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1. Supreme Court took Suo Motu cognizance against which State government, for its decision to alter changes in the
Punjab Land Preservation act, 1900?
A. Punjab B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Haryana D. Delhi
2. On 13th June, 2019 which Country’s highest court legalized same-sex marriage?
A. Brazil B. Kenya
C. Malaysia D. Ecuador
3. Stare Decisis refers to?
A. Personal opinion of judges B. Rule of law
C. To stand by precedents D. Friend of court
4. Sikkim was included as an Indian State by which Constitutional amendment?
A. 10th Amendment. B. 12th Amendment.
C. 36th Amendment. D. 21st Amendment.
5. Which among the following Indian States has the least number of Lok Sabha seats?
A. Manipur B. Tripura
C. Arunachal Pradesh D. Mizoram
6. Who was the first Indian female to become a Supreme Court Judge?
A. M. Fatima Beevi B. Leila Seth
C. Anna Chandi D. Indu Malhotra
7. Who is the founder of Historical School of Jurisprudence?
A. Montesquieu B. F.K Von Savigny
C. John Austin D. Grotius
8. Who is the first Dalit president of India?
A. Ramnath Kovind B. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
C. K.G.Balakrishnan D. K.R. Narayanan
9. Who decides whether a bill is money bill or not?
A. President of India B. Leader of opposition
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha D. Prime Minister of India
10. The legal services authority at district, state and national levels are constituted under which act/statute?
A. Legal Services authorities act, 1987 B. Consumer Protection act, 1986
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C. The limitations act, 1963 D. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) act, 1986
11. Which out of the following is not a Constitutional body?
A. Supreme Court of India B. Finance Commission of India
C. Reserve Bank of India D. Election Commission of India
12. Who is the current Attorney general of India?
A. Mukul Rohatgi B. M.C Stevald
C. Ravi Shankar Prasad D. K.K Venugopal
13. National Law day in India is celebrated on?
A. 26th November B. 26th January
C. 15th January D. 15th August
14. Article_________ gives power to President while Article________ empowers Governor to issue Ordinance.
A. 213; 123 B. 52; 153
C. 53; 154 D. 123; 213
15. ________ is the binding part of a judgement while _________ is only persuasive and not binding.
A. Ratio decidendi; Obiter Dicta B. Obiter Dicta; Ratio Decidendi
C. Declaration; Opinion D. Precedent; Custom
16. Direction: The question consists of two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) you are to
examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.

Assertion (A): Every Wrongful act is a Crime

Reason (R): A crime is a Wrongful act.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is correct B. Both A and R are Individually true but R is not correct
explanation to A explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false D. A is false but R is true
17. Assertion (A): The Chief Justice of India can act as the President of India.

Reason (R): Separation of Powers is the basic structure of the Constitution.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is correct B. Both A and R are Individually true but R is not correct
explanation to A explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false D. A is false but R is true
18. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights are only available to citizens.
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Reason (R): The Fundamental right of ‘Right to life and personal liberty’ under Article 21 is redeemable by persons.
A. Both A and R are individually true and R is correct B. Both A and R are Individually true but R is not correct
explanation to A explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false D. A is false but R is true
19. Who drafted Indian Evidence Act?
A. Lord Macaulay B. Henry Maine
C. Lord Mountbatten D. James F. Stephen
20. The Supreme Court of India recently decriminalized Adultery in which case?
A. Navtej Singh Johar vs Union of India B. Minerva mills vs Union of India
C. Indian Young Lawyers Association vs State of Kerala D. Joseph Shine vs Union of India
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Solutions
1. C
Sol. • The Supreme Court bench comprising Justice Deepak Gupta and Arun Mishra took Suo
Motu cognizance and reprimanded the Haryana Government, which seeked critical
amendments in Section 3 and Section 4 of Punjab land Preservation Act, 1900 (PLP act) in
order to legitimize real estate construction on the land protected under the act.
• The court said “It is really shocking, you are destroying the forest, and it is not permissible.
Do you think you are Supreme? You are not Supreme the Rule of law is Supreme.”
• The century old PLP act, 1900 is aimed to conserve subsoil water and wildlife in the
Aravallis.
(Note: Suo Motu cognizance means an action taken by the court on its own.)
2. D
Sol. • Ecuador’s highest Court’s 9 judge constitutional bench, ruled with five-to-four majority in
favor of legalizing same-sex marriage in the Catholic-Majority country.
• It has been a major event for LGBTQ rights not only in the nation but in the whole world,
making international news worldwide.
• The judges on Quito’s (capital city of Ecuador) Constitutional court declared the prevailing
legislations relating to marriage as discriminatory on the basis of gender and thus,
unconstitutional.
• The law prior to this judgement recognized marriage as a union between a man and a
woman only.
(Note: The country is located in the South American Continent.)
3. C
Sol. • ‘Stare decisis’ is a legal term of Latin origin which literally means ‘Stand by things decided’.
• It is commonly used for a judgement that is passed on the basis of a precedent (previous
judgement).
• The doctrine of ‘Stare decisis’ states that if a question of law is adequately answered by the
court in a previous case than in all future cases wherein the same question arises, the
decision should follow that precedent and should be same.
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(Note:
* Option A, i.e. ‘Personal opinion of judges’ is the literal meaning of ‘Obiter dicta’. It is that part
of judgement that is not binding.
* Option B, i.e. ‘Rule of law’ is the literal meaning of Latin term ‘Ratio Decidendi’. It is the
binding part of a judgement (precedent).
* Option D, i.e. ‘Friend of court’ is the meaning of Latin legal term ‘Amicus Curiae’.)
4. C
Sol.
• Sikkim was added as a State in the Indian Union by 36th Amendment in 1975.
• Prior to it Sikkim was under the rule of Monarchs of ‘Chogyal Kingdom’. It was acting as
India’s associate state.
• 35th amendment in 1974 introduced the concept of ‘associate states’ in the constitution by
adding ‘Article 2A’.
• Sikkim was the first and the only associate State of the Indian Union.
• Later, when Monarchy was overthrown in Sikkim, it was added as a full-fledged Indian State
by virtue of 36th Amendment in 1975.
(Note:
* Option A, i.e. 10th Amendment added ‘Dadra and Nagar Haveli’ as Union territory of Indian
Union, in 1961 upon their acquisition from Portugal.
* Option B, i.e.12th Amendment, included Goa and Daman & Diuin the Indian Union upon
acquisition from Portugal in 1961.
* Option D, i.e. 21st Amendment in 1967 added ‘Sindhi’ in the list of official languages given in
8th Schedule of the Constitution.
5. D
Sol. • Mizoram has only 1 Lok Sabha constituency, named ‘Mizoram’, and it is a reserved seat for
Schedule Tribes, because they makes up a majority of its Population.
• The north-eastern state has a meagre population of just 11.2 lakhs (according to 2014
census).
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• The population of the whole state is lesser than almost all cities, situated in Central India.
• It is placed at 25th Rank in terms of size among all Indian States, and is spread over an area
of 21,081 sq.km.
• Like Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland also have just 1 Lok Sabha constituency.
• The list of most number of Lok Sabha seats is topped by Uttar Pradesh with a tally of 80,
while Mizoram along with Nagaland and Sikkim are placed at the bottom-edge with just 1 seat.
(Note: The other three options have a total of 2 Lok Sabha seats each.)
6. A
Sol. • M. Fatima Beevi was the first female Supreme Court Judge in India.
• She was appointed as the Supreme court Justice in 1989. After her retirement, she served
as member of National human rights commission and also as the Governor of Tamil Nadu.
(Note:
* Option B, i.e. Leila Seth was the first female to become the chief justice of a high court
justice, when she became 8th Chief Justice of Himachal Pradesh High court in 1991.
* Option C, i.e. Anna Chandiwas the first female to become a high court Judge. She was
appointed as a judge in Kerala High court in 1959.
* Option D, i.e. Indu Malhotra is one of the three woman judges, who are presently sitting at
the Supreme Court. The other two are Indira Banerjee and R. Banumathi.)
7. B
Sol. • Friedrich Karl Von Savigny is popularly known as Founder of Historical School of
Jurisprudence.
• He propounded the ‘theory of Volksgeist’ which literally means spirit of people.
• According to his Volksgeist theory, law is the result of common-consciousness or general will
of the people.
• Savigny was born in 1779. He was an eminent jurist of his time.
(Note:
* Option A, i.e. Montesquieu is the chief propounder of Sociological school of jurisprudence.
* Option C, i.e. John Austin is known as the father of Analytical School of Jurisprudence.
* Option D, i.e. Grotius is a notable jurist of Philosophical school of law.)
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8. D
Sol.
• K.R. Narayanan was the 10th President, and first Dalit president of India.
• He served as Indian President between 25th July, 1997 and 25th July, 2002.
• He was president during the reign of P.V. Narsimha Rao, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, H.D. Deve
Gowda and I.K. Gujral as Prime Ministers of India.
(Note:
* Option A, i.e. Ram Nathkovind is the 14th and the present President of India.
* Option B, i.e. NeelamSanjeeva Reddy was the sixth president of India.
* Option C, i.e. K.G. Balakrishnan was the first Dalit chief Justice of India.)
9. C
Sol. • Article 110(3) of Constitution of India says that in case any question arises whether a Bill is a
Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be
final.
• Thus, decision of speaker of Lok Sabha is final when there is a conflict that whether a
Financial bill is money bill or not.
• The definition of money bill could be found in Article 110 of the Indian Constitution.
10. A
Sol. • Section 9 of the legal services authorities act, 1987 calls for a ‘District legal service authority’
(DLSA) in every district.
• Section 6 of the act constitutes a ‘State legal service authority’ (SLSA) in each state; and
Section 3 constitutes a ‘National Legal Service authority’ (NALSA) at National level.
• The aim of these bodies is to provide free legal aid and assistance to weak, poor and under-
privileged sections of the society.
• The Legal Services authorities act, 1987 was passed by the Indian parliament in order to fulfil
the directive principle of ‘Free legal aid to poor and needy’ and ‘access to justice’ given in
Article 39A of the Indian constitution.
• In addition the act also sets up ADRs like Lok Adalat, which is organized under Chapter VI of
the act.
11. C
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Sol. • The Reserve bank of India is India’s Central bank. It is not a constitutional body but a
statutory one.
• It came into existence by way of Reserve Bank of India act, 1934.
• The reserve bank of India regulates the banking activities of all the commercial banks in the
country. It is known as the lender of last resorts.
(Note:
* Option A, i.e. Supreme Court of India is a constitutional body constituted under Article 124 of
the Indian Constitution.
* Option B, i.e. Finance Commission of India is a constitutional body set up under Article 280
of the Constitution.
* Option D, i.e. Election commission of India is a constitutional body under Article 324 of the
Constitution. )
12. D
Sol.
• K.K Venugopal is the 15th and the present Attorney General (AG) of India.
• He was appointed to the esteemed post by the then President of India, Pranab Mukherjee on
30th June, 2017 with an intended term of 3 years in office (it is to be noted that the Constitution
doesn’t prescribe any fixed tenure for AG).
• Attorney General is regarded as the highest law officer of the country.
• He is appointed by the president and holds office at the pleasure of the president of India.
• Article 76 of the Indian constitution provides that there shall be an ‘Attorney general of India’
who is appointed and holds office at President’s pleasure. Hence, Attorney general is a
constitutional body/post.
(Note:
* The qualifications to be Attorney general of India are:
i. The person must be a citizen of India.
ii. He/She should be a high court justice for at least five years or an advocate in a high court
with a minimum practice of ten years or should be an eminent jurist (in opinion of the
President).
iii. The person should be eligible to be appointed as Supreme court Justice.
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iv. The Attorney general of India acts as chief legal advisor for the government of India and is
the default lawyer from central government’s side in the Supreme Court. He also enjoys all
immunities and privileges that are provided to Member of Parliament and has the right to
participate and speak in proceedings of both the houses of Parliament but doesn’t have a
vote.
* Option A which is Mukul Rohatgi, was the former Attorney general of India, whom K.K
Venugopal replaced.
* Option B i.e. M.C Stevald was the first Attorney General of India.
* Option C Ravi Shankar Prasad is an eminent Indian lawyer and the present Law minister of
India.
13. A
Sol.
• National Law day in India is celebrated on 26th November every year since 2015 to mark the
date on which final draft of the constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly
in 1949.
• The Constitution was adopted on 26th November, 1949 and came into effect (enforced) after
exactly two months on 26th January, 1950 (which is marked as Republic day of India).
• Therefore, the government decided to celebrate 26th November as the National law day (also
known as ‘Samvidhan Divas or constitution day) from 2015 onwards with the view to spread
constitutional awareness among the population.
• 2015 was the year of 125th birth Anniversary of the chief architect of the Indian Constitution,
Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar and that’s why government decided to commemorate this day since
2015 every year.
(Note:
* Option B, i.e. 26th January is celebrated as Republic Day of India.
* Option C, i.e. 15th January is marked as Army Day.
* Option D, i.e. 15th August is celebrated as Independence Day in India.)
14. D
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Sol. • Article 123 of the Constitution of India gives power to issue Ordinance to the President of
India while Article 213 empowers the governors of each state to issue ordinance in their
respective state.
• The Ordinance issuing power is Legislative power of President in the Country and of
Governor in his state. The President can exercise this power only when both houses of
Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) are not in session.
• Similarly, a governor can also exercise his power to issue ordinance under Article 213, only
when the state legislative assembly is out of session.
(Note:
* Option A is wrong choice because Article 213 empowers governor and 123 empower
president to issue ordinance.
* Option B, i.e. Article 52 of the Constitution provides that there shall be a ‘President’ of India,
similarly Article 153 provides for a Governor in each state.
* Option C i.e. Article 53 states that the President is the Executive head of the country, while
Article 154 makes Governor, the executive head of a state.)
15. A
Sol. • Ration Decidendi is the Authoritative (binding) part of a judgement while Obiter Dicta are only
persuasive and hence, not binding.
• A judgement has two parts that are:
i. Ratio Decidendi: It is a Latin phrase which means, ‘rationale for the decision’. It refers to that
part of a judgement which is related to question of law and involves application of law by the
court. The Principle which is originated by the court while delivering its verdict is called Ratio
Decidendi of that judgement. It is an authoritative precedent, which is binding upon all the
courts of lower jurisdiction. Therefore, the ratio decidendi of a judgement is in itself a law.
ii. Obiter Dicta: It is a Latin phrase meaning ‘by the way’. It refers to thatpart of judgement in
which the judges express their personal views or opinions on a particular issue, not incidental
to the facts and the law applied. Therefore, an Obiter dictum is a mere persuasive precedent
and courts of lower jurisdiction are under no obligation to follow it.
• In short, Ratio Decidendi of a judgement is a law while Obiter Dicta is an opinion.
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• Article 141 of the Constitution of India states that a law declared by supreme court of India
should be binding upon all courts within the territory of India. Therefore, this article confers law
making power to the Supreme Court and exhibits its Ratio as law.
(Note:
Option D, i.e. Precedent and Custom are the two sources of law in India. Precedent refers to
Judicial Pronouncements that becomes law for all lower courts to follow. Custom on the other
hand refers to those practices which have been uniformly followed in a particular society for a
long time and hence, have gained force of law.)
16. D
Sol. • Assertion is false because every wrongful act is not a crime. A wrongful act may be private or
public, and only the latter is considered as crime while the former is a mere civil wrong. Public
wrongs are considered as crimes, whereas Private wrongs (Civil) are not.
• Reason is true because a Crime is always a wrongful act, because an act which is not
wrongful can’t be a Crime under any condition because the most important essential for an act
to be a crime is that it should be Wrongful.
• A wrongful act means any act or omission which violates any lawful right of another person,
and the violation is direct consequence of the act.
• In other words a wrongful act is an illegal act.
17. B
Sol. • Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are independently true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
• According to Section 3 of ‘The President (discharge of functions) act, 1969’ if both President
and Vice-President are unavailable then the Chief Justice of India should act as President of
India. Hence, an acting CJI can also act as the President of India.
• Mohammad Hidayatullah has been the only CJI till date who also acted as the President of
India while being in office as CJI.
• The doctrine of separation of powers was declared as the basic structure of the Constitution
in Kesavananda Bharti case. It was held in this case that the amending power of Parliament
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under Article 368 is not unlimited and unrestricted, and hence, the parliament can’t amend the
basic structure of the constitution.
• Separation of powers states that the three organs of the government, that are, the Executive,
the legislature and the Judiciary should be independent of each other and should not interfere
with the core activities of one another.
(Note:
* Option A may look a close choice but it isn’t because A and R doesn’t have any sort of
relativity in any context. While A is a true fact, R is a True Principle, independent of A.
* Moreover, appointment of CJI (Judiciary) as President (Executive) in some special
circumstances is not violative of Separation of powers because this doctrine is not followed in
its absoluteness in India.)
18. D
Sol. • Assertion is false because some fundamental rights are available to ‘persons’.
• The word ‘Persons’ has a wider scope than ‘Citizens’ and includes Citizens as well as
Foreigners under its ambit.
• Fundamental Rights that are available to persons are:
i. Equality before law (Article 14)
ii. Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
iii. Protection of life and Personal liberty (Article 21)
iv. Right to Education (Article 21 A)
v. Protection against Arrest and Detention (Article 22)
vi. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23)
vii. Prohibition of employment of children in factories (Article 24)
viii. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article
25)
ix. Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26)
x. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion (Article 27)
xi. Freedom as to attendance at religious instructions or religious worship in certain
educational institutions (Article 28)
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• All other fundamental rights are available only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners. Hence,
‘Fundamental Rights are only available to citizens’ (Assertion) is a false statement.
• Reason is true because ‘Right to life and personal liberty’ enshrined under Article 21 of the
constitution is that fundamental right which is available to ‘persons’, i.e. citizens as well as
foreigners. Hence, the right can be redeemed by all persons (citizens and foreigners) except
enemy aliens.
19. D
Sol. * Sir James Fitzjames Stephen (James F. Stephen) was an eminent English lawyer, Jurist and
Writer. He drafted the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 which was adopted by the13 members’
legislative council on 12th March, 1872.
* James F. Stephen was the law member of the council and prepared the draft for the act.
* The act was enacted by the Governor-general in council on 15th March, 1872 and
commenced from 1st September, 1872. It is recognized as Act no. 1 of 1872.
* The Indian Evidence act has a total of 167 sections spread over 11 chapters and is an
essential act which governs the admissibility of Evidence in a court of law in both Criminal as
well as Civil cases.
(Note:
* Lord Macaulay drafted the India Penal Code, 1860.
* Henry Maine was a famous British Jurist who is known to be the chief profounder of
Historical school of Jurisprudence.
* Lord Mountbatten was the last British Governor-general of India. )
20. D
Sol.
* In Joseph Shine Vs Union of India, decided on 27th September, 2018 the five judge
constitutional bench of the Supreme Court headed by CJI Deepak Mishra unanimously struck
down section 497 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (Adultery) as ultra vires to Article 14 and
15 of the Constitution of India.
* Therefore, Adultery was decriminalized in this case and as its consequence, Section 497 of
IPC that highlighted adultery as a Crime was repealed from the code.
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(Note:
* Navtej Singh Johar Vs Union of India is a landmark Supreme Court judgment dated 6th
September, 2018 in which homosexuality which was an Offence under Section 377 of IPC was
decriminalized by the Supreme Court on the ground that it was violative of right guaranteed
under Article 14 of the Constitution.
* Minerva mills Vs Union of India is landmark Supreme Court case decided in 1980. In this
judgment the Supreme Court applied, interpreted and evolved the Basic Structure Doctrine
that was evolved in the Kesavananda Bharti Case.
* Indian Young Lawyers Association Vs State of Kerala (2018) is the landmark Supreme Court
judgment related to the Sabarimala Temple issue wherein the Supreme Court declared the
Practice related to non-entry of women to the temple of lord Ayyappa to be unconstitutional.)