TEST I MULTIPLE CHOICE (60 PTS)

Choose the best answer to each of the following questions of completion

statements. Write the letter of your choice on the space provided for in the answer sheet.

1. Which section of the R.A. 5527 discusses about the administrative investigation?
A. Section 21 C. Section 23
B. Section 22 D. Section 24

2. There should be no rating below how many percent in any of the major subjects in
order to pass the Board Exam as stated in R.A. 5527:
A. 40% C. 60%
B. 50% D. 75%

3. Which section of R.A. 5527 discusses about the refusal to issue certificate of
registration?
A. Section 17
B. Section 18
C. Section 20
D. Section 21

4. The duly registered medical technologist is required to display his certificate of

registration at:
A. At home
B. In the place where he works
C. Along the streets where people could see it
D. Bedroom

5. Who will sign the certificate of registration to be issued to the Medical Technologists?
A. Members of the board and RP President
B. Members of the Council and PRC Commissioner
C. PRC Commissioner and Board Members
D. Board Members and PAMET President

6. How much would be the relative weight of MedTech Laws and Ethics and HistoTech in
the Medical Technology Licensure Examination?
A. 10% C. 30%
B. 20% D. 40%

7. What section of the R. A. 005527 discusses about report of rating?

A. Section 16 C. Section 18
B. Section 17 D. Section 19

8. Minimum required course for MedTech is started in what section of R. A. 5527?

A. Section 3 C. Section 5
B. Section 4 D. Section 6

9. The following are functions of MedTech Council of Education, EXCEPT:

A. administers board examination
B. recommend the minimum required curriculum for MedTech course
C. monitors MedTech Schools in the country
D. recommend refresher course

10. All of the following are penal provisions of Medical Technologists, EXCEPT:
A. attempting to use certificates of registration of another
B. supervising a medical technician
C. issuance of fraudulent results
D. failure to display certificate of registration

11. Which of the following is not a practice of Medical Technologists?

A. Blood typing and cross-matching
B. tissue processing
C. Autopsy

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 D. Preparation and standardization of reagents

12. What Republic Act requires the Registration of Medical Technologist defining their
practices and other purposes?
A. RA 1517 C. RA 4688
B. RA 5527 D. RA 7719

13. According to this person, Medical Technology profession started as early as 1550
B.C. as evidenced by the observance of taenia and ascaris infection of people
during this time:
A. Anna Fagelson C. Ruth Williams
B. Vivian Herrick D. Alessandra Giliani

14. The person who saved the laboratory from the 6th U.S. Army in 1944 ____.
A. Dr. Alfredo Sta. Ana D. Dr. Prudencia Sta.
B. Nardito Moraleta Ana
C. Alfredo Pio de Roda

15. An early writing that showcases the life stages of hookworm infection:
A. Ebers Papyrus
B. An Introduction to Medical Technology Profession
C. Urinalysis and other Body Fluids
D. Introduction to Parasitology

16. The Father of Philippine Association of Medical Technologist (PAMET)

A. Mr. Nardito Moraleta C. Mr. Charlemagne
B. Mr. Crisanto Almario Tamondong
D. Sen. Arturo Tolentino

17. The first City Health Officer of Manila who was convinced by Dr. Alfredo Pio de Roda
to help the remnants of the laboratory left by the 6th U.S. Army
A. Dr. Tirso Briones
B. Dr. Prudencia Sta. Ana
C. Dr. Mariano Icasiano
D. Dr. Antonio Gabriel

18. The 1st President of the Philippine Association of Medical Technologist?

A. Mr. Nardito Moraleta
B. Mr. Charlemagne Tamondong
C. Mr. Crisanto Almario
D. Ms. Norma Chang

19. When was the approval of R.A. 5527?

A. June 21, 1969 C. June 27, 1969
B. June 29, 1969 D. June 21, 1970

20. How many years the Commissioner of Philippine Regulations Commission holds
office for a term without reappointment?
Seven years
A. 3 years C. 9 years
B. 6 years D. 12 year

21. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002 is also known as _____.
A. RA 6425 C. RA 8504
B. RA 9165 D. RA 7719

22. The following individuals shall undergo mandatory drug testing, EXCEPT for:
A. applicant's for drivers license (under the new law)
B. military
C. law enforcers
D. officers and employees of public and private offices

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23. Who shall head a drug testing laboratory?
A. licensed physician C. pathologist
B. licensed chemist D. chemical engineer

24. Drug testing result from an accredited laboratory is valid for a maximum of how
many years only?
A. 1 year C. 3 years
B. 2 years D. 4 years

25. If a drug testing center is capable of identifying the concentration and quantity of
the drug or metabolite sought, the laboratory is considered:
A. screening laboratory C. institution-based laboratory
B. confirmatory laboratory D. free-standing laboratory

26. The Philippine HIV/AIDS Law is _____.

A. RA 6425 C. RA 8504
B. RA 9165 D. RA 7719

27. The Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998 was approved on:
A. February 14, 1998
B. February 13, 1998
C. February 12, 1998
D. February 11, 1998

28. Which of the following is NOT a declaration of policy the AIDS/HIV law?
A. the right to privacy of individuals with HIV shall be guaranteed
B. discrimination shall be considered inimical to the state and the national
interest
C. compulsory HIV testing is a need to monitor the spread and progress of the
disease
D. provision of basic health and social services for affected individuals shall be
assured

29. Compulsory HIV testing shall be applied in which of the following instances?
A. Filipinos migrating abroad
B. an individual applying for a driver’s license
C. members of the arm forces of the Philippines
D. when resolving a Family Code dispute

30. The Philippine HIV/AIDS law is composed of how many articles and sections?
A. nine articles and 42 sections
B. nine articles and 52 sections
C. ten articles and 42 sections
D. ten articles and 52 sections

31. As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall

A. uphold the law and shall not participate in illegal work
B. accept the responsibilities inherent to being a professional
C. share my knowledge and expertise with my colleagues
D. act in the spirit of fairness and in the spirit of brotherhood toward other
members of the allied medical profession

32. “Accept employment from more than one employer only when there is no conflict of
interest”… is followed by:
A. restrict my praises, criticisms, views and opinions within constructive limits
B. perform my task with full confidence, absolute reliability, and accuracy
C. be dedicated to the use of laboratory science to promote life and benefit
mankind
D. share my knowledge and expertise with my colleagues

33. The revised edition of the Medical Technology Code of Ethics was approved on:
A. March 07, 1997

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 B. March 17, 1997
C. March 27, 1997
D. April 7, 1997

34. “Treat any information that I acquire in the course of my work as strictly
confidential”… follows after ____:
A. restrict my praises, criticisms, views and opinions within constructive limits
B. perform my task with full confidence, absolute reliability, and accuracy
C. be dedicated to the use of laboratory science to promote life and benefit
mankind
D. share my knowledge and expertise with my colleagues

35. “Uphold the dignity and respect of my profession and conduct myself _________”.
A. a reputation befitting the dignity of my profession
B. a reputation of confidence, integrity, and honesty
C. a reputation of reliability, honesty, and integrity
D. a reputation of integrity, reliability, and honesty

36. The National Blood Services Act of 1994 is _______.

A. RA 6425
B. RA 9165
C. RA 8504
D. RA 7719

37. Implementing guidelines of the blood banking law which was approved on May 12,
1995 is:
A. AO No. 9 s. 1995
B. AO No. 9 s. 1998
C. AO No. 17-A s. 1998
D. AO No. 201 s. 1998

38. If a blood bank laboratory is capable of giving the services of non-hospital based
category A plus compatibility testing, the institution is classified as:
A. Non-Hospital based Category A
B. Non-Hospital based Category B
C. Hospital-based Category A
D. Hospital-based Category B

39. The external quality control in both the blood bank and clinical laboratory institutions
is conducted by:
A. BRL C. BHFS
B. CHD D. CDCP

40. The implementing guideline of the clinical laboratory act of 1966 is:
A. AO No. 9 s. 1995
B. AO No. 59 s. 2001
C. AO No. 17-A s. 1998
D. AO No. 201 s. 1998

41. It is defined as “a way of making things done through people which involves
effective and efficient utilization of resources.”
A. organizing C. management
B. planning D. controlling

42. Anticipating the factors that would change the direction of the organization is under
what laboratory management process?
A. planning C. directing
B. organizing D. controlling

43. A process of grouping staff or men, establish relationships, giving them authority
and responsibilities is _____.
A. planning B. organizing

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 C. directing D. controlling

44. Communication is an important element in this management process.

A. planning C. directing
B. organizing D. controlling

45. Motivating people, inspiring people, encouraging the people what to do is ____.
A. planning C. directing
B. organizing D. controlling

46. Establishing the performance standards of laboratory personnel so as to ensure their

work efficiency is _____.
A. planning C. directing
B. organizing D. controlling

49. Characteristics of an organization, EXCEPT:

A. division of labor
B. presence of one or more authority centers
C. substitution of personnel
D. existence of funds

50. “Push button concept of organization ” is ____.

A. social concept
B. herd concept
C. man to man concept
D. leader concept

For Numbers 51-55, please refer to the choices below (Roles of A Laboratory Manager)

A. supervisor D. service provider

B. public relations man E. negotiator
C. administrative official

51.E He must understand the nature, significance, and methods of collective bargaining

52.C Sees to it that labor laws and government rules and regulations are properly
complied with

53.D Can initiates action such as helping employees obtain facilities with government
agencies like SSS, PhilHealth, PAG-IBIG

54. AOversees the employees in his own department

55. BDeal with various publics of the company such as the unions, general public,
community, and the employees

56. Shows the line of communication and command of responsibility among the
members of the organization.
A. table of specification C. job specification
B. job description D. table of organization

57. It shows the minimum requirements for a particular position or job.

A. table of specification
B. job description
C. job specification
D. table of organization

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58. In this style, managers have low concern for both people and production. Managers
use this style to avoid getting into trouble. The main concern for the manager is
not to be held responsible for any mistakes, which results in less innovative
decisions.
A. The impoverished style (1,1)
B. The country club style (1,9)
C. The produce or perish style (9,1)
D. The middle-of-the-road style (5,5)

59. This style has a high concern for people and a low concern for production. Managers
using this style pay much attention to the security and comfort of the employees,
in hopes that this would increase performance.
A. The impoverished style (1,1)
B. The country club style (1,9)
C. The produce or perish style (9,1)
D. The middle-of-the-road style (5,5)

60. Managers using this style try to balance between company goals and workers'
needs. By giving some concern to both people and production, managers who
use this style hope to achieve acceptable performance.
A. The impoverished style (1,1)
B. The country club style (1,9)
C. The produce or perish style (9,1)
D. The middle-of-the-road style (5,5)

61. The implementing guidelines of RA 4688 are contained in:

a. AO No. 59 s. 2001 c. AO No. 17-A s. 2001
b. AO No. 17-A s. 2000 d. AO No. 9 s. 1995

62. The following are the services offered by a laboratory classified as “Anatomic
Pathology”, EXCEPT:
a. Surgical Pathology c. Cytology
b. Immunohematology d. Immunohistopathology

63. Routine clinical chemistry procedures is offered by a:

a. Primary laboratory c. Tertiary laboratory
b. Secondary laboratory d. B and C only

64. “Clinical Pathology” laboratory offers the following services, EXCEPT:

a. Immunology and serology c. Immunohistopathology
b. Microbiology d. Immunohematology

65. A laboratory offering culture and sensitivity is categorized as ____.

a. Primary laboratory c. Tertiary laboratory
b. Secondary laboratory d. Either B or C

66. AN approved permit to construct and design la-out of a clinical laboratory shall be
from ____.
a. BRL c. BHFS
b. NRL d. RITM

67. The owner or authorized representative of any clinical laboratory desiring to transfer
a licensed clinical laboratory to another location shall inform the BHFS in writing at
least ____ days before the actual transfer.
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 30

68. A clinical laboratory should be headed by a pathologist. However, in areas where

pathologists are not available, a physician with ____ months training on laboratory
medicine ma head a clinical laboratory.
a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12

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69. A secondary laboratory should have at least ___ square meter working area.
a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40
70. External quality assurance program for clinical laboratories shall be given by:
a. BHFS c. BRL
b. NRL d. RITM

71. All laboratory records shall be kept on file for at least ___ year/s.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
72.

73. Coagulation tests and glycosylated hemoglobin are examples of special chemistry
procedures offered by a _____ laboratory.
a. Primary laboratory c. Tertiary laboratory
b. Secondary laboratory d. Both B and C

74. The following are grounds for the revocation/suspension of clinical laboratory
license, EXCEPT:
a. operating a clinical laboratory without a certified pathologist or without a
registered medical technologist
b. gross negligence
c. license to operate a clinical laboratory is posted at the most conspicuous are
area of the laboratory
d. refusal to participate in external quality control program

75. The rules and regulations implementing RA 7719 is stipulated in ____.

a. AO No. 59 s. 1998 c. AO No. 17-A s. 1998
b. AO No. 9 s. 1995 d. AO No. 201 s. 2001

76. An individual who donates blood on one’s own volition or initiative and not induced,
directly or indirectly, in any manner whatsoever by any monetary compensation is
referred to as ____.
a. Commercial donor c. Voluntary blood donor
b. Walking blood donor d. Pledge-25 donor

77. Which of the following conditions may temporarily defer a donor from donating
blood?
a. Hepa C reactive c. Pregnancy
b. Tattoo at the right deltoid d. RPR reactive
muscle

78. What is the ideal blood bank refrigerator temperature?

a. 1-60C c. 0-60C
0
b. 2-8 C d. 1-80C

79. A donor weighing 65 kilograms may donate a maximum of ____ cc of blood.

a. 450 c. 485
b. 585 d. 600

80. What anticoagulant additive helps in maintaining the tonicity and integrity of red cell
membrane?
a. Dextrose c. Saline
b. Phosphate d. adenine

81. What component of CPDA anticoagulant preservative provides an excellent energy

source?
a. Sodium citrate c. Adenine
b. Dextrose d. Phosphate

82. The additive that prevents the fall of blood pH thus extending the viability of red
blood cell is ____.
a. Dextrose b. Phosphate

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 c. Saline d. Adenine

83. RA 7719 contains how many sections?

a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30

84. Pathologist/physician may manage a maximum of how many blood bank

laboratories?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

85. To ensure job security of commercial blood bank (CBB) personnel and allow a
reasonable return on their investment on training and equipment, CBB are
encourage to convert their services to:
a. non-profit business c. anatomic laboratory
b. clinical laboratory d. drug-testing laboratory

A. Non-hospital based Category A

B. Non-hospital based Category B
C. Hospital-based Category A
D. Hospital-based Category B

86. D Preliminary investigation of transfusion reactions.

87. A Donor selection + issuance, transport and distribution of whole blood and packed
red blood cells.

88. CServices of non-hospital based category A + compatibility testing.

89. B Donor selection + issuance, transport and distribution of whole blood and blood
products.

90. D Resolution of incompatible cross-matching results.

91. An individual who has been screened by history and physical examination, found to
be fit to donate blood, and included in the list of qualified donors, who is ready to
donate blood when needed in his or her community.
a. Voluntary donor
b. Commercial donor
c. Walk-in donor
d. Pledge-25

92. Prior to donation of platelet pheresis, acetyl salicylic acid should not be taken within:
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 38 hours

93. It refers to procedures to account for each specimen by tracking its handling and
storage from point of collection to final disposal.
a. Procedure Manual c. Internal Quality Control
b. Chain of Custody d. External Quality Control

94. It refers to a test to eliminate negative specimen from further consideration and to
identify the presumptively positive specimen that requires confirmatory testing.
a. Confirmatory test c. Drug test
b. Screening test d. Identification test

95. A confirmatory drug testing laboratory should have a floor area of at least ______
a. 20 sq. m c. 60 sq. m
b. 40 sq. m d. 80 sq. m

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96. A pathologist/physician may manage a maximum of how many drug-testing
laboratory?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

97. It is a laboratory capable of doing screening and confirmatory laboratory services,

training, surveillance, and external quality control.
a. Screening laboratory
b. Confirmatory laboratory
c. National Reference Laboratory
d. BHFS Laboratory

98. Which of the following information is NOT included in the chain of custody form?
a. Date and time of collection
b. Name of testing laboratory
c. Name and signatures of all individuals who had custody of the sample doing the
collection process
d. Kit service provider

99. Specimens in drug testing centers may be kept for a maximum of ___ year/s upon
request.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

100. Specimens with confirmed positive test results shall be discarded if not
challenged within how many days?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

101. Proficiency testing for drug testing laboratory personnel shall be given by ___
a. BHFS c. RITM
b. NRL d. BRL

102. Drug test result is valid for ___

a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 2 years
d. permanently
103. It refers to an HIV testing procedure whereby the individual being tested does
not reveal his/her true identity.
a. Contact tracing c. Hidden testing
b. Confirmatory testing d. Anonymous testing

104. It refers to the method of finding and counseling the sexual partner(s) of a
person who has been diagnosed as having sexually transmitted disease.
a. Pre-counseling c. Contact tracing
b. Post-counseling d. Identity tracing

105. Refers to a person’s frequent involvement in certain activities which increase the
risk of transmitting or acquiring HIV
a. Flirting c. Active sexual contact
b. High-risk behavior d. Pre-disposed behavior

106. The following are the exceptions to the prohibition on compulsory testing,
EXCEPT:
a. When a person is planning to go abroad
b. When a person is charged with any of the crimes punishable under the Revised
Penal Code
c. When the determination of the HIV status is necessary to resolve relevant family
issues
d. When donating an organ or blood

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107. The Philippine government promulgated RA 8504 to prescribe measures for the
prevention and control of HIV/AIDS in the country. This RA was approved on:
a. January 13, 1988 c. March 13, 1998
b. February 13, 1998 d. April 13, 1998

108. An act modernizing the PRC repealing the purpose of PD 223 is:
a. RA 7719 c. PD 657
b. PD 8981 d. RA 8981

109. The Chairperson or Commissioner of PRC shall be at least ___ years of age.
a. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 45

110. The following are functions of PRC, EXCEPT:

a. to admit the successful examinees to the practice of the profession or
occupation.
b. to have custody of all records of the various Boards.
c. to construct questions for licensure examinations.
d. to administer and conduct the licensure examinations of the various regulatory
boards.

111. Approval of PD 223:

a. June 22, 1975 c. June 22, 1973
b. June 11, 1973 d. June 11, 1975

112. The Medical Technologist who died of a laboratory acquired infection according
to Anna Fagelson.
a. Alessandra Giliani c. Crisanto Almario
b. Vivian Herrick d. Malphigi

113. The first national convention of laboratory workers on September 20, 1964 was
held at:
a. UST c. CEU
b. FEU d. PUC
e.

114. The following are subject for penal provisions, EXCEPT:

a. displaying COR at the place where a medtech works
b. using a suspended COR or license
c. employing a non-registered medtech
d. issuing fraudulent results
115. An examinee with a rating of 73% may apply to the board as ______.
a. Medical technologist c. Physician
b. Medical laboratory technician d. Retake the exam

116. Who shall accredit training laboratories for medical technology interns?
a. Secretary of DOH c. Director of BHFS
b. Director of BRL d. CHED

117. The following are grounds for the removal of any board member from his/her
office, EXCEPT?
a. failure of change board exam questions
b. having unsound mind
c. suffering from incurable/communicable disease
d. being unprofessional or unethical

118. The following are the qualifications for medtech licensure examination, EXCEPT:
a. must be a Filipino citizen
b. a graduate of BSMedTech or Public Health
c. must be at least 21 years old
d. must be of good moral character

119. Which of the following is a function of the medtech council of education?

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 a. Administers oath
b. Look into the practice of medtech profession in the country
c. Recommend closure of substandard medical technology schools
d. Issue, suspend, or revoke certificate of registration

120. Mr. Steven is a 70-year-old man with end-stage COPD, admitted last month with
pneumonia. His course was complicated by respiratory failure needing mechanical
ventilation, and multiple efforts to wean him have been unsuccessful. Awake and
alert, he now communicates through written notes that he wants the ventilator

taken off. Will you honor his request?

A. If the patient’s decision making capacity is intact, his request should be honored.
B. His request should not be honored.
C. The surrogate decision maker should make the final decision.
D. A court order is necessary because the outcome of taking him off the respirator is death
certain.

121. Jose is a 62-year-old man who just had a needle biopsy of the pancreas showing
adenocarcinoma. You run into his brother in the hall, and he begs you not to tell Jose
because the knowledge would kill him even faster. A family conference to discuss the
prognosis is already scheduled for later that afternoon. What is the best way for the
doctor to handle the situation?

A. The doctor should honor the request of the family member who is protecting his beloved
brother from the bad news.
B. The doctor should tell Jose's brother that withholding information is not permitted under
any circumstance.
C. Jose should withhold informing the patient about the pancreatic cancer because of the
grave diagnosis.
D. The doctor should ask Jose how he wants to handle the information in front of the rest of
the family, and allow for some family discussion time for this matter.

122. Your 36-year-old patient has just tested positive for HIV. He asks that you not
inform his wife of the results and claims he is not ready to tell her yet. What would
you say to your patient?

A. Encourage the patient to share the information with his wife on his own, giving him a bit
more time if necessary.
B. Tell the patient that his wife is at serious risk for being infected with HIV, and that you
have a duty to ensure that she knows of the risk.
C. Tell the patient that public health law requires reporting both the patient and any known
sexual partners to local health officers.
D. All the above.

123. A 60-year-old man has a heart attack and is admitted to the medical floor with a
very poor prognosis. He asks that you not share any of his medical information with
his wife as he does not think she will be able to take it. His wife catches you in the
hall and asks about her husband's prognosis. What are you required to do legally?

A. The doctor should inform the wife about her husband’s poor prognosis.
B. The doctor is should not divulge the prognosis to the wife, but he should ask the nurse to
let the wife know about her husband’s condition.
C. The wife will certainly be affected by her husband's health and prognosis and every
effort should be made to encourage an open dialogue between them.
D. The doctor should not encourage the patient to talk to his wife about his condition.

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 124. A mother brings her 18-month-old daughter to your office for a routine physical
examination. The child has had no immunizations. Her mother says that they believe
in naturopathic medicine and prefer not to immunize their children. You would tell the
mother in this situation that:

A. You respect her (the mother’s) wishes and say no more.

B. The risk faced by unimmunized individuals is relatively high.
C. The mother's refusal to immunize poses a significant likelihood of harm to her child.
D. The physician should be sure that the child's mother understands the risks of remaining
unimmunized and attempt to correct any misconceptions about the degree of risk
associated with getting immunized.

125. Which of the following is NOT an underlying goal of ethics committees?

A. To promote the rights of patients;

B. To promote shared decision making between patients (or their surrogates if decisionally
incapacitated) and their clinicians;
C. To promote fair policies and procedures that maximize the likelihood of achieving good,
patient-centered outcomes; and
D. To improve the public perception and image of health care professionals and health care
institutions.

126. A 22-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a headache, stiff neck and
photophobia but an intact mental status. Lab test reveal cryptococcal meningitis, an
infection commonly associated with HIV infection. When given the diagnosis, she
adamantly refuses to be tested for HIV. How should the medical staff handle the
situation?

A. Test for HIV despite the patient’s refusal.

B. Do not test for HIV, because as for any other medical procedure, testing should be done
only with the informed consent of the patient.
C. Test the patient for HIV anonymously, without any identifying remarks.
D. Report the patient’s cryptococcal meningitis to the Public Health Department and ask the
Department to test the patient for HIV.

127. An 18-month-old child presents to the clinic with a runny nose. Since she is
otherwise well, the immunizations due at 18 months are administered. After she and
her mother leave the clinic, you realize that the patient was in the clinic the week
before and had also received immunizations then. Should you tell the parents about
your mistake?

A. No because the error is a trivial one.

B. No because no harm is done.
C. No because the mother will never find out.
D. Yes because an open and honest approach to errors is most appropriate.

128. A 55-year-old man has a 3-month history of chest pain and fainting spells. You
feel his symptoms merit cardiac catheterization. You explain the risks and potential
benefits to him, and include your assessment of his likely prognosis without the
intervention. He is

able to demonstrate that he understands all of this, but refuses the intervention.

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Can he refuse the intervention, legally?

A. No, because the patient does not comprehend the severity of his cardiovascular
condition.
B. No, because the patient has a documented life threatening cardiac condition.
C. Yes, because he is competent to make this decision, and the doctor has a duty to
respect his choice.
D. The doctor can perform the cardiac catheterization after obtaining a court order.

129. A 3-month-old has been admitted to the hospital with a newly diagnosed
ventricular septal defect. She is in early congestive heart failure and digoxin is
indicated. After discussing the proper dose with the attending physician, you write an
order for the drug. Thirty minutes later the baby vomits and then has a cardiac arrest
and dies. You discover that in writing the digoxin order you misplaced the decimal
point and the child got 10 times too much digoxin. What is your duty here?

A. Inform the parents about the mistake and say you are very sorry.
B. Do not inform the parents.
C. Do not say sorry.
D. Pray and ask God for forgiveness.

130. What is the purpose of formalized codes of ethics in the health care professions?

A. To increase the competence and standard of care within the profession.

B. To revoke the licenses of unethical practitioners.
C. To provide a consistent guide of protocol.
D. To relieve the law making bodies of some of their legal responsibilities.

131. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002 is also known as _____.

E. RA 6425
F. RA 9165
G. RA 8504
H. RA 7719

132. The following individuals shall undergo mandatory drug testing, EXCEPT for:
A. Applicants for firearms license and permit to carry firearms outside the
residence.
B. Officers and members the military, police and other law enforcement agencies
C. applicants for driver license
D. All of the above

133. Who shall head a drug testing laboratory?

E. licensed physician G. pathologist

F. licensed chemist H. chemical engineer

134. Drug testing result from an accredited laboratory is valid for a maximum of how
many years only?
E. 1 year G. 3 years
F. 2 years H. 4 years

135. If a drug testing center is capable of identifying the concentration and quantity of

the drug or metabolite sought, the laboratory is considered:

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 E. screening laboratory G. institution-based laboratory
F. confirmatory laboratory H. free-standing laboratory

136. Which of the following information is NOT included in the chain of custody
form?
a. Date and time of collection
b. Name of testing laboratory
c. Name and signatures of all individuals who had custody of the sample
doing the collection process
d. Kit service provider

137. Specimens in drug testing centers may be kept for a maximum of ___
year/s upon request.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

138. Specimens with confirmed positive test results shall be discarded if not
challenged within how many days?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

139. Proficiency testing for drug testing laboratory personnel shall be given by
___
a. BHFS c. RITM
b. NRL d. BRL

140. Drug test result is valid for __

a. 6 months d. Permanently
b. 1 year
c. 2 years
141. Allowing individuals control / decision over themselves is ___.
A. justice
B. maleficence
C. beneficence
D. autonomy

142. The ultimate decision whether to deter or continue treatment should come from
___.
A. patient
B. physician
C. siblings
D. parents

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