when the
element is switched off. [3]
4. [2010-P2-Q12]
(a) Figure 12.1 shows an incomplete circuit for an experiment to investigate how the resistance
of a torch bulb varies with current flowing through it.
Figure 12.1
(i) Draw the circuit diagram and add to it an ammeter to measure the current through the
Bulb and voltmeter for measuring the potential difference (p.d) across the bulb. [2]
(ii) State clearly how you would obtain the readings needed to carry out the investigation. [2]
(iii) How would you determine the resistance of the bulb? [2]
(b) (i) If the bulb is 2.5v and takes the current of 0.25A at its working temperature, calculate the
resistance of the bulb. [2]
(ii) The resistance of the bulb when the filament is cold is 5Ω. Sketch the graph you would
133
expect to obtain if you plot resistance against current for the bulb. [2]
5. [2009-P2-Q9]
(a) Figure 9.1 shows a network of resistors.
(i) What current flows in the 6Ω resistor? [1]

(ii) What charge passes through the 6Ω resistor for 3 seconds? [1]
(iii) What is the potential difference across the 6Ω resistor? [2]
(b) A 2kW, 250V electric fire is connected to 250V mains.
(i) How much current does the electric fire take? [2]
(ii) What is the cost of running the electric fire for 5 hours if the cost of a unit (kWh) of electrical
energy is K900? [2]
6. [2004-P2-Q9]
Figure 9.1 below shows a lamp connected to a cell and a battery.
(a) How much charge flows through the lamp in 1 minute? [2]
(b) Calculate the energy used by the lamp. [2]
7. [2004-P2-Q11]
(a) Describe a simple experiment to show that an electric current has a magnetic effect. [5]
(b) An electric lamp is marked 12V, 24W. State what is meant by this marking. [1]
(c) Calculate
(i) the resistance of the lamp [2]
(ii) the time taken for the lamp to use 0.48 kwh of energy. [2]
8. [2003-P2-Q8]
The figure below shows a circuit diagram connected to battery of e.m.f 3.0 volts.
134
(a) Calculate the charge that flows in 5 seconds if the Ammeter reading is 2 Amps. [1]
(b) What is the resistance of the lamp in the circuit? [1]
(c) Calculate the power consumption of the lamp. [2]
(d) Describe the energy conversions which take place in the lamp when the lamp is working. [1]
9. [2003-P2-Q9]
An electric lamp has a power rating of 60W when used on a 240V supply. Calculate
(a) the electrical energy used by the lamp in 2 minutes. [2]
(b) the current taken by the lamp. [2]
(c) the charge passing through the lamp in 2 minutes. [1]
10. [2002-P2-Q8]
The diagram below shows a cell of 6.0V connected to three resistors as shown.
(a) Calculate the effective resistance of the 4Ω and 6Ω resistors. [2]

(b) Calculate the current passing in the cell. [2]
(c) Find the power supplied by the battery. [1]
(d) Calculate the energy converted by the resistor in one minute [2]
135
11. [2001-P2-Q8]
A circuit consisting of two Resistors R1 and R 2 carries a current of 2.0A as shown below:
(a) Find the value of resistance R 2 . [2]

(b) What is the reading of the ammeter? [1]
(c) Calculate the amount of charge which flows through Resistor R1 after 10 seconds. [1]
(d) Calculate the amount of energy dissipated by Resistor R1 after 10 seconds [2]
136
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. D. Charge = current × time or Q = I × t . Charge must be in Coulombs, current in Amps and time in seconds.
V2
2. B. Use the equation, Energy = Power × time or E = P × t = IV × t = × t.
R
R1 ×R2
3. C. First calculate combined resistance of two resistors in parallel: R = Now use V=IR to find the current.
R1 +R2
4. D. Option A is disqualified because the circuit can still be switched off if the switch was placed on the neutral
wire. However, it would not be safe to work on the device because the live wire would be still connected to the
power source. Electrocution would occur if any part of the human body comes into contact with the live wire.
5. C. The kilowatt-hour (kWh) is the unit of energy measurement. The energy supplied is,
Energy supplied = 5000W × 10h = 50 000Wh = 50kWh
Then, Total cost = Number of units used × Cost per unit
Total cost K25.00
therefore, Cost per unit = = = K0.50 per kWh.
Number of units used 50kWh
Q
6. C. Current is charge passing per second (I = ). A gold leaf electroscope is for charge detection, ammeter for
t
current and voltmeter for voltage.

7. A. Use the equation V = IR, where R is the combined resistance found by adding the two series resistors. V = I ×
(R + 1). 3V = 0.5(R + 1) giving R = 5Ω
8. B. Add the energy used by the fan and heater in kWh and multiply it by the cost per kWh.
Total cost = Number of units used × Cost per unit
K150
= [(0.75kW × 4) + (2kW × 2hr)] × = K1 050
kWh
9. D. Electromotive force (EMF) is the highest Potential Difference a battery produces when not connected in a
circuit.
10. A. The lesser the combined resistance, the more the current in the circuit. Assume each resistor is 1Ω. A gives
0.5Ω, B gives 2Ω, C gives 0.67Ω and D gives 1.5Ω.
11. A.
12. B. Charge(C) = current(A) × time(s) or C = As .
13. B
14. D. Use difference equations of power, voltage and current and replace in the E = Pt. You will find that energy is
given by E = Pt, E = VQ, E = VIt, and E = I2 Rt
K100
15. D. Use the equation: Total cost = Number of units used × Cost per unit = (0.5kW × 2hrs) × = K100
kWh
16. A. Find combined resistance and use V = IR.

17. C. Power = voltage × current = 250V × 5A = 1250W
18. D.
19. D. Charge(C) = current(A) × time(s) or 60C = current × 20s, implying current = 3A.
20. B. Current at Y is 3+5 = 8A. Since the other bulbs are identical, the current in each branch is halved i.e. 4A.
21. D. Find combined resistance and use V = IR.
22. B
23. D. The curve is for materials that do not obey Ohm’s law. As current increases, temperature increases and the
resistance goes up as voltage increases. Here, the current is not proportional to the voltage.
137
24. B. Voltage across the 3Ω and 2Ω resistors is 6V since they are connected in parallel.
K2000.00
25. A. Total cost = Number of units used × Cost per unit = (4kW × 8hrs) × = K64 000.00
kWh
26. D. Find combined resistance of the 10 and 15ohm resistors and add it to the 8 ohm. Calculate the current and
multiply it by the combined resistance of the 10 and 15ohm resistors to find voltmeter reading.
10 × 15
Total resistance = + 8 = 6 + 8 = 14Ω,
10 + 15
V 9V
Current in the circuit = = = 0.64A
R 14Ω
Voltmeter reading = 0.64 × 6 = 3.9V
V2 V2
27. D. Power, voltage and resistance are connected by the equation, P = VI = . Then R = .
R P
1 1 1 1 1
28. C. The bulbs are in parallel. Combined resistance is found by = + + + . Then use V = IR to find the
R R1 R2 R3 R4
current.
SECTION B
1. [2013-P2-Q8]
(a) Combined resistance is R = 3 + 4 = 7Ω
V=I×R
V 4.0
Implying, I = = = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟕𝐀
R 7
(b) (i) Charge = current × time or Q = I × t . Charge must be in Coulombs, current in Amps and time in
seconds.
Q 2.0C
t= = = 𝟑. 𝟓 𝐬
I 0.57A
(ii) Use the equation:
V2
Energy = Power × time or E = P × t = IV × t = × t.
R
V2 42
E= ×t= × 3.5 = 𝟖 𝐉𝐨𝐮𝐥𝐞𝐬
R 7
2. [2012-P2-Q12]
(a) Refer to the figure below.
Note: Differently shaped diagrams are correct as long as the three appliances are parallel.
138
(b) The bulbs are in parallel. Combined resistance is found by

1 1 1 1
= + +
R R1 R 2 R 3
1 1 1 1
= + +
R 4 6 12
1 6
= .
R 12
R = 𝟐𝛀
(c) Since the appliance are connected in parallel, the voltage across each one is the same.
V 24
- DVD: I= = = 𝟔𝐀
R 4
V 24
- Shaving machine: I= = = 4A
R 6
V 24
- Radio: I= = = 𝟐𝐀
R 12
3. [2011-P2-Q12]
(a) (i) The fuse is included to protect appliances against high currents. It breaks the circuit (or cuts
connection) when it blows before the cable can overheat and catch fire.
(ii) For safety against electrocution. The earthing stops the metal casing from becoming live when the
live wire becomes loose and touch the metal body.
(b) Energy = Power × time or E = P × t. Power should be in watts and time in seconds for energy to be in
joules. Energy = Power × time
60s
= 2000W × 6min ×
min
= 𝟕𝟐𝟎 𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐉𝐨𝐮𝐥𝐞𝐬

(c) Heat causes already vibrating water molecules to vibrate even more. These fast vibrating molecules,
especially those near the surface, break free and escape into the air, leaving behind the less energetic,
so the temperature and thus energy of the water become less than before.
4. [2010-P2-Q12]
(a) (i) Refer to the figure. The voltmeter is connected across the bulb to measure P.D, while the ammeter
is connected within the circuit to measure the current passing.
(ii) The readings can be obtained by reading off values of the current and voltage across the bulb on the
ammeter and voltmeter respectively. Different values of the current and voltage across the bulb are
obtained by adjusting the rheostat.
139
(iii) The resistance of the bulb is calculated using the readings on the meters. For each reading,
voltmeter reading
Resistance =
ammeter reading
V 2.5
(b) (i) Use the formula V = IR. Then R = = = 𝟏𝟎𝛀
I 0.25
(ii) From the equation in (b)(i) above, resistance is inversely proportional to current. The graph is as
shown.
The voltage at a given resistance and current is found by drawing a tangent at that point and its
gradient gives the voltage at that point.
Note: The graph is curved because of the aspect of temperature. If temperature of the conductor was
constant (i.e. an Ohmic conductor), the graph would have been a straight line slanting downwards to the
right.
5. [2009-P2-Q9]
(a) (i) The two 3Ω resistors add to 6Ω. Since the branch resistances are of the same size, the current splits
into Half.
6
Current = = 𝟑𝐀
2
(ii) Charge = current × time or Q = I × t

Q = 3A × 3s = 𝟗𝐂
(iii) Potential difference is the same as voltage. V = IR = 3 × 6 = 18V
P 2 000W
(b) (i) Use the formula P = VI or I = = = 𝟖𝐀
V 250V
(ii) Use the equation:

K900
Total cost = Number of units used × Cost per unit = (2kW × 5hrs) × = 𝐊𝟗𝟎𝟎𝟎
kWh
6. [2004-P2-Q9]
(a) Charge = current × time or Q = I × t .
Charge must be in Coulombs, current in Amps and time in seconds.
Q = 0.5A × 60s = 𝟑𝟎𝐂
(b) Use the formula: Energy = Power × time or E = P × t = IV × t
Here, the cell and battery are connected in series. They produce a combined voltage of 6V
Energy = IV × t = 0.5 × 6 × 60 = 180 Joules
140
7. [2004-P2-Q11]
(a) Use a directional compass settled in its north-south direction. Place a wire over the compass in the
same direction. When a current is allowed to flow through the wire, it will be noticed that the compass
needle deflects 90° to the wire (i.e. in the east-west direction). When the current is turned off, the
compass needle returns to its original north-south direction. This shows that a wire carrying current has
a magnetic effect.
(b) That it will take 24W of power if connected to a 12V supply.

(c) Power, voltage and resistance are connected by the equation,
V2 V2 12×12
(i) P = VI = . Then R = = = 𝟔𝛀
R P 24
E 480Wh
(ii) Use the energy equation E = Pt or t = = = 𝟐𝟎 𝐡𝐨𝐮𝐫𝐬
P 24W
8. [2003-P2-Q8]
(a) Charge = current × time or Q = I × t . Charge must be in Coulombs, current in Amps and time in
seconds.
Q = 2A × 5s = 𝟏𝟎𝐂
(b) Use the formula
V 3V
V = IR or R = = = 𝟏. 𝟓𝛀
I 2A
(c) Use the formula
P = VI = 3 × 2 = 𝟔𝐖
(d) Electrical to heat to light energy.
9. [2003-P2-Q9]
(a) Use the formula
Energy = Power × time or E = P × t = 60 × 2 × 60 = 𝟕𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝐣𝐨𝐮𝐥𝐞𝐬
(b) Use the formula
P 60W
P = VI or I = = = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓𝐀
V 240V
141
(c) Charge = current × time or Q = I × t . Charge must be in Coulombs, current in Amps and time in
seconds.
Q = 0.25A×120s = 30C
10. [2002-P2-Q8]
(a) For two resistors,
R1 × R 2 4 × 6
R= = = 𝟐. 𝟒𝛀
R1 + R 2 4 + 6
(b) Current is equal to voltage divided by the total resistance in the circuit.
Total resistance R = 2.6 + 2.4 = 𝟓. 𝟎𝛀
V 6
V = IR or I = = = 𝟏. 𝟐𝐀
R 5
(c) Use the formula,
P = VI = 6 × 1.2 = 𝟕. 𝟐𝐖
(d) Energy = Power × time
E = P × t = 7.2 × 60 = 𝟒𝟑𝟐 𝐉𝐨𝐮𝐥𝐞𝐬
11. [2001-P2-Q8]
(a) Voltage is the same across resistor R1 and R 2 .
V 6
V = IR or R = = = 𝟏𝟐𝛀
I 0.5
(b) Sum of currents in the branches is equal to the source current.
Ammeter reading = 2 − 0.5 = 1.5A
(c) Charge = current × time or Q = I × t. Charge must be in Coulombs, current in Amps and time in
seconds.
Q = 1.5A×10s = 15C
(d) Use the formula,
Energy = VI × t = 6 × 1.5 × 10 = 𝟗𝟎 𝐣𝐨𝐮𝐥𝐞𝐬
142
TOPIC 10: ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q17]. The diagram below shows an ideal transformer which is supplied with an alternating voltage
of 240V and a current of 1A.
If the secondary current is 5A, what is the secondary voltage?

A 48V
B 1200
C 1400V
D 240V
2. [2013-P1-Q18] The diagram shows a coil in a magnetic field which is part of an a.c generator.
What must be connected directly to X and Y?

A split rings
B brushes
C slip rings
D d.c supply
3. [2012-P1-Q17]. The diagram below shows a transformer used in a laboratory during an experiment.
143
If 0.2A current flows through the input, the size of current given out at the output is....
A 0.2A
B 2.0A
C 0.1A
D 10.0A
4. [2011-P1-Q17]. A transformer is used to convert 240V to 12V in order to power a table lamp. If the current in
the primary coil is 0.2A, what is the current in the secondary coil? (Assume that the transformer is ideal).
A 4.00A
B 0.10A
C 0.20A
D 0.01A
5. [2010-P1-Q16]. Study the figure below and answer the question that follows.
The figure…
A represents a direct current generator
B requires current for the coil to rotate
C produces current by electromagnetic induction
D uses a commutator to produce an alternating current
6. [2010-P1-Q17]. An ideal transformer (one which is 100% efficient)...
A has same number of turns in primary and secondary
B does not lose any energy.
C changes a.c. to d.c.
D has more power in secondary than in primary.
7. [2009-P1-Q16]. Induced current is such that it opposes the change which is causing it. This is ...
A Faraday's law
B Snell's law
C Ohm's law
D Lenz's law
144
8. [2009-P1-Q17]. Which of the following may not help to minimize the energy losses in a transformer?
A Ensuring an efficient core design

B Using thinner copper wire
C Using thicker copper wire
D Using a laminated iron ore
9. [2003-P1-Q18]. The figure below shows the setup of a transformer.
In order to produce less voltage in the secondary coil, the input current, the core and the number of turns
should be...
Input current Core Number of turns in secondary
A direct current steel more than primary
B alternating current iron less than primary
C alternating current steel equal to primary
D direct current iron less than primary
10. [2002-P1-Q13]. A transformer for a model train is to change 240 volts a.c. to 12 volts a.c. If it has 1200 turns
in its primary, how many turns does it have in its secondary coil?
A 16
B 60
C 120
D 600
11. [2001-P1-Q16]. The alternating current in the secondary coil of a transformer is induced by…
A a changing electric field.
B the iron core of the transformer.
C motion of the primary coil.
D a changing magnetic field.
145
SECTION B
1. [2012-P2-Q9].
Figure 9.1 shows a simple transformer which can be used to light a bulb. The bulb is labelled.
When the mains supply is switched on, the bulb is very bright.
(a) State one way in which the potential difference across the bulb can be decreased without
changing the mains supply. [2]
(b) For the lamp operating at the correct brightness, calculate
(i) the current in the secondary coil, [2]
(ii) the current in the primary coil, assume that the transformer is 100% efficient. [2]
2. [2009-P2-Q8].
Figure 8.1 shows the diagram of a simple a.c generator.
146
(a) Name the parts labelled X and Y. [2]

(b) Name three ways in which the generator would be made to produce more voltage. [3]
3. [2009-P2-Q12]
Figure 12.1 represents a transformer with a primary coil of 400 turns and a secondary coil of 200 turns.
(a) The primary coil is connected to the 240V a.c mains. Calculate the secondary voltage. [2]
(b) Explain carefully how the transformer works. [4]
(c) Why is soft iron used for the core instead of steel? [2]
(d) If the current in the primary coil is 3A, calculate the current in the secondary coil of the
transformer, assuming the transformer is 100% efficient. [2]
4. [2004-P2-Q11]
(a) Describe a simple experiment to show that an electric current has a magnetic effect. [5]
(b) An electric lamp is marked 12V, 24W. State what is meant by this marking. [1]
(c) Calculate
(i) the resistance of the lamp [2]
(ii) the time taken for the lamp to use 0.48 kwh of energy. [2]
147
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. A. An ideal transformer has 100% efficiency. This means power input equals power output.
Power in = Power out or Vp Ip = Vs Is
Vp ×Ip 240×1
Then secondary voltage is: Vs = = = 48V
Is 5
2. C. An a.c generator uses slip rings to produce alternating current whereas d.c generators use split rings.
3. B. Use the equation for an ideal transformer (100% efficiency). Power in = Power out or Vp Ip = Vs Is
4. A. Use the equation for an ideal transformer (100% efficiency). Power in = Power out or Vp Ip = Vs Is
5. B. This is a d.c motor and not generator.
6. B
7. D
8. B. Thin wires have very high resistance.
9. B
10. B
11. D
SECTION B
1. [2012-P2-Q9]
(a) By reducing the number of turns in the secondary coil.
(b) (i) The lamp operates brightly when it is drawing 36W. Power equals voltage times current.
P = VI
Then current is
P 36W
I= = = 𝟏. 𝟓𝐀
V 24V
(ii) 100% Transformer Efficiency means power input equals power output.
Then primary current is:
Vs × Is 24 × 1.5
Ip = = = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟓𝐀
Vp 240
2. [2009-P2-Q8]
(a) X is one of the slip rings and Y is one of the carbon brushes.
(b) To produce more voltage:
 Increase the rotational speed of the coil.
 Increase the number of turns on the coil.
 Using a stronger magnet.
3. [2009-P2-Q12]
(a) Use the equation:
148
Seccondary voltage Turns on secondary coil VS NS

= or =
Primary voltage Turns on primary coil VP NP
VS 200
=
240 400
VS = 120V
(b) Transformers work by mutual induction. When alternating current flows through the primary (input) coil,
it sets up an alternating magnetic field in the core and in the secondary (output) coil. The changing
magnetic field induces an alternating voltage in the secondary coil. The induced voltage causes a
current to flow.
(c) 100% transformer efficiency means power input equals power output.
Then secondary current is:
Vp × Ip 240 × 3
Is = = = 𝟔𝐀
Vs 120
4. [2004-P2-Q11]
(a) Place a wire over a compass as shown in the diagram. When a current is allowed to flow through the
wire, it will be noticed that the compass needle deflects 90° to the wire. When the current is turned off,
the compass needle returns to its original north-south direction. This shows that a wire carrying current
has a magnetic effect.
(b) That it will draw 24W of power if connected to a 12V battery or mains supply.
(c) Power, voltage and resistance are connected by the equation,
V2
P = VI = .
R
V2 12 × 12
Then R = = = 𝟔𝛀
P 24
149
TOPIC 11: ATOMIC PHYSICS

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q19]. Which of the following radiations is NOT deflected by an electric field?
A Proton
B Gamma
C Alpha
D Beta
2. [2015-P1-Q20]. The radioactive nucleus Strontium undergoes a beta decay.
Which of the following is the correct nuclear equation?
3. [2013-P1-Q19]. The radioisotope sodium - 24, has a half-life of 15 hours. How long would an 8g sample of
sodium - 24 take to decay to 1 g?
A 120 hours
B 90 hours
C 60 hours
D 45 hours
4. [2013-P1-Q20]. The equation shown represents the decay of carbon - 14 to nitrogen - 14.
Which of the following is true about radiation X?

A It is electrically neutral.
B It can be repelled by an electron.
C It can be repelled by a proton.
D It is an electromagnetic wave.
5. [2012-P1-Q19]. The table shows the possible properties of radioactive emissions. Which emission
represents an alpha particle?
150
6. [2012-P1-Q20]. In a fission reactor, which particle causes a Uranium-235 nucleus to split?

A Alpha particle
B Proton
C Gamma ray
D Neutron
7. [2011-P1-Q19]. The diagram shows the structure of an atom of carbon.
What is the nuclide notation of this atom?
8. [2011-P1-Q20]. A radioactive substance has a mass of 100g and a half-life of 2 minutes. How much of this
substance remains undecayed after 6 minutes?
A 25g
B 12.5g
C 75.5g
D 50g
9. [2010-P1-Q19]. The fact that it is a matter of pure chance whether or not a particular radioactive nucleus will
decay during a certain period of time implies that radioactive decay is ...
A a random process.
B a time consuming process.
C a rotten process.
D a regular process.
151
10. [2010-P1-Q20].
The symbol above is used to warn of the presence of...

A cancer cells.
B gamma rays.
C radioactive material.
D radiation burns.
11. [2009-P1-Q19]. The radium nucleus, decays to Radon (Rn) as shown below.
X is...
A a gamma-ray
B an alpha particle
C a Beta particle
D an X-ray
12. [2009-P1-Q20]. Compared to the charge and mass of a proton, an electron has...
A the same charge and the same mass
B the same charge and a smaller mass
C an opposite charge and a smaller mass
D an opposite charge and the same mass
13. [2004-P1-Q19]. The following equation represents the decay of Americium - 241.
In this equation J could be...

A an electron
B hydrogen gas
C an alpha particle
D a proton
14. [2004-P1-Q20]. The decay curve below shows how the activity of a radioactive nuclide varies with time.
152
The half-life of the nuclide is...
A 4s
B 2s
C 1s
D 3s
15. [2003-P1-Q19]. Polonium disintegrates to lead (Pb) accompanied by an emission of some radiation Y. The
equation is shown below.
The radiation Y is...

A alpha particle
B beta particle
C gamma ray
D x-ray
16. [2003-P1-Q20]. An atom of a radioactive element has 86 electrons. If its nucleon number is 222, the number
of neutrons is ...
A 222
B 86
C 136
D 308
17. [2002-P1-Q15]. An element has a half-life of 2500 years. If there was 10g of radioactive atoms at the start,
how much would be left after 10,000 years?
A 5
B 2/5
C 5/4
D 5/8
18. [2002-P1-Q16]. What is the effect on the nucleus of a radioactive substance when it undergoes an x-
decay?
A The nucleus loses two units of negative charge.
B The nucleus loses four units of mass and two units of positive charge.
C The nucleus does not lose any mass.
D The nucleus loses four units of mass.
19. [2002-P1-Q19]. Which of the following nuclear radiations has the least ionizing effect in air?
A α − particles
B β − particles
C γ − rays
D X − particles
153
60
20. [2001-P1-Q19]. The proton number and the nucleon number of the nucleus after a β- emission from a 27Co
nucleus is
Proton number Nucleon number
A 28 60
B 60 28
C 27 61
D 61 27
21. [2001-P1-Q20]. The diagram shows the penetrating power of certain radioactive emissions.
The radioactive emissions are

X Y Z
A gamma Beta alpha
B alpha gamma Beta
C Beta gamma alpha
D gamma alpha Beta
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q9]
The thickness of paper can be checked by putting a radioactive source on one side of the paper
and a detector on the other side.
(a) Explain why alpha and gamma sources would not be suitable to detect the thickness of paper. [1]
(i) alpha is not suitable because [1]
(ii) gamma is not suitable because [1]
(b) How would the amount of radiation passing through the paper be changed if the thickness of
the paper is increased? [1]
(c) In such an experiment it was found that the number of counts per minute varied even when the
thickness of the paper was unchanged. Explain this observation. [1]
(d) The table below shows the half-lives of some emitters of radiation.
154
(i) Explain the meaning of half-life. [1]

(ii) State which source would be the most suitable for checking the thickness of paper
being produced in a factory. [1]
2. [2013-P2-Q9]
(a) For one neutral atom of lead state the number of:
(i) Neutrons [1]

(ii) Electrons [1]
(b) Lead nucleus can undergo decay by the emission of beta particle to produce a bismuth (Bi)
nucleus. Complete the equation below to represent the decay of the lead nucleus.
[2]
3. [2013-P2-Q12]
A detector of nuclear radiation was set up to measure the decay of a radioactive substance.
Figure 12.1 below shows the results of the experiment.
(a) (i) What is the half-life of the substance? [1]

(ii) Clearly explain how you obtained your answer to (a) (i) above. [2]
(b) List any three properties of a beta-particle. [3]
(c) Describe how you would show that the radioactive source is emitting only beta- particles. [4]
4. [2012-P2-Q10]
The rate meter (counter) was used at intervals of 10 minutes to measure the activity of a
radioactive source and the following results were obtained.
155
(a) Plot a graph of count rate against time. [5]

(b) What count rate appears to have been misread and should therefore be ignored? [1]
(c) At what time was the count rate 250 counts per second? [2]
(d) What is the half-life of the source? [2]
5. [2011-P2-Q11]
Radioactive isotopes can be used to locate internal bleeding in the body. A commonly used
radioactive isotope is iodine - 131. This emits gamma radiation and has a half-life of 8 days.
(a) Describe what is meant by a radioactive isotope. [2]
(b) Describe what is meant by half-life. [2]
(c) The activity of a sample of iodine – 131, was measured over a period of 20 minutes on three
separate occasions. The readings obtained were:
(i) Explain why the readings were not all the same. [1]
(ii) Calculate the average count rate for the radioactive isotope. [1]
(d) A patient has internal bleeding from a blood vessel in her leg. A small quantity of the isotope
Iodine - 131 is injected into her blood stream. A detector is used to find the internal bleeding.
Figure 11.1 shows the arrangement and the results of the test.
(i) State the name of a suitable detector. [1]

(ii) The radioactive isotope used for this purpose is a gamma emitter and not an alpha
emitter. Why is a gamma emitter used? [2]
(iii) How will the doctor tell from the results where the internal bleeding is taking place? [1]
156
6. [2009-P2-Q10]
In an experiment to determine the half-life of radon-220, the following results were obtained, after
allowing for the background count.
(a) By plotting the graph of the count rate (vertically) against time (horizontally), determine the
half-life of Rn. Show clearly on the graph how you obtained the answer. [6]
(b) What is the origin of the background count? [2]
(c) Radon emits alpha particle. When it does so, it becomes an isotope of an element
polonium (Po).
Write an equation to represent this change. [2]
7. [2004-P2-Q10]
Figure 10.1 below shows the decay curve of Polonium - 218 when it decays through alpha emission.
(a) What is half-life? [1]

(b) From the decay curve above, determine the half-life of Polonium - 218. [1]
(c) Explain why Polonium - 218 would be an ideal radioactive substance to use in checking blood
circulation in human beings. [1]
(d) Complete the nuclear equation below to show the nuclear structure of element X. [1]
157
8. [2003-P2-Q13]
(a) State the natures of alpha emissions and beta emissions. [2]
(b) A sample of a radioactive material produced the following results when its emission was
measured at a fixed distance.
(i) Plot a graph of count-rate (y-axis) against time (x-axis) [4]

(ii) What do you understand by the term half-life? [2]
(iii) Use your graph to determine the half-life of the sample. [2]
9. [2001-P2-Q11]
(a) For alpha and beta particles state
(i) their nature
(ii) their relative ionising effect
(iii) their relative penetrating powers. [3]
139
(b) The radioisotope of barium 56Ba, emits a Beta particle and is transformed into the stable
isotope of Lanthanum (La). Express the transformation in symbolic form. [2]

(c) When a suitable counter was placed near a radioactive source of beta particles, the following
rates of emission were obtained at the times shown.
Plot a suitable graph and find the half-life of the source. [5]
158
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. B. Gamma rays are part of the Electromagnetic Spectrum.

2. A
3. D
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. C
13. C
14. B
15. A
16. C
17. D
18. B
19. C
20. A
21. B
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q9]
(a) Alpha is not suitable because all of the particles would be stopped by the paper and none would reach
the detector.
Gamma is not suitable because all of the rays would pass through the paper and reach the detector
even when the thickness of the paper has changed.
(b) The amount of radiation would reduce if thickness of paper is increased. This is because some of the
radiation would be absorbed by the paper.
(c) Count rate varied because the radioactive source had a shorter half-life. It kept on decaying.
(d) (i) Half-life is time taken for half the atoms or nuclei in a given sample of the substance to decay.
(ii) The source with 29 years half-life. The count rate will remain relatively constant for a longer period of
time.
2. [2013-P2-Q9]
(a) (i) There are 132 neutrons present
Neutrons present = mass number – atomic number: 214 – 82 = 132.
(ii) There are 82 electrons present (since the atom is neutral, atomic number = number of electrons).
159
(b) Beta decay produces an atom with an atomic number one greater than before, but with the same mass
number. The mass number remains unchanged.
3. [2013-P2-Q12]
1
(a) (i) Half-life is 1 hours.
2
1
(ii) The initial count rate was 2000. It reduced to 2000/2 = 1000 counts after 1 hours.
2
(b) Properties of a beta particle:

 Has relative charge of -1.
 Each particle is an electron.
 Is deflected by magnetic and electric fields.
(c) By testing penetration through a sheet of paper, a few millimeters of aluminium and a block of lead. The
radiation is a beta source if it penetrates the sheet of paper but gets stopped by the aluminium sheet.
4. [2012-P2-Q10]
(a) Refer to the graph.
160
(b) The 300 counts per second value.

(c) Use the graph. Draw a horizontal line from the 250 count rate/sec until it meets the curve. Then come
down to the time axis and read out the time. It meets the time axis at approximately 43.5 seconds.
(d) Half-life is time taken for half the atoms or nuclei or the count rate in a given sample of the substance to
decay or reduce to half. Initial count rate is 650. Time to reduce to 650/2 = 31.5 seconds as the half-life.
5. [2011-P2-Q11]
(a) Radioactive isotopes are atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but different
mass numbers due to their difference in the number of neutrons and emit radioactive radiation.
(b) Half-life is time taken for half the atoms or nuclei in a given sample of the substance to decay.
(c) (i) This was because of background radiation. Activity of a radioactive source is expected to always
reduce because the sample keeps on decaying over time.
(ii) Average count rate = (338+326+356)/3 = 340
(d) (i) The Geiger Muller tube.
(ii) Alpha particle are less penetrating and would get absorbed by the muscles and none would reach
the detector.
Gamma rays would pass through muscles and reach the detector.
(ii) By noting points on the leg where the count rate is the highest.
6. [2009-P2-Q10]
(a) From the graph, it takes 55 seconds for the count rate to halve (30/2 = 15. Time at 15 count rate is 55
seconds)
161
(b) Background radiation comes from natural sources such as soil, rocks and radon gas seeping out of
rocks.
(c) Loss of an alpha particle lessens atomic mass by four and atomic number by two.
7. [2004-P2-Q10]
(a) Half-life is time taken for half the atoms or nuclei or the count rate in a given sample of the substance to
decay or reduce to half.
(b) From any point on the curve, it always takes approximately 1.5 minutes along the time axis for the
activity to reduce to half. Therefore, half-life is 1.5 minutes.
(c) Because it has a short half. The atoms will decay faster.
(d) Loss of an alpha particle lessens atomic mass by four and also lessens atomic number by two.
8. [2003-P2-Q13]
(a) Nature of:
 Alpha emission is a helium nucleus with a charge of +2.
 Beta emission is an electron with a charge of -1.
162
(b) (i) Refer to the graph.
(ii) Half-life is time taken for half the atoms or nuclei or the count rate in a given sample of the substance
to decay or reduce to half.
(iii) From any point on the curve, it always takes approximately 19.9 minutes along the time axis for the
activity to halve. Therefore, half-life is 19.9 minutes.
9. [2001-P2-Q11]
(a) (i) Nature of:
 Alpha particle: each particle is 2 protons and 2 neutrons and a charge of +2. It is identical to a
helium nucleus.
 Beta particle: each particle is an electron. It has a charge of -1
(ii) Alpha particles are the most ionizing than beta particles.
(iii) Alpha particles are the least penetrating. They can be stopped by a thick sheet of paper. beta
particles are penetrating, but are stopped by a few millimeters of aluminium.
(b) Beta emission increases the atomic number by 1, while the atomic mass remains unchanged.
163
(c) Refer to graph.
164
TOPIC 12. BASIC ELECTRONIC

SECTION A
1 [2015-P1-Q18]. What is the purpose of X-plates and Y-plates in a Cathode Ray Tube?
X-Plates Y-Plates
A Deflecting electrons horizontally Deflecting electrons vertically
B Deflecting electrons vertically Deflecting electrons horizontally
C Accelerating electrons Deflecting electrons vertically
D Deflecting electrons horizontally Accelerating electrons
2 [2013-P1-Q17]. Which of the following is true about cathode rays?

A They are electromagnetic in nature.
B They carry a positive charge.
C They can produce X-rays.
D They are lighter than electrons.
3 [2012-P1-Q18]. The brightness of a spot of light on a CRO screen may be changed by varying the potential
difference across the ...
A Control grid.
B X-plates.
C glass envelope.
D Y-plates.
4 [2011-P1-Q18]. Which part of the Cathode Ray Oscilloscope helps the emitted electrons to come together to
form a fine beam?
A Anode
B Control grid
C Cathode
D X-plates
5 [2010-P1-Q18]. The figure below represents a Cathode Ray Oscilloscope.
Which of the parts labeled A, B, C or D accelerates the electrons towards the screen?
165
6 [2009-P1-Q18]. Which of the following is not a correct statement about cathode rays?
A They are deflected by magnetic and electric fields.
B They have a positive charge.
C They are streams of electrons.
D They travel in straight lines.
7 [2004-P1-Q18]. The gain control of a Cathode Ray Oscilloscope (CRO) is set at 0.3v/cm. If the horizontal
trace is deflected upwards by 0.3cm, what is the unknown voltage applied to the Y-input of the Cathode Ray
Oscilloscope?
A 0.9v
B 0v
C 0.6v
D 1.0v
SECTION B
1 [2015-P2-Q12]
(a) What is Thermionic emission? [1]
(b) With the aid of a clearly labelled diagram of a Cathode Ray Oscilloscope (CRO) explain how a vertical
line of light may be produced on the CRO screen. [7]
(c) State any two properties of cathode rays. [2]
2. [2010-P2-Q9]. Figure 9.1 shows a cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO).
Figure 9.1
(a) Name the process by which electrons are produced in the CRO. [1]
(b) Why is the potential difference between the cathode and anode made very high? [1]
(c) Describe the use of
(i) the Y-plates [1]
(ii) the X-plates [1]
(d) Explain why the CRO should be evacuated. [1]
166
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. A.
2. C.
3. A.
4. A.
5. C.
6. B.
7. A.
SECTION B
1. [2015-P2-Q12]
(a) This is the ejection of electrons from a heated metal surface as a result of absorbing excess energy.
(b) A Cathode Ray Oscilloscope is made up of the cathode, anode, horizontal and vertical deflection plates,
X and Y respectively, all enclosed in an airless tube.
An electron beam is produced at the cathode, focused and accelerated by the anode. The X and Y
plates control the path of the beam as it goes to the screen.
When there is no voltage across the X and Y plates, the electron beam is a straight line casting a spot
on the screen. While keeping the voltage across the X-plate zero and applying an AC voltage of 50Hz to
the Y-plate, the spot oscillates up and down fifty times a second, but so rapidly that it is seen as a
continuous line on the screen.
(c) Properties of cathode rays:
- The ray consist of electrons.
- They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
Note: Other properties are that they travel in a straight line, can cause fluorescence and travel at high
speed.
2. [2010-P2-Q9]
(a) The process is called Thermionic emission.
(b) To accelerate the electrons from the cathode to the screen
(c) (i) Y-plates move the beam of electrons vertically.
(ii) X-plates move the beam of electrons horizontally.
(d) So that the electrons are not obstructed by colliding with gas molecules.
167
CHEMISTRY
TOPICAL
168
TOPIC 1: PARTICULATE NATURE OF MATTER

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q21]. Which changes occur when a liquid at 50°C becomes a gas at 120°C?
Attractive force between

Separation of particles Energy of particles
particles
A decreases increases decreases
B decreases decreases increases
C increases increases decreases
D increases decreases increase
2. [2013-P1-Q21]. Which of the following processes shows that matter is composed of tiny particles.
A Crystallisation
B Expansion
C Freezing
B Melting
3. [2012-P1-Q21]. Which of the following is not one of the basic units of matter?
A Atom
B Ion
C Nucleus
D Molecule
4. [2011-P1-Q21]. Study the diagram below showing the arrangement of particles during change of state of matter.
Which process, A, B, C or D shown in the diagram does ammonium chloride undergo when heated?
5. [2010-P1-Q21]. Diffusion occurs more quickly in a gas than in a liquid because ...
A molecules in a gas have more frequent collisions than those in a liquid.
B gas molecules are larger.
C gas molecules move randomly.
D on average molecules in a gas are further apart than those in a liquid.
6. [2009-P1-Q21]. Which state(s) of matter exist(s) at the freezing point of a substance?

A Solid only
B Solid and liquid
169
C Liquid only
D Liquid and gas
7. [2009-P1-Q28]. Which of the following is true about an exothermic reaction?
A Temperature of the surrounding decreases

B The enthalpy change, ΔH is positive.
C Bonds formed are relatively stronger than bonds broken.
D Heat is absorbed from the surroundings.
8. [2004-P1-Q21]. When a jar of air is placed upside-down on a jar of bromine vapour, the red-brown colour
spreads up into it. After a few minutes, the gas in both jars looks the same. This is so because...
A bromine gas is made up of red particles while air particles are slightly brown.
B there is some elastic force between air particles and bromine particles.
C the force of gravity pulls the particles of air downwards while pushing the bromine particles
upwards.
D the particles of air and bromine collide with each other and bounce about in all directions so that
they become evenly mixed.
9. [2003-P1-Q21]. The figure shows the changes of state of matter.
Which one of the following correctly gives the process P and Q?

P Q
A Sublimation Liquidification
B Condensation Sublimation
C Freezing Evaporation
D Liquidification Melting
10. [2002-P1-Q24]. In which of the following elements are particles of matter closest?
A iodine
B bromine
C nitrogen
D oxygen
SECTION B
11. [2015-P3-Q1]
The basic units of matter are ions, molecules and atoms. Identify the basic unit in each of the following
substances.
(a) Magnesium chloride [1]
(b) Lead [1]
(c) Carbon dioxide. [1]
170
12. [2010-P3-Q1]
Use your knowledge of the kinetic theory of matter to suggest a reason for each of the following
(a) Wet clothes dry more quickly on warm days than cold days. [1]
(b) Solid ice loses its shape when it melts. [1]
(c) Salt dissolves faster in hot water than cold water. [1]
(d) When sugar is dissolved in a glass of water without stirring, all of the water soon tastes sweet. [1]
13. [2009-P3-Q1]
Study the diagram below and answer questions that follow.
NB: d, e, f are processes.
(a) Name the processes d, e and f, [3]

(b) Describe what you would do to convert substance A to B. [1]
(c) State one of the basic units of matter. [1]
14. [2004-P3-Q1]
(a) Compare the movement of particles between solids and liquids.
Solids
Liquids [2]
(b) How are the molecules arranged in a gas? [1]
(c) What is the physical effect of cooling on the three states of matter?
(i) Solid:
(ii) Liquid
(iii) Gas [3]
171
15. [2002-P3-Q3]
The Kinetic particle theory of matter states that all substances contain particles which are moving/in
motion. Use this theory to explain the following:
(a) A solid has its own shape, but / while a liquid takes up the shape of the container. [2]
(b) The pressure exerted by a gas in a sealed container increases with the temperature of the gas. [1]
(c) A gas will move to fill any container. [1]
16. [2001-P3-Q4]
Study the information given in the table below.
R T S P
Melting Point -101°C -73°C -77°C -135°C
Boiling Point -35°C -10°C -33°C -0.5°C
(a) (i) Which substance(s) is / are solid(s) at -75°C? [1]

(ii) Below what maximum temperature do substances R and P exist as solids? [1]
(iii) In what state would you expect substance P to be in when placed in a beaker which is then
put in pure melting ice? [1]
(b) A substance B melts from 10°c to 18°c. Is B a pure substance? Explain your answer. [2]
172
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. C
2. A
3. C
4. C. ammonium chloride sublimes from solid to gas.
5. D
6. B. At freezing, liquid is turning into solid. There is a liquid and solid state of the substance.
7. C. Options A, B and D are all describing an endothermic reaction.
8. D
9. C
10. A. iodine is a solid at room temperature.
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q1]
(a) Ions. Magnesium chloride is an ionic compound containing magnesium , Mg +2 and chloride Cl− ions.
(b) Atom. Lead is an element containing lead atoms.
(c) Molecules. Carbon dioxide exist as molecules.
2. [2010-P3-Q1]
(a) Wet clothes dry faster on a warm day because more of the water molecules have enough energy to
escape the cloth.
(b) Particles in the melted ice (which is now liquid) are less close to each other such that the attractions
cannot hold them in fixed positions. They flow to fill any space. That is why liquids retain their volume
but take up shapes of containers.
(c) Hot water contains fast moving molecules that come into contact with the salt more often, causing it to
dissolve faster.
(d) This is because of diffusion. As the sugar melts, its particles move from a region where they are
concentrated to that where they are less concentrated.
3. [2009-P3-Q1]
(a) By looking at the way particles are packed, A, B and C are liquid, gas and solid respectively.
 Process d is freezing. Liquid is turned into solid.
 Process e is sublimation. The solid is turned directly into gas without going through the liquid state.
 Process f is condensation. The gas is being turned into liquid.
(b) Process A to B is freezing. The liquid must be cooled in a freezer until it turns to solid.
(c) An atom is an example of a basic unit of matter. Other units are ions and molecules.
4. [2004-P3-Q1]
(a) Movement of particles:
 Solids: particles vibrate to and fro but cannot change positions because they are held closely
together by strong forces of attraction.
173
 Liquids: particles are close together but they vibrate strongly such that the attractions cannot hold
them in fixed positions, and they move past each other.
(b) Molecules in a gas are well spaced and virtually free of any attractions. They move about at high speed,
colliding with each other and the walls of their container.
(c) Effects of cooling on:
 Solids undergo contraction when cooled. They reduce in size.
 A liquid changes to solid when cooled.
 Gases condense to liquid when cooled.
5. [2002-P3-Q3]
(a) Solids: particles vibrate to and fro but cannot change positions because they are held closely together
by strong forces of attraction. Therefore, solids have a fixed shape.
Liquids: particles are close together but they vibrate strongly such that the attractions cannot hold them
in fixed positions, and they move past each other. Liquids fill take up the shape of the container.
(b) Gas molecule constantly strike the walls of any container they happen to be in. When temperature
increases, these molecules move faster, striking the walls of the container with greater force, and the
pressure increases as a result.
(c) Gas molecules experience little attraction between them. As such they are well spaced and free to
move around, quickly occupying any space available.
6. [2001-P3-Q4]
(a) (i) Substance T. Its melting point is −73℃ which means it is still solid at −75℃.
(ii) Below −135℃ both P and R are solids.
(iii) Pure ice melts at 0℃ and P boils at −0.5℃. It will be a gas.
(b) B is not a pure substance because a pure substance has a sharp melting point.
174
TOPIC 2: EXPERIMENTAL TECHNIQUES

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q22]. Of the techniques below, which one can be used to separate cellular components of blood
from blood plasma?
A Centrifugation
B Chromatography
C Distillation
D Filtration
2. [2013-P1-Q22]. The diagrams show three sets of apparatus.
What apparatus would be used to obtain separate samples of sand and salt from a mixture of sand and sea
water?
A 1 only
B 1 and 3
C 2 and 3
D 3 only
3. [2013-P1-Q23]. A gas is less dense than air, very soluble in water and is alkaline. Which method is used to
collect a dry sample of the gas?
175
4. [2012-P1-Q22]. Which of the following can be used to measure a volume of 15.6cm3 accurately?
A Burette
B Pipette
C Measuring cylinder
D Volumetric flask
5. [2012-P1-Q23]. A condenser is used in distillation experiments to turn ...
A liquid into gas.
B solid into liquid.
C vapour into gas.
D vapour into liquid.
6. [2015-P1-Q30]. The diagram below shows an experiment which can be used to purify copper metal in the
laboratory. Which of the labelled parts A, B, C or D represents the impure copper?
7. [2011-P1-Q22]. The diagram below shows apparatus used to carry out fractional distillation.
Which part labelled, A, B, C or D represents a ‘fraction’?
176
8. [2011-P1-Q37]. At the water works, the screen ...

A gets rid of the large bits of rubbish.
B traps the larger particles of sand.
C makes smaller particles stick together.
D dissolves and kills any remaining bacteria.
9. [2010-P1-Q23]. If two liquids are miscible, they must be separated by...
A a separating funnel.
B filtration.
C crystallisation.
D fractional distillation.
10. [2010-P1-Q24]. The graph below is a heating curve for a pure substance. It shows how the temperature
rises with time, when the solid is heated until it melts, and then the liquid is heated until it boils.
The melting point of this substance is…

A 0°C
B 17°C
C 100°C
D 115°C
11. [2009-P1-Q22]. A measuring cylinder below is used to measure the volume of a liquid.
What is the volume of the liquid contained in the cylinder?

A 6.3 cm3
B 6.4 cm3
C 6.8 cm3
D 7.2 cm3
177
12. [2009-P1-Q23]. The best and suitable method of collecting pure water from a solution of ink is...
A chromatography.
B distillation
C crystallisation
D filtration
13. [2004-P1-Q33]. Figure 3.1 shows what happens at the work works. In which of the tanks above are
chemicals added to the water to make the smaller particles stick together and then settle to the bottom of the
tank?
14. [2003-P1-Q22]. During chromatography, substance X separates into three spots as shown on the diagram
below.
From the diagram, it can be decided that X contains substance...

A B C D
15. [2001-P1-Q21]. Which one of the following pieces of apparatus is best use to dry a sample of moist
ammonia gas?
178
16. [2015-P1-Q23]. Which apparatus below can be used to measure different volumes of liquid?
A petri-dish
B burette
C pipette
D retort.
17. [2015-P1-Q24]. Three salts, iron (II) sulphate, copper (II) sulphate and barium sulphate were mixed.
What steps should be taken to separate the insoluble salt?
The mixture should be dissolved, stirred and
A filtered.
B distilled.
C evaporated.
D decanted.
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q2]
(a) State any two physical properties that can enable a chemist to identify a substance and test
its purity. [2]
(b) The graphs below show the melting points of drugs A and B.
(i) Which of the substances is pure? [1]

(ii) Explain your answer. [1]
2. [2013-P3-Q4]
Water is an important raw material in the home and in industry.
(a) State two uses of water in industry. [2]
(b) Outline the two main stages in the purification of water. [2]
3. [2012-P3-Q2]
Two miscible liquids with boiling points of 78°C and 100°C were accidentally mixed.
(a) Name the process which can be used to separate the mixture. [1]
179
(b) Draw a labelled diagram showing the arrangement of the apparatus used to separate
the mixture. [3]
(c) Explain how you can obtain hydrated sodium sulphate crystals from an aqueous solution of
sodium sulphate. [2]
4. [2012-P3-Q3]
Paper chromatography was used to catch a forger. A sample of ink, X from a forged signature was
compared with inks from the pens of five suspects. The diagram below shows the chromatogram
obtained:
(a) Draw the apparatus you would use to produce this chromatogram. [3]
(b) Which of the inks A, B, C, D or E could have been used to write the forged signature? [1]
(c) Which of the inks is insoluble in water? [1]
5. [2011-P3-Q2]
Use the list of separation techniques below to answer the questions that follow.
Fractional distillation, Simple distillation, Use of separating funnel, Magnetism,

Chromatography, Evaporation and Filtration.
Choose one method from the list above which can be used to separate:-
(a) Sand from water. [1]

(b) Oil from water. [1]
(c) Water from ink. [1]
(d) Sulphur powder from iron filings. [1]
(e) Salt from paraffin. [1]
6. [2011-P3-Q10]
Crude oil is an important raw material that we need in modern life. Engineers process and refine
crude oil in a tower to produce a number of fractions as shown in the diagram below.
180
(a) Name the process used to separate the fractions of crude oil. [1]
(b) Name the two major elements that are found in crude oil. [2]
(c) State two differences in physical properties between fractions extracted at C and B. [2]
(d) A large proportion of fraction A has the molecular formula CH4 .
Write a balanced chemical equation for the complete combustion of the compound with
chemical formula CH4 . [2]
(e) Crude oil is a non-renewable energy source. Explain what is meant by a non-renewable
source. [1]
(f) Give two reasons why the sun is a better source of energy than crude oil. [2]
7. [2010-P3-Q2]
Below are some processes which are used in a laboratory, industry and at home:
- crystallisation - combustion
- distillation - esterification
- filtration - galvanizing
- neutralisation - polymerisation
(a) Which one of the processes listed above can be used to separate the following from a sample
of sea water?
(i) Salt
(ii) Water
(iii) Sand [3]
(b) State the process from the list of processes above that can be used to:
(i) Manufacture plastic for making buckets.
(ii) Produce carbon dioxide from carbon. [2]
181
8. [2004-P3-Q5]
(a) Explain carefully the difference between cracking and fractional distillation. [4]
(b) Give one use of bitumen. [1]
9. [2004-P3-Q10]
Fractional distillation can be used to separate crude oil into the following fractions; fuel oil, bitumen,
petroleum gases, petrol, kerosene.
(a) (i) Write in order, the names of the fractions, starting with the one having the lower boiling point
obtained from the top of the fractionating column. [1]
(ii) Which of the fractions above contains compounds with the largest relative molecular
mass? [1]
(iii) State one important use in each case for:
Kerosene
Fuel oil [2]
(b) Some oil fractions undergo ‘cracking’ which breaks large molecules into smaller ones. One
such product is ethene, C2H4 which is an unsaturated compound.
(i) What is meant by the term unsaturated? [1]
(ii) Compare the reaction of bromine with ethene and with a named saturated hydrocarbon. [2]
(iii) Describe the conditions needed and name one of the products formed. [2]
(c) Under what condition can bromine react with a saturated hydrocarbon? [1]
10. [2003-P3-Q4]
The diagram below shows the apparatus that could be used to separate and identify components of an
unknown mixture of sugars (u). Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow.
182
After development, the paper looks like this.
(a) What disadvantage has this technique over the one with the solvent moving upwards?
(b) Identify the sugars in the unknown sample using the letters in the diagram. [1]
(c) By what process does the solvent move in the experiment above? [2]
(d) Why should the tank be kept closed in the experiment above? [1]
11. [2002-P3-Q6]
A mixture of common salt and iodine crystals can be separated using the apparatus drawn below.
(a) Identify A and B. [2]

(b) What will be the colour of the solid remaining in the test tube? [1]
(c) Why should this experiment be carried out in a fume cupboard or near an open window? [1]
(d) What is the effect of heat on the following compounds?
Anhydrous aluminium chloride, anhydrous iron (iii) chloride and ammonium chloride? [3]
183
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. A.
2. B.
3. C. Use upward displacement of air. Calcium oxide is a dehydrating compound. It will suck the water away
from anything wet.
4. A. A pipette measures fixed volumes. They are sold as 25, 20, 15 cm3 without any graduations on the bottle.
5. D. condensation is the change of state from vapour (or gas) to liquid.
6. A. The impure copper is made the anode, while a small pure sample is made the cathode. Notice the
Impurities that have collected just below the anode.
7. D
8. A. The screen filters off large pieces of trash such as plastics, chunks of wood etc.
9. D. Miscible liquids are those that completely mix in each other. Immiscible liquids are separated by a
separating funnel.
10. B. Melting point is the temperature at which a solid begins to turn into liquid.
11. C. Each division is 0.4.
12. A
13. A. Chemicals called coagulants are added before the water goes to sediment tank B.
14. A.
15. B. Moist ammonia gas is made to pass from bottom to top through a layer of calcium oxide. Calcium oxide is
a dehydrating compound. It will suck the water away from anything wet.
16. B. Burette measure volumes of up to 50 cm3
17. A.
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q2]
(a) Test for purity:
 Melting and boiling points. Pure substances have a sharp melting point and a steady boiling point.
 Chromatography: a pure substance will produce only one spot on a chromatogram.
(b) (i) Drug A is pure.
(ii) Drug A has a sharp melting point and the temperature remains steady as it melts. Drug B does not
boil at a constant temperature and therefore it is not pure.
2. [2013-P3-Q4]
(a) Industrial uses of water:
 As a solvent.
 As a coolant
Also for cleaning and as a chemical reactant.
(b) Two main stages of purification of water are:
 Filtration and
 Disinfection (e.g. chlorination)
184
3. [2012-P3-Q2]
(a) Fractional distillation. This is because the two liquids boil at different temperatures.
(b) Refer to the figure below.
(c) To separate hydrated sodium sulphate crystals, pour the mixture in a beaker. Allow the solution to be
heated slowly over a Bunsen burner so that the water is evaporated slowly to form a saturated solution
of the salt. The hot solution is allowed to cool so that crystals are formed. The crystals produced on
cooling are filtered off, washed with distilled water and dried between clean tissues.
Note: Crystallisation and not evaporation to dryness is used to obtain hydrated salts from their solution.
This is because hydrated salts decompose easily on heating. Crystallisation is the preferred method of
separating solutes that easily decompose.
4. [2012-P3-Q3]
(a) Refer to the diagram. The solvent will move up separating the inks into their constituents that get
displayed on the chromatography paper. Constituents that are similar coincide on the same horizontal
line. For example, ink X has two similar constituents as ink D.
185
(b) Ink D could have been used.

(c) Ink A is insoluble in water. It did not rise with the solvent.
5. [2011-P3-Q2]
(a) Filtration. Sand is insoluble in water and will remain on a filter paper.
(b) Use of separating funnel.
Reason: The technique is used to separate two liquids that do not mix, but separate into two distinct
layers e.g. water and oil. Oil and water are said to be immiscible. The mixture is poured into the funnel
and the layers allowed to separate. The lower layer is then run off by opening the tap.
(c) Chromatography.
(d) Magnetism. Iron filings are attracted by a magnet, while sulphur powder remains behind.
(e) Evaporation or filtration. This is because salt does not dissolve in paraffin.
Note: Paraffin is an organic compound and said to be nonpolar whereas salt is polar. A polar molecule
is one that has a slight positive charge on one side and a slight negative charge on the other. Water and
all ionic compounds are good examples. Polar dissolves polar and nonpolar dissolves nonpolar.
6. [2011-P3-Q10]
(a) Fractional distillation. The fractions boil at different temperatures.
(b) Carbon and hydrogen. They are in form of hydrocarbons.
(c) Differences in physical properties are;
 Fractions at C have higher boiling points than those at B.
 Fractions at C are denser than those at B.
186
(d) CH4 is methane gas. It burns in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2 O(g)
Note: The state symbol for water is gas and not liquid because the water produced is in vapour
form.
(e) A non-renewable energy source is one that is not being replaced faster than it is being used up.
(f) Reasons:
 Energy from the sun is clean.
 Energy from the sun is available in abundance.
7. [2010-P3-Q2]
(a) (i) Crystallisation. Heat from the sun evaporates the water to leave a saturated solution known as brine.
Then the salt begins to crystalise and is removed using shovels.
(ii) Distillation. Water is heated until it boils. The steam rises into a condenser, where it is turned back
into water, leaving the salt behind. This process is carried out in desalination plants.
(iii) Filtration. Sand is in insoluble in water and will separate by filtering off.
(b) (i) Polymerisation. Plastics are made by joining short chain molecules.
(ii) Combustion. Carbon reacts with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide.
8. [2004-P3-Q5]
(a) Differences:
 Fractional distillation is a physical process, while cracking is a chemical process.
 Cracking involves break down of large molecules into simpler ones, while fractional distillation
does not involve breaking down nut separates components of crude.
 Fractional distillation makes use differences in boiling points of components, while cracking
involves the production of small hydrocarbons without considering their boiling points.
 Catalysts are used in cracking, while fractional distillation does not use catalysts.
(b) Bitumen is used in road surfacing.
9. [2004-P3-Q10]
(a) (i) Fractions in terms of lower to higher boiling point.
 Petroleum gases
 Petrol
 Kerosene
 Fuel oil
 Bitumen
(ii) Kerosene is used as a fuel in jet engines.
Fuel oil is used as a fuel for ships.
(b) (i) Unsaturated means that the compound contains double bonds to which extra atoms can be added
such as hydrogen.
187
(ii) A bromine is decolourised when reacted with ethene. No colour change takes place when bromine
solution is reacted with a saturated hydrocarbon such as methane.
(iii) A catalyst of aluminium oxide and a temperature of about 500℃. Hydrogen may also be formed
during cracking.
(c) Bromine can react with saturated hydrocarbons in a substitution reaction in the presence of Ultraviolet
light. The purpose of the light is to break up the bromine molecule into atoms that are reactive.
Note: saturated hydrocarbons are called Alkanes. This reaction is a substitution reaction because one
or more hydrogen atoms in the alkane get replaced by a bromine atom.
10. [2003-P3-Q4]
(a) The technique is very difficult to set up. This type of chromatography is called descending
chromatography.
(b) The sugars in the unknown sample are A and C. The constituents of A and C coincide with the
constituents of the unknown sugar.
(c) The solvent moves by capillary action then gravity takes over.
(d) To prevent the solvent from evaporating and to create a saturated atmosphere within the container
which helps the solvent to rise.
11. [2002-P3-Q6]
(a) Substance A is iodine crystals whereas B is cotton wool.
Note: iodine sublimes and crystalises back to solid when cooled. The cotton wool is to slow down the
movement of the iodine gas so that there is time for it to turn to solid when it touches the cold walls of
the test tube.
(b) A white powder remains. Solid sodium chloride will remain in the test tube after the iodine has sublimed.
Note: Vapours of Group VII elements (e.g. chlorine, bromine) are poisoning when breathed in.
experiments should be carried out in a fumehood.
(c) This is because large dosages of iodine vapour are harmful to humans.
(d) Effect of heat on:
 Anhydrous aluminium chloride will sublime when heated to 178℃.
 Anhydrous iron (III) chloride melts and become molten.
 Ammonium chloride sublimes when heated.
188
TOPIC 3: ATOMS, ELEMENTS, COMPOUNDS AND MOLECULES

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q23]. Element X has an electronic configuration 2, 8, 8, 1 while that of Y is 2, 8, 6. Which one of
the following is true about the compound formed between X and Y?
A Covalent compound of formula X2 Y.

B Covalent compound of formula XY2.
C Ionic compound of formula XY2 .
D Ionic compound of formula X2 Y.
2. [2015-P1-Q24]. Which one of the following contains a set of three elements?

A Argon, Lime, Water.
B Potassium, Graphite, Nitrogen.
C Silica, Oxygen, Hydrogen
D Copper, Petrol, Alcohol.
3. [2015-P1-Q27]. Ethane C2 H6 burns in oxygen completely according to the balanced equation below.
𝐚C2 H6 + 𝐛O2 ⟶ 𝐞CO2 + 𝐝H2 O
Which of the following sets of coefficients balances the equation correctly?
a b e d
A 1 3.5 2 3
B 1 7 4 5
C 2 7 4 6
D 2 3.5 4 6
4. [2013-P1-Q24]. The symbol for an atom of phosphorus is 31
15P. What does the number 31 for an atom of
phosphorus?
A The number of nucleons.
B The number of protons.
C The position of the atom in the Periodic Table.
D The number of electrons, protons and neutrons.
5. [2013-P1-Q25]. Which pair of elements form a compound by sharing electrons?
A Carbon and chlorine.
B Lithium and iodine.
C Neon and oxygen.
D Potassium and bromine.
6. [2012-P1-Q24]. The diagram below represents the structure of a certain elementary particle, P.
189
Which of the following is not true about P?

A P is an oxide ion.
B P is an isotope of magnesium.
C P has a noble gas electronic structure.
D P has 8 protons in its nucleus.
7. [2012-P1-Q25]. Element Q has atomic number 11 whereas element R has atomic number 8. The compound
formed when atoms of Q and atoms of R react together...
A will be a volatile liquid at r.t.p.
B will be a crystalline solid at r.t.p.
C contains diatomic molecules.
D is soluble in organic solvents but insoluble in water.
8. [2012-P1-Q26]. The formula of lithium phosphate is Li3P04. What is the formula of magnesium phosphate?
A Mg 3 PO4
B MgPO4
C Mg 2 (PO4 )3
D Mg 3 (PO4 )2
9. [2012-P1-Q28]. Which one of the following is likely to be the molecular formula of a hydrocarbon containing
85.7% carbon and 14.3% hydrogen by mass?
A C2 H6
B C3 H8
C C5 H12
D C6 H12
10. [2012-P1-Q32]. What is the ionic equation for the neutralisation reaction between sodium hydroxide and
sulphuric acid?
A 2Na+ (aq) + SO2−4 (aq) → Na2 SO4 (aq)
B Na+ (aq) + OH − (aq) → NaOH(aq)

C H + (aq) + OH − (aq) → H2 O(l)
D 2H+ (aq) + SO2−
4 (aq) → H2 SO4 (aq)
11. [2012-P1-Q38]. In which of the following reactions is the underlined substance being oxidised?
A CO2 (g) +C(s) → 2CO(s)
B MgO(s) +H2 SO4 (aq) → MgSO4 (aq) + H2 O(l)
C HCl(aq) +NaOH(aq) → H2 O(l) + NaCl(aq)
D H2 O2 (aq) +Ag 2 O(s) → H2 O(l) + Ag(s) + O2 (g)
12. [2011-P1-Q23]. Which of the following atomic particles has almost the same mass as a neutron?
A Electron
B Proton
C Sodium ion
D Alpha particle
190
13. [2011-P1-Q24]. Which of the following is not one of the three classes of substances?
A Compound
B Neutron
C Element
D Mixture
14. [2011-P1-Q25]. The formula for Copper (I) Oxide is ...

A CuO
B CuO2
C Cu2 O
D 2CuO
15. [2011-P1-Q26]. The diagram below shows an incomplete electrical circuit. Pieces of elements are placed in
turn between P and T.
Which of the following elements would not cause the light bulb, L, to light?
A Boron
B Beryllium
C Lithium
D Scandium
16. [2010-P1-Q25]. The table below shows the structure of several particles. Which particle is a negative ion?
Particle Electrons Protons Neutrons
A 12 12 12
B 12 12 14
C 10 12 12
D 10 8 8
17. [2010-P1-Q26]. When two atoms share electrons, they form ...
A an ionic compound
B a molecule
C a lattice
D an allotrope
191
18. [2010-P1-Q27]. Calcium nitrate has the ions Ca2+ and NO−
3 . The formula of the compound is...
A CaNO3
B Ca(NO3 )2
C Ca(NO2 )3
D CaNO6
19. [2010-P1-Q28]. What is the formula mass of magnesium nitrate , Mg(NO3 )2 ?
A 54
B 74
C 148
D 296
20. [2010-P1-Q32]. Reaction that is reversible, is shown by using the symbol...
A =
B ≃
C ⇌
D ⟷
21. [2009-P1-Q24]. Which of the following is true about isotopes?
A Two or more elements belonging to the same Group of the Periodic Table.
B They have the same chemical properties.
C They have the same number of nucleons.
D They have the same physical properties.
22. [2009-P1-Q25]. Which of the following sets contain particles with the same number of electrons?
A Sodium, potassium and lithium ion
B Sodium ion, neon and oxide ion
C Helium, neon and argon
D Magnesium, calcium and beryllium
23. [2009-P1-Q27]. Below is a chemical equation.

𝐚C2 H6 + 𝐛O2 → 𝐜CO2 + 𝐝H2 O
What are the correct values of a, b, c and d?
a b c d
A 2 7 4 6
B 1 7 2 3
C 1 5 4 6
D 2 5 4 6
24. [2009-P1-Q28]. Which of the following is true about an exothermic reaction?

A Temperature of the surrounding decreases
B The enthalpy change, ∆H is positive.
C Bonds formed are relatively stronger than bonds broken.
D Heat is absorbed from the surroundings.
192
25. [2009-P1-Q29]. Silver oxide and hydrogen peroxide react as follows:

Ag 2 O + H2 O2 (l) → 2Ag + H2 O + O2
In this reaction hydrogen peroxide acts as...
A a catalyst
B a base
C a reducing agent
D an oxidizing agent
26. [2009-P1-Q31]. Solution R forms a white precipitate with little amount of aqueous ammonia. The precipitate
dissolves in excess aqueous ammonia to form a colourless solution. Which cation is present in R?
A Ca2+
B Al3+
C NH4+
D Zn2+
27. [2004-P1-Q22]. Which of the following atomic particles have almost the same mass as a neutron?
A Proton
B Electron
C Sodium ion
D Alpha particle
28. [2004-P1-Q23]. Which of the following is the correct formula for copper (ll) oxide?
A CuO.
B 2Cu2O.
C CuO2.
D Cu2O.
29. [2004-P1-Q25]. Magnesium burns in air to form magnesium oxide, a white solid. Which of the following
represents the correct equation for the reaction?
A Mg(s) + O2 (g) ⟶ MgO2
B 2Mg(s) + O2 (g) ⟶ 2MgO(s)
C Mg(s) + O2 (g) ⟶ MgO(s)
D Mg 2 (s) + O2 (g) ⟶ 2MgO2
30. [2004-P1-Q28]. Element X has the atomic number 5 and element Y has atomic number 17. The formula of
the covalent compound that would be formed when they combine is;
A XY
B XY2
C XY3
D XY4
193
31. [2004-P1-Q36]. When hydrogen is passed over black powder (copper (ll) oxide), the black powder turns
pink. The reaction is shown in the equation below:
Copper (II) oxide + Hydrogen ⟶ Copper + water.
In this reaction hydrogen is

A the oxidising agent.
B the reducing agent.
C one of the products.
D being reduced.
32. [2004-P1-Q38]. Which compound is represented below?
A Ethane
B Ethene
C Ethanol
D Ethanoic acid
33. [2003-P1-Q23]. The nucleus of atoms contains ...
A protons only
B neutrons only
C neutrons and electrons
D protons and neutrons
24
34. [2003-P1-Q24]. The electronic configuration for magnesium atom 12Mg, …
A Mg (2, 12, 0)
B Mg (2, 8, 2)
C Mg (8, 2, 2)
D Mg (2, 2, 8)
35. [2003-P1-Q25]. Calcium ions (Ca2+ ) and nitrate (NO−

3 ) ions combine to form the compound calcium nitrate.
The chemical formula of the compound formed is ...

A Ca2 NO3
B CaNO3
C Ca(NO3 )2
D CaNO3
194
36. [2003-P1-Q26]. The relative molecular mass of calcium hydrogen carbonate [Ca(HCO3 )2 ] is...
A 102
B 149
C 162
D 201
37. [2002-P1-Q25]. Given right conditions, which of the following reactions would proceed?
A Na2 O + H2
B Al2 O3 + CO
C CuO + CO
D CaO + H2
38. [2002-P1-Q28]. The graph below represents the variations of boiling points of the hydrogen halides with
their relative molecular mass.
What is the explanation for the rather high boiling point of hydrogen fluoride?
A The low molecular mass of hydrogen fluoride makes it volatile
B Van der Waals forces of attraction are very high in hydrogen fluoride
C Hydrogen fluoride molecules have strong intermolecular hydrogen bonds in addition to Van der
Waals forces.
D Hydrogen fluoride forms strong electrostatic forces between its ions
39. [2002-P1-Q29]. Which of the following underlined compounds has been reduced?
A CuO + H2 ⟶ Cu + H2 O
B N2 +3H3 ⟶ 2NH3
C FeO + CO ⟶ CO2
D Zn + Cu2+ ⟶ Cu + Zn2+
40. [2001-P1-Q22]. An atom of an element has a representation 39
19 X . Which statement below correctly applies
to this element?
A Its nuclide has 20 protons and 19 neutrons.
B its nuclide has 19 protons and 20 neutrons.
C It has 19 electrons and 20 protons as a neutral atom.
D It has 20 electrons and 19 protons as a neutral atom.
195
41. [2001-P1-Q25]. Elements, P and R have atomic numbers 7 and 12 respectively. What is the formula of the
compound formed between P and R?
A PR
B P2 R
C P3 R 2
D P2 R 3
42. [2001-P1-Q27]. Which of the following is a correct equation for the reaction of water and calcium metal?
A Ca + H2 O ⟶ CaOH + H
B 2Ca + 2H2 O ⟶ 2CaOH + H2
C Ca + 2H2 O ⟶ Ca(OH)2 + H2
D Ca + 2H2 O ⟶ Ca(OH)2 + 2H
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q8]
The chemical equation below represents a redox reaction.
CH4(g) + Cl2(g) ⟶ CH3 Cl(l) + HCl(g)
(a) Define the term oxidation in terms of hydrogen. [2]

(b) In the above chemical equation, state the substance that is
(i) oxidised. [1]
(ii) the reducing agent [1]
(c) Give two other examples of reducing agents. [2]
2. [2015-P3-Q9].
Study the information about W, X, Y and Z.
196
(a) Identify the solids above by placing a tick { √ } in the table below. [4]
Substance Element Compound Mixture
(b) Define an element. [2]
3. [2013-P3-Q1].
35
Chlorine has two isotopes, 17Cl and 37
17Cl
(a) Define the term isotopes. [1]

(b) State the number of neutrons in each of the following isotopes of chlorine.
(i) chlorine - 35: [1]
(ii) chlorine - 37: [1]
(c) (i) Draw the atomic structure of an atom of chlorine. [1]
(ii) Give the formula of a chloride ion. [1]
(d) Explain why the relative atomic mass of chlorine on the Periodic Table is not a whole number. [1]
4. [2013-P3-Q3].
(a) Define relative molecular mass (Mr). [1]
(b) Potassium carbonate reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to form potassium sulphate, carbon
dioxide gas and water.
(i) Construct a balanced chemical equation, including state symbols for the reaction above. [2]
(ii) Calculate the mass of potassium sulphate produced when 2.0g of potassium carbonate
reacts with an excess of dilute sulphuric acid. [2]
(c) What is the identity test of the gas produced in the reaction above? [1]
5. [2012-P3-Q4].
The diagram below represents electronic arrangement of a particular atom. Study this diagram and
answer the questions that follow.
197
(a) The relative atomic mass of the atom represented is 23.

(i) What is its proton number? [1]
(ii) What is its neutron number? [1]
(b) (i) In which group of the Periodic Table is the element found? [1]
(ii) Explain your answer in (b) (i). [1]
6. [2012-P3-Q5].
The diagram below shows the action of hydrogen on copper (II) oxide.
During this reaction copper (II) oxide is changed to copper and steam is produced.
(a) Construct a balanced chemical equation including state symbols for the reaction. [2]
(b) In this reaction, state the oxidizing agent. [1]
(c) Describe the colour change that occurs on the copper (II) oxide as the reaction progresses. [2]
(d) What type of reaction is taking place in the diagram above? [1]
7. [2012-P3-Q10]
(a) Nuclides of magnesium and calcium are shown below.
What do the following numbers tell you about these atoms?

(i) 24 in the nuclide for magnesium? [1]
(ii) 20 in the nuclide for calcium? [1]
(b) Draw the electronic structure of the atom of magnesium. [1]
(c) Describe how the electronic structures of magnesium and calcium indicate that they are both
in the same group of the periodic table. [1]
(d) An atom A (atomic number 11) burns in chlorine to produce a white solid chloride B. What is
the charge on the atom
(i) before the reaction? [1]
(ii) after the reaction? [1]
(e) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction in (d) above. [2]
(f) State the type of bonding found in chloride B and discuss one of its properties. [2]
198
8. [2011-P3-Q1]
Use the information in the table to answer the following questions.
Substance Conducts electricity when solid Melting point/°C Dissolves in water
Sodium chloride No 808 Yes
Sulphur No 113 No
Tungsten Yes 3377 No

Wax No 35-50 No
Aluminium Yes 660 No
(a) (i) Name one metal from the table. [1]

(ii) How can you tell from the table that the substance you have chosen in (a) (i) is a metal? [1]
(b) How can you tell from the table that wax is a mixture? [1]
(c) (i) Name a compound from the table. [1]
(ii) Explain the meaning of the word compound. [1]
9. [2011-P3-Q3].
Element E whose proton number is 7 combines with hydrogen to form a gas.
The diagram below shows the bonding in one molecule of this gas
(a) Identify element E. [1]

(b) What is the name of the gas? [1]
(c) Write the chemical formula of the gas. [1]
(d) What type of bonding holds the atoms together in this compound? [1]
(e) State one physical property of the gas that is due to the type of bonding it has. [1]
(f) Name another compound which has the same type of bonding. [1]
10. [2010-P3-Q3]
An element has an isotope with the nucleon number of 7. Each neutral atom of this isotope has
three electrons and a nucleus containing two different types of particles
(a) (i) Give the names of these particles and the number of each particle present in each
nucleus. [2]
199
Name of Particle Number of Particles
(ii) Compare the masses and the electrical charges of these particles. [2]
(b) What is the difference in the nuclei of this isotope and its isotope whose nucleon number
is 6? [1]
11. [2010-P3-Q7]
Oxidation can be described as either the addition of oxygen to a substance or the removal of
hydrogen from a substance. Study the reactions given below and state whether the substance
underlined has been reduced or oxidized.
(a) (i) Copper (II) oxide + ammonia → copper + nitrogen + water [1]
(ii) Carbon dioxide + carbon → carbon monoxide [1]
(iii) Iron(ii) oxide + aluminium → aluminium oxide + iron [1]
(b) Steam reacts with carbon as shown in the chemical equation below.
H2 O(g) + C(s) → H2 (g) + CO(g)
Identify the oxidizing agent. Give a reason for your answer. [2]
Oxidizing agent………………………..
Reason…………………………………
12. [2004-P3-Q2]
Study the electronic configurations of sodium and chlorine atoms.
Sodium: 2.8.1
Chlorine: 2.8.7
(a) What is the charge on the sodium atom? [1]

(b) How many outer-shell electrons are there around a chloride ion? [1]
(c) Write the equation for the reaction between sodium and chlorine. [2]
(d) Why is the relative atomic mass of chlorine not a whole number? [1]
(e) In the ionic compound of sodium and chlorine how are the two ions held together? [1]
13. [2003-P3-Q1]
(a) Magnesium oxide is an ionic compound where as carbon dioxide is a covalent compound. By
means of suitable electronic diagrams illustrate the bonding in these two compounds. [4]
(b) Give two general properties which are associated with compounds containing ionic bonds. [2]
14. [2003-P3-Q8]
In the reaction between methane and oxygen, the energy given out when new bonds are made is
greater than the energy taken in to break the old bonds.
200
(a) In terms of energy change, what type of reaction takes place between methane and oxygen? [1]
(b) Give an everyday application of the type of reaction in part (a). [1]
(c) Name one chemical process in which the opposite of what happens in the reaction between
methane and oxygen is observed. [1]
(d) Write a chemical equation for the process mentioned in part (c). [1]
15. [2002-P3-Q4]
The diagram below represents electron (x) arrangement of a particular atom. Study this diagram and
answer the questions that follow.
(a) The relative atomic mass of the atom represented is 32.

(i) What is its nucleon number? [1]
(ii) What is the neutron number of the atom? [1]
(b) (i) In which Group of the Periodic Table is the element found? [1]
(ii) Explain your answer in (b) (i). [1]
16. [2002-P3-Q10]
A metal X (atomic Number 19) burns in chlorine to produce a white solid chloride Y.
(a) By means of diagrams illustrate the arrangement of electrons in X.
(i) Before and
(ii) after the reaction [2]
(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. [2]
(c) Discuss the following properties of Y, account for them as far as possible.
(i) melting point
(ii) solubility
(iii) electrical conductivity [3]
(d) (i) What type of bonding would you expect to find in a chloride whose properties are different
from those of y discussed in part (c) above?
(ii) State the name and formula of such a chloride. [2]
17. [2001-P3-Q2]
The diagram below shows the dot and cross structure of compound R showing all the shells and the
electrons.
201
(a) Use the Periodic Table to deduce the chemical and structural formulae of compound R. [2]
(b) Compare the bonding in compound R to that in calcium chloride. [1]
(c) Explain the difference in electrical conductivity between compound R and calcium chloride
when in liquid form. [2]
18. [2001-P3-Q3]
Silicon, whose atomic number is 14, consists of three isotopes.
Isotopic mass Percentage abundance by numbers of atoms
92.2
28.0
29.0 4.7
30.0 3.1
(a) What are isotopes? [1]

(b) State the number of neutrons in the heaviest isotope of silicon. [1]
(c) Chlorine is in group VII and argon is in group 0.
(i) Show the complete electronic configuration of the atoms of the two elements.
Chlorine:
Argon: [2]
(ii) Suggest why argon is placed in group 0. [1]
(iii) State one use of argon. [1]
202
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. D. Element X is a metal and Y is a non-metal. Confirm using the periodic table.

2. B. Graphite is a form of carbon. It is an Allotrope. The other allotrope of carbon is diamond.
3. C. Balance the carbon first, then hydrogen and finally oxygen. In case you find a fraction for oxygen, multiply
the whole equation by its denominator to have whole numbers. Decimals are not allowed.
4. A. The top figure represents the atomic mass or nucleon number. It is the sum of protons and neutrons in an
atom.
5. A. Only reactions between non-metals involve sharing of electrons, while transfer of electrons occurs
between a metal and non-metal, forming ions.
6. B. Notice the extra two electrons (crosses) on the outer shell that are responsible for the -2 charge.
7. B. Use periodic table to identify Q and R. Sodium oxide is a crystalline solid that is soluble in water and
insoluble in organic solutions.
8. D. The phosphate radical is PO−3 +2
4 and magnesium ion is Mg . Use the “cross-over” method.
9. D.
10. C
11. D. Silver oxide has been reduced whereas hydrogen peroxide has been oxidised.
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. A. Boron is a metalloid. They only conduct electricity at very high temperatures.
16. D. Negative ions have more electrons than protons. Positive ions have more protons than electrons.
17. B
18. B. Use the “cross-over” method. Swap the exponents of the ion and the radical.
19. C
20. C
21. B. They have different physical properties (e.g. density) due to their difference in masses. But have same
chemical properties because they contain the same number of electrons.
22. B. All contain 10 electrons.
23. A
24. C
25. C
26. D. Aqueous ammonia is ammonium hydroxide. Zinc ions form a white precipitate zinc hydroxide.
27. A
28. A
29. B
30. C
31. B
32. B. Notice the double bond between the carbon atoms.
33. D
34. B
203
35. C. Use the “cross-over” method. Swap the exponents of the ion and the radical.
36. C
37. C. Heated copper (II) oxide, CuO is reduced to copper by hydrogen or carbon monoxide.
38. C
39. B. Reduction is also defined as addition of hydrogen to form a compound
40. B
41. D. Use the “cross-over” method. Swap the exponents of the ion and the radical.
42. C
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q8]
(a) Oxidation is the loss of hydrogen from a compound.
(b) (i) Methane gas has been oxidised since it has lost a hydrogen atom.
(ii) Methane gas is a reducing agent since it has donated a hydrogen atom.
Note: reducing agents get oxidised whereas oxidising agents get reduced.
(c) Examples of reducing agents:

 Carbon monoxide.
 Hydrogen e.g. reduction of copper (II) oxide to copper upon heating.
2. [2015-P3-Q9]
(a) Refer to the table.
Substance Element Compound Mixture
W √
X √
Y √
Z √
(b) An element is a substance which cannot be chemically split up into two or more simpler substances.
3. [2013-P3-Q1]
(a) Isotopes are atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but different atomic mass due
to their difference in the number of neutrons.
(b) Number of neutron = mass number – atomic number
 Chlorine -35: neutrons = 35 – 17 = 18
 Chlorine -37: neutrons = 37 – 17 = 20
(c) (i) Atomic structure of chlorine.
204
(ii) Chlorine forms ions by gaining an electron to have a noble gas electronic configuration. Chlorine
ion is Cl− .
(d) Because it is a weighted average of all chlorine isotopes found in nature relative to the mass of carbon-
12.
4. [2013-P3-Q3]
(a) Relative molecular mass is the sum of relative atomic masses of atoms in a compound or molecule.
(b) (i) Reaction equation:
K 2 CO3(s) + H2 SO4(aq) → K 2 SO4(aq) + CO2(g) + H2 O(l)
(ii) From the balanced equation and on mass basis, insert below the equation masses of K 2 CO3 and
K 2 SO4 only.
Balanced equation: K 2 CO3(s) + H2 SO4(aq) → K 2 SO4(aq) + CO2(g) + H2 O(l)
Mass ratio: 138 g yields 174 g

2g yields x
2 × 174
x= = 2.5 g of potassium sulphate
138
(c) Carbon dioxide turns lime water milky.
5. [2012-P3-Q4]
(a) (i) Proton number is the number of protons in the atom. This number is equal to the number of electrons
in a neutral (zero charge) atom. There are 11 electrons. The proton number is therefore 11.
(ii) Neutron number is the number of neutrons in the atom. Atomic mass of an atom is equal to the sum
of the proton and neutron number. Therefore, neutron number is 23 – 11 = 12.
(b) (i) The given atom is in Group I of the periodic table.
(ii) This is because it has only one (1) electron in its outer shell. Number of electrons in the outer shell is
equal to the group number of the element e.g. Group II elements have 2 electrons in their outer shell
and so on.
6. [2012-P3-Q5]
(a) The state symbol for water should be (g) and not (l) since it is steam. The reaction is:
CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2 O(g)
(b) Copper (II) oxide is the oxidising agent since it has donated oxygen to hydrogen. It has oxidised
hydrogen to steam.
(c) The copper (II) oxide changes from black to reddish brown or pink.
(d) Oxidation-reduction reaction or Redox for short.
205
7. [2012-P3-Q10]
(a) (i) 24 stands for relative atomic mass of magnesium.
(ii) 20 stands for atomic number of calcium
(b) Magnesium is in period 3 and in Group II of the periodic table. This means it has three shells and there
are 2 electrons in the outer shell.
(c) Elements of the same group contain the same number of electrons in their outer shells. Calcium has an
electronic configuration 2:8:8:2 whereas magnesium has 2:8:2. Both have a valence of 2.
(d) (i) Charge is zero before the reaction. The atom is neutral.
(ii) It will have a charge of +1. Atom A has electronic configuration of 2:8:1. It loses the outer electron
To the chlorine atom.
(e) From the periodic table atom A is sodium. Remember that chlorine exists as a molecule Cl2 .
2A(s) + Cl2(g) → 2ACl(s)
(f) The reaction is between a metal and non-metal. The bond formed is ionic.
Property: have a high melting point.
8. [2011-P3-Q1]
(a) (i) Tungsten
(ii) It conducts electricity in solid state, has a high melting point and does not dissolve in water.
(b) It does not have a fixed melting point. It melts between 35 – 50℃.
(c) (i) Sodium chloride is a compound. It is made up of sodium and chlorine.
(ii) A compound is a substance formed when two or more elements chemically combine together.
9. [2011-P3-Q3]
(a) Element E is Nitrogen. (use periodic table)
(b) Ammonia. Nitrogen reacts with hydrogen to form ammonia gas.
(c) Chemical formula of ammonia: NH3 .
(d) Covalent bonding. The atoms are sharing electrons to form bonds.
(e) Has a low boiling point.
(f) Carbon dioxide.
10. [2010-P3-Q3]
(a) Any atom contains three different particles. Electrons, protons and neutrons. Electrons are found in
shells around the nucleus, while protons and neutrons make up the nucleus.
206
Name of Particle Number of Particles

Proton 3
Neutron 4
(ii) A proton has a mass of 1 and carries a charge of +1 whereas a

neutron has a mass of 1 and carries zero charge.
(b) The number of electrons and protons are the same, but they have different number of neutrons.
Isotope-7 has one more neutron than isotope-6.
Isotope-7: neutrons = 7 - 3 = 4
Isotope-6: neutrons = 6 - 3 = 3
11. [2010-P3-Q7]
(a) (i) Ammonia has been oxidised. It has lost hydrogen.
(ii) Carbon dioxide has been reduced to carbon monoxide. It has lost some of the oxygen.
(ii) Aluminium has been oxidised. Oxygen has been added to it.
(b) Steam is the oxidising agent.
Reason: it has donated oxygen to the carbon.
Note: steam has been reduced to hydrogen. Substances that get reduced are oxidising agents whereas
substances that get oxidised are reducing agents.
12. [2004-P3-Q2]
(a) The sodium atom has 11 electrons. It has not lost any and so it has zero charge.
(b) There are 8 electrons in the outer shell of the chloride ion. It has gained one extra electron for it to be an
ion.
(c) Chlorine exists as a diatomic molecule , Cl2 .
2Na(s) + Cl2(g) → 2NaCl(s)
(d) Because it is a weighted average of all chlorine isotopes found in nature relative to the mass of carbon-
12.
(e) They are held together by electrostatic forces. They are oppositely charged ions that attract each other.
13. [2003-P3-Q1]
(a) The bonding in magnesium oxide is ionic whereas bonding in carbon dioxide is covalent.
 Magnesium oxide
207
 Carbon dioxide
(b) General properties of ionic bonds:

 They conduct electricity in molten or aqueous state.
 They have high melting points.
14. [2003-P3-Q8]
(a) The reaction is an exothermic reaction. This is because energy is given out.
(b) Respiration.
(c) A good example is the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate. The energy taken in to break
existing bonds is greater that the energy given out when new bonds are formed.
(d) Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate is:
Heat
CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
15. [2002-P3-Q4]
(a) (i) Nucleon number is the same as atomic mass. Nucleon number is therefore 32.
(ii) Neutron number is the number of neutrons in the atom. It is the difference between atomic mass and
atomic number. Number of neutrons = 32 – 16 = 16.
(b) (i) The given atom is in Group VI of the periodic table.
(ii) This is because it has six electrons in its outer shell. Number of electrons in the outer shell is equal
to the group number of the element e.g. Group II elements have 2 electrons in their outer shell and
so on.
16. [2002-P3-Q10]
(a) Electronic configuration of metal X is: 2:8:8:1
(i) Before the reaction:
(ii) After the reaction, element X loses the electron in the outer shell to become a positively charged
ion, X + .
208
(b) Chlorine exists as a diatomic molecule, Cl2 . It will take two atoms of X to react with two atoms of chlorine
gas.
2X(s) + Cl2(g) → 2XCl(s)
(c) (i) Y has a high melting point because of strong electrostatic forces between the particles.
(ii) Y is highly soluble in water but not in organic solvents such as benzene. It completely ionises when
dissolved.
(iii) Y conducts electricity when melted or dissolved in water. Electrons are transferred by the movement
of ions.
(d) (i) Covalent bonding. Covalent compounds have low melting points, are soluble in covalent organic
solvents and do not conduct electricity.
(ii) Polyvinylchloride (PVC). It is a covalent compound of carbon and chlorine.
17. [2001-P3-Q2]
(a) From the periodic table, the middle atom is Carbon (atomic number 6) and those on its sides are
sulphur atoms. The three atoms are joined by double covalent bonds (two electrons make a single
bond. Four electron make a double bond)
 Chemical formula is CS2
 Structural formula is S = C = S
(b) The bonding in compound R is covalent since electrons are being shared whereas the bonding in
calcium chloride is ionic.
(c) Compound R does not breakdown into ions when dissolved in water and so it does not conduct
electricity. Calcium chloride breaks down into ions when dissolved in water and so conducts electricity.
18. [2001-P3-Q3]
(a) Isotopes are atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but different atomic mass due
to their difference in the number of neutrons.
(b) The heaviest isotope is silicon – 30. Number of neutrons = 30 – 14 = 16
(c) (i) Electronic configurations are:
 Chlorine 2:8:7
 Argon 2:8:8
(ii) It has a complete and stable electronic configuration of 8 electrons in the outer shell.
(iii) Argon is used to fill light bulbs to prevent the tungsten filament from reacting with air.
209
210
TOPIC 4: ACIDS BASES AND SALTS

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q31]. Which ions form the net ionic equation when aqueous solutions of ethanoic acid and sodium
hydroxide react together?
A Ethanoate ions and sodium ions.
B Ethanoate ions and hydroxide ions.
C Hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions.
D Hydrogen ions and sodium ions.
2. [2015-P1-Q32]. A solution of pH less than 7 is ...

A acidic.
B amphoteric.
C basic.
D neutral.
3. [2015-P1-Q33]. Which one of the following salts can be suitably prepared by precipitation method?
A BaSO4
B BaCl2
C Ba(NO3 )2
D Pb(NO3 )2
4. [2013-P1-Q32]. What is the identity test of the gas formed when an ammonium salt reacts with an alkali?
A It relights a glowing splint.
B It turns damp red litmus paper blue.
C It burns with a ‘pop’ sound.
D It turns limewater milky.
5. [2013-P1-Q33]. Which of the salts below can be prepared by a titration method?
A Copper (II) sulphate.
B Aluminium nitrate.
C Ammonium chloride.
D Barium sulphate.
6. [2012-P1-Q32]. What is the ionic equation for the neutralisation reaction between sodium hydroxide and
Sulphuric acid?
A 2Na+ (aq) + SO2−
4 (aq) → Na2 SO2 (aq)
B Na+ (aq) + OH − (aq) → NaOH(aq)

C H + (aq) + OH − (aq) → H2 O(l)
D 2H+ (aq) + SO2−
4 (aq) → H2 SO4 (aq)
7. [2012-P1-Q33]. Which of the following oxides dissolves in both acid and alkali?
A ZnO
B CuO
C SiO
D Fe2 O3
211
8. [2011-P1-Q28]. Acids act alike because they all contain ...

A sulphate ions.
B hydrogen ions.
C hydroxide ions.
D cations.
9. [2011-P1-Q29]. A solution X formed a white precipitate with silver nitrate which was insoluble in nitric acid.
What could solution X contain?
A Silver chloride
B Sodium carbonate
C Barium nitrate
D Ammonium chloride
10. [2011-P1-Q30]. Slaked lime is added to liquid waste from factories in order to ...
A protect the water.
B protect aquatic creatures.
C minimise the H+ ions in the water.
D minimise the OH − ions in the water.
11. [2010-P1-Q33]. The lower the pH number of a substance ...

A the more OH − ions it contains.
B the fewer H + ions there are.
C the more H + ions there are.
D the less acidic it is.
12. [2010-P1-Q34]. Which of the following does not produce a salt when it reacts with an acid?
A Metal oxide
B Ammonia solution
C Metal hydrogen carbonate
D Pure water
13. [2010-P1-Q38]. Which of the following is a neutral oxide?
A Nitrogen dioxide
B Magnesium oxide
C Carbon dioxide
D Carbon monoxide
14. [2009-P1-Q30]. Which of the following salts can be crystallized from an aqueous solution?
A Barium sulphate
B Lead (II) sulphate
C Silver chloride
D Ammonium sulphate
15. [2004-P1-Q26]. Acids act alike because they all contain ...
A nitrate
B hydrogen ions
C sulphate ions
D chloride ions
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16. [2004-P1-Q27]. In which of the following are the oxides classified correctly as acidic, basic or amphoteric?
Calcium oxide Zinc Oxide Carbon dioxide
A Basic Amphoteric acidic
B Acidic Basic Amphoteric
C Amphoteric Basic Acidic
D Amphoteric Acidic Basic
17. [2003-P1-Q30]. Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts faster with magnesium ribbon than ethanoic acid of the same
concentration because hydrochloric acid...
A produces more hydrogen ions than ethanoic acid
B produces more chloride ions than ethanoic acid
C produces more hydroxide ions than ethanoic acid
D has a pH value close to 14.
18. [2003-P1-Q31]. In order to precipitate an insoluble salt, you must mix a solution that contains its positive
ions with another one containing ...
A its negative ions
B hydrogen ions
C hydroxide ions
D insoluble substance
19. [2002-P1-Q21]. Two turnings of calcium were dropped into a beaker of water and a test-tube was inverted
over them as shown below.
After a while red litmus paper was dipped in the solution above the calcium.
A Red litmus paper turns pink
B Nothing happens to red litmus paper
C Red litmus paper turns blue
D Red litmus changes to purple.
20. [2002-P1-Q35]. Which one of the following dissolved in water, produces a white precipitate when added to
dilute hydrochloric acid?
A calcium nitrate
B magnesium sulphate
C silver sulphate
D sodium nitrate
21. [2001-P1-Q29]. In an effort to prepare a salt, granules of a metal were put in a beaker and covered with
dilute sulphuric acid. The metal dissolved with effervescence and hydrogen gas was given off. The reaction
mixture was then gently warmed until no further reaction took place. Which salt would best be prepared in
this manner?
213
A Iron (II) sulphate

B Copper (II) sulphate
C Lead (II) sulphate
D Zinc sulphate
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q12]
Silver chloride is an insoluble salt which can be prepared in a laboratory using two soluble
salts.
(a) Define a salt. [1]
(b) Name two reagents that can be reacted together to prepare silver chloride in the laboratory. [2]
(c) Describe how you would obtain a pure, dry sample of silver chloride from the mixture in (b)
above. [4]
(d) Construct an ionic equation with state symbols for the above reaction. [2]
(e) Identify the type of reaction taking place in (c) above. [1]
2. [2013-P3-Q2]
The table below shows the properties of an alkali, an acid and a salt solution,
(a) Complete the table. [5]
Solution Approximate pH Ions present

(i) (ii)
Na+ , OH −
(iii) (iv)
Hydrochloric acid
Sodium chloride 7 (v)
(b) Name the two solutions from the table which, when mixed together, form a solution of sodium
chloride. [1]
3. [2013-P3-Q9].
Copper (II) sulphate (CuSO4 ) is a soluble salt prepared by using sulphuric acid as one of the
starting materials.
(a) Define a salt. [1]
(b) (i) Name one other reagent which must be reacted with dilute sulphuric acid to form
copper (II) sulphate. [1]
(ii) Construct a balanced chemical equation for the reaction in b (i) above. [2]
(c) Describe briefly how a dry sample of copper (II) sulphate can be prepared from the named
reagents in (b). [4]
(d) Will the method in part (c) above be suitable to prepare a sample of potassium chloride?
Give a reason for your answer. [2]
214
4. [2011-P3-Q11]
Barium sulphate (BaSO4 ) is an insoluble salt which is prepared by precipitation.
(a) Using sodium sulphate as one of the reactants:
(i) name the other reactant you would use to prepare barium sulphate. [1]
(ii) write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. Include state symbols [2]
(iii) write an ionic equation for the reaction. [1]
(b) Briefly explain how you would obtain a fairly pure dry sample of the salt. [3]
(c) Name one salt that can be prepared by the reaction of a metal with a dilute acid. [1]
(d) Calcium chloride (CaCl2 ) can be prepared by reacting calcium carbonate and dilute
hydrochloric acid as shown in the equation below:
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2 O(l)
Calculate the mass of calcium chloride produced by 150g of calcium carbonate. [2]
5. [2010-P3-Q5]
A spillage of 9.8 tonnes of sulphuric acid results from an accident by a road tanker. Slaked lime is
used to neutralize the acid.
(a) State the effect of the acid on the vegetation. [1]
(b) The chemical equation for the neutralization reaction is given below:
H2 SO4 (aq) + Ca(OH)2 (s) → CaSO4 (s) + H2 O(l)
(i) Balance the equation. [1]

(ii) Calculate the mass of slaked lime needed to neutralize 9.8 tonnes of spilt sulphuric acid. [2]
(iii) State one use of lime in agriculture. [1]
(c) Explain why sulphuric acid is said to be a strong acid. [1]
6. [2010-P3-Q11]
(a) Define a salt and give one example. [2]
(b) Iron (II) sulphate (FeSO4 ) can be prepared by reacting iron metal and dilute sulphuric acid.
(i) Write a balanced equation for the reaction. [2]
(ii) Which reactant should be in excess? Give a reason for your answer. [2]
(c) How would you obtain fairly pure dry crystals of iron (II) sulphate from its solution? [3]
(d) Name a salt that can be prepared by precipitation. [1]
7. [2009-P3-Q7].
Barium sulphate is an insoluble. Describe briefly how a pure, dry sample of barium sulphate can
be prepared using sodium sulphate as one of the reagents. [5]
8. [2004-P3-Q6].
(a) What is the pH of pure water? [1]
(b) When ammonia is bubbled into water does it become acidic or alkalinic? [1]
(c) Does the pH of the water increase or decrease? [1]
(d) Outline the treatment of the domestic water supply. [2]
215
9. [2003-P3-Q5]
The table below shows the properties of certain oxides.
When added to water

Oxide State at room temperature Is energy given out? pH of the solution
V Solid No Above 7
W Solid Yes Above 7
X Solid No -
Y Gas Yes Below 7
Z Gas No Below 7
(a) (i) Which oxide reacts when added to water? [1]

(ii) Give a reason for your answer in (a) (i). [1]
(iii) Which oxide contains only non-metals? [1]
(b) Suggest a reason for not indicating the pH for oxide X. [1]
10. [2003-P3-Q6]
25cm3 of 0.02M sodium hydroxide solution reacts with 20cm3 of sulphuric acid.
(a) Calculate the concentration of the acid that reacted completely with the base. Write your
answer in mol/dm3. [4]
(b) What is neutralisation? [1]
(c) Give two classes of substances that can react with an acid apart from the base. [2]
11. [2003-P3-Q11]
A bright green solid of compound A was reacted according to the reaction scheme below:
216
(a) Identify the substances A, B, C, D and F. [5]

(b) Write chemical equations for each of the changes.
(i) Heat on bright green powder A to form solid F. [2]
(ii) Action of sodium hydroxide on green solution B. [2]
(c) Name the type of reaction in (b) (ii). [1]
12. [2002-P3-Q7]
The information contained on bottled water for the consumer is as follows:
pH = 7.4
Dissolved minerals (ions) in mg/litre
Calcium <0.10
Chloride 10.00
Iron <0.01
Magnesium <0.10
Nitrate 0.05
Potassium 0.19
Sodium 12.00
Sulphate <0.10
Using this information answer the following:

(a) Explain why the bottled water is not neutral. [1]
(b) Give a reason as to why the chloride is in greater concentration among the dissolved minerals. [1]
(c) Suggest how you would bring this bottled water to the pH value of 7. [2]
(d) Using the above given information calculate the mass of chloride that is found in one million
litres of the bottled water. [3]
217
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. C. this is a reaction between an acid and base.

2. A
3. A. BaSO4 is an insoluble salt. Generally, insoluble salts are prepared by precipitation.
4. B
5. C. Salts of group I elements and ammonium salts are prepared by titration.
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. D
10. C
11. C
12. D
13. D
14. D
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. A
19. C
20. C
21. D
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q12]
(a) A salt is a compound formed when all or part of ionisable hydrogen atoms in an acid are replaced by a
cation (positively charged ion).
(b) Silver nitrate and sodium chloride.
The two reagents must be soluble in water to obtain a precipitate.
(c) Pure silver chloride can be obtained by filtering off the crystals, wash them in distilled water and place
them on a filter-paper to dry.
Note: the washing with distilled water is to remove the surface solution from the crystals and replace it
with pure water, as it dries off, will not deposit impurities as would the solution. The filter-paper is used
to absorb water from the surfaces of the crystals.
(d) Firstly, write down a balanced equation with state symbols. Express all aqueous compounds in terms of
the ions and radicals they are made of. Cancel out ions and radicals that appear on either side of the
equation in the same state. What remains is the net ionic equation.
218
Balanced equation: AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → NaNO3(aq) + AgCl(s)

Ions and radicals: Ag +
(aq) + NO− + − + −
3(aq) + Na(aq) + Cl(aq) → Na(aq) + NO3(aq) + AgCl(s)
Cancelling out: Ag + − + − + −
(aq) + NO3(aq) + Na(aq) + Cl(aq) → Na(aq) + NO3(aq) + AgCl(s)
Net ionic equation is: Ag + −

(aq) + Cl(aq) → AgCl(s)
(e) The reaction in (c) above is called Precipitation. It is a reaction that produces an insoluble compound
when two soluble reagents are reacted together.
2. [2013-P3-Q2]
−
(a) To start with, an alkali is a metal oxide or hydroxide that dissolves in water to produce OH(aq) ions.
Solution Approximate pH Ions present

(i) Sodium hydroxide (ii) 14
Na+ , OH −
Hydrochloric acid (iii) 2 (iv) 𝐇+ , 𝐂𝐥−
Sodium chloride 7 (v) 𝐍𝐚+ , 𝐂𝐥−
(b) Sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid.

Sodium chloride is a salt obtained by reacting an acid and a base.
3. [2013-P3-Q9]
(b) (i) Copper (II) oxide.
Note: It is not possible to react copper metal directly with an acid because copper is unreactive.
Insoluble oxides (e.g. CuO and PbO) of unreactive metals are mixed with an acid to produce a salt.
(ii) Copper (II) oxide is an insoluble base. It is added to the acid a little at a time.
CuO(s) + H2 SO4(aq) → CuSO4(aq) + H2 O(l)
(c) The CuO is added in excess to react with all the acid and then filtered off, leaving a clear blue filtrate of
Copper (II) sulphate. The solution is evaporated slowly to form a saturated solution of the salt and then
it is allowed to cool so that crystals are formed. The crystals produced on cooling are filtered off,
washed with distilled water and dried.
(d) Yes. Because potassium chloride is also a soluble salt.
4. [2011-P3-Q11]
(a) (i) Barium nitrate Ba(NO3 )2 .
Both reagents must be soluble in water to obtain a precipitate. All nitrate salts are soluble.
(ii) Only barium sulphate is insoluble in this reaction.
Ba(NO3 )2(aq) + Na2 SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaNO3(aq)
(iii) Firstly, write down a balanced equation with state symbols. Express all aqueous compounds in
terms of the ions and radicals they are made of. Cancel out ions and radicals that appear on either
219
side of the equation in the same state. What remains is the net ionic equation.
Balanced equation: Ba(NO3 )2(aq) + Na2 SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaNO3(aq)
Ions and radicals:
Ba2+ − + 2− + −
(aq) + 2NO3(aq) + 2Na(aq) + SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2Na(aq) + 2NO3(aq)
Net ionic equation: Ba2+ 2−

(aq) + SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s)
(b) Pure barium sulphate can be obtained by filtering off the crystals, wash them in distilled water and place
them on a filter-paper to dry.
Note: the washing with distilled water is to remove the surface solution from the crystals and
replace it with pure water, as it dries off, will not deposit impurities as would the solution. The filter-
paper is used to absorb water from the surfaces of the crystals.
(c) Magnesium sulphate.
Note: Magnesium, Aluminium, Zinc, Iron and Tin (MAZIT) are metals usually used to obtain a salt by
reacting a metal directly with an acid. It is very dangerous to use reactive metals such as sodium.
(d) From the balanced equation,
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2 O(l)
100g yield 110g
150g yield x
150 × 110
x= = 165g of CaCl2
100
5. [2010-P3-Q5]
(a) Acidic water dissolves useful nutrients and minerals in the soil before plants can use them to grow.
(b) (i) First start by balancing all non-oxygen and hydrogen atoms, then hydrogen and oxygen last.
H2 SO4 (aq) + Ca(OH)2 (s) → CaSO4 (s) + 2H2 O(l)
(ii) From the balanced equation,
H2 SO4 + Ca(OH)2 → CaSO4 + 2H2 O
98ton → 74ton
9.8ton → x
9.8 × 74
x= = 7.4 ton of Ca(OH)2
98
(iii) Lime is used to neutralize acidic soils.
(c) Because it completely ionises when dissolved in water. This means all of the hydrogen atoms in its
formula ionise to hydrogen ions.
6. [2010-P3-Q11]
(b) Since iron is above hydrogen on the reactivity series, it reacts to form a salt and liberate hydrogen gas.
(i) Fe(s) + H2 SO4(aq) ⟶ FeSO4(aq) + H2(g)
(ii) The iron should be in excess. It will be easier to notice the end of the reaction when the iron
stops dissolving. The excess iron can be filtered off to leave a solution of iron (II) sulphate.
220
(c) After the excess iron is removed by filtration, the iron (II) sulphate solution is evaporated slowly to form
a saturated solution of the salt. The hot solution is allowed to cool so that crystals are formed. The
crystals produced on cooling are filtered off, washed with distilled water and dried between clean
tissues.
(d) Barium sulphate. Insoluble salts are prepared by precipitation.
7. [2009-P3-Q7]
The other reagent needed will be a soluble salt of barium (e.g. barium nitrate). The sodium sulphate will
supply the sulphate radical (SO−2 +2
4 ) whereas the barium nitrate will provide the barium ion (Ba ). Mix the two
solutions together and a white precipitation of barium sulphate will be formed.
Pure barium sulphate can be obtained by filtering off the crystals, washing them in distilled water to remove
the surface solution from the crystals and placing them on a filter-paper to dry. The filter-paper is used to
absorb water from the surfaces of the crystals.
8. [2004-P3-Q6]
(a) Pure water has a pH of 7. It is neutral.
(b) It becomes alkalinic. Ammonium is the only common alkaline gas. It turns red litmus paper blue.
(c) The pH of the water increases. This is because ammonia forms an alkaline solution of ammonium
hydroxide
(d) The two basic processes of water purification are filtration and disinfection. Filtration is the removal of
floating particles found in water. Disinfection is the application of chemicals to kill disease-causing
organisms found in the filtered water.
9. [2003-P3-Q5]
(a) (i) W
(ii) There is a burst of energy given out.
(iii) Y. The pH is below 7 e.g. HCl.
(b) Because it is a neutral oxide.
10. [2003-P3-Q6]
(a) Start by writing a balanced equation.
2NaOH(aq) + H2 SO4(aq) → Na2 SO4(aq) + 2H2 O(l)
mole ratio: 2 ∶ 1
Use the volume and concentration of NaOH given to find its number of moles. Use the formula:
Mole = volume × concentration,
221
As long as volume is in dm3 and concentration in mol⁄dm3

Given 25cm3 of 0.02M sodium hydroxide, moles of NaOH used are:
(b) Neutralisation is the reaction between an acid and base that produces a salt and water.
(c) Other substances that react with acids are:
 Metals e.g. magnesium, aluminium, zinc and tin (MAZIT)
 Metal carbonates e.g. calcium carbonate.
11. [2003-P3-Q11]
(a) The following are the compounds:
 A is Copper (II) carbonate,CuCO3
 B is Copper (II) chloride, CuCl2
 C is carbon dioxide gas, CO2
 D is calcium hydrogen carbonate, CaHCO3 .
 F is copper(II) oxide, CuO.
(b) (i) Copper (II) carbonate decomposes to give copper (II) oxide and Carbon dioxide.
heat
CuCO3(s) → CuO(s) + CO2(g)
(ii) The reaction of CuSO4 and NaOH is called Double Decomposition. Double decomposition reactions
are reactions were two compounds are decomposed and two new compounds are formed by the
exchange of radicals. A radical is a group of atoms that is electrically charged.
CuSO4(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) ⟶ Cu(OH)2(s) + Na2 SO4(aq)
222
(c) The reaction in b(ii) above is Double decomposition reaction as well as precipitation reaction.
12. [2002-P3-Q7]
(a) Because its pH is more than 7. Neutral water has pH of 7.
(b) Because most chloride salts found in rocks in boreholes and streams are soluble in water.
(c) The pH can be reduced by adding acid to the water to react with the excess base responsible for the
higher pH.
(d) Use the formula for concentration. The chloride concentration is 10.0mg/litre.
mass
Concentration =
volume
mass = conc.× vol.
mg
= 10.0 × 106 L
L
= 10 000 000 mg or 10kg
223
TOPIC 5: MOLE CONCEPT

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q25]. How many atoms are there in 6.0 g of carbon atoms?
A 3 × 1023
B 6 × 1023
C 1.2 × 1024
D 6 × 1024
2. [2015-P1-Q26]. Calcium carbonate, CaCO3 decomposes according to the following equation;

heat
CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
What volume of carbon dioxide, measured at room temperature and pressure is produced when 50.0 g
calcium carbonate is decomposed?
A 12.0 dm3
B 24.0 dm3
C 48.0 dm3
D 120 dm3
3. [2013-P1-Q26]. How many atoms are present in one molecule of Urea , CO(NH2 )2 ?
A 4
B 6
C 7
D 8
4. [2013-P1-Q27]. Methane burns completely in oxygen according to the equation below:
CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2 O(g)
If 0.2 mol of methane is burned completely, which volume of carbon dioxide measured at r.t.p is formed?
A 0.2 dm3
B 0.6 dm3
C 2.4 dm3
D 4.8 dm3
5. [2012-P1-Q27]. What mass of calcium metal reacts completely with 9.0 g of water according to the equation
below?
Ca(s) + 2H2 O(l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq) + H2 (g)
A 40 g
B 20 g
C 10 g
D 5.0 g
6. [2011-P1-Q27]. How many oxygen atoms are in 1.6 g of sulphur trioxide, SO3 ?
A 3
B 4.8
C 3.6 × 1022
D 9.6 × 1023
224
7. [2010-P1-Q29]. How many moles of oxygen molecules are there in 64 grams of oxygen , O2 ?
A 2 moles
B 4 moles
C 8 moles
D 16 moles
8. [2010-P1-Q30]. Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form water. The equation for the reaction is:
2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2 O(g)
How much oxygen is needed to burn 1 gram of hydrogen?
A 2g
B 4g
C 5g
D 8g
9. [2009-P1-Q26]. Limestone, CaCO3 decomposes into lime, CaO according to the equation,
CaCO3 (s) → CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
What mass of limestone would produce 11.2 g of lime?
100 × 11.2
A g
56
100 × 56
B g
11.2
100 × 56
C g
56
D 11.2 × 56 × 100g
10. [2009-P1-Q37]. A sample of air of volume 200 cm3 is enclosed in a tube containing moist iron filings. After
the iron has stopped rusting, what volume of air would be remaining?
A 40 cm3
B 200 cm3
C 160 cm3
D 200 cm3
11. [2004-P1-Q24]. 60 grammes of M (The molar mass of M is 40) combine with 24 grammes of oxygen. The
Empirical formula of the oxide is…
A MO
B MO2
C MO2
D MO4
12. [2003-P1-Q27]. Study the reaction shown below that occurs at room temperature and pressure.
2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2 O(g)
What volume of hydrogen is used if the volume of oxygen used in the reaction is 24 dm3 ?
A 2 dm3
B 12 dm3
C 24 dm3
D 48 dm3
225
13. [2002-P1-Q22]. What volume will be occupied by 3.2 g of sulphur dioxide at r.t.p?
A 24 dm3
B 1.2 dm3
C 2.4 dm3
D 12 dm3
14. [2002-P1-Q23]. A pupil used a 500 cm3 volumetric flask to prepare a standard solution of potassium
chloride. If 1.4 g potassium chloride was dissolved in distilled water and diluted to the 500 cm3 mark, what is
the final concentration of the solution made?
A 0.04 mol/dm3
B 0.08 mol/dm3
C 0.12 mol/dm3
D 0.16 mol/dm3
15. [2002-P1-Q30]. A sample of 3.0 g of Iron is heated with 1.6 g of sulphur in a test-tube. At the end of the
experiment, what remains in the test-tube?
A Iron II sulphide only
B Iron II sulphide and sulphur
C Iron II sulphide and iron
D Iron only.
16. [2001-P1-Q26]. Which of the following has the greatest mass?

A 6.0 × 1023 carbon dioxide molecules
B a mole of hydrogen atoms.
C a mole of copper (II) sulphate.
D 3 × 1023 ions of sodium.
17. [2001-P1-Q36]. What volume of 0.1 mol/dm3 of sulphuric acid would completely neutralize 20 cm3 of
0.2 mol/dm3 of Sodium Hydroxide?
A 20 cm3
B 40 cm3
C 60 cm3
D 80 cm3
SECTION B
1. [2011-P1-Q5]
Urea, (NH2 )2 CO and water are formed when ammonia reacts with carbon dioxide.
Urea is obtained as a solid from the reaction mixture.
(a) (i) Write a balanced chemical equation including state symbols for this reaction. [3]
(ii) How many atoms of hydrogen are present in one molecule of urea? [1]
(b) What mass of urea in tonnes can be formed from 34 tonnes of ammonia? [2]
226
2. [2010-P1-Q5]
A spillage of 9.8 tonnes of sulphuric acid results from an accident by a road tanker. Slaked lime is
used to neutralize the acid.
(a) State the effect of the acid on the vegetation. [1]
(b) The chemical equation for the neutralization reaction is given below:
H2 SO4 (aq) + Ca(OH)2 (s) → CaSO4 (s) + H2 O(l)
(i) Balance the equation. [1]
(ii) Calculate the mass of slaked lime needed to neutralize 9.8 tonnes of spilt sulphuric acid. [2]
(iii) State one use of lime in agriculture. [1]
(c) Explain why sulphuric acid is said to be a strong acid. [1]
3. [2009-P1-Q2]
Part of the process for the extraction of Uranium uses the reaction of Uranium Tetrafluoride (UF4 )
with magnesium.
UF4 + 2Mg → 2MgF2 + U
(a) State whether Uranium is more or less reactive than Maganesium, explain your answer. [1]
(b) (i) Calculate the relative molecular mass of Uranium Tetrafluoride (UF4 ). [1]
(ii) How many tonnes of Uranium can be produced in the above reaction using 24 tonnes of
magnesium? [2]
(c) Natural Uranium has several Isotopes. Define the term Isotopes. [1]
4. [2009-P1-Q3]
(a) Work out the relative formula mass, Mr of the following:
(i) Ca(HCO3 )2 [1]
(ii) Al2 (SO4 )3 [1]
(b) When water containing dissolved calcium hydrogencarbonate is boiled, the calcium
hydrogencarbonate decomposes according to the equation below:
Ca(HCO3 )2 (aq) → CaCO3 (s) + H2 O(l) + C02 (g)
(i) Name the white solid formed in this reaction. [1]
(ii) If the water boiled contained 16.2 g of Calcium hydrogencarbonate, Calculate the mass of
CaCO3 formed. [2]
5. [2004-P1-Q8]
(a) What mass of carbon dioxide will be given off by heating 20 g of calcium carbonate? [2]
(b) What is the mass of 48 cm3 of dinitrogen oxide at room temperature and pressure? [2]
6. [2003-P1-Q2]
A student prepared oxygen by heating lead (II) nitrate. The equation for the reaction is written
below.
heat
2Pb(NO3 )2 (s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
(a) Describe a test for oxygen. [2]
227
(b) Calculate
(i) The mass of one mole of lead (II) nitrate. [2]
(ii) The number moles of oxygen gas produced when 4 moles of lead (n) nitrate are heated. [1]
(iii) What volume would these moles of oxygen occupy at r.t.p.? [1]
7. [2002-P1-Q2]
Sodamide (NaNH2 ) is used as a fertilizer.
(a) Calculate the mass of this fertilizer that would contain 14 tonnes of nitrogen. [3]
(b) This fertilizer provides only one essential element commonly supplied as compound fertilizers.
Name the two essential elements. [2]
8. [2002-P1-Q11]
Marble occurs naturally as rock and contains a lot of calcium carbonate.
(a) Starting with a suitable acid, describe how you can prepare a sample of calcium chloride
crystals from the marble. [4]
(b) (i) If you started with 25 g of marble, what would be the expected mass of calcium chloride? [3]
(ii) If the actual yield obtained is 13.87 g of calcium chloride, what is the percentage purity of
calcium chloride given that [2]
Actual Yield 100
percentage purity = ×
Theoretical Yield 1
(iii) What is the likely impurity in the sample product? [1]
9. [2001-P1-Q6]
(a) Define relative molecular mass. [1]
(b) A solution Q contains 276 g of potassium carbonate (K 2 CO3 ) in 1 dm3 ,
(i) Calculate the relative molecular mass of potassium carbonate. [1]
(ii) What is the concentration, in mol/dm3 of solution Q? [2]
(c) Potassium carbonate reacts with dilute sulphuric acid as follows:
K 2 CO3 + H2 SO4 → K 2 SO4 + CO2 + H2 O
In using 2 dm3 , of Q to react with dilute sulphuric acid

(i) How many moles of sulphuric acid are needed? [1]
(ii) How many moles of carbon dioxide are produced? [1]
(iii) What volume of carbon dioxide is liberated when measured at room temperature and
pressure? [1]
228
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. A. Change the 6.0 g to moles. Then use the relation: 1 mol = 6 × 1023 particles. Particles can mean atoms,
ions, molecules etc.
2. A. Find the mass of CO2 produced when 50.0 g of CaCO3 decomposes and change it to moles. At r.t.p 1 mol
of a gas occupies 24 dm3 . Now find the volume occupied by the number of moles you have calculated.
3. D. There is 1 carbon, 1 oxygen, 2 nitrogen and 4 hydrogen. There are 8 atoms altogether.
4. D. Use the balanced equation to find the number of moles of CO2 produced when 0.2 mol of methane is
burned. Then use the relation: 1 mol of a gas occupies = 24 dm3 at r.t.p.
5. C. Use the balanced equation and insert masses of Ca and H2 O below each. Now use the mass ratio to find
mass of Ca metal that reacts with 9 g of water.
6. C. 1 mol of SO3 contains 1 mol of sulphur and 3 mol of oxygen. Changing 1.6 g of SO3 to moles is 0.02 mol.
This means 0.02 mol of SO3 will contain 0.02 mol of S and 0.06 mol of O (i. e. 3 × 0.02). Since 1 mol of
any substance contains 6 × 1023 particles, then there are 3.6 × 1022 atoms of oxygen.
7. A.
8. D. Use mass ratios of hydrogen and oxygen. Make sure the equation is balanced.
9. A. Use mass ratios of limestone and lime. Make sure the equation is balanced.
10. C. Rusting is a reaction of Iron and oxygen. Air contains about 20 % oxygen. 80 % of the air remains.
11. A. Moles of element M = 60/40 = 1.5 mol and moles of oxygen = 24/16 = 1.5 mol. Ratio is therefore 1:1.
12. D. Mole ratio of hydrogen to oxygen is 2:1. This means twice as much hydrogen is needed to react with
24 dm3 of oxygen.
13. B. Change 3.2 g of sulphur dioxide to moles. At r.t.p 1 mol of a gas occupies 24 dm3 .
14. A. Concentration = moles / volume. Change 1.4 g to moles and divide by the final volume of the solution.
15. C. Find which one is the limiting reagent. What remains in the test tube is the product and the reagent that is
in excess.
16. C. Copper (II) sulphate is the heaviest.
17. A. Find the number of moles of NaOH from the given volume and concentration. Write a balanced equation.
The mole ratio will be 2NaOH ∶ H2 SO4 = 2 ∶ 1. Use this ratio to find moles of H2 SO4 and divide the figure
by the concentration of the acid.
SECTION B
1. [2011-P3-Q5]
(a) (i) The equation is:
2NH3(g) + CO2(g) → (NH2 )2 CO(aq) + H2 O(l)
Note: The urea solution is heated under vacuum to evaporate some of the water off, increasing the
urea concentration. At this stage some urea crystals also form. The solution is then heated to
redissolve these crystals prior to evaporation. In the evaporation stage molten urea is produced
and granulated.
(ii) In one molecule of urea, there are 2 nitrogen atoms, 4 hydrogen, 1 carbon and 1 oxygen atoms
respectively. Therefore, there are 4 hydrogen atoms.
229
(b) Use the balanced equation by inserting masses of ammonia and urea below the equation and add
tonnes as units of measure.
2NH3(g) + CO2(g) → (NH2 )2 CO(aq) + H2 O(l)
34 yields 60
This means 34 units of ammonia will yield 60 units of urea. Therefore, 34 tonnes of ammonia will yield
60 tonnes of urea.
2. [2010-P3-Q5]
(a) The acid will lower the pH of the soil causing damage to vegetation. Acidic water dissolves the nutrients
and minerals in the soil and then washes them away before plants can use them to grow
(b) (i) First start by balancing all non-oxygen and hydrogen atoms, then hydrogen and oxygen last.
H2 SO4 (aq) + Ca(OH)2 (s) → CaSO4 (s) + 2H2 O(l)
(ii) From the balanced equation,
H2 SO4 + Ca(OH)2 → CaSO4 + 2H2 O

98 ton → 74 ton
9.8 ton → x
9.8 × 74
x= = 7.4 ton of Ca(OH)2
98
(iii) Lime is used to neutralize acidic soils.
(c) Because it completely ionises when dissolved in water. This means all of the hydrogen atoms in its
formula ionise to H + ions.
3. [2009-P3-Q2]
(a) Magnesium is more reactive than Uranium. This is because from the equation it has displaced the
uranium from the Uranium Tetrafluoride.
Note: Reactive elements displace less reactive elements from compounds.

(b) (i) Relative molecular mass is the sum of all atomic masses of atoms in the molecule.
UF4 = 238 + 4(19) = 314
(ii) Use the balanced equation by inserting masses of magnesium and uranium below the equation and
add tonnes as units of measure.
UF4 + 2Mg → 2MgF2 + U
48 yields 238
This means 48 units of magnesium will yield 238 units of uranium. Therefore, 48 tonnes of
magnesium will yield 238 tonnes of uranium.
48 ton yields 238 ton
24 ton yields x
24 × 238
x= = 119 tonnes of uranium.
48
(c) Isotopes are atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but different mass numbers
due to their difference in the number of neutrons.
230
4. [2009-P3-Q3]
(a) Relative formula mass is the sum of all relative atomic masses of atoms in a compound.
(i) Ca(HCO3 )2 = 40 + 2[1 + 12 + 3(16)] = 162
(ii) Al2 (SO4 )3 = 2(27) + 3[32 + 4(16)] = 342
Note: there are no units (e.g. grams) included to the figures because relative atomic mass has no
specific units of measure.
(b) (i) The white solid is Calcium carbonate CaCO3 .

(ii) Use the balanced equation by inserting molecular masses of calcium hydrogencarbonate and
calcium carbonate below the equation and add grams as units of measure.
Ca(HCO3 )2 (aq) → CaCO3 (s) + H2 O(l) + CO2 (g)
162 g yields 100g
16.2 g yields x
16.2 × 100
x= = 10 g of CaCO3
162
5. [2004-P3-Q8]
(a) The equation for the decomposition of calcium carbonate is:
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
100 g yields 44 g
20 g yields x
20 × 44
x= = 8.8 g of CO2
100
(b) Formula for dinitrogen oxide is N2 O. At r.t.p 1 mol of N2 O occupies 24 dm3 .
If 1 mol → 24 dm3
x → 48 dm3
x = (1 × 48)/24 = 2 mol. Mass of 2 mol of N2 O = 2 × 44 = 88 g
6. [2003-P3-Q2]
(a) Test for oxygen: it relights a glowing splint.
(b) (i) Mass of 1 mol is the same as the relative formula mass of lead (II) nitrate but with units of g/mol.
Pb(NO3 )2 = 207 + 2[14 + 3(16)] = 331 g/mol
Note: mass of 1 mole of a compound is called its molar mass and has units of g/mol. But when this
number is written without units it is called relative molecular mass.
(ii) Using the balanced equation,

2Pb(NO3 )2 (s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
2 mol yields 1 mol
4 mol will yield x
231
4×1
x= = 2 mol of O2
2
(iii) At room temperature and pressure, 1mol of every gas occupies 24 dm3 . Therefore, 2 moles of
oxygen will occupy 2 × 24 = 48 dm3 .
7. [2002-P3-Q2]
(a) Percentage of nitrogen by mass in NaNH2 remains the same. Formula mass of NaNH2 is 49. The
compound contains 23 g Na, 14g N and 2 g H.
14
% by mass of N = × 100 = 28.57 %
49
This means the new mass of NaNH2 will contain 28.57 % of nitrogen which is equal to 14 tonnes.
28.57% of NaNH2 = 14 tonnes
14
Mass of NaNH2 = = 49 tonnes
0.2857
Note: All pure samples of the same chemical compound contain the same elements combined in the
same proportions by mass (Law of Definite proportions).
(b) The other two essential elements are Phosphorus and Potassium.
Note: fertilisers are usually labelled NPK. This means they contain the three essential elements
Nitrogen, Phosphorus and Potassium.
8. [2002-P3-Q11]
(a) Dilute Hydrochloric acid will be used to provide the chloride needed in the calcium chloride. The calcium
carbonate is added in excess to react with all the acid (effervescence will be observed) and then filtered
off, leaving a clear filtrate. The solution is heated then allowed to cool so that crystals form. Filter off the
calcium chloride crystals and wash them with distilled water. Place them on a filter-paper to dry. The
reaction equation is
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + H2 O(l) + CO2(g)
(b) (i) Using the balanced equation,
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + H2 O(l) + CO2(g)
100 g yields 111 g
25 g yields x
25 × 111
x= = 27.75 g of CaCl2
100
(ii) The 27.75 g calculated using the equation is actually the Theoretical yield. Therefore,
Actual yield
Percentage purity = × 100%
Theoretical yield
13.87 g
= × 100
27.75 g
= 49.98 %
232
Note: Theoretical yield is the maximum yield or amount of product(s) you can get when all
conditions such as temperature and pressure are ideal or when the reaction is 100%.
(iii) Silica (or silicon dioxide, SO2 ). It is commonly found in nature as quartz.
9. [2001-P3-Q6]
(a) Relative molecular mass (Mr ) is the sum of all relative atomic masses of atoms in a molecule or
compound or the mass of 1 mole of the compound without any unit.
Note: The mass of 1 mole of a compound is called its molar mass. It has units of g/mol. But when the
molar mass is written without any units, it is called the Relative molecular mass. E.g. water has a molar
mass of 18 g/mol and relative molecular mass of 18.
(b) (i) Relative molecular mass, (Mr ) of potassium carbonate is:

K 2 CO3 = 2(39) + 12 + 3(16) = 78 + 12 + 48 = 138
(ii) Use the formula for concentration,
number of moles
Concentration (mol/dm3 ) =
volume in dm3
Convert the given mass of the compound into moles using the formula,
mass given in grams 276g
Number of moles = = = 2 mol
molar mass 138 g/mol
2 mol
Therefore, Concentration = = 2 mol/dm3
1 dm3
(c) (i) Using the concentration found in (b)(ii) above and the given volume of Q, find the number of moles
of K 2 CO3 used in the experiment.
mol
moles of K 2 CO3 used = concentration ( 3 ) × volume(dm3 )
dm
= 2 mol/dm3 × 2 dm3
= 4 mole
From the balanced equation, ratio of K 2 CO3 to H2 SO3 is 1 to 1. This means 1 mole of K 2 CO3 will
need 1 mole of H2 SO3 to react completely. Then 4 mol K 2 CO3 will react with 4 mol H2 SO3 . In other
words,
1 mol K 2 CO3 ⟹ 1 mol H2 SO3
4 mol K 2 CO3 ⟹ x mole H2 SO3
4×1
x=
1
x = 4 mol of H2 SO3
(ii) Again mole of K 2 CO3 to CO2 is 1 to 1. Therefore, there are 4 mol of CO2 produced.
(iii) At room temperature and pressure, 1 mole of a gas occupies 24 dm3 . Volume of carbon dioxide
liberated is therefore 4 × 24 = 96 dm3
233
TOPIC 6: CHEMICAL REACTIONS

SECTION A
1. [2013-P1-Q39]. Hydrogen is manufactured by the steam reforming of natural gas according to the equation
below:
CH4 (g) + H2 O(g) → CO(g) + 3H2 (g)
What catalyst is used in this process?
A manganese (IV) oxide
B Iron (III) oxide
C Nickel
D Platinum
2. [2003-P1-Q29]. Which one of the following is not true about a chemical catalyst?
A It alters the rate of a chemical reaction
B It changes chemically at the end of reaction
C It remains chemically unchanged at the end of the reaction
D Its mass does not alter before and after the reaction
3. [2003-P1-Q39]. The figure below represents the Haber process used to manufacture Ammonia.
Material X should be made of...

A Aluminium
B Ammonia
C Iron
D Carbon
4. [2002-P1-Q33]. What role does a catalyst play in a chemical reaction?
A lowers the activation energy.
B raises the activation energy.
C keeps the concentration the same.
D increases the collision frequency.
234
5. [2001-P1-Q28]. Powdered magnesium was reacted with hydrochloric acid and the volume of hydrogen
produced was recorded at regular intervals. The graph of volume of hydrogen against time was drawn.
Which one below is the correct graph?
SECTION B
1. [2004-P3-Q3]
In an experiment to determine the rate of a reaction, lumps of calcium carbonate and 25 cm3 dilute
hydrochloric acid was used.
The table below shows the volume of carbon dioxide gas recorded at various time intervals.
Time (t) in sec 0 5 10 15 20 25
Volume (v) in cm3 0 15 25 35 40 40
(a) Why is dilute hydrochloric acid preferred to dilute sulphuric acid? [1]
(b) Calculate the rate of reaction after 10 seconds. [2]
(c) Explain how temperature increase and reducing the size of lumps would change the rate of
reaction. [2]
2. [2003-P3-Q7]
The table below shows the results of the production of hydrogen in the reaction between zinc
granules and dilute hydrochloric acid at 25 °C.
(a) Plot a graph of volume against time for the reaction. [2]
(b) At what time was the reaction over? [1]
235
(c) Mark by 'X' the region where the reaction was fastest. [1]
(d) What was the volume of gas collected after 5 seconds? [1]
3. [2002-P3-Q5]
The diagram below shows an experimental arrangement that was used.
The experimental results presented in graph form show 3 curves (A, B, C) obtained.
Study the experimental arrangement and the graphs and answer the questions that follow.
(a) Name two other items that are necessary in order to carry out these experiments. [2]
(b) What is the purpose of the cotton wool? [1]
(c) In the first experiment, the student obtained curve B. List three factors that could have been
changed to obtain Curve A. [3]
4. [2001-P3-Q5]
The following are some of the factors that influence the rate of a chemical reaction.
Temperature
Catalyst
Surface area and
Concentration.
(a) Which one of the factors accounts for the following facts?
(i) Wood burns more rapidly in oxygen than in air. [1]
(ii) Grass burns more rapidly than wood. [1]
236
(b) 0.1 g of Lithium was transferred to a piece of apparatus containing excess water. After the
reaction the volume of hydrogen produced was measured at 1 minute intervals. Between 3 and
4 minutes the volume was 66 cm3 and between 4 and 5 minutes the volume was 34 cm3 .
(i) Explain briefly why less hydrogen was produced between 4 and 5 minutes than between 3
and 4 minutes. [1]
(ii) What was the rate of the reaction between 4 and 5 minutes? [1]
(c) (i) Suggest why a reaction between two substances in solution occurs more rapidly than when
the reactants are in solid form. [1]
(ii) What other effect would increase the rate in the above reaction? [1]
237
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. C. Steam reforming is a process of obtaining hydrogen gas needed in the Haber Process by reacting
methane and steam at a temperature of 750 ℃ and a pressure of 30 atmospheres. Nickel is used as a
catalyst.
2. B. Catalysts do not change chemically at the end of a reaction.
3. C. Iron is used as a catalyst in the production of ammonia.
4. A. Catalysts lower the activation energy. Activation energy is the energy needed to start a reaction.
Catalysts do not increase the frequency of collisions but provide a path that requires less energy for the
reaction to proceed.
5. A. The slope of the curve must be steeper because the reaction is faster when powdered magnesium is
used. The faster the reaction, the steeper the curve.
SECTION B
1. [2004-P3-Q3]
(a) Because the calcium sulphate, being slightly soluble, forms a protective layer that prevents sulphuric
acid from acting on the calcium carbonate. The reaction soon stops.
(b) The rate of a reaction describes how quickly reactants are used up or how quickly products are formed
during a chemical reaction.
change in volume 25 − 0 25
Rate = = = = 2.5 cm3 /min
reaction time 10 − 0 10
Note: The rate after a certain time is equal to the gradient of the tangent at that point. Here, it has been
assumed that the tangent at the 10th second mark passes through the origin.
(c) Combination reactions are exothermic in nature. The rate is reduced when the temperature is
increased.
Reducing the size of lumps increases their surface area and the rate of reaction is increased too.
2. [2003-P3-Q7]
(a) Join the points by a best fit line.
238
(b) The reaction stopped after 5.7 seconds as no more gas was produced after that. Volume became
constant after this time.
(c) The reaction is the fastest where the slope is greatest. The steeper the slope the faster the rate of
reaction.
(d) From the graph, volume collected after 5 seconds was approximately 19.25 cm3 .
3. [2002-P3-Q5]
(a) Other items include:
 A stop watch
 Recorder (data logger and computer).
(b) The cotton wool is used to prevent the contents from evaporating or leaving the flask, but allowing the
H2 gas to pass through.
(c) Curve A is steeper than curve B. Factors that could have been changed are:
 Using powdered iron to increase its surface area.
 Increasing concentration of the acid.
 Increasing temperature of the acid by using a water bath before adding the iron.
Note: The reaction is fastest at the start, gradually becoming slower as the reaction proceeds. The
fastest part of the reaction is shown by the steepest part of the curve
4. [2001-P3-Q5]
(a) (i) Concentration. Air contains about 20% oxygen. Wood burns faster in (100%) oxygen.
(ii) Surface area. Grass is spread over a large area compared to a block of wood.
(b) (i) As the reaction proceeded the amount of lithium reduced. Therefore the volume of hydrogen also
reduced.
239
Note: As the products keep accumulating in the reaction vessel, the surface area of reactants reduces.
Hence the rate reduces as well.
(ii) Volume collected in 1 minute (between 4 and 5) was 34 cm3 . The rate was:
volume collected 34 cm3
Rate = = = 0.57 cm3 /s
time 60 s
(c) (i) There is more contact between reacting particles in solution than when in solid. This increases the
frequency of collision of reacting particles and the chances of having successful collisions becomes
high. Therefore the rate also increases.
(ii) Use powdered lithium.
240
TOPIC 7: PERIODIC TABLE

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q28]. In the Periodic Table hydrogen (H) is not placed in any of the Groups. Which of the following
is the best explanation for its position? It...
A has no neutrons.
B is the lightest of all the elements.
C has properties of both Group I and Group VII elements.
D has only one electron in its only single energy level.
2. [2013-P1-Q28]. Potassium is in the same Group of the Periodic Table as lithium. Which of the following is a
property of lithium?
A It is a poor conductor of electricity.
B It forms an acidic oxide.
C It forms an ionic chloride, LiCl2 .
D It reacts with water, liberating hydrogen.
3. [2013-P1-Q29]. How many Groups in the Periodic Table contain both metals and non-metals?
A 2
B 4
C 6
D 8
4. [2012-P1-Q26]. The diagram below shows part of the Periodic Table of elements. T represents an element
in the periodic Table but it is not the actual symbol of the element.
Ne
Na Ar
Ca T Zn Br
Which of the following statements is true about T?

A T has a high density and high melting point.
B T forms covalent compounds with bromine.
C T is in Period 2 of the Periodic Table.
D T is likely to be a gas at r.t.p.
5. [2011-P1-Q31]. How many elements are in period 6 of the Periodic Table?

A 8
B 10
C 18
D 32
241
6. [2011-P1-Q32]. In which of the following are the halogens correctly arranged as solid, liquid or gas?
Chlorine Iodine Bromine
A gas solid liquid
B gas liquid solid
C liquid gas solid
D solid gas liquid
7. [2010-P1-Q35]. Which of the following is not reactive?
A Phosphorus
B Sulphur
C Chlorine
D Argon
8. [2009-P1-Q35]. Which of the following is true about chlorine, bromine and iodine?
A They are good conductors of electricity.
B When in the gas phase, they have no smell.
C They are all coloured.
D They are non-poisonous.
9. [2004-P1-Q29]. In which of the following are the halogens correctly arranged as solid, liquid or gas?
Chlorine Iodine Bromine

A gas solid liquid
B gas liquid solid
C liquid gas solid
D solid gas liquid
10. [2004-P1-Q30]. Which of the following gases is a noble gas?

A Oxygen
B Ammonia
C Neon
D Hydrogen
11. [2003-P1-Q32]. Sodium and potassium are both in group I of the periodic table because they...
A have the same number of outer electrons
B are diatomic non-metals
C have the same number of electrons
D have the same atomic number
12. [2003-P1-Q33]. On the periodic table, an element with one less electron than does a neighbouring inert gas
can...
A not be a hologen
B not exist in liquid or gaseous form
C not react with elements in group 1
D react with elements in group 1
13. [2002-P1-Q26]. The following arrangement represents the trend in which elements lose electrons.
242
Which of the elements above loses electrons the easiest?

A F
B Cs
C Li
D I
14. [2002-P1-Q27]. Which of the following readily forms a simple ion with two positive charges?
A sulphur
B calcium
C oxygen
D potassium
15. [2001-P1-Q30]. How many non-metals are there in Period 3 of the Periodic Table?
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q4]
The grid below represents part of the Periodic Table. The numbers shown represent the atomic
numbers of elements.
1 2
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
From the grid above, select the atomic number of an element which:
(a) is a noble gas used to fill balloons. [1]

(b) is the most reactive metal. [1]
(c) is the most reactive non-metal. [1]
(d) forms an ion of the type X 2− . [1]
(e) forms an amphoteric oxide. [1]
(f) forms a hydroxide that dissolves in water. [1]
243
2. [2011-P3-Q4]
Use the Periodic Table to answer this question.
(a) Give the symbol of:
(i) a non-metal used to sterilise water, [1]
(ii) an element which forms diatomic molecules, [1]
(iii) an element which reacts with water to give an alkaline solution. [1]
(iv) an element which forms an ion of the type X 2− . [1]
(b) (i) Oxygen, sulphur and selenium are in Group VI of the Periodic Table. At room temperature
oxygen is a gas and sulphur is a solid. Predict whether selenium is a liquid, a solid or a
gas, at room temperature. [1]
(ii) The trend in reactivity of Group VI is similar to that in Group VII. Suggest the most reactive
element in Group VI. [1]
3. [2011-P3-Q9]
Caesium, lithium, potassium and sodium are all in Group 1 of the Periodic Table.
(a) Place these metals in order of reactivity, starting with the most reactive. [1]
(b) All Group 1 elements react in a similar manner with water.
(i) Name the chemical products of the reaction between caesium and water. [2]
(ii) Write a chemical equation for the reaction of caesium with water. Include state symbols. [3]
(iii) What three things would you expect to see if small pieces of caesium were dropped in
water in a glass trough? [3]
(c) What is the other name for Group 1 elements? [1]
4. [2010-P3-Q4]
Part of the Periodic Table is shown below. Use it to answer the questions that follow.
H He
Li Be B C N 0 F Ne
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
(a) State the chemical symbol for:

(i) an element which is a noble gas. [1]
(ii) the most reactive metal. [1]
(iii) the most reactive halogen. [1]
(iv) the element which supports burning. [1]
(b) (i) Write the formula of the compound which would be formed if the element whose atomic
number is 13 reacted with an element whose atomic number is 8.
(ii) State the type of bonding which would be present in the compound in (b)(i) above. [2]
244
5. [2003-P3-Q9]
Some elements have only one electron in their outermost shell.
(a) Name three of these elements. In which Group of the Periodic Table are they placed? [4]
(b) Give four reasons in terms of chemical properties to justify placing the elements in the same
group of the Periodic Table. [4]
(c) How are these elements stored? Give a reason for your answer. [2]
6. [2002-P3-Q8]
For the main Groups of the Periodic Table, the metallic properties of elements vary approximately with their
position as shown in the chart below. The direction of the arrows indicates an increase in metallic nature.
(a) State (A, B, C or D) where the most metallic element will be found. [1]
(b) State (A, B, C or D) where the most non-metallic element will be found. [1]
(c) The element indium (In) is in the same Group as aluminium,
(i) State the formula of indium oxide. [1]
(ii) State whether this oxide is more or less basic than aluminium oxide. [1]
(d) Beryllium, strontium and barium are all elements in Group II.
(i) Which of these three elements will have the chloride of highest melting point? [1]
(ii) Explain your answer to (i). [1]
245
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. C. Hydrogen has one electron in its outer shell. It can either lose or gain an electron.
2. D. All Group 1 elements liberate hydrogen when they react with water.
3. B. Group III, IV, V and VI contain both metal and non-metal elements.
4. A. T is a transition element. Transition elements do not belong to any specific group of the periodic table.
5. D. Start counting at Caesium to Lanthanum, Cerium to Lutetium, then back to Hafnium and end at Radon.
6. A
7. D. Argon is one of the noble gases.
8. C
9. A
10. C
11. A. Elements with the same number of outer electrons belong to the same group on the Periodic table.
12. D. Halogens have one less electrons than the noble gases. Halogens do react with group I metals.
13. B. Group I elements lose electrons easily and Caesium is the most reactive.
14. B. Calcium is in group II of the periodic table, meaning that it has two outer shell electrons. It becomes a
positive ion with a charge of +2 when its outer electrons.
15. C. Note that Silicon is classified as a metalloid.
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q4]
(a) 2. Helium is used to fill balloons.
(b) 11. Reactivity of group 1 elements increases as you go down the group.
(c) 9. Fluorine is the most reactive non-metal.
(d) 8. Oxygen has an electronic configuration of 2:6. It gains two electrons during reactions.
(e) 13. An amphoteric oxide is one that can react both as an acid and base. For example Al2 O3
(f) 11. Oxides of group 1 elements are mostly soluble in water. For example NaO.
2. [2011-P3-Q4]
(a) (i) Cl. Chlorine is used to treat water against bacteria.
(ii) H.
Note: Other elements that form diatomic molecules are Cl, F, O, N, Br and I. They form Cl2 , F2 , O2 ,
N2 , Br2 and I2 molecules.
(iii) Na or any other group I element.
(iv) O. This is due to the fact that it is able to relight a glowing splint.
(b) Selenium is a solid at room temperature.
(c) Oxygen.
Note: Reactivity in group VII reduces as you go down the group. If the trend in reactivity of Group VI is
similar to that in Group VII, then oxygen is the most reactive followed by sulphur and so on.
246
3. [2011-P3-Q9]
(a) For metals, reactivity increase down the group. In order of reactivity the list is:
1. Caesium
2. Potassium
3. Sodium
4. Lithium
(b) (i) Caesium hydroxide and hydrogen gas are produced.
(ii) The chemical equation is:
2Cs(s) + 2H2 O(l) → 2CsOH(aq) + H2(g)
(iii) Observations:
 Explosive reaction,
 Effervescence (Hydrogen gas is produced)
 The caesium pieces will be decreasing in size or dissolving.
(c) Alkali metals.
4. [2010-P3-Q4]
(a) (i) Ar. Others are He and Ne.
(ii) Na. Recall that reactivity of group I elements increases down the group.
(iii) F. Recall that fluorine is the most reactive in group VII and also the most reactive of all non-metals.
(iv) O. Oxygen supports burning. It is able to relight a glowing splint.
(b) (i) The element with atomic number 13 is aluminium whereas the one with 8 is oxygen. The bond that is
formed is ionic. Using the “cross-over method” the compound is Al2 O3 .
4Al(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Al2 O3(s)
(ii) The bond is ionic. This is because it involves the transfer of electrons from the aluminium to the
oxygen.
5. [2003-P3-Q9]
(a) Elements with one electron in their outer shell:
 Lithium
 Sodium
 Potassium
They are all placed in group I of the Periodic Table.
(b) Chemical properties:

 All have same number of electrons in their outer shell.
 They all react vigorously with water to give an alkaline solution and hydrogen gas.
 All are soft metals
 All form basic oxides and hydroxides
(c) They are usually stored under oil or in a vacuum. This is to prevent them from reacting with moisture
and air of the surrounding.
247
6. [2002-P3-Q8]
(a) C. Most metallic elements are found on the further left and down the Periodic Table.
(b) B. Most non-metallic elements are found on the further right and up the Periodic Table.
(c) (i) Aluminium is in group III and has a valence of 3 and forms Al+3 ions. Then Indium also forms In+3
ions. Oxygen has a valence of 6 and forms O−2 ions. By using the ‘crossing over method’ Indium
oxide is In2 O3 .
Note: In the ‘crossing over’ method, charges of elements or radicals are swapped. Charge of the
first element becomes the subscript of the second element and charge of the second element
becomes the subscript of the first element.
(ii) The oxide is more basic. This is because the elements become more metallic as you go down the
group.
(d) (i) Beryllium.
(ii) This is because the Beryllium ion is smaller than that of strontium and barium. The smaller the ion,
(and also the higher its charge is) the stronger its attractive force is on ions of opposite charge.
Note: This means more energy will be required to separate beryllium and chloride ions in the solid
crystal. Hence, the compound will have a high melting point.
248
TOPIC 8: METALS
SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q29]. One physical property of all metals is that they are all ...
A hard with high melting points.
B reactants forming coloured compounds.
C never found native.
D good electrical conductors.
2. [2015-P1-Q30]. Which pair suits the metal and its ore from which it is extracted?
Metal Ore
A copper haematite
B aluminium haematite
C iron bauxite
D iron haematite
3. [2013-P1-Q30]. Aluminium cooking utensils are used in many kitchens. What property of aluminium is not
important for this use?
A It has a high melting point.
B It is a good conductor of electricity
C It is a good conductor of heat.
D It is resistant to corrosion.
4. [2013-P1-Q31]. Which row in the table below gives a correct use for the metal stated?
A aluminium making water pipes
B copper galvanising dustbins
C mild steel making car bodies
D zinc manufacture of aircrafts
5. [2013-P1-Q38]. Which method of rust prevention does not involve coating of the iron or steel object?
A Galvanising
B Oiling
C Painting
D Sacrificial protection
6. [2012-P1-Q30]. The diagram below shows an experiment which can be used to purify copper metal in the
laboratory.
249
Which of the labelled parts A, B, C or D represents the impure copper?
7. [2012-P1-Q31]. Which of the following is not one of the reasons why a lot of aluminium metal is recycled?
A Recycled aluminium is more resistant to corrosion.
B Recycling is a cheaper way of obtaining aluminium.
C Recycling reduces land degradation.
D Recycling conserves aluminium ores for future generation.
8. [2011-P1-Q33]. The diagram shows the blast furnace used to extract iron from haematite.
When substance X is drained and solidified, it is used mostly for...

A road building.
B making electric wires.
C making car bodies.
D making water pipes.
9. [2011-P1-Q34]. Which of the following is not a physical property of metals?

A They react with oxygen to form oxides.
B They have high melting and boiling points.
C They are good conductors of electricity and heat.
D They have high densities.
250
10. [2010-P1-Q36]. No two metals can have exactly the same ...
A volume.
B mass.
C properties.
D temperature.
11. [2009-P1-Q32]. Thermal stability of a metal nitrate depends on the reactivity of the metal. Which of the
following represents the change when potassium nitrate is heated?
A 4KNO3 → 2K 2 O + 4NO2 + O2
B 2KNO3 → 2KNO2 + O2
C KNO3 → No change
D 2KNO3 → K 2 O2 + 2NO + O2
12. [2009-P1-Q34]. When hydrogen is fitted into the reactivity series of metals, it comes immediately after…
A copper
B silver
C lead
D iron
13. [2009-P1-Q37]. A sample of air of volume 200 cm3 is enclosed in a tube containing moist iron filings. After
the iron has stopped rusting, what volume of air would be remaining?
A 40 cm3
B 200 cm3
C 160 cm3
D 200 cm3
14. [2004-P1-Q31]. Which of the following is not true about all metals?
A They can be hammered into different shapes.
B They can be drawn out to make wire.
C They are good conductors of electricity and heat.
D They are solid at room temperature
15. [2004-P1-Q32]. Fig 32.1 shows the blast furnace used to extract iron from Haematite. When substance X is
drained and solidified, it is used mostly for....
A making electromagnets.
B making permanent magnets.
C making electrical wires.
D road building.
251
16. [2004-P1-Q35]. An experiment was arranged as shown in the diagrams below.
The first test tube contained dry air, the second one boiled water, while the third one had air and unboiled
water. Which nail or nails would not rust?
A Nail 1
B Nails 1 and 2
C Nails 1 and 3
D Nails 2 and 3
17. [2003-P1-Q28]. Which of the following statements is true about photography?
A It is an exothermic process
B Silver metal ionises into silver ions
C Silver ions are reduced to silver atoms
D Silver salts are formed
18. [2003-P1-Q34]. Aluminium is used in aeroplane manufacturing because of its ...
A ductility and malleability
B malleability and high density
C strength and low density
D sonorous behaviour
19. [2003-P1-Q35]. During the extraction of iron from haematite, the ore, limestone and coke are mixed together
in preparation for heating in the blast furnace. The mixture is called ...
A a silicate
252
B bauxite
C iron ore
D charge
20. [2002-P1-Q34]. Which one of the following is the purest form of iron?
A cast iron
B mild steel
C pig iron
D wrought iron
21. [2002-P1-Q36]. One of the following methods does not prevent rusting. Which one is it?
A oiling
B cementing
C painting
D galvanising
22. [2001-P1-Q27]. Which of the following is a correct equation for the reaction of water and calcium metal?
A Ca + H2 O ⟶ CaOH + H
B 2Ca + 2H2 O ⟶ 2CaOH + H2
C Ca + 2H2 O ⟶ Ca(OH)2 + H2
D Ca + 2H2 O ⟶ Ca(OH)2 + 2H
23. [2001-P1-Q32]. Which arrangement below best fits the extraction of the indicated elements?
SODIUM IRON SULPHUR OXYGEN

Frasch Fractional
A Electrolysis Blast furnace
process liquifaction
Fractional Blast Frasch
B Electrolysis
liquifaction furnace process
Blast Frasch Fractional
C Electrolysis
furnace process liquifaction
Fractional Frasch
D Blast furnace Electrolysis
liquifaction process
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q3]
Zinc was added to aqueous copper (II) sulphate solution.
(a) Describe what would be observed in the above reaction. [2]
(b) 13 g of zinc completely reacted with aqueous copper (II) sulphate solution,
(i) Construct a chemical equation for this reaction. [1]
(ii) Calculate the mass of copper produced. [2]
2. [2015-P3-Q5]
Brass is an alloy of metals.
(a) Define the term alloy. [2]
(b) Name the two metals which make up brass. [1]
(c) Give any two reasons why the use of alloys is preferred to that of pure metals. [2]
253
3. [2013-P3-Q6]
(a) Give two ways by which rusting of iron can be prevented. [2]
(b) Burning and rusting are two chemical processes.
Give
(i) one similarity [1]
(ii) one difference
(c) (i) Name two non-metallic oxides which cause atmospheric pollution. [2]
(ii) State two sources of these pollutants. [2]
4. [2013-P3-Q7]
Zinc can be reacted with steam using the apparatus shown below in the reaction of zinc with
steam, gas A and solid B are formed.
(a) Name gas A. [1]

(b) State the product formed when gas A burns in air. [1]
(c) Give two uses of gas A. [1]
(d) (i) What is solid B? [1]
(ii) Construct a balanced chemical equation with state symbols for the reaction between
substance B and dilute hydrochloric acid. [3]
5. [2013-P3-Q8]
The main ore of iron, haematite, contains the compound iron (III) oxide, Fe2 O3 .
The iron (III) oxide is reduced in a blast furnace to form iron.
(a) Explain how the furnace is heated to the high temperature needed for the reduction of the
iron (III) oxide. [2]
(b) Name two processes that lead to the production of carbon dioxide in the blast furnace. [2]
(c) Carbon dioxide reacts with carbon to form carbon monoxide, construct a balanced chemical
equation for this reaction. [2]
(d) Apart from iron ore, name two other substances that are added into the blast furnace as raw
materials. [2]
(e) Name one element which is added to iron to make steel and state a use for the type of steel
made. [2]
6. [2012-P3-Q8]
The list below shows metals arranged in ascending order of reactivity:
254
Silver
Zinc
Aluminium
Sodium
Using metals from this list only, name:
(a) a metal which can be displaced by copper. [1]
(b) a metal which reacts with cold water to produce an alkaline solution. [1]
(c) a metal which forms an amphoteric oxide when burnt. [1]
(d) a metal whose carbonate does not decompose when heated. [1]
(e) a metal which forms a stable oxide layer. [1]
(f) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction between sodium and water. [2]
7. [2012-P3-Q9]
Iron is extracted from iron (III) oxide in a blast furnace. One of the main reactions in the furnace is
Fe2 O3 + CO ⇌ 2Fe + 3CO2
(a) Name two ores of iron. [2]
(b) Calculate the relative molecular mass of iron (III) oxide, Fe2 O3 . [1]
(c) What is the mass of iron that can be obtained from 80 tonnes of iron (III) oxide. [3]
(d) Iron often rusts. State three ways of preventing the rusting of iron. [3]
(e) Give one use of iron. [1]
8. [2011-P3-Q7]
Study the diagram below on the extraction of iron.
(a) (i) Apart from iron ore, name two other materials (C and D) that are fed into the reaction
chamber. [2]
(ii) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reduction reaction of iron ore to iron metal. [2]
(b) Name substances A and B. [2]
(c) State one physical characteristic of the brick lining in the furnace. [1]
255
9. [2010-P3-Q6]
Iron, calcium and copper are metals. The table below describes the reactions of these metals with cold
water and steam.
(a) (i) Put a tick if a reaction will take place and a cross (x) if a reaction will not take place.
Reaction of metal with cold water Reaction of metal with

steam
Metal
Copper
Iron
Calcium
(ii) Place these three metals in order of chemical activity, starting with the most reactive.
(b) Before experimenting with aluminium to place it in the above series, the surface of the
aluminium must first be scraped. Why is this necessary? [2]
(c) Give two reasons why it is important to recycle metals. [2]
10. [2009-P3-Q9]
The following experiment was set up to investigate the effect of damp air on iron filings. The graduated
cylinder contained 50cm3 of air at the start.
(a) State two changes which would be observed after 1 week. [2]
(b) What volume of air was in the graduated cylinder after 1 week? [1]
(c) (c) Calculate the % of air used up in the experiment. [2]
11. [2009-P3-Q11]
When magnesium is heated in a stream of steam, it reacts vigorously forming a white solid and
hydrogen gas.
256
(a) Complete the diagram to show how hydrogen gas can be collected. [2]
(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction of magnesium with steam. [3]
(c) Choose two other metals from the reactivity series of metals which will also react with steam
and one metal which will not react with steam. [3]
(d) Suggest a method which can be used to extract magnesium from its ores. [1]
(e) When a piece of magnesium is added to copper(ll) sulphate solution, copper metal is formed
according to the word equation below:
Magnesium + Copper (II) sulphate —> magnesium sulphate + copper.
(i) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. [1]

(ii) What type of a reaction is this? [1]
12. [2004-P3-Q9]
Fig 9.1 shows the Blast furnace.
257
(a) Name raw material A. [1]

(b) What is the function of material A in the Blast furnace? [1]
(c) Write an equation to show the production of Iron in the blast furnace. [2]
(d) (i) Name the gaseous reducing agent in the furnace. [1]
(ii) Construct an equation for a reaction in which it is produced. [1]
(e) The Iron produced by blast furnace is converted to Alloys. Explain what is meant by an “Alloy”. [2]
(f) Most car bodies are made from mild steel. Some are made from aluminium alloys. Explain one
disadvantage of each of these alloys for this purpose.
(i) mild steel
(ii) Aluminium Alloys [2]
13. [2004-P3-Q11]
Magnesium is a more reactive metal than iron.
(a) (i) Given a piece of magnesium metal and iron (II) chloride solution, describe how you would
confirm the above statement. [2]
(ii) Write a balanced equation with state symbols for the reaction. [2]
(b) Strontium is in the same group as magnesium. Is strontium more or less reactive than
magnesium? [1]
(c) Magnesium chloride is an ionic solid. Give the formulae of the particles present in the solid.
(d) Iron and copper are metals in the same period. ^
(i) Give one chemical similarity. [1]
(ii) Give one physical similarity. [1]
(iii) Name a common ore for each metal. [1]
14. [2001-P3-Q1]
(a) Give one property of the metal from the table below which makes it suitable for the stated use. [1]
(b) (i) Write a chemical equation, including state symbols, for the reaction that takes place when a
magnesium metal strip is placed in a solution of zinc sulphate. [2]
(ii) The above reaction can be described as both a displacement and redox reaction. Justify
the underlined terms. [2]
15. [2001-P3-Q11]
The diagram below shows a kiln used to decompose limestone.
258
(a) What is the chemical formula of limestone? [1]

(b) Identify F and G. [2]
(c) Describe the test for gas F. [2]
(d) Mention two uses of substance G and one use of limestone. [3]
(e) Explain why limestone may not be used to prepare calcium sulphate by reacting it with dilute
sulphuric acid. [2]
259
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. D. Some metals such as sodium, are soft, can form clear compounds, and can be found native e.g. gold.
2. D. Haematite is one of the ores of iron metal.
3. B. Aluminium’s ability to conduct electricity has nothing to do with it being used to make cooking utensils.
4. C. Car bodies are made of made still because of its strength.
5. D. Sacrificial protection is the protection of iron or steel against corrosion by attaching a metal that is more
reactive than iron e.g. zinc. The zinc metal corrodes instead of the iron.
6. A. Copper is purified by a process called electrolysis. The impure copper is used as the anode whereas the
pure copper is the cathode.
7. A.
8. A. Substance X is slag. It is used for road surfacing.
9. A. Physical properties of a substance are things that you can see, smell, feel or measure without changing
its chemical composition. Physical properties include: appearance, texture, color, odor, melting point,
boiling point, density, solubility, polarity, and many others.
10. C. Properties vary from one metal to the other. E.g. some metals are more reactive than others, or some
metals will react with oxygen, while others will not.
11. B. Nitrates of potassium and sodium decompose by heat to the nitrite of the metal and oxygen gas. For
example, KNO3 decomposes to KNO2 and O2 gas.
Note: The nitrite is a radical, NO−
2 coming from the ionization of a weak acid called nitrous
acid, HNO2 . It is different from nitric acid, HNO3 whose radical is called the nitrate, NO−
3.
12. C. Hydrogen is placed between lead and copper on the Reactivity Series.
13. C. Rusting is a reaction of Iron and oxygen. Air contains about 20 % oxygen. 80 % of the air remains after
the reaction. Calculate 80 % of 200 cm3
14. D. Not all metals are solid at room temperature. For example Mercury is a metal and it is a liquid.
15. D. Substance X is slag. It is used for road building.
16. B. Rusting requires two things to occur: air and moisture. The calcium oxide removed moisture from the air
in the test tube (it is a dehydrating agent), while boiling removed trapped air that was within the water.
17. C. When light hits a silver bromide film, silver ions are reduced to silver atoms. Reduction is the removal of
oxygen from a compound.
18. C. Low density entails that aluminium weighs less per unit volume. It is strong and lighter than other metals.
19. D. The mixture is called the charge.
20. D. Cast iron and pig iron are the same, while mild steel is an alloy of iron and carbon. Wrought iron is the
purest.
21. B
22. C
23. C
260
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q3]
(a) The zinc dissolves into solution and the solution turns from blue to colourless. Copper precipitate
collects at the bottom.
(b) (i) Chemical equation:
Zn(s) + CuS04(aq) → Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq)
(ii) From the balanced equation and on mass basis, insert below the equation masses of Zn and Cu
only. Balanced equation: Zn(s) + CuS04(aq) → Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq)
Mass ratio: 65 g yields 64 g
13 g yields x
13 × 64
Cross multiplying, x= = 12.8 g
65
.
2. [2015-P3-Q5]
(a) An alloy is a mixture formed by combining two or more molten metals together.
(b) Copper and zinc.
(c) Reasons:
 Alloys are much stronger than the pure metals alone e.g. steel is stronger than iron.
 Alloys can be less prone to chemical attack e.g. stainless steel is less prone to rusting than
iron.
3. [2013-P3-Q6]
(a) Preventing rusting of iron:
 Galvanising with zinc.
 Painting.
Note: Other methods include oiling or greasing and sacrificial protection.
(b) Burning and rusting:

(i) Similarity: both processes involve reaction with oxygen and produce heat.
(ii) Difference: burning is a faster process than rusting. Rate of heat production is slower during
rusting than during burning.
(c) Sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide.
(i) Sources:
 Sulphur dioxide: burning of fossil fuels.
 Carbon monoxide: car exhausts.
4. [2013-P3-Q7]
(a) Hydrogen gas.
(b) Hydrogen burns (reacts with oxygen) in air producing water vapour.
(c) Uses of hydrogen:
 Manufacture of ammonia.
 Manufacture of margarine or butter.
261
(d) (i) Zinc oxide.

(ii) Zinc oxide is a base. When reacted with HCl, water and zinc chloride are formed.
ZnO(s) + HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2 O(l)
5. [2013-P3-Q8]
(a) The heat liberated from the combustion of the coke (carbon) with the hot air blasted at the bottom of the
furnace provides the high temperature necessary for the reduction process.
(b) Combustion of the Coke and the Calcium carbonate produce carbon dioxide respectively.
(c) Reaction:
CO2(g) + C(s) → 2CO(g)
(d) Other raw materials: Coke and calcium carbonate.
(e) Chromium is added to make stainless steel used in steel cutlery.
6. [2012-P3-Q8]
(a) Silver. It is below copper on the Reactivity Series.
(b) Sodium.
(c) Zinc or Aluminium. An amphoteric substance is one that can react as either an acid or base. Examples
of amphoteric substances e.g. zinc oxide and aluminium oxide.
(d) Sodium. Carbonates of sodium and potassium do not decompose on heating.
(e) Zinc.
(f) Sodium reacts with water to produce sodium hydroxide and hydrogen.
Na(s) + H2 O(l) → NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
7. [2012-P3-Q9]
(a) Haematite and Magnetite.
(b) Relative atomic masses of Fe = 56 and O = 16.
Relative molecular mass = (2 × 56) + (3 × 16) = 112 + 48 = 160
(c) From the balanced equation and on mass basis, insert below the equation masses of Fe2 O3 and Fe
only.
Fe2 O3 + CO ⇌ 2Fe + 3CO2
160 ton yield 112 ton
80 ton will yield x ton of Fe
112×80
Cross multiplying, x = = 56 ton of Fe.
160
Hint: it was unnecessary to insert masses of other materials in the equation which were not concerned
in the calculation.
(d) Preventing rusting of iron:
 Painting.
 Oiling or greasing.
(e) Use of iron: manufacture of stainless steel cutlery.
262
8. [2011-P3-Q7]
(a) (i) Other raw materials: Coke and calcium carbonate.
(ii) Reduction reactions involve the iron ore and carbon monoxide. Carbon monoxide is a reducing
agent. It strips the ore of the oxygen so that only Fe metal remains.
Fe2 O3 + 3CO ⇌ 2Fe + 3CO2
(b) A is the slag
B is the molten iron.
(c) Brick lining is made of heat resistant bricks.
9. [2010-P3-Q6]
(a) (i) Refer to the table.
Reaction of metal with cold Reaction of metal with

Metal
water steam
Copper × ×
Iron × √
Calcium √ √
(iii) Order of reactivity from most to least reactive:

Calcium
Iron
Copper
(b) To remove the protective film of oxide and expose the aluminium inside.
(c) Recycling:
 Conserves metal ores for future generations.
 To reduce land degradation caused by piles of unrecycled scrap metal.
10. [2009-P3-Q9]
(a) Changes:
 Water level in cylinder rises.
 The iron filings change colour (rusts).
(b) Volume of air used:
Volume used = initial volume − final volume
= 50 − 40
= 10 cm3
(c) Percentage of air used:
volume of air used
Percentage used = × 100 %
initial volune
10
= × 100
50
= 20 %
263
11. [2009-P3-Q11]
(a) Magnesium reacts with steam to produce magnesium oxide and hydrogen gas. Hydrogen is collected
over water or downward displacement of water.
Note: Metals such as magnesium, zinc and iron react with steam to form the metal oxide and hydrogen gas.
Metals such as potassium and sodium react with cold water to produce the metal hydroxide and hydrogen.
(b) Magnesium oxide and hydrogen gas are produced.

Mg (s) + H2 O(g) → MgO(s) + H2(g)
Note that the equation is self-balanced and the state symbol for water is (g) and not (l) since it is steam.
(c) Reaction with steam: zinc and iron [aluminium also reacts with steam].
Will not react with steam: copper.
(d) Magnesium can be extracted by Electrolysis.
(e) (i) Chemical equation is:
Mg (s) + CuSO4(aq) → MgSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(ii) It is a Displacement reaction since magnesium is more reactive than copper.
12. [2004-P3-Q9]
(a) Lime stone or calcium carbonate.
(b) Limestone is used to remove impurities. It produces calcium oxide that binds with the silica to produce
slag.
(c) Iron (III) oxide is reduced to iron by carbon monoxide.
Fe2 O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g)
(d) (i) Carbon dioxide.
(ii) Carbon monoxide is produced when carbon dioxide reacts with the coke.
CO2(g) + C(s) → 2CO(g)
(e) An alloy is a mixture formed by combining two or more molten metals together.
(f) Disadvantage:
 Mild steel: is heavier and easily corrodes when exposed to water and air.
 Aluminium: is weaker and car bodies easily deform during collisions.
264
13. [2004-P3-Q11]
(a) (i) When a piece of magnesium is placed in the iron (II) chloride, the magnesium dissolves and the
solution turns from green to brown. Iron is displaced out of solution as a brown precipitate.
(ii) This is a displacement reaction:
Mg (s) + FeCl2(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + Fe(s)
(b) Strontium is more reactive than magnesium. Reactivity of Group II metals increases as you go down the
group.
(c) Magnesium chloride contains one magnesium ion and two chloride ions. The particles or ions
are Mg 2+ and Cl− .
(d) (i) Chemical similarity: both copper and iron form coloured compounds.
(ii) Physical similarity: both are solids at room temperature and pressure.
(iii) Iron is mined from haematite
Copper is mined from copper pyrite.
14. [2001-P3-Q1]
(a) Refer to the table.
Metal Use Property for its suitability

(i) Aluminium Making soft drink tins Lighter and is not attacked by chemicals,
easily molded, malleable, light and strong.
Does not corrode easily. Forms protective

(ii) Zinc Galvanizing iron layer.
(iii) Mild steel Making car bodies High strength.
(b) (i) Magnesium is more reactive than zinc. It will displace the zinc out of solution.
Mg (s) + ZnSO4(aq) → MgSO4(aq) + Zn(s)
(ii) It is also a redox because the zinc ions accept electrons from magnesium and get reduced to zinc
metal whereas magnesium atoms gets oxidised to magnesium ions.
15. [2001-P3-Q11]
(a) Limestone is calcium carbonate, CaCO3 .
(b) Decomposition of calcium carbonate produces calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
F is carbon dioxide whereas G is Calcium oxide.
(c) Gas F (carbon dioxide) turns lime water milky.
(d) Uses of substance G (calcium oxide):
 Manufacture of cement.
 Used to dry ammonia gas (it is hygroscopic or absorbs water).
Uses of limestone: used in the extraction of iron.
(e) Because calcium sulphate being sparingly soluble forms a protective layer on the outside preventing the
sulphuric acid from acting upon the inside. The reaction slows down and finally stops.
265
TOPIC 9: NON METALS

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q34]. Which one of the following compounds contains two elements essential to plant growth?
A Ammonium nitrate
B Potassium nitrate
C Potassium sulphate
D Sodium phosphate
2. [2015-P1-Q35]. The diagram below shows processes that lead to manufacturing of ammonia.
Which of the following identifies W, X and Y?

W X Y
A Oil Air Vanadium (V) oxide
B Oil Air Iron
C Air Oil Iron
D Air Oil Vanadium (V) oxide
3. [2013-P1-Q32]. What is the identity test of the gas formed when an ammonium salt reacts with an alkali?
A It relights a glowing splint.
B It turns damp red litmus paper blue.
C It burns with a ‘pop’ sound.
D It turns limewater milky.
4. [2013-P1-Q39]. Hydrogen is manufactured by the steam reforming of natural gas according to the equation
below:
CH4 (g) + H2 O(g) → CO2 (g) + 3H3 (g)
What catalyst is used in this process?
A manganese (IV) oxide
B Iron (III) oxide
C Nickel
D Platinum
5. [2013-P1-Q40]. Which of the following is not a use of ammonia?
A manufacture of ammonium nitrate
B manufacture of nitrogen
C manufacture of nitric acid
D manufacture of ammonium chloride.
266
6. [2012-P1-Q39]. Which of the following pollutant gases is the major cause of acid rain?
A Nitrogen monoxide
B Chlorofluorocarbons
C Carbon monoxide
D Sulphur dioxide
7. [2012-P1-Q40]. Ammonia is manufactured by the Haber Process using the reaction represented by the
equation below.
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g)
What are the conditions of temperature and pressure which are used to obtain a satisfactory yield of
ammonia?
Temperature Pressure
A 300 °C 450 atm.
B 500 °C 250 atm.
C 1000 °C 20 atm.
D 450 °C 700 atm.
8. [2011-P1-Q30]. Slaked lime is added to liquid waste from factories in order to ...
A protect the water.
B protect aquatic creatures.
C minimise the H+ ions in the water.
D minimise the OH' ions in the water.
9. [2011-P1-Q35]. The gases coming from a car’s exhaust contain oxides of nitrogen. How are these oxides
formed? Nitrogen reacts with ...
A carbon dioxide.
B carbon monoxide.
C oxygen.
D petrol.
10. [2011-P1-Q36]. When hydrogen is passed over black powder (Copper (II) oxide) the black powder turns
pink. The reaction is shown in the equation below.
Copper (II) oxide + hydrogen ⟶ copper + water
In this reaction, hydrogen is...
A the oxidising agent.
B the reducing agent.
C one of the products.
D being reduced.
11. [2010-P1-Q22]. Air is used to inflate tyres because ...
A it is readily compressed.
B its molecules move randomly.
C it serves as a coolant.
D it gets into the tyres faster than other substances.
12. [2010-P1-Q37]. During the Haber process, the unreacted nitrogen and hydrogen are ...
A scrubbed again.
267
B compressed further.
C pumped back to the catalyst.
D run into tanks to be stored as a liquid.
13. [2009-P1-Q34]. When hydrogen is fitted into the reactivity series of metals, it comes immediately after…
A copper
B silver
C lead
D iron
14. [2009-P1-Q35]. Which of the following is used in the manufacturing of margarine?

A Oxygen
B Nitrogen
C Propane
D Hydrogen
15. [2009-P1-Q36]. Three similar test tubes containing the gases K, L and M are inserted as shown in the figure
below.
The gases K, L, and M could be...

K L M
A CO C02 NH3
B CO2 NH3 CO2
C C02 CO NH3
D NH3 CO2 CO
16. [2004-P1-Q34]. The percentage of noble gases, carbon dioxide and water vapour in air is about ...
A 1
B 20
C 78
D 79
17. [2004-P1-Q37]. An example of a fuel nutrient is…
A sugar cane.
B vitamin A.
C mineral salts.
D Petrol and kerosene.
268
18. [2003-P1-Q36]. In the near future it is likely that hydrogen will be used as a fuel because ...
A it is colourless
B it is the lightest gas of all the known gases
C it can be used to make solvents like methanol
D when it burns in air only water rather than harmful gases are formed
19. [2003-P1-Q39]. The figure below represents the Haber process used to manufacture Ammonia.
Material X should be made of...

A Aluminium
B Ammonia
C Iron
D Carbon
20. [2001-P1-Q31]. Substance Q was heated as shown in the diagram. The litmus paper first turned from red to
blue and then to red again.
FIRST CHANGE SECOND CHANGE

A ammonia chlorine
B ammonia hydrogen chloride
C hydrogen chloride ammonia
D chlorine ammonia
269
21. [2001-P1-Q33]. The diagram shows the collection method of one of the gases
Why is the gas collected not sulphur dioxide?

A Sulphur dioxide is a soluble gas.
B Sulphur dioxide is denser than water.
C Sulphur dioxide is an amphoteric oxide.
D Sulphur dioxide is a basic oxide
22. [2001-P1-Q37]. The following experiment represents the destructive distillation of coal. This process is
carried out industrially on a large scale.
Which letter correctly identifies a labelled substance?

A cold water
B coal
C tar
D methane
23. [2001-P1-Q40]. The schematic diagram below represents the Haber Process for the synthesis of ammonia.
270
The nitrogen for this process is obtained from

A natural gas.
B water-gas.
C the atmosphere.
D the catalyst
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q6]
(a) Name any two water pollutants. [2]
(b) State the effects of the following air pollutants on the environment.
(i) sulphur dioxide [1]
(ii) carbon monoxide [1]
(iii) carbon dioxide. [1]
2. [2015-P3-Q11]
Ammonia gas is industrially produced by the Haber process. It is important in the manufacture of
fertilizers.
(a) Using a 'dot' and 'cross' diagram, draw a full electron shell diagram for an ammonia molecule. [2]
(b) Construct a balanced chemical equation for the formation of ammonia by the Haber process. [2]
(c) Ammonia reacts with sulphuric acid to form ammonium sulphate, one of the important
nitrogenous fertilizers, according to the equation below;
2NH3 (g) + H2 SO4 (aq) → (NH4 )2 SO4 (aq)
(i) Calculate the percentage by mass of nitrogen in ammonium sulphate. [2]
(ii) Determine the mass of ammonium sulphate that would be produced from 68 g of
ammonia. [2]
(d) (i) Explain why ammonium sulphate is used as a fertiliser. [1]
(ii) Some bags of fertilizer are labelled NPK. State what these letters stand for. [1]
3. [2012-P3-Q7]
Oxygen and nitrogen are the major gases present in the clean air. Other gases which are present
in the clean air in small quantities include carbon dioxide and argon.
(a) State the percentage of oxygen and nitrogen in the air. [2]
(b) Briefly describe how you would show that carbon dioxide is present in the air. [2]
(c) Argon is a noble gas. What chemically makes it unreactive? [1]
4. [2011-P3-Q5]
Urea, (NH2 )2 CO and water are formed when ammonia reacts with carbon dioxide.
Urea is obtained as a solid from the reaction mixture.
(a) (i) Write a balanced chemical equation including state symbols for this reaction. [3]
(ii) How many atoms of hydrogen are present in one molecule of urea? [1]
(b) What mass of urea in tonnes can be formed from 34 tonnes of ammonia? [2]
271
5. [2011-P3-Q6]
(a) Name three of the components of clean, dry air. [3]
(b) Air can be polluted by various chemicals.
(i) Give the chemical name for one of these air pollutants. [1]
(ii) Name the source of the pollutant mentioned in b(i) above. [1]
(c) State the process by which it is produced. [1]
6. [2010-P3-Q10]
Air is a mixture of gases
(a) What does the word mixture mean? [1]
(b) Rusting is one of the processes that uses oxygen.
(i) Name two other processes in nature that use up oxygen. [2]
(ii) State three ways of preventing rusting. [3]
(c) Oxides of lead are among the pollutants found in air. For these pollutants:
(i) State the major source
(ii) One effect they have on human beings.
(iii) One way of minimizing or eliminating their presence in air. [3]
(d) Greenhouse gases are gases that retain heat energy and this raises the average air
temperature over the earth. This is known as global warming. State one disadvantage of
global warming. [1]
7. [2009-P3-Q6]
Nitrogen and oxygen are the two main gases present in the air. Both gases are obtained from air.
(a) By what process are the two gases obtained from the air? [1]
(b) Nitrogen is used in the manufacture of ammonia by the Haber Process. State any 2 important
conditions for the reaction in which ammonia is formed by the Haber Process. [2]
(c) State one important use of ammonia. [1]
8. [2009-P3-Q8]
The reaction below takes place during the production of calcium oxide when calcium carbonate is
thermally decomposed.
CaCO3 (s) → CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
(a) Give a common name for:
(i) Calcium carbonate. [1]
(ii) Calcium oxide. [1]
(iii) Calcium hydroxide. [1]
(b) What is the Chemical Formula of Calcium hydroxide? [1]
9. [2009-P3-Q12]
(a) The increase in industrial activity in Zambian cities has results in high levels of atmosphere
(air) pollution. Carbon monoxide is one of the pollutants of the air
(i) How is carbon monoxide produced? [1]
(ii) Explain why carbon monoxide is a dangerous gas. [1]
272
(iii) Name the pollutant gas which is mainly responsible for producing acid rain. [2]
(b) (i) State the two main stages in the purification of domestic water supply. [2]
(ii) Give two industrial uses of water. [2]
(c) When steam is passed over very hot carbon, a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen gas
is formed.
H2 O(g) + C(s) ⟶ H2 (g) + CO(g)
State which substance is
(i) reduced.
(ii) oxidised. [2]
10. [2004-P3-Q7]
(a) Give the composition of clean air by volume. [3]
(b) State one adverse effect of acidic pollutants. [1]
(c) Name three uses of oxygen. [3]
11. [2003-P3-Q10]
The diagram below shows the apparatus used to manufacture ammonia.
(a) (i) Give one natural source of Ammonia. [1]

(ii) Name the substances A and B. [2]
(iii) What is W composed of? [1]
(iv) State the condition necessary for the production of Ammonia. [2]
(v) Write the equation for the reaction between A and B. [2]
(b) Write an equation for the reaction between Ammonia solution and sulphuric acid. [2]
12. [2001-P3-Q9]
(a) Explain what you understand by the term Photosynthesis [2]
(b) Name any two non-metallic oxides which cause pollution of the atmosphere. [2]
273
(c) Indicate the sources of these pollutants. [2]

(d) Mention one measure being taken to minimize the effect of each one of these pollutants. [2]
(e) Compare the processes below:
(i) Combustion as applied to fuels. [1]
(ii) Respiration as applied to animals. [1]
274
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. B. The three essential elements are Nitrogen, Potassium and Phosphorus.
2. B.
3. B. Ammonia gas is produced when an ammonium salt is reacted with an alkali. Ammonia is the only alkaline
gas and it turns red litmus paper blue.
4. C.
5. B. Nitrogen is abundant in the air and does not need to be manufactured.
6. D.
7. B
8. C. The more the H + ions, the more acidic the water.
9. C.
10. B. It has removed oxygen from the copper (II) oxide.
11. A
12. C. The unreacted nitrogen and hydrogen are recycled back to the reaction chamber where the catalyst is.
13. C. Hydrogen is found between lead and copper on the Reactivity Series.
14. D. Hydrogen is bubbled into fats to produce the margarine.
15. A. Ammonia gas is more soluble than carbon dioxide which, in turn, is more soluble than carbon monoxide.
16. A. Air contains 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen and 1%
17. A. Sugar cane contains carbohydrates that the body uses for energy and nourishment.
18. D. Combustion of hydrogen produces water and water does not harm the environment.
19. C. Iron is used as a catalyst in the production of ammonia.
20. B. Ammonia is an alkaline gas, while hydrogen chloride is an acid compound. Chlorine turns litmus paper
white (it bleaches).
21. A. Sulphur dioxide is soluble in water. It mixes with rain to form acid rain.
22. A. Destructive distillation is a process by which organic substances such as wood and coal are decomposed
by heat in the absence of oxygen. The cold water dissolves the ammonia gas that is produced to form
ammonia solution.
23. C. The atmosphere contains 78 % nitrogen and so there is no need to manufacture it. It is obtained by
fractional distillation of air.
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q6]
(a) Water pollutants:
 Human and animal waste (excreta).
 Oil and chemicals from industrial waste.
(b) (i) Sulphur causes acid rain that destroys plants and buildings.
(ii) Carbon monoxide is toxic and causes respiratory and brain damage.
(ii) Carbon dioxide contributes to global warming.
275
2. [2015-P3-Q11]
(a) An ammonia molecule contains three hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to one nitrogen atom.
(b) Reactants are hydrogen and nitrogen forming ammonia.

N2(g) +3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
(c) (i) Percentage by mass of nitrogen is the ratio of the mass of nitrogen in the molecule divided by the
mass of the entire molecule, then multiplying it by 100%.
First find molecule mass of ammonium sulphate:
(NH4 )2 SO4 = 2(14 + 4) + 32 + (4 × 16) = 132
mass of N
% mass of N = × 100
mass of (NH4 )2 SO4
28
∴ % mass N = × 100
132
= 21 %
(ii) Insert below the balanced equation masses of ammonia and ammonium sulphate only.
2NH3 +H2 SO4 ⇌ (NH4 )2 SO4
34 g 132 g
68 g x
Cross multiplying,
68 × 132
x= = 264 g
34
Therefore, 68 g ammonia produces 264 g ammonium sulphate.
(d) (i) Because it contains Nitrogen which is essential for plant growth.
(ii) NPK stands for: Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), and Potassium (K).
3. [2012-P3-Q7]
(a) Air contains about 21% oxygen and 78% nitrogen.
(b) Carbon dioxide can be detected in a sample of air by bubbling it through lime water. If the lime water
turns milky, then carbon dioxide is present.
(c) Argon is chemically unreactive because it has a stable electronic structure that is very difficult to
change.
276
4. [2011-P3-Q5]
(a) (i) Chemical equation:
2NH3(g) + CO2(g) → (NH2 )2 CO(s) + H2 O(l)
(ii) There are four (4) hydrogen atoms in a molecule of Urea.
(b) Insert below the balanced equation masses of ammonia and Urea only.
2NH3(g) + CO2(g) → (NH2 )2 CO(s) + H2 O(l)
34 g 60 g
34 ton x
34 × 60
x= = 60 ton
34
Therefore, 34 tonnes ammonia produces 60 tonnes of Urea.
5. [2011-P3-Q6]
(a) Components of clean dry air:
 Nitrogen gas − 78%
 Oxygen gas − 21%
 Other gases − 1%
(b) (i) Carbon monoxide.
(ii) Car exhausts.
(c) Incomplete combustion of fuels. Incomplete combustion means combustion in limited oxygen.
6. [2010-P3-Q10]
(a) A mixture is a combination of two or more substances not chemically bound to each other and can be
separated by physical means.
(b) (i) Other processes that use oxygen:
 Respiration
 Combustion.
(ii) Preventing rusting of iron:
 Painting.
 Oiling or greasing.
(c) (i) Source of lead oxides: combustion of leaded fuels such as petrol.
(ii) Lead oxides are toxic and affect the nervous system.
(iii) Use of alternative energy sources such as ethanol as fuel.
(d) Prolonged droughts and floods.
7. [2009-P3-Q6]
(a) By Fractional distillation.
(b) Conditions for ammonia production:
 A lower temperature of about 500℃.
277
 A high pressure of about 200 atmospheres.

(c) Production of nitrogenous fertilisers e.g. ammonium nitrate.
8. [2009-P3-Q8]
(a) (i) Calcium carbonate is Limestone.
(ii) Calcium oxide is Quick lime.
(iii) Calcium hydroxide is Slaked lime.
(b) Chemical formula of calcium hydroxide is Ca(OH)2 .
9. [2009-P3-Q12]
(a) (i) Carbon monoxide is produced from incomplete combustion of fuels.
(ii) Carbon monoxide is toxic and cause respiratory and brain damage.
(iii) Sulphur dioxide.
(b) (i) Two main stages are filtration and disinfection.
(ii) Industrial uses of water:
 As a solvent.
 As a coolant
Also for cleaning and as a chemical reactant.
(c) (i) Water has been reduced to hydrogen (i.e. loss of oxygen)
(ii) Carbon has been oxidised (i.e. gain of oxygen)
10. [2004-P3-Q7]
(a) Composition of clean air is 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and 1% other gases.
(b) Destruction of vegetation and buildings.
(c) Uses of oxygen:
 Breathing aid for patients in hospitals, for divers and climbers.
 Used in steel production.
 In hydrogen-oxygen fuelled rockets.
11. [2003-P3-Q10]
(a) (i) Decomposition of organic matter, including plants, animals and animal waste.
(ii) A is nitrogen
B is hydrogen
(iii) W is a mixture of unreacted nitrogen and hydrogen.
(iv) A low temperature (500℃) and a higher pressure (200 atmosphere).
(v) Reactants are hydrogen and nitrogen forming ammonia.
N2(g) +3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
(b) Ammonia solution is also called ammonium hydroxide. It reacts with sulphuric acid to produce
ammonium sulphate and water.
2NH4 OH(aq) + H2 SO4(aq) → (NH4 )2 SO4(aq) + 2H2 O(l)
278
12. [2002-P3-Q2]
(a) Relative molecular mass of Sodamide is:
Na 23
N 14
H2 2
̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
39
This mass can be converted to actual masses by adding mass units such as grams, kilogram or tonnes.
This means 39 tonnes of Sodamide contains 14 tonnes of nitrogen, 23 tonnes sodium and 2 tonnes
hydrogen. Therefore, mass of Sodamide that will contain 14 tonnes nitrogen is 39 tonnes.
(b) Two other essential elements are Phosphorus (P) and Potassium (K).
13. [2001-P3PQ9]
(a) Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into
simple sugars.
(b) Sulphur dioxide and Carbon monoxide.
(c) Sulphur dioxide: burning of fossil fuels.
Carbon monoxide: car exhausts.
(d) Sulphur dioxide: Use of alternative energy sources such as ethanol.
Carbon monoxide: use of catalytic converters.
(e) Respiration and Combustion
 involve breakdown of chemical bonds,
 use of oxygen, production of carbon dioxide, and
 release of energy,
Differences between the two processes are:
 Combustion releases a large amount of energy into heat and light, and raising the temperature
greatly.
 Cellular respiration releases energy in steps. Only a small amount of energy dissipates as
heat.
279
TOPIC 10: ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

SECTION A
1. [2015-P1-Q27]. Ethane C2 H4 burns in oxygen completely according to the balanced equation below.

Which of the following sets of coefficients balances the equation correctly?
a b c d
A 1 3.5 2 3
B 1 7 4 5
C 2 7 4 6
D 2 3.5 4 6
2. [2015-P1-Q36]. Consider the three structures labelled I, II and III.
Which of the above structures are isomers?

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
3. [2015-P1-Q37]. The test results on compound Z are shown below.
Test Result
Addition of bromine solution Bromine is rapidly decolourised
Addition of sodium carbonate Carbon dioxide gas is produced
280
Which of the following compounds best fits the above description?
(d) [2015-P1-Q38]. A polymer has the structure shown below.
What is the molecular formula of the monomer?

A C2 H4
B C2 H6
C C3 H6
D C3 H8
(e) [2015-P1-Q39]. Which compound is formed by reacting ethene with steam in the presence of hot phosphoric
acid catalyst?
A Ethane
B Ethanol
C Propane
D Propanol
(f) [2015-P1-Q40]. Which of the following processes involves formation of small molecules from large
molecules?
A Formation of starch from glucose.
B Polymerisation of ethene.
C Hydrogenation of ethene.
D Fermentation of sugar.
281
(g) [2013-P1-Q34]. Ethene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon. Its structure is shown below.
What product is formed when ethene reacts with chlorine?
(h) [2013-P1-Q35]. An organic compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen is represented by the
diagram below.
What could the compound be?

A Ethanol
B Propane
C Ethanoic acid
D Propanol
(i) [2013-P1-Q36]. Methane, CH4 , the first member of the alkane homologous series, has the boiling point -
161°C.
Which molecular formula and boiling point could be correct for another alkane?
282
A C2 H4 -88
B C2 H6 -185
C C3 H6 -65
D C3 H8 -42
(j) [2013-P1-Q37]. Terylene (polyester) is made by the condensation polymerisation of the two monomers
shown.
What is the simplest repeat unit of the polymer?
(k) [2012-P1-Q28]. Which one of the following is likely to be the molecular formula of a hydrocarbon containing
85.7% carbon and 14.3% hydrogen by mass?
A C2 H6
B C3 H8
C C5 H12
D C6 H12
(l) [2012-P1-Q34]. When ethanol vapour is passed over heated alumina, ethene is formed according to the
equation below:
What term is used to describe the above reaction?

A Reduction
B Hydrolysis
C Substitution
D Dehydration
283
(m) [2012-P1-Q35]. Which of the pairs of compounds represents isomers?
(n) [2012-P1-Q36]. The structure below shows an addition polymer.
The monomer for the above polymer is…
284
(o) [2012-P1-Q37]. Which of the compounds below is likely to be present in the petrol fraction?
A C3 H8
B C6 H14
C C12 H26
D C24 H50
(p) [2011-P1-Q38]. Some structures of organic compounds are shown below.
Which compound(s) decolourise bromine water?

A 1 and 2
B 2 and 4
C 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
(q) [2011-P1-Q39]. Ethanol for use as a solvent is made from ethene and steam as shown below.
This reaction is called…

A polymerisation.
B fermentation.
C addition.
D hydrolysis.
285
(r) [2011-P1-Q40]. Which of the following is the structure of polypropene?
(s) [2010-P1-Q39]. Which of the following alkanes has the highest boiling point?
A CH4
B C2 H6
C C3 H8
D C4 H10
(t) [2010-P1-Q40]. Plastics which get soft only once the first time they are heated are called ...
A thermoplastics.
B thermosets.
C isomers.
D monomers
(u) [2009-P1-Q27]. Below is a chemical equation.
What are the correct values of a, b, c and d?
a b c d
A 2 7 4 6
B 1 7 2 3
C 1 5 4 6
D 2 5 4 6
(v) [2009-P1-Q38]. Cyclobutane has the structure …
Which of the following is true about cyclobutane?

A It is alkene
B It is a saturated hydrocarbon
C Its empirical formula is the same as that of all alkanes
D It decolourizes bromine solution rapidly.
286
(w) [2009-P1-Q39]. What is the reaction product when ethene is treated with steam using phosphoric acid as
catalyst at 300°C?
A ethyl phosphate
B ethanol
C ethanoic acid
D ethyl ethanoate
(x) [2009-P1-Q40]. A compound, P, has the molecular structure as shown.
How can P be described?
A Both as an alkane and as an acid.

B Both as an alkene and as an acid.
C Both as an alkane and as an alcohol.
D Both as an alkene and as an alcohol.
(y) [2004-P1-Q38]. Which compound is represented below?
A Ethane
B Ethene
C Ethanol
D Ethanoic acid
(z) [2004-P1-Q39]. The organic product of the reaction between CH3 OH and HCOOH is
A CH3 OCH3
B CH3 COOH
C CHOOCH3
D CH3 OOH
287
(aa) [2004-P1-Q40]. Which of the following structures represents Terylene?
(bb) [2003-P1-Q37]. Which substance below belongs to a homologous series of the general formula Cn H2n ?
A Ethane
B Ethanoic acid
C Ethene
D Ethanol
(cc) [2003-P1-Q38]. Cracking is important in the oil industry because it helps to produce...
A short chains alkenes which can be used to make other substances
B alcohol such as ethanol with some methanoic acid
C alkanes which are made into polythene and methanol
D cooking oil and sugars from crude oil
(dd) [2003-P1-Q40]. Study the structure of an organic compound below.
Which natural and artificial macro molecules are represented by the bond linkages?
Natural Artificial
A Starch Nylon
B Fats Terylene
C Proteins Nylon
D Carbohydrates Polythene
(ee) [2002-P1-Q31]. The addition of water molecules to an unsaturated alkane is represented by the reaction,
The name of the compound produced is

A ethene
B ethane
C methanol
D ethanol
288
(ff) [2002-P1-Q32]. A compound Z burns with smoke and when mixed with potassium manganate (VII), the
potassium manganate (VII) is decolourized. What type of compound is Z?
A a polymer
B a saturated compound
C an unsaturated compound
D an alkane
(gg) [2002-P1-Q37]. Which of the following is not a condensation polymer?
A Terylene
B starch
C P.V.C
D nylon
(hh) [2002-P1-Q38].
Which of the above compounds are isomers?

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D 1,11 and III
(ii) [2002-P1-Q39]. Which of the following processes would result in smaller molecules being produced from
larger molecules?
A polymerisation
B hydration
C esterification
D cracking
(jj) [2002-P1-Q40]. State the final product for the hydrolysis of carbohydrates.
A simple sugars
B ethanol
C polymers
D alcohols
289
(kk) [2001-P1-Q34]. A compound consists of 85.7% carbon and 14.3% hydrogen. If the relative formula mass of
the compound is 32.1, which structural formula below represents this compound?
(ll) [2001-P1-Q35]. The table shows the results of reacting gases X, Y and Z with bromine water.
Experiment Results
X + bromine water Bromine water decolourizes

Y + bromine water Bromine water remains the same
Z + bromine water Bromine water remains the same
Which of the statements about X, Y and Z is true?

A X and Y have a double bond in them.
B Y and Z have a double bond in them.
C X and Z are saturated hydrocarbons.
D Y and Z are saturated hydrocarbons.
(mm) [2001-P1-Q38]. Which of the following pairs of chemicals would result in the production of a sweet smelling
substance when reacted?
A methane and oxygen
B ethanol and sulphuric acid
C ethanol and ethanoic acid
D ethane and ethene.
290
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q7].
The structures below represent various organic compounds.
(a) Name the polymer produced when structure

(i) B is polymerised [1]
(ii) C is polymerised [1]
(b) Explain why the burning of compound A in a limited supply of air is dangerous. [1]
(c) A reaction between compound D and E in the presence of a catalyst produced an organic
compound and water.
(i) Name the organic compound produced. [1]
(ii) Name the catalyst used. [1]
2. [2015-P3-Q10].
Alcohols are organic compounds which contain a hydroxyl group (-OH).
(a) State the general formula of alcohols. [1]
(b) (i) Write the chemical formula of propanol. [1]
(ii) Draw a displayed structure of propanol. [1]
(c) List two physical properties of ethanol. [2]
(d) Glucose can be converted into ethanol by fermentation, construct a balanced equation for
this reaction. [2]
(e) (i) Name the products formed during the complete combustion of ethanol. [1]
(ii) State two uses of ethanol. [2]
3. [2013-P3-Q5]
The table below shows the structural formulae of various monomers and the polymers that can
be made from them.
(a) Identify the monomers which are hydrocarbons. [2]
(b) Name the monomer W. [1]
(c) Draw the displayed structure for polymer Y. [1]
291
(d) (i) Identify the common feature among the monomers in the table above. [1]
(ii) Give the name of the compounds with this feature. [1]
(e) Decane C10 H20 , can be cracked to produce hexane, C6 H14 and butene C4 H8 . Explain the
meaning of the word cracking. [1]
4. [2013-P3-Q10]
Below is a list of some organic compounds represented by the letters A to E.
A CH4
B C4 H10
C C4 H9 OH
D C4 H8
E CH3 COOH
(a) Give the name of compound A. [1]
(b) Identify the two compounds, from the list, that belong to the same homologous series? [2]
(c) (i) State the compound which has the same functional group as ethanol. [1]
(ii) Draw the displayed molecular structure of ethanol. [1]
(III) Construct a chemical equation for the hydration of ethene to form ethanol. [1]
(d) (i) Give one compound that is an unsaturated hydrocarbon, from the list above. [1]
(ii) Describe a chemical test for an unsaturated hydrocarbon. [1]
(e) Compound E is acidic.
(i) State the name of the compound E. [1]
(ii) Describe a test to show that compound E is acidic. [1]
5. [2012-P3-Q6]
(a) Organic compounds form homologous series.
Give two characteristics of members of any homologous series. [2]
(b) (i) Draw the structure of an alkane with two carbon atoms in the molecule. [2]
(ii) Calculate the percentage by mass of hydrogen in this alkane. [2]
292
6. [2012-P3-Q11]
Organic acids are a homologous series of compounds having the carboxylic group - COOH joined
to an alkyl radical.
(a) What is the general formula for organic acids? [1]
(b) Draw the structure of butanoic acid. [1]
(c) A reaction between an alcohol and an organic acid is described as esterification and this is
similar to neutralisation. [3]
(i) Ethylethanoate is an ester. Name two reagents used to prepare it. [2]
(ii) State two ways in which esterification is different from neutralisation. [2]
(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation for the esterification of ethylethanoate. [2]
(d) Calculate the mass of ethylethanoate formed from 15g of the organic acid. [2]
7. [2011-P3-Q8]
Plastics are organic polymers. The table below describes two types of plastics. Complete the table.
Part of the table has been completed for you as an example. [4]
Type of
polymerisation
Name Repeating Unit Use
used in
manufacture
Making plastic
Poly(ethene)
bags
Condensation
polymerisation
8. [2010-P3-Q8]
Below is a structure of an ester made in a reversible reaction between a carboxylic acid and an
alcohol.
(a) (i) Draw the structure of the carboxylic acid used in the reaction. [1]
(ii) State one condition necessary for the formation of the ester above. [1]
(b) A student carried out an experiment to compare the relative strengths of dilute methanoic
acid and dilute sulphuric acid.
(i) Describe a test that can be used to distinguish between the two acids. [2]
(ii) Name a metal that will react with both acids. Describe what you would see during the
reaction. [2]
293
9. [2010-P3-Q9]
A carbohydrate is formed from the reaction of many small molecules, one of which is represented
by the diagram below:
(a) (i) What is the general name of the small molecules which combine to form very large
molecules? [1]
(ii) Show how two of the small molecules like the one drawn above would join together to form
a bond. [2]
(b) Starch is hydrolysed to glucose by the enzymes in yeast and the glucose is then converted to
an alcohol by a second process. Name:
(i) the second process.
(ii) the alcohol produced. [2]
(c) State two uses of alcohol named in (b) (ii) above [2]
(d) Terylene is an ester.
(i) state one use of terylene [1]
The structure of terylene is represented in the diagram below.
(ii) Draw a box around a repeating unit in this structure. [1]

(iii) Why does terylene cause pollution? [1]
10. [2009-P3-Q10]
A student set up an experiment to produce ethanol from glucose, she dissolved glucose in warm water,
added yeast and left the mixture in a warm place for about 7 days in the apparatus shown below.
294
(a) Write a word equation for the formation of ethanol from glucose. [1]
(b) What is the scientific name for this reaction? [1]
(c) Suggest a suitable temperature at which the process occurs. [1]
(d) The airlock prevents air from going into the flask but allows carbon dioxide gas to go out.
(i) Why must air not be allowed into the flask?
(ii) Describe the change which will be seen in the airlock. [3]
(e) Ethanol can be oxidised to ethanoic acid by boiling ethanol with acidified potassium
dichromate (VI).
Give two reasons why the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid is an oxidation process. [2]
(f) When concentrated sulphuric acid is added to ethanol, the following reaction occurs.
(i) What type of reaction is this?

(ii) What test can be done to show that ethene is formed? [2]
11. [2004-P3-Q10]
Fractional distillation can be used to separate crude oil into the following fractions; fuel oil, bitumen,
petroleum gases, petrol, kerosene.
(a) (i) Write in order, the names of the fractions, starting with the one having the lower boiling
point obtained from the top of the fractionating column. [1]
(ii) Which of the fractions above contains compounds with the largest relative
molecular mass? [1]
(iii) State one important use in each case for:
Kerosene
fuel oil [2]
(b) Some oil fractions undergo ‘cracking’ which breaks large molecules into smaller ones. One
such product is ethene, C2 H4 which is an unsaturated compound.
(i) What is meant by the term unsaturated? [1]
(ii) Compare the reaction of bromine with ethene and with a named saturated hydrocarbon. [2]
(iii) Describe the conditions needed and name one of the products formed. [2]
(c) Under what condition can bromine react with a saturated hydrocarbon? [1]
12. [2004-P3-Q3]
The diagram below gives a summary of the breakdown of starch to maltose and glucose and then to
ethanol.
295
(a) Name the processes represented by the letters A and B. [2]

(b) What is the purpose of the yeast in process A? [1]
(c) Apart from water, which other product is produced when a mixture of propanol and
concentrated potassium dichromate is heated? [1]
(d) If ethanol is added to the product in part (c) in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid,
(i) name the class of compounds to which the product belongs. [1]
(ii) give one everyday use of the product in (i) above. [1]
13. [2002-P3-Q9]
Paraffin is a mixture of alkanes. In a laboratory experiment, paraffin was heated and passed over a strongly
heated broken pot using the apparatus shown.
(a) (i) Name the type of reaction which occurs in the apparatus
(ii) What is the purpose of the broken pot? [2]
(b) Propane can be decomposed by heat to form ethene and one other product. Construct an
equation for the reaction and describe the test which would show that an unsaturated
compound had been formed. [2]
(c) The structure of butene is shown below.
Butene can be polymerized.

(i) Name the type of polymerization which takes place during this reaction. [1]
(ii) Draw the structure of the polymer which is formed. [2]
(d) Give one use for polyvinyl chloride. [1]
296
14. [2001-P3-Q7]
CH4 , C2 H6 , C3 H8 are all members of the same homologous series.
(a) Give the general name for this series of compounds and suggest a full structural formula for
the fifth member of the series. [2]
(b) State two general properties of a homologous series. [2]
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for the complete combustion of compound C2 H6 . [2]
15. [2001-P3-Q10]
(a) A carbohydrate is formed from the reaction of many small molecules, one of which is represented by the
diagram below
(i) What is the general name of the small molecule? [1]

(ii) Draw the structure of a molecule of a carbohydrate formed showing four units of the
small molecules shown in the diagram. [2]
(b) Starch is an example of a carbohydrate.
(i) State the two stages in the production of alcohol from starch in their correct order.
Draw the structure of the alcohol with two carbon atoms in it and name it. [5]
(ii) Name the other product formed together with the alcohol from the processes stated
in (i). [1]
(iii) What are the products of the hydrolysis of a protein? [1]
297
SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS
SECTION A
1. C. First balance the atoms that are not hydrogen or oxygen, then oxygen and hydrogen last.
2. A. Isomers are compounds having same molecular formula but different structural formulae.
3. C. The double bond decolourises the bromine solution, while the acid part reacts with the sodium carbonate
to produce CO2 .
4. C. Identify the repeating Unit from the molecule. Count the number of Carbon and hydrogen atoms in the
molecule.
5. B. Alkenes react with steam to produce an alcohol. Ethene forms ethanol.
6. D. fermentation involves the breakdown of a glucose molecule into smaller molecules of alcohol and water.
7. B. Chlorine gas exists as Cl2 .
8. C. There are two carbons, four hydrogens and two oxygens.
9. D. Alkanes have general formula Cn H2n+2 . Boiling point increases as the number of C atoms increase in the
molecule.
10. A.
11. D. Divide each % by the mass by the atomic mass of each atom to find ratio of atoms. Finally divide the ratio
by smallest number of the ratio.
12. D. Because a water molecule is extracted from the alcohol as one of the products of the breakup.
13. A. Isomers are compounds having same molecular formula but different structural formulae. B is just a
mirror image of its self. C and D has different number of Cs in their structures.
14. B
15. B
16. B. 2 and 4 are alkenes. They decolourise bromine solution.
17. D. Hydrolysis is reaction with water.
18. B.
19. D. Boiling point increases as the number of C atoms increase in the molecule.
20. B. Thermosetting plastics cannot be remolded once they are formed.
21. A. First balance the atoms that are not hydrogen or oxygen, then oxygen and hydrogen last.
22. B. The reaction is between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid forming an ester. A water molecule is released.
23. B. Alkenes react with steam to form alcohols.
24. B. An alkene because of the double bond, an acid because of the COOH groups attached to its carbon
atoms containing the double bond.
25. B. Ethene has two C atoms joined by the double bond and four H atoms surrounding them.
26. B. When a compound is represented using its condensed structural formula, each carbon atom and the
hydrogen atoms that are bonded directly to it are listed as a molecular formula.
27. A. Terylene contains an ester linkage. An ester linkage contains a -COO- and one of the oxygen atoms has
a double bond.
28. C. Cn H2n is the general formula for alkenes.
29. A.
30. C
298
31. D. Alkenes react with steam to produce an alcohol. Ethene forms ethanol.
32. C. Unsaturated compounds (e.g. ethene) decolourises potassium manganate.
33. C. P.V.C is polyvinylchloride. No water molecule is released in its formation.
34. B. Isomers are compounds having same molecular formula but different structural formulae.
35. D. Polymerisation involves the joining of smaller molecules to form one large molecule.
36. A. hydrolysis is the breakup of molecules in the presence of water. Carbohydrates break down to simple
sugars whereas proteins break down to amino acids.
37. B. Find the ratio of carbon to hydrogen atoms using percentage mass of each element.
C ∶ H
% composition: 85.7 ∶ 14.3
85.7 14.3
Divide by atomic mass: ∶
12 1
7.14 ∶ 14.3
7.14 14.3
Divide by smallest number ∶ ∶
7.14 7.14
Ratio of atoms 1 ∶ 2
The ratio of carbon to hydrogen atoms should reduce to 1:2 in the given compounds.
38. D. Saturated hydrocarbons do not decolourise bromine water.
39. C. The sweet smelling substance is an Ester, produced when an alcohol is reacted with a carboxylic acid.
SECTION B
1. [2015-P3-Q7]
(a) (i) Structure B is ethene. Polymer formed is polyethene.
(ii) Structure C is chloroethene. Polymer formed is Polyvinyl chloride or PVC for short.
(b) A is ethane. It produces carbon monoxide when burned in limited supply of oxygen. Carbon monoxide is
toxic and cause respiratory and brain damage.
(c) (i) Compound D is an alcohol ethanol, while E is a carboxylic acid, ethanoic acid. Product produced is
an ester called ethyl-ethanoate.
Note: The rule for naming an ester is: alcohol part first then acid part second e.g. for propanol and
butanoic acid, ester formed is Propyl-butanoate.
(ii) Sulphuric acid is used as a catalyst.
2. [2015-P3-Q10]
(a) General formula of alcohols is: Cn H2n+1 OH where n is the number of carbon atoms in the chain.
(b) (i) Propanol has three (3) carbons in its chain. This means n=3. Therefore the formula is: C3 H7 OH.
299
Note: compounds whose name begins with

meth- has one carbon atom
eth- has two carbon atoms
prop- has three carbon atoms
but- has four carbon atoms
pent- has five carbon atoms
(ii) Structural display of propanol is shown below.
(c) Physical properties of ethanol.

 It is a liquid at room temperature.
 It mixes with water in all proportions.
(d) Glucose is converted to ethanol and carbon dioxide during fermentation in the presence of yeast. The
reaction is:
C6 H12 06 → 2C2 H5 OH + 2CO2
(e) Complete combustion means that there is more than enough oxygen for the reaction. Ethanol burns
completely in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.
(ii) Uses of ethanol
 Used as a solvent for paints, glues etc.
 Used as a fuel for motor vehicles when blended with petrol.
3. [2013-P3-Q5]
(a) Ethene and structure W are hydrocarbon monomers. Hydrocarbons are those compounds that contain
carbon and hydrogen only.
(b) There are three (3) carbon atoms in the main chain and a double bond between two of them. The name
is Propene.
(c) The polymer formed is polypropene.
(d) (i) The common feature is that all the monomers have double bonds in their structures.
(ii) Organic compounds that have double bonds in their structures are called Alkenes.
(e) Cracking is the breakdown of long chain organic molecules into simpler ones with short chains.
300
4. [2013-P3-Q10]
(a) Compound A is methane.
(b) A and B belong together with general formula Cn H2n+2 .
(c) (i) Ethanol contains the –OH group. Compound C is contains the –OH group.
(ii) Displayed molecular structure of Ethanol.
(iii) Hydration is simply addition of water. Ethene combines with water (steam) to produce ethanol.
C2 H4 + H2 O ⇌ C2 H5 OH
(d) (i) Compound D is unsaturated. It has formula similar to alkenes Cn H2n . Alkene are unsaturated.
(ii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons decolourise brown bromine solution.
(e) (i) Compound E is ethanoic acid. It contains two carbon atoms in its chain.
(ii) It will turn blue litmus paper red.
5. [2012-P3-Q6]
(a) Characteristics of homologous series.
 All members conform to a general molecular formula e.g . Cn H2n .
 Each member differ, in molecular formula, from the next by CH2 .
(b) (i) Alkanes have general formula Cn H2n+2 . Alkane with two carbons has formula C2 H6 which is ethane.
(ii) Percentage by mass is found by first finding the mass of all hydrogen atoms then dividing the
number by the total of the compound.
There are 6 hydrogen atoms. Mass is therefore 6.

Mass of compound = (2 × 12) + 6 = 30
6
Percentage by mass of hydrogen = × 100% = 20%
30
6. [2012-P3-Q11]
(a) Organic acids have general formula Cn H2n+1 COOH where n starts from n=0 for methanoic acid.
(b) Butanoic acid has n = 4 and its formula is C4 H9 COOH
301
Note: compounds whose name begins with

meth- has one carbon atom
eth- has two carbon atoms
prop- has three carbon atoms
but- has four carbon atoms
pent- has five carbon atoms
(c) (i) Ethylethanoate (Ethyl-ethanoate) comes from ethanol and ethanoic acid.
Note: The rule for naming an ester is: alcohol part first then acid part second e.g. for propanol and
butanoic acid, ester formed is Propyl-butanoate.
(ii) Difference between esterification and neutralisation.

Esterification Neutralisation
1 Reaction of an alcohol and carboxylic acid Reaction of an acid and base.
2 Produces water and an ester Produces water and a salt.
(iii) Reactants for ethylethanoate are ethanol and ethanoic acid.

CH3 COOH + C2 H5 OH ⇌ CH3 COOC2 H5 + H2 O
Note: The rule for writing formula for an ester is: acid part first, alcohol part second.
(d) Insert below the balanced equation formula masses of the ethanoic acid and the ethylethanoate only
and then add units of mass (i.e. gram) to convert them to actual masses.
CH3 COOH + C2 H5 OH ⇌ CH3 COOC2 H5 + H2 O
60 g 88 g
15 g x
Cross multiplying,
15 × 88
x= = 22 g
60
Therefore, 15 g of the organic acid produces 22 g of the ester.
7. [2011-P3-Q8]
(a) Poly(ethene): The monomer for polyethene is ethene. One of the double bonds splits to join with other
split ethene molecules. Since monomers add together to form one product, the reaction is called
Addition polymerisation. A water molecule is not formed in this reaction.
302
Polyamide: the repeating unit has an amide linkage. Nylon, used to make fabric, is one such example of
a polyamide.
8. [2010-P3-Q8]
(a) (i) The right side of the ester is the carboxylic acid, while the right side is the alcohol part. The two join
together at the middle oxygen atom. The carboxylic acid is obtained by splitting the ester at the oxygen
and adding OH to the acid part.
(ii) A catalyst (sulphuric acid) is needed to speed up the reaction.

(b) (i) A universal indicator can be used to compare the strengths of dilute sulphuric acid and dilute
methanoic acid. Both acids give a colour change when mixed with the indicator. The colours obtained
are then matched against a pH scale. The stronger acid (sulphuric acid) will have a lower pH than the
other (methanoic acid).
(ii) Carboxylic acids react with the more reactive metals. Magnesium will react with both acids. An
effervescence will be observed due to the production of hydrogen gas.
Note: It will be very dangerous to use sodium or potassium. Metals usually used are magnesium,
aluminium, zinc and tin (or MAZIT for short).
9. [2010-P3-Q9]
(a) (i) Small molecules which combine to form very large molecules are called Monomers.
(ii) A water molecule is released when the two given monomers bond (condensation polymerisation)
together.
303
(b) (i) The second process is called Fermentation. The yeast breaks down glucose to ethanol and carbon
dioxide.
(ii) The alcohol produced is Ethanol.
(c) Uses of ethanol
 Used as a solvent for paints, glues etc.
 Used as a fuel motor vehicles when blended with petrol.
(d) (i) Making fabrics e.g. clothes.
(ii) Look for the acid and alcohol parts first and where they join together. The acid part has the COO
group. The rectangle with dashes on either side is the alcohol part.
(iii) Terylene is a non-biodegradable polymer that it remains in the environment for many years.
10. [2009-P3-Q10]
(a) The yeast breaks down glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Yeast
Glucose → ethanol + carbon dioxide
(b) The scientific name for the reaction is Fermentation.
(c) Suitable temperature for the reaction is at 37℃.
(d) (i) The reaction would no longer be anaerobic because of the oxygen in the air.
(ii) The airlock will turn from colourless to milky due to the reaction of carbon dioxide and lime water.
(e) It is oxidation because:
 It combines with oxygen from the potassium dichromate (VI).
 The ethanoic acid has less hydrogen atoms than ethanol. Oxidation is removal of hydrogen.
(f) (i) The reaction is Dehydration. Water is removed from the ethanol.
(ii) Ethene will decolourise a solution of bromine.
304
12. [2004-P3-Q10]
(a) (i) Fractions in terms of lower to higher boiling point.
 Petroleum gases
 Petrol
 Kerosene
 Fuel oil
 Bitumen
(ii) Kerosene is used as a fuel in jet engines.
Fuel oil is used for home heating systems.
(b) (i) Unsaturated means that the compound contains double bonds to which extra atoms can be added
such as hydrogen.
(ii) A bromine is decolourised when reacted with ethene. No colour change takes place when bromine
solution is reacted with a saturated hydrocarbon such as methane.
(iii) A catalyst of aluminium oxide and a temperature of about 500℃. Hydrogen may also be formed
during cracking.
(c) Bromine will react with a saturated hydrocarbon by a Substitution Reaction in the presence of ultraviolet
light.
Note: The light breaks up the bromine molecule into individual bromine atoms. Hydrogen atoms from
the saturated hydrocarbon (e.g. methane) are replaced by a bromine atoms
11. [2004-P3-Q3]
(a) Process:
 A is fermentation
 B is hydrolysis
(b) The yeast is used as a catalyst.
(c) The other product is Propanoic acid.
Note: Potassium dichromate is an oxidising agent. Propanol is oxidised to Propanoic acid and water.
(d) (i) The product formed is an Ester (ethylpropanoate). An ester is formed when an alcohol reacts with a
carboxylic acid with sulphuric acid as a catalyst.
(ii) Esters are used in food flavouring and in perfumes.
12. [2002-P3-Q9]
(a) (i) The reaction is called Thermal Cracking. Cracking is the breakdown of long chain organic molecules
into simpler ones with short chains.
(ii) The broken pot (or aluminium oxide) is used as a catalyst.
(b) Propane will decompose into ethene and methane gas. A bromine is decolourised when reacted with
ethene but not with methane. Propane has three carbons in its chain.
C3 H8 → C2 H4 + CH4
(c) (i) It is Addition Polymerisation. Butene molecules join together to form a long chain macromolecule. No
water molecule is released.
305
(ii) One of the double bonds splits up to join with other molecules. The ethyl group remains unchanged
and can be expressed in a condensed formula C2 H5
(d) Polyvinyl chloride is used in the manufacture of pipes for plumbing and in paints.
13. [2001-P3-Q7]
(a) The compounds are of the form Cn H2n+2 e.g. CH4 . They are called Alkanes. The fifth member has n = 5
and formula C5 H12 . Its name is pentane.
(b) Characteristics of homologous series.

 All members conform to a general molecular formula e.g. Cn H2n .
 Each member differ, in molecular formula, from the next by CH2 .
(c) Complete combustion means that there is enough oxygen to react with. The products formed during
complete combustion of a hydrocarbon are carbon dioxide and water.
2C2 H6 + 7O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2 O
14. [2001-P3-Q10]
(a) (i) Small molecules which combine to form very large molecules are called Monomers.
(ii) A water molecule is released when the two given monomers bond (condensation polymerisation)
together.
306
(b) (i) The two stages are: Hydrolysis and Fermentation. The starch is first broken down to glucose in the
presence of water. Then glucose is converted to ethanol and carbon dioxide in the presence of
yeast. The yeast uses the sugar for energy during anaerobic respiration. The best temperature for
the process is 37℃.
Compounds with two carbons start with eth- in their name. The alcohol’s name is Ethanol.
(ii) The other product formed is Carbon dioxide.

(iii) The products of hydrolysis of a protein are Amino acids
307
308

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TOPIC 1: GENERAL PHYSICS

A 5.68 mm B 6.69 mm C 6.68 cm D 6.86 mm

A 2 cm. B 10 cm. C 12 cm. D 11 cm.

4. [2013-P1-Q2]. Which of the following numbers has three significant figures?

7. [2012-P1-Q2]. Which of the following represents an SI unit?

A the centre of mass M is furthest from point P.

C it is above M and far away from R.

D it has the greatest contact base area.

9. [2011-P1-Q1]. Which of the following is not an S.l unit?

14. [2009-P1-Q1]. All measurable features or properties of objects are called...

21. [2003-P1-Q3]. The mass of a body measures its ...

(a) State one difference between mass and weight. [1]

(i) Find the mass of the rule. [2]

(ii) What is the weight of the rule, (taking g = 10 m/s2 )? [2]

(a) What is meant by the centre of mass of an object? [1]

(b) What is the weight of the box? [1]

(d) Calculate the total power. [2]

(a) Define density of a substance. [1]

(a) What is the reading shown on the micrometer? [1]

(b) What physical quantity is measured by the instrument? [1]

(c) What is the function of the ratchet? [1]

(a) (i) Calculate the period of a pendulum. [2]

(ii) Calculate the frequency of the pendulum. [2]

The following results were obtained:

Mass of the bottle containing air = 410 g

strength is 1.6 N/Kg.

(i) What is meant by mass? [1]

(ii) What is the mass of an astronaut on the moon? [1]

(iii) What is his weight on the moon? [1]

(ii) Give a reason for your answer in (i). [1]

(a) What do you understand by Period of a pendulum? [1]

(a) State the SI unit of density. [1]

20g × (100 − 58) = M × (58 − 50)

(ii) Weight = mass(kg) × g [Change mass to kg: 1000g = 1kg]

(b) Weight of box = mass(kg) × g [Mass must be in kg: 1000 g = 1 kg]

Instrument Quantity SI Unit

Thermometer temperature Kelvin, K.

Vernier Calliper Length Metre, m.

Voltmeter Electric voltage Volts, V.

2. [2015-P1-Q3]. Which of the following quantities changes when a body is accelerating?

A Mass of the body.

B Weight of the body.

C Velocity of the body.

D The force acting on the body.

What is the magnitude of the resultant force acting on the body?

A 0.27 J B 0.027 J C 2.7 J D 66.67 J

What is the velocity ratio of the inclined plane as a simple machine?

A Same on earth and moon Less on moon

10. [2013-P1-Q8]. The figure below shows an ideal pulley system.

11. [2012-P1-Q3]. Which of the following graphs represents an increasing velocity?