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Derivation of Electric Vector Potential

From Balanis' Antenna Theory: Analysis and Design, 3rd Ed., p. 137:

3.3 The vector potential F for a magnetic current source M

Although magnetic currents appear to be physically unrealizable, equivalent magnetic currents arise when we use the volume or the
surface equivalence theorems. The fields generated by a harmonic magnetic current in a homogeneous region, with J = 0 but M ≠ 0,
must satisfy ∇ ⋅ D = 0. Therefore, E F can be expressed as the curl of the vector potential F by

1
EF = − ∇ × F
ϵ

I didn't find much information about this "electric vector potential" (I had never heard about it before, actually). I don't understand how the
magnetic current density M is related to the electric field E , and why the conditions imposed (J = 0 and M ≠ 0) lead to ∇ ⋅ D = 0.

Can someone explain this or tell me where I can find more information about this vector potential?

electromagnetism potential maxwell-equations

edited Apr 2 6 at 1 7 :03 asked Apr 2 5 at 1 5:1 1

Tendero
486 2 15

3 Answers

Short answer: ∇ ⋅ D = 0 comes from taking the divergence of ∇ × HF = jωϵE F since we

have assumed that J = 0 for this case.

We use surface equivalence to replace physical structures with fictitious J and M so that we
can use the free space Green's function to calculate radiated electric and magnetic fields.

And now to overexplain:

For the case of both electric and magnetic sources, we start with the equations

∇ × E = −jωμH − M

∇ × H = jωϵE + J

Using superposition, we can consider the electric and magnetic current sources separately.

∇ × E A = −jωμHA

∇ × HA = jωϵE A + J

and

∇ × E F = −jωμHF − M

∇ × HF = jωϵE F

and using superposition we have

E = EA + EF

H = HA + HF

Solving the electric current case, we use the usual magnetic vector potential A, where
∇ × A, and this will yield E A and HA . All of the logic for solving for E F and HF
1
HA =
μ

from the magnetic current source M is exactly the same, just switch E and H (and other
constants and signs) and do the same thing.

Take the following divergence

∇ ⋅ (∇ × HF = jωϵE F )

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2017/10/25 electromagnetism - Derivation of Electric Vector Potential - Physics Stack Exchange
to get

∇ ⋅ ϵE F = 0

I think this was the part you were missing. Then we can write

EF = −
1

ϵ
∇ × F .

This will allow us to solve for E F and HF .

Leaving some steps out, we'll end up with the vector potentials A and F as
2 2
∇ A + k A = −μJ

2 2
∇ F + k F = −ϵM

This can be seen as 6 separate scalar wave equations, and in free space the solution is well
known using Green's functions. Note that using the Lorenz gauge is necessary to obtain this
form. Assuming that J and M are surface currents on some surface Γ, then
′ ′ ′
A(r) = μ ∫ g(r, r )J(r )d s
Γ

′ ′ ′
F(r) = ϵ ∫ g(r, r )M(r )d s
Γ

−jk|r−r′|
where g(r, r′ ) =
e

4π|r−r ′|

And then once we have A(r) and F(r) we can get

j 1
E(r) = −jωA − ∇(∇ ⋅ A) − ∇ × F
ωμϵ ϵ

j 1
H(r) = −jωF − ∇(∇ ⋅ F) + ∇ × A
ωμϵ μ

We can also take the limit |r| → ∞ to obtain far fields.

As to why we consider fictitious magnetic currents M:

Suppose we have a radiating antenna, and we know the electric and magnetic fields in some
close vicinity of the antenna (e.g. using a numerical finite element simulation), but we want to
find the radiated fields at some far away point. We can't use simply use the actual electric
currents along with the integrals above, since those equations rely on the free space Green's
function and the presence of a physical radiating structure means this is not free space.

Given a closed surface Γ which contains the antenna, if we know the fields E and H on Γ,
then we can consider a equivalent problem in which we (1) introduce fictitious sources
J = n ^ × H, M = −n ^ × E on Γ, where E and H are the known fields from the original

problem, and (2) remove the physical structure and set E = H = 0 inside the surface. Surface
equivalence tells us that outside Γ the two scenarios will produce the same fields. The
equivalent problem has the advantage that it is free space, and therefore we know the Green's
function. Therefore we can use the integrals above to calculate the vector potentials and then
the electric and magnetic fields at any point outside Γ.

answered Apr 2 6 at 1 7 :4 5
led23head
931 1 2 8

This was exactly the answer I was looking for. Thank y ou v ery m uch! I hav e one question, howev er. In this
equation: ∇ × E = −jωμH − M , where does the M com e from ? I understand that the m agnetic current has
to com e up som ewhere, but I had nev er seen it in Maxwell's Equations before. – Tendero Apr 2 6 at 1 7 :56

@Tendero M is entirely fictitious. One way to think about it is that it's a dual quantity to J . I don't hav e the
textbook that y ou hav e, but I do hav e Balanis Advanced Engineering Electromagnetics which has a
conv ersation about duality in electrom agnetics at the beginning of Chapter 7 . I'm sure Balanis also talks
about it in y our textbook. The real reason is that y ou can't do surface equiv alence without it. – led2 3 head
Apr 2 6 at 1 8:3 1

∂ρ
Charge conservation demands that divJ = −
∂t
hold always. Thus in regions where there is
no electric current, J = 0, the charge density ρ(r, t) must be constant in time, ρ = ρ(r) and
thus contributes nothing to radiation (which is what Balanis is interested in) and can be
neglected. There follows divD = 0.

The purpose of introducing the "electric vector potential" is to exploit the mathematical
analogy with the physically more meaningful A vector. This is similar to what is done in
magnetostatics where the concept of magnetic potential is used in analogy with the
conventional electric potential used in electrostatics. Both potentials satisfy Laplace's equations
divgradψ = 0 in regions free of sources, and as long as one stays in simple, singly connected

domains the analogy holds.

The use of the F potential follows similar line of thinking. One solves with much pain the
electric dipole radiation problem and then to solve for the radiation from a loop one replaces
the loop with an equivalent magnetic dipole, a kind of dual to the electric one.

edited Apr 2 6 at 1 6 :51 answered Apr 2 6 at 1 6 :4 2

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hy portnex
2,853 1 6 19

Thanks for the answer. My question was only partially answered, though. Could y ou explain the relationship
between E and M ? I don't know how to deriv e any link between them from Maxwell's equations. – Tendero
Apr 2 6 at 1 7 :03

It would be way too long to go through the full deriv ation Balanis has in detail, but look at Eqs (3 .2 7 ) for A
and (3 .2 8) for F. The integral for A is the result of the electric current J , while the integral for F is the
result of the magnetic current M . They are form ally the sam e but of course J is a true current of real electric
charges while M is fictitious. Nev ertheless, if y ou can find the solution for one then y ou can find its dual
approxim ately that is good enough. – hy portnex Apr 2 6 at 1 7 :2 0

An electric dipole oscillation is the 1 st order approxim ation of a linear dipole antenna of two wires that can be
solv ed with reasonable accuracy using (3 .2 7 ). To solv e the radiation problem for a loop is m uch m ore
difficult directly but if y ou take adv antage of this analogy and duality represented by (3 .2 8) so that y ou
replace a sm all loop with an equiv alent m agnetic dipole of oscillating m agnetic charges y ou get an equally
good in practice form ula for the radiation form ula of the loop. – hy portnex Apr 2 6 at 1 7 :2 6

Simply put, if ∇ ⋅ D = 0 in some region (which is simply Gauss's law for the D field in a
region with no free charges), then D is a solenoidal field in that region, and such fields can
always be represented in the form

D = (−) ∇ × F.

The relationship for E follows from the consitutive relationship D = ϵE .

As to why this is a useful way to do things, though, I'm not particularly sure - presumably
Balanis goes on to talk about applications that would justify that expression. But it's a perfectly
legitimate way to do things under those assumptions (no free charges, linear medium).

answered Apr 2 5 at 1 5:51

Emilio Pisanty
61.4k 13 1 46 31 4

I get that if ∇ ⋅ D = 0 , one can express D as the curl of som e field. What I don't understand is why
J = 0, M ≠ 0 ⟹ ∇ ⋅ D = 0 , and that was m y question. Sorry if I didn't express m y self correctly . AFAIK,

one can say that ∇ ⋅ D = 0 only if ρf ree= 0 , and that assum ption is not m entioned in the deriv ation I wrote
in the question. – Tendero Apr 2 5 at 1 6 :4 6

@Tendero You'll hav e to ask the author. ∇ ⋅ D = 0 is a reasonable assum ption but it's independent of the
other two. – Em ilio Pisanty Apr 2 5 at 1 6 :56

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