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ORAL Surgery Q&A

Dentistry (University of Perpetual Help System DALTA)

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ORAL SURGERY Sample Exam 2022

1. The painless removal of the whole tooth or root, with minimal trauma to the investing tissues,
so that the wound heals uneventfully and no post-operative prosthetic problem is created:
a. Odontectomy
b. Oral Surgery
c. Extraction
d. Alveolectomy
2. Which of the following is a contraindication to tooth extraction?
a. Controlled diabetes
b. Blood pressure of 120/80
c. Agranulocytosis
d. Radicular cyst
3. Defined as the removal of all microorganisms from a given object:
a. Washing
b. Disinfection
c. Sterilization
d. None of the above
4. During luxation of a tooth, the __________ is used as a fulcrum:
a. Adjacent tooth
b. Buccal shelf
c. Alveolar ridge
d. Root apex
5. The leading cause of tooth extraction among young patients is:
a. Caries
b. Periodontal Disease
c. Pre-Orthodontic Procedures
d. Malposed / Supra-erupted Teeth
6. Instrument used to extract the apical 3rd of a root that is broken during normal extraction:
a. Forcep #150
b. Crossbar elevator
c. Root tip pick
d. Mucoperiosteal elevator
7. Indications of trans-alveolar extraction include the following EXCEPT:
a. Intra-alveolar attempt is failed
b. Retained roots in proximity with maxillary sinus and not accessible to forceps
c. History of difficult or attempted extraction
d. Heavily restored tooth
e. None of the above
8. The leading cause of tooth extraction among geriatric patients is:
a. Caries
b. Periodontal Disease

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c. Pre-Orthodontic Procedures
d. Malposed / Supra-erupted Teeth
9. Factors influencing the healing of a post-extraction site include the following EXCEPT:
a. Infection
b. Size of wound
c. Blood supply
d. General condition of the patient
e. None of the above
10. The advantage of this technique is that the risk of direct trauma to the inferior alveolar nerve is
eliminated, due to both the increased distance between the roots and the mandibular canal and
the decreased need for surgical manipulation during the extraction:
a. Piezosurgery
b. Electrocautery
c. Laser surgery
d. Orthodontic extrusion
11. Extraction of this tooth can cause injury to the mental nerve:
a. 11
b. 46
c. 34
d. 23
12. Management for dislocation of adjacent tooth during extraction:
a. Place the tooth in the socket and observe
b. Place the tooth in the socket and splint
c. Place the tooth in the socket, rinse with NSS and observe
d. Extract the tooth
13. The complication associated with extraction of patients undergoing radiation therapy:
a. Xerostomia
b. Osteonecrosis
c. Tumor formation
d. Dry Socket
14. Postoperative pain in and around the extraction site, which increases in severity at any time
between 1 and 3 days after the extraction accompanied by a partially or totally disintegrated
blood clot within the alveolar socket with or without halitosis:
a. Dry socket
b. Alveolalgia
c. Alveolar osteitis
d. Localized osteitis
15. Local contraindications to dental extraction include the following except:
a. Acute Infections of the Tooth or surrounding Tissues
b. Ongoing Radiation Therapy
c. Teeth with Malignant Tumors
d. None of the above
16. Blade used for incision and drainage of an abscess:
a. No. 10

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b. No. 11
c. No. 12
d. No. 15
17. Used to reflect papillae from between teeth and loosen soft tissues via gingival sulcus:
a. Gingival retractor
b. Straight elevator
c. Scalpel
d. Mucoperiosteal elevator
18. Used to retract cheek and mucoperiosteal flap simultaneously:
a. Mucoperiosteal elevator
b. Seldin retractor
c. Minnesota retractor
d. None of the above
19. Most commonly used instrument for removing bone:
a. Chisel
b. Osteotome
c. Mallet
d. Rongeur forceps
20. The best time to perform extraction on a pregnant patient is on the:
a. First Trimester
b. Second Trimester
c. Third Trimester
d. The patient can be extracted anytime
21. Instrument used during extraction to check if the anesthesia is already profound:
a. Explorer
b. Mucoperiostal elevator
c. Scaler
d. Forcep
22. Needle used to administer local anesthesia via inferior alveolar nerve block:
a. Gauge 30 short
b. Gauge 30 long
c. Gauge 27 short
d. Gauge 27 long
23. Grasp used in making incisions:
a. Palm grasp
b. Pen grasp
c. Power grip
d. Finger grip
24. Dental elevator that is not used in the maxillary arch:
a. Straight elevator
b. Cryer elevator
c. Crossbar elevator
d. Apexo elevator
25. Forceps to extract maxillary anteriors and premolars, as well as root fragments:

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a. 151
b. 69
c. 150
d. 16
26. The round radiolucency at the mandibular premolar area is:
a. Mandibular foramen
b. Radicular cyst
c. Mental Foramen
d. Artifact
27. Term for the surgical removal of an impacted third molar:
a. Impaction
b. Odontogenesis
c. Odontectomy
d. Odontoplasty
28. A local flap:
a. Is outlined by a surgical incision
b. Carries its own blood supply
c. Allows surgical access to underlying tissues
d. Can be replaced in the original position
e. All of the above
29. If the pathologic condition has eroded the buccocortical plate, the surgical incision must be at
least __________ away from it:
a. 1-2mm
b. 2-3mm
c. 4-5mm
d. 6-8mm
30. A principle of flap design states that the base should be _________ than the free margin:
a. Greater
b. Lesser
c. Equal
d. It does not matter
31. Vertical releasing incisions should start at the line angle of a tooth and is carried straight apically
into the unattached gingiva.
a. True
b. False
32. This tooth has a conical root configuration which allows for rotation during extraction:
a. Maxillary Central Incisors
b. Maxillary Canines
c. Mandibular Canines
d. Maxillary First Premolars
33. During multiple extractions, the clinician should start from the most _________ going
__________.
a. Anterior; Posteriorly

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b. Posterior; Anteriorly
c. Labial; Lingually
d. Lingual; Labially
34. This flap is useful for periapical surgery of a limited extent but should not cross major
prominences:
a. Envelope
b. Three-cornered
c. Semilunar
d. Y-incision
35. Flap utilized for the removal of a torus palatinus:
a. Envelope
b. Three-cornered
c. Semilunar
d. Y-incision
36. Indications for odontectomy include the following except:
a. Prevention of Periodontal Disease
b. Prevention of Dental Caries
c. Prevention of Root Resorption
d. Prevention of Pericoronitis
e. None of the above
37. An odontectomy case is easier to finish if the:
a. Roots are fused and conical
b. Roots are thin
c. Surrounding bone is dense
d. Tooth is close to the inferior alveolar nerve
38. During incisions, the blade should contact only the soft tissue at all times.
a. True
b. False
39. A difference of using burs over chisels in bone removal is that burs may cause:
a. Less necrosis
b. Less chances for dry socket and infection
c. Delayed healing and more swelling
d. None of the above
40. Area of wound devoid of soft tissue after closure:
a. Thermocoagulated space
b. Eliminated space
c. Dead space
d. None of the above
41. An odontectomy case is harder to finish if the:
a. Roots are fused conical
b. Tooth is mesioangular
c. Tooth is distoangular
d. Tooth is far from the inferior alveolar nerve

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42. Procedure done to creates a channel around the buccal surface of the tooth and midway
distally:
a. Alveolectomy
b. Alveoloplasty
c. Ditching
d. None of the above
43. An example of a lesion that will appear as a well-defined radiolucency:
a. Abscess
b. Cellulitis
c. Carcinoma
d. Cyst
44. Indications for biopsy include the following EXCEPT:
a. Any lesion that persists for more than 2 weeks with no apparent etiologic basis
b. Any inflammatory lesion that does not respond to local treatment after 10 to 14 days
c. Persistent hyperkeratotic changes in surface tissues
d. None of the above
45. Needle used for aspirational biopsy
a. Gauge 18
b. Gauge 25
c. Gauge 27
d. Gauge 30
46. The extent of the procedure in item #26 is:
a. Until the greatest convexity of the crown is exposed
b. Until all crown surface is exposed
c. Until a purchase area of the roots is created
d. None of the above
47. The bur used in the procedure in item #46 is:
a. Round Bur #4 or #6
b. Inverted cone #34
c. Round Bur #2
d. Tapered Fissure # 169
48. Biopsy used if a lesion is large or has different characteristics in various locations that requires
more than one area to be sampled:
a. Punch biopsy
b. Aspirational biopsy
c. Incisional biopsy
d. Excisional biopsy
49. Indications of excisional biopsy include the following EXCEPT:
a. Should be employed with small lesions less than 1cm
b. The lesion on clinical exam appears malignant
c. When complete excision with a margin of normal tissue is possible without mutilation
d. None of the above
50. For anesthetizing patients, infiltration technique is preferred over block anesthesia.

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a. True
b. False

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01C 11C 21B 31B 41C

02C 12B 22D 32A 42C
03C 13B 23B 33B 43D
04C 14A 24C 34C 44D
05A 15D 25C 35D 45A
06C 16B 26C 36E 46A
07E 17D 27C 37A 47A
08B 18C 28E 38B 48C
09E 19D 29D 39D 49B
10D 20B 30A 40C 50B

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