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ĐỀ VIP 8 - PHÁT TRIỂN ĐỀ MINH HỌA THAM KHẢO BGD MÔN ANH NĂM 2024 (D1) - gY4RYaDe1l
ĐỀ VIP 8 - PHÁT TRIỂN ĐỀ MINH HỌA THAM KHẢO BGD MÔN ANH NĂM 2024 (D1) - gY4RYaDe1l
ĐỀ 8 – D1
Thời gian làm bài: … phút, không kể thời gian phát đề.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 1. Tom and Susan are talking about their plan to help disadvantaged children.
- Tom: "Why don't we send disadvantaged children in the remote and mountainous areas some
textbooks and warm clothes?"
- Susan: "_________”
A. I'm sorry to hear that. B. No, they are not
available.
C. Great idea! What meaningful gifts! D. You should agree with us.
Question 2. The teacher is discussing the cyberbullying with Jack.
- Jack: "Cyberbullying has serious effects on not only a person's mental health but also his well-
being."
- Teacher: “ ______. We have to prevent it as soon as possible.”
A. I don’t think so B. I don’t agree C. That's a good point D. What nonsense
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 3. Chocolates and flowers are by far _______ presents for mothers on Mother’s Day in the
UK.
A. more popular B. the more popular C. less popular D. the most popular
Question 4. I think that up to now there has not been a real _______ between men and women.
A. equality B. equal C. equalize D. equally
Question 5. A child's application code and the consultant's Zalo phone number are sent to parents
upon registration, _______ them to access Zalo and register personal data.
A. is enabled B. enabling C. to enable D. enabled
Question 6. _______ fifth-grade pupil died of suspected food poisoning on April 5th, 2024 in Nha
Trang.
A. The B. An C. A D. x (No article)
Question 7. As Joe's roommate, I find him a fairly nice fellow, even if at times it is not easy to _______
his noisy behavior.
A. put up with B. look up to C. get on with D. catch up with
Question 8. The candy _______ by a student from the school at a general grocery store yesterday.
A. purchased B. was purchasing C. was purchased D. is purchased
Question 9. They remember _______ an unforgettable party for their grandparents' anniversary.
A. throw B. to throw C. throwing D. thrown
Question 10. People can never feel fulfilled by following someone else's dreams, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. can’t they D. can they
Question 11. The growth in employment and wages gives consumers some spending _______ to
absorb the higher cost of energy.
A. energy B. force C. ability D. power
Question 12. I _______ along the street when I suddenly heard footsteps behind me.
A. was walking B. walk C. am walking D. walked
Question 13. Our group _______ a new method to carry out the survey into teenagers’ attitudes
towards online learning.
A. recruited B. employed C. occupied D. engaged
Question 14. ________, she will buy her parents a new TV set.
A. When she receives her salary B. Once she received her salary
C. Until she received her salary D. After she had received her salary
Question 15. I am sure your sister will _______ you a sympathetic ear when you explain the
situation to her.
A. pay B. lend C. borrow D. take
Question 16. People are sometimes sick _______ the Internet users' group arguments in online
forums.
A. of B. to C. into D. off
Question 17. When students take a step out of their _______ zone, they need some encouragement
from their teachers and parents.
A. climate B. parking C. control D. comfort
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18. A. come B. cake C. city D. club
Question 19. A. find B. think C. drive D. mind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. express B. happen C. employ D. reduce
Question 21. A. advantage B. candidate C. intention D. commitment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Fierce storms have been hampering rescue efforts and there is now little chance of
finding more survivors.
A. allowing B. preventing C. encouraging D. promoting
Question 23. With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth
may be unique in the solar system was strengthened.
A. outcome B. beginning C. expansion D. continuation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Various programs have been designed in order to facilitate the storage and analysis
of research data.
A. ease B. block C. speed D. build
Question 25. He really seems to have fallen on his feet. He got a new job and found a flat within a
week of arriving in the city.
A. have been successful B. have been satisfied
C. have been unlucky D. have been disappointed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.
Every year millions of migrants travel vast distances using borrowed money for their airfares
and taking little or no cash with them. This flow of migrant money has a huge economic and social
(26) ______ on the receiving countries. It provides cash for food, housing and necessities. It funds
education and healthcare and contributes towards the upkeep of the elderly. Extra money is sent
for special events such as weddings, funerals or urgent medical procedures and (27) ______
emergencies. (28) ______, it sometimes becomes the capital for starting up a small enterprise. A
twofold benefit would be achieved by a developing country or a large charitable society, (29) ______
sells bonds guaranteeing a return of three or four percent, provided that the invested money is
utilized for building infrastructure within that same country. Migrants would make a financial gain
and see their savings put to work in the development of their country of (30) ______.
(Adapted from ‘sending money home’ from ielts of British Council.)
Question 26. A. result B. impact C. consequence D. outcome
Question 27. A. other B. another C. much D. little
Question 28. A. However B. Moreover C. Therefore D. Although
Question 29. A. which B. who C. whose D. when
Question 30. A. derivation B. foundation C. supply D. origin
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of
the question.
There is nothing to suggest that Evelyn Glennie is profoundly deaf. She insists that her deafness
is irrelevant to her musicianship, but there is no doubt that her obvious handicap has turned a
remarkable career into a miraculous one.
Glennie was eight when her hearing began to fail; by twelve she had lost it completely and
feared she would have to give up the music she loved. But a doctor’s suggestion that she should
become an accountant rather than follow a hopeless musical career strengthened her will to
succeed.
As it turned out, music was one of the most advantageous careers she could have chosen and is
one reason why her speech remains so extraordinarily correct, despite her deafness. Occasionally
she listens to recordings by holding a cassette player between her knees, interpreting the
vibrations and the shaking movements. Her deafness is one of the reasons for her unique style, for
she cannot listen and be influenced by other performances and she has often declared that getting
her hearing back would be the worst thing that could happen to her.
As a result of her devotion to her music and her determination to succeed, she has doubled the
range of works available for percussion music in Europe and introduced instruments previously
unheard of in the west. She has also asked composers to write more than fifty new pieces of music
for these instruments, and has set up a library of three hundred works for other musicians to use.
(Adapted from Richmond FCE Practice Tests)
Question 31. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. How to be a Successful Singer B. The Disadvantages of Deafness
C. Developing Musical Skills at School D. Overcoming a Severe Disability
Question 32. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. hearing B. handicap C. career D. music
Question 33. The word unique in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. special B. boring C. common D. healthy
Question 34. According to paragraph 4, Glennie has ______.
A. refused to introduce new instruments to the west
B. written over fifty new pieces of music by herself
C. established a library to support other musicians
D. given up the hope to succeed in her musical career
Question 35. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. People can easily tell that Glennie is completely deaf.
B. Glennie’s deafness turns out to be an advantage to her career.
C. Glennie wishes she could hear clearly like a normal person.
D. Glennie’s doctor encouraged her to become a musician.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of
the question.
The authors noted that while other forms of pollution are decreasing, noise pollution has been
increasing. This conclusion is reinforced by the fact that there has been an increase in the number
of people who have been complaining about excessive noise in the WHO region. Populations that
are exposed to high noise levels can be afflicted by other symptoms such as: stress reactions, sleep-
stage changes, and clinical symptoms like hypertension and cardiovascular diseases. All these
impacts can contribute to premature mortality. It is important to note that these adverse health
problems impact all age groups including children and adolescents. In fact, it has been reported that
children who live and or study in an area afflicted with noise pollution tend to suffer from stress,
impairments in memory and attention as well as difficulty reading.
“In Western Europe, the guidelines say, traffic noise results in an annual loss of at least one
million healthy years”. Traffic noise is currently ranked second among environmental threats to
public health.
The danger of noise pollution is more present to us when we are asleep. Because the human ear
is so sensitive, it never rests, it is always working, picking up and transmitting sounds for our
brains to interpret. This always on working process is where the danger lies, though you may be
sleeping, sounds are still being picked up and processed. The most common side effects of this
phenomenon are sleep disturbance and tiredness, impaired memory judgment, and psychomotor
skills. The other more serious outcomes of this can be the triggering of the body’s acute stress
response, which raises blood pressure and heart rate as the body and brain go into a state of
hyperarousal. According to the European Environment Agency, at least 10,000 cases of premature
deaths from noise exposure occur each year, although incomplete data mean this number is
significantly underestimated.
Question 36. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Noise in the WHO Region B. environmental threats
C. Increase in Noise, Increase in Risk D. Side Effects of Tiredness
Question 37. According to paragraph 2, in Western Europe, an annual loss of at least one million
healthy years is resulted from _______.
A. guidelines B. environment threats C. traffic noise D.
public health
Question 38. The word premature in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. slow B. late C. quick D. early
Question 39. The word it in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. human ear B. sound C. the danger D. side effect
Question 40. The word afflicted in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assumed B. illustrated C. affected D. described
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the article as a symptom caused by
exposure to high noise levels?
A. staying highly alert B. stress reactions
C. cardiovascular diseases D. hypertension
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The danger of noise pollution is less serious when we are asleep.
B. Adverse health problems impact children and adolescents only.
C. Many forms of pollution, except for noise pollution, are decreasing.
D. At least 100,000 cases of premature deaths from noise exposure occur each year.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 43. Laura didn’t take part in the marathon. She was badly injured in a car accident last
week.
A. Without her bad injury in a car accident last week, Laura wouldn’t have taken part in the
marathon.
B. If Laura hadn’t been badly injured in a car accident last week, she would have taken part in the
marathon.
C. If only Laura weren’t badly injured in a car accident last week, she could have taken part in the
marathon.
D. Laura could take part in the marathon in case she were badly injured in a car accident last
week.
Question 44. Peter failed the interview again. He was fully aware of the importance of making
careful preparation only then.
A. No sooner had Peter fully been aware of the importance of making careful preparation than he
failed the interview again.
B. Hardly had Peter fully been aware of the importance of making careful preparation when he
failed the interview again.
C. Not until Peter was fully aware of the importance of making careful preparation did he fail the
interview again.
D. Only after Peter had failed the interview again was he fully aware of the importance of making
careful preparation.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45. Some children still face discrimination at school because of its sexual orientation
A. Some B. face C. at school D. its
Question 46. After going through a protection period that may last from several months to a year,
new recruits will be offered a long-term contract.
A. months B. protection C. contract D. recruits
Question 47. Yesterday, for the first time in his life, Mike refuses to follow his parents' advice.
A. first time B. refuses C. to follow D. advice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 48. They are not allowed to use our personal information for their own purposes.
A. They don’t have to use our personal information for their own purposes.
B. They can use our personal information for their own purposes.
C. They mustn’t use our personal information for their own purposes.
D. They may use our personal information for their own purposes.
Question 49. Linda last went to the university library three months ago.
A. Linda hasn’t gone to the university library for three months.
B. Linda went to the university library for three months.
C. Linda has gone to the university library for three months.
D. Linda didn’t go to the university library for three months.
Question 50. Jack told me, "I want to see this movie with my girlfriend tomorrow."
A. Jack told me he wanted to see that movie with my girlfriend tomorrow.
B. Jack told me he wanted to see that movie with his girlfriend tomorrow.
C. Jack told me he wanted to see that movie with my girlfriend the following day.
D. Jack told me he wanted to see that movie with his girlfriend the following day.
THE END
ĐÁP ÁN
1. C 6. A 11. D 16. A 21. B 26. B 31. D 36. C 41. A 46. B
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 1. Tom and Susan are talking about their plan to help disadvantaged children.
- Tom: "Why don't we send disadvantaged children in the remote and mountainous areas some
textbooks and warm clothes?"
- Susan: "_________”
A. I'm sorry to hear that. B. No, they are not
available.
C. Great idea! What meaningful gifts! D. You should agree with us.
Question 2. The teacher is discussing the cyberbullying with Jack.
- Jack: "Cyberbullying has serious effects on not only a person's mental health but also his well-
being."
- Teacher: “ ______. We have to prevent it as soon as possible.”
A. I don’t think so B. I don’t agree C. That's a good point D. What nonsense
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 3. Chocolates and flowers are by far _______ presents for mothers on Mother’s Day in the
UK.
A. more popular B. the more popular C. less popular D. the most popular
Question 4. I think that up to now there has not been a real _______ between men and women.
A. equality B. equal C. equalize D. equally
Question 5. A child's application code and the consultant's Zalo phone number are sent to parents
upon registration, _______ them to access Zalo and register personal data.
A. is enabled B. enabling C. to enable D. enabled
Question 6. _______ fifth-grade pupil died of suspected food poisoning on April 5th, 2024 in Nha
Trang.
A. The B. An C. A D. x (No article)
Question 7. As Joe's roommate, I find him a fairly nice fellow, even if at times it is not easy to _______
his noisy behavior.
A. put up with B. look up to C. get on with D. catch up with
Question 8. The candy _______ by a student from the school at a general grocery store yesterday.
A. purchased B. was purchasing C. was purchased D. is purchased
Question 9. They remember _______ an unforgettable party for their grandparents' anniversary.
A. throw B. to throw C. throwing D. thrown
Question 10. People can never feel fulfilled by following someone else's dreams, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. can’t they D. can they
Question 11. The growth in employment and wages gives consumers some spending _______ to
absorb the higher cost of energy.
A. energy B. force C. ability D. power
Question 12. I _______ along the street when I suddenly heard footsteps behind me.
A. was walking B. walk C. am walking D. walked
Question 13. Our group _______ a new method to carry out the survey into teenagers’ attitudes
towards online learning.
A. recruited B. employed C. occupied D. engaged
Question 14. ________, she will buy her parents a new TV set.
A. When she receives her salary B. Once she received her salary
C. Until she received her salary D. After she had received her salary
Question 15. I am sure your sister will _______ you a sympathetic ear when you explain the
situation to her.
A. pay B. lend C. borrow D. take
Question 16. People are sometimes sick _______ the Internet users' group arguments in online
forums.
A. of B. to C. into D. off
Question 17. When students take a step out of their _______ zone, they need some encouragement
from their teachers and parents.
A. climate B. parking C. control D. comfort
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18. A. come B. cake C. city D. club
Question 19. A. find B. think C. drive D. mind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. express B. happen C. employ D. reduce
Question 21. A. advantage B. candidate C. intention D. commitment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Fierce storms have been hampering rescue efforts and there is now little chance of
finding more survivors.
A. allowing B. preventing C. encouraging D. promoting
Question 23. With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth
may be unique in the solar system was strengthened.
A. outcome B. beginning C. expansion D. continuation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Various programs have been designed in order to facilitate the storage and analysis
of research data.
A. ease B. block C. speed D. build
Question 25. He really seems to have fallen on his feet. He got a new job and found a flat within a
week of arriving in the city.
A. have been successful B. have been satisfied
C. have been unlucky D. have been disappointed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.
Every year millions of migrants travel vast distances using borrowed money for their airfares
and taking little or no cash with them. This flow of migrant money has a huge economic and social
(26) ______ on the receiving countries. It provides cash for food, housing and necessities. It funds
education and healthcare and contributes towards the upkeep of the elderly. Extra money is sent
for special events such as weddings, funerals or urgent medical procedures and (27) ______
emergencies. (28) ______, it sometimes becomes the capital for starting up a small enterprise. A
twofold benefit would be achieved by a developing country or a large charitable society, (29) ______
sells bonds guaranteeing a return of three or four percent, provided that the invested money is
utilized for building infrastructure within that same country. Migrants would make a financial gain
and see their savings put to work in the development of their country of (30) ______.
(Adapted from ‘sending money home’ from ielts of British Council.)
Question 26. A. result B. impact C. consequence D. outcome
Question 27. A. other B. another C. much D. little
Question 28. A. However B. Moreover C. Therefore D. Although
Question 29. A. which B. who C. whose D. when
Question 30. A. derivation B. foundation C. supply D. origin
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of
the question.
There is nothing to suggest that Evelyn Glennie is profoundly deaf. She insists that her deafness
is irrelevant to her musicianship, but there is no doubt that her obvious handicap has turned a
remarkable career into a miraculous one.
Glennie was eight when her hearing began to fail; by twelve she had lost it completely and
feared she would have to give up the music she loved. But a doctor’s suggestion that she should
become an accountant rather than follow a hopeless musical career strengthened her will to
succeed.
As it turned out, music was one of the most advantageous careers she could have chosen and is
one reason why her speech remains so extraordinarily correct, despite her deafness. Occasionally
she listens to recordings by holding a cassette player between her knees, interpreting the
vibrations and the shaking movements. Her deafness is one of the reasons for her unique style, for
she cannot listen and be influenced by other performances and she has often declared that getting
her hearing back would be the worst thing that could happen to her.
As a result of her devotion to her music and her determination to succeed, she has doubled the
range of works available for percussion music in Europe and introduced instruments previously
unheard of in the west. She has also asked composers to write more than fifty new pieces of music
for these instruments, and has set up a library of three hundred works for other musicians to use.
(Adapted from Richmond FCE Practice Tests)
Question 31. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. How to be a Successful Singer B. The Disadvantages of Deafness
C. Developing Musical Skills at School D. Overcoming a Severe Disability
Question 32. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. hearing B. handicap C. career D. music
Question 33. The word unique in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. special B. boring C. common D. healthy
Question 34. According to paragraph 4, Glennie has ______.
A. refused to introduce new instruments to the west
B. written over fifty new pieces of music by herself
C. established a library to support other musicians
D. given up the hope to succeed in her musical career
Question 35. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. People can easily tell that Glennie is completely deaf.
B. Glennie’s deafness turns out to be an advantage to her career.
C. Glennie wishes she could hear clearly like a normal person.
D. Glennie’s doctor encouraged her to become a musician.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of
the question.
The authors noted that while other forms of pollution are decreasing, noise pollution has been
increasing. This conclusion is reinforced by the fact that there has been an increase in the number
of people who have been complaining about excessive noise in the WHO region. Populations that
are exposed to high noise levels can be afflicted by other symptoms such as: stress reactions, sleep-
stage changes, and clinical symptoms like hypertension and cardiovascular diseases. All these
impacts can contribute to premature mortality. It is important to note that these adverse health
problems impact all age groups including children and adolescents. In fact, it has been reported that
children who live and or study in an area afflicted with noise pollution tend to suffer from stress,
impairments in memory and attention as well as difficulty reading.
“In Western Europe, the guidelines say, traffic noise results in an annual loss of at least one
million healthy years”. Traffic noise is currently ranked second among environmental threats to
public health.
The danger of noise pollution is more present to us when we are asleep. Because the human ear
is so sensitive, it never rests, it is always working, picking up and transmitting sounds for our
brains to interpret. This always on working process is where the danger lies, though you may be
sleeping, sounds are still being picked up and processed. The most common side effects of this
phenomenon are sleep disturbance and tiredness, impaired memory judgment, and psychomotor
skills. The other more serious outcomes of this can be the triggering of the body’s acute stress
response, which raises blood pressure and heart rate as the body and brain go into a state of
hyperarousal. According to the European Environment Agency, at least 10,000 cases of premature
deaths from noise exposure occur each year, although incomplete data mean this number is
significantly underestimated.
Question 36. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Noise in the WHO Region B. environmental threats
C. Increase in Noise, Increase in Risk D. Side Effects of Tiredness
Question 37. According to paragraph 2, in Western Europe, an annual loss of at least one million
healthy years is resulted from _______.
A. guidelines B. environment threats C. traffic noise D.
public health
Question 38. The word premature in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. slow B. late C. quick D. early
Question 39. The word it in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. human ear B. sound C. the danger D. side effect
Question 40. The word afflicted in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assumed B. illustrated C. affected D. described
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the article as a symptom caused by
exposure to high noise levels?
A. staying highly alert B. stress reactions
C. cardiovascular diseases D. hypertension
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The danger of noise pollution is less serious when we are asleep.
B. Adverse health problems impact children and adolescents only.
C. Many forms of pollution, except for noise pollution, are decreasing.
D. At least 100,000 cases of premature deaths from noise exposure occur each year.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 43. Laura didn’t take part in the marathon. She was badly injured in a car accident last
week.
A. Without her bad injury in a car accident last week, Laura wouldn’t have taken part in the
marathon.
B. If Laura hadn’t been badly injured in a car accident last week, she would have taken part in the
marathon.
C. If only Laura weren’t badly injured in a car accident last week, she could have taken part in the
marathon.
D. Laura could take part in the marathon in case she were badly injured in a car accident last
week.
Question 44. Peter failed the interview again. He was fully aware of the importance of making
careful preparation only then.
A. No sooner had Peter fully been aware of the importance of making careful preparation than he
failed the interview again.
B. Hardly had Peter fully been aware of the importance of making careful preparation when he
failed the interview again.
C. Not until Peter was fully aware of the importance of making careful preparation did he fail the
interview again.
D. Only after Peter had failed the interview again was he fully aware of the importance of making
careful preparation.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45. Some children still face discrimination at school because of its sexual orientation
A. Some B. face C. at school D. its
Question 46. After going through a protection period that may last from several months to a year,
new recruits will be offered a long-term contract.
A. months B. protection C. contract D. recruits
Question 47. Yesterday, for the first time in his life, Mike refuses to follow his parents' advice.
A. first time B. refuses C. to follow D. advice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 48. They are not allowed to use our personal information for their own purposes.
A. They don’t have to use our personal information for their own purposes.
B. They can use our personal information for their own purposes.
C. They mustn’t use our personal information for their own purposes.
D. They may use our personal information for their own purposes.
Question 49. Linda last went to the university library three months ago.
A. Linda hasn’t gone to the university library for three months.
B. Linda went to the university library for three months.
C. Linda has gone to the university library for three months.
D. Linda didn’t go to the university library for three months.
Question 50. Jack told me, "I want to see this movie with my girlfriend tomorrow."
A. Jack told me he wanted to see that movie with my girlfriend tomorrow.
B. Jack told me he wanted to see that movie with his girlfriend tomorrow.
C. Jack told me he wanted to see that movie with my girlfriend the following day.
D. Jack told me he wanted to see that movie with his girlfriend the following day.
HƯỚNG DẪN GIẢI
Question 1. Đáp án C
Kiến thức : Giao tiếp
Giải thích:
Tình huống giao tiếp:
Tom và Susan đang nói về kế hoạch giúp đỡ những trẻ em có hoàn cảnh khó khăn.
- Tom: “Tại sao chúng ta không gửi cho trẻ em có hoàn cảnh khó khăn ở vùng sâu vùng xa một số sách
giáo khoa và quần áo ấm?”
- Susan: “_______”
Xét các đáp án:
A. Tôi rất tiếc khi nghe điều đó. B. Không, chúng không có sẵn.
C. Ý tưởng tuyệt vời! Những món quà ý nghĩa! D. Bạn nên đồng ý với chúng tôi.
Dựa vào nghĩa và ngữ cảnh, đáp án đúng là: C
Question 2. Đáp án C
Kiến thức : Giao tiếp
Giải thích:
Tình huống giao tiếp:
Giáo viên đang thảo luận về việc bắt nạt trên mạng với Jack.
- Jack: "Bắt nạt trên mạng có ảnh hưởng nghiêm trọng không chỉ đến sức khỏe tinh thần mà còn cả
sức khỏe của một người."
- Giáo viên: " ______. Chúng ta phải ngăn chặn nó càng sớm càng tốt.”
Xét các đáp án:
A. Tôi không nghĩ vậy B. Tôi không đồng ý
C. Đó là một ý kiến hay D. Thật vớ vẩn
Dựa vào nghĩa và ngữ cảnh, đáp án đúng là C
Question 3. Đáp án: D
Kiến thức : So sánh hơn nhất
Giải thích:
Ta có công thức so sánh hơn nhất:
+ Tính từ/ trạng từ ngắn: the adj-est/ adv-est
+ Tính từ/ trạng từ dài: the most + adj/ adv
Ta thấy, trước chỗ trống là BY FAR (dùng trước cấp độ so sánh nhất) nên đáp án là D
Tạm dịch:
Sôcôla và hoa cho đến nay là những món quà phổ biến nhất dành cho các bà mẹ trong Ngày của Mẹ ở
Anh.
Question 4. Đáp án A
Kiến thức : Từ loại
Giải thích:
Xét các đáp án:
A. equality (n): sự bình đẳng B. equal (a): bình đẳng
C. equalize (v): bình đẳng hóa D. equally (adv): bình đẳng
Ta thấy, chỗ trống sau mạo từ và tính từ “real” nên từ cần điền là một danh từ.
Vậy đáp án đúng là A
Tạm dịch: Tôi cho rằng cho đến nay vẫn chưa có sự bình đẳng thực sự giữa nam và nữ.
Question 5. Đáp án: B
Kiến thức : Rút gọn mệnh đề quan hệ
Giải thích:
Câu đầy đủ khi chưa rút gọn mệnh đề quan hệ:
A child's application code and the consultant's Zalo phone number are sent to parents upon
registration, which enables them to access Zalo and register personal data.
Động từ của mệnh đề quan hệ không xác định chia ở chủ động (đại từ quan hệ thay thế cho cả mệnh
đề trước đó), để rút gọn mệnh đề quan hệ trong câu này thì chúng ta dùng V-ing.
Tạm dịch: Mã ứng dụng của trẻ và số điện thoại Zalo của nhân viên tư vấn sẽ được gửi tới phụ huynh
khi đăng ký, giúp họ có thể truy cập Zalo và đăng ký dữ liệu cá nhân.
* Chú ý :
- Khi động từ của mệnh đề quan hệ chia ở chủ động có thể rút gọn bằng cụm hiện tại phân từ (V-ing).
- Khi động từ của mệnh đề quan hệ chia ở bị động có thể rút gọn bằng cụm quá khứ phân từ (V-p2).
- Khi mệnh đề quan hệ đứng sau next, last, only, số thứ tự, so sánh hơn nhất … có thể rút gọn bằng cụm
động từ nguyên thể có TO (to V/ to be V-p2)
Vậy đáp án đúng là B
Question 6. Đáp án A
Kiến thức : Mạo từ
Giải thích:
Ta thấy, sau chỗ trống là số thứ tự “fifth” – nên dùng mạo từ THE trước nó.
Vậy đáp án đúng là: A
Tạm dịch: Học sinh lớp 5 tử vong nghi do ngộ độc thực phẩm vào ngày 5/4/ 2024 tại Nha Trang.
Question 7. Đáp án A
Kiến thức : Cụm động từ
Giải thích:
Xét các đáp án:
A. put up with: chịu đựng B. look up to: ngưỡng mộ/ tôn trọng
C. get on with: hòa hợp với D. catch up with: bắt kịp/ đuổi
Dựa vào nghĩa, đáp án đúng là A
Tạm dịch: Là bạn cùng phòng của Joe, tôi thấy anh ấy là một người khá dễ mến, ngay cả khi đôi khi
không dễ gì chịu đựng được hành vi ồn ào của anh ấy.
Question 8. Đáp án C
Kiến thức : Câu bị động
Giải thích:
Ta thấy:
- Chủ ngữ “The candy” (kẹo) và động từ chính là “purchase” (mua) – kẹo không thể tự mua nên động
từ phải ở thể bị động.
- Trạng ngữ chỉ thời gian “yesterday” nên động từ của mệnh đề chính chia ở thì quá khứ đơn.
Do đó, đáp án là C
Tạm dịch: Hôm qua, một học sinh trong trường đã mua chiếc kẹo này ở một cửa hàng tạp hóa tổng
hợp.
Question 9. Đáp án: C
Kiến thức : Hình thức động từ
Giải thích:
Ta có cấu trúc:
- remember + Ving: nhớ đã làm gì
- remember + to V: nhớ phải làm gì
Dựa vào nghĩa, đáp án đúng là C
Tạm dịch:
Họ nhớ đã tổ chức một bữa tiệc khó quên nhân ngày giỗ ông bà.
Question 10. Đáp án: D
Kiến thức : Câu hỏi đuôi
Giải thích:
Ta có:
- Câu trần thuật bắt đầu bằng “People can” – động từ có hình thức khẳng định, động từ khuyết thiếu
CAN và trạng từ “NEVER” – mang nghĩa phủ định nên câu hỏi đuôi ở thể khẳng định của động từ
khuyết thiếu CAN.
- Chủ ngữ “People” – số nhiều nên đại từ thay thế là THEY
Vậy đáp án đúng là D
Tạm dịch:
Mọi người không bao giờ có thể cảm thấy thỏa mãn khi theo đuổi ước mơ của người khác, phải
không?
Question 11. Đáp án: D
Kiến thức : Từ vựng – từ cùng trường nghĩa
Giải thích:
Xét các đáp án:
A. energy (n): năng lượng B. force (n): sức ép
C. ability (n): khả năng D. power (n): sức mạnh
Dựa vào nghĩa, đáp án đúng là D
Tạm dịch: Sự tăng trưởng về việc làm và tiền lương mang lại cho người tiêu dùng một số khả năng
chi tiêu để hấp thụ chi phí năng lượng cao hơn.
Question 12. Đáp án A
Kiến thức : Thì quá khứ tiếp diễn
Giải thích:
Ta thấy, ở mệnh đề trạng ngữ chỉ thời gian (WHEN) động từ chia ở thì quá khứ đơn nên động từ ở
mệnh đề chính chia ở quá khứ tiếp diễn.
Ta có công thức: S1 + was/ were + V1-ing + O1 + when + S2 + V2(p1) + O2
Vậy đáp án đúng là A
Tạm dịch: Tôi đang đi dọc phố thì chợt nghe thấy tiếng bước chân phía sau.
Question 13. Đáp án B
Kiến thức : Từ vựng
Giải thích:
Xét các đáp án:
A. recruit (v): tuyển dụng B. employ (v): áp dụng
C. occupy (v): ở, chiếm đóng, sống D. engage (v): tham gia, liên quan
Ta có: employ a method: áp dụng phương pháp
Vậy đáp án đúng là B
Tạm dịch:
Nhóm của chúng tôi đã áp dụng một phương pháp mới để tiến hành khảo sát về thái độ của thanh
thiếu niên đối với việc học trực tuyến.
Question 14. Đáp án: A
Kiến thức : Trạ ng từ chỉ thờ i gian
Giải thích:
Ta thấy, ở mệnh đề chính động từ chia ở thì tương lai đơn nên động từ ở mệnh đề trạng ngữ chỉ thời
gian chia ở hiện tại.
Ta có công thức: S1 + will + V1 + O1 + when/ until/ as soon as/ once + S2 + V2(s/es) + O2
S1 + will + V1 + O1 + as soon as/ once/ after + S2 + has/ have V2-p2 + O2
Vậy đáp án đúng là A
Tạm dịch: Khi nhận được tiền lương, cô ấy sẽ mua cho bố mẹ một chiếc TV mới.
Question 15. Đáp án: B
Kiến thức : Cụ m từ cố định
Giải thích:
Ta có cụm từ cố định: lend sb an ear : lắng nghe ai đó
Vậy đáp án đúng là B
Tạm dịch: Tôi chắc chắn rằng em gái của bạn sẽ lắng nghe bạn một cách thông cảm khi bạn giải thích
tình hình cho cô ấy.
Question 16. Đáp án A
Kiến thức : Giớ i từ
Giải thích:
Ta có cấu trúc: be sick of: mệt mỏi/ phát ngán vì
Vậy đáp án đúng là A
Tạm dịch: Mọi người đôi khi phát ngán với những cuộc tranh luận nhóm của người dùng Internet
trên các diễn đàn trực tuyến.
Question 17. Đáp án D
Kiến thức : Thà nh ngữ
Giải thích:
Ta có thành ngữ: Take a step out of one’s comfort zone: bước ra khỏi vùng an toàn
Vậy đáp án đúng là: D
Tạm dịch: Khi học sinh bước ra khỏi vùng an toàn của mình, các em cần có sự động viên từ giáo viên
và phụ huynh.
Question 18. Đáp án: C
Kiến thức : Phát âm phụ âm
Giải thích:
Xét các đáp án:
A. come /kʌm/ B. cake /keɪk/
C. city /ˈsɪt̬.i/ D. club /klʌb/
Ta thấy, các phương án A, B, D “c” được phát âm /k/ còn phương án C “c” được phát âm là /s/.
Vậy đáp án đúng là C
Question 19. Đáp án: B
Kiến thức : Phát âm nguyên âm
Giải thích:
Xét các đáp án:
A. find /faɪnd/ B. think /θɪŋk/
C. drive /draɪv/ D. mind /maɪnd/
Ta thấy, các phương án A, C, D “i” được phát âm /ai/ còn phương án B “i” được phát âm là /i/.
Vậy đáp án đúng là B
Question 20. Đáp án: B
Kiến thức : Trọng âm của từ có 2 âm tiết
Giải thích:
Xét các đáp án:
A. express /ɪkˈspres/ (v): Trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai vì theo quy tắc động từ hai âm tiết trọng
âm thường rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai.
B. happen /ˈhæpən/ (v): Trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ nhất vì theo quy tắc động từ hai âm tiết
trọng âm thường rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai nhưng động từ có đuôi –EN, trọng âm thường rơi vào
âm tiết thứ nhất.
C. employ /ɪmˈplɔɪ/ (v): Trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai vì theo quy tắc động từ hai âm tiết trọng
âm thường rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai.
D. reduce /rɪˈdʒuːs/ (v): Trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai vì theo quy tắc động từ hai âm tiết trọng
âm thường rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai.
Đáp án B có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ nhất, các phương án còn lại có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ
hai.
Question 21. Đáp án: B
Kiến thức : Trọng âm của từ có 3 âm tiêt
Giải thích:
Xét các đáp án:
A. advantage /ədˈvɑːntɪdʒ /(n): Trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai. Vì theo quy tắc từ có ba âm tiết
mà âm tiết đầu chứa nguyên âm ngắn và âm tiết thứ hai chứa nguyên âm dài thì trọng âm rơi
vào âm tiết thứ hai.
B. candidate /ˈkændɪdət /(n): Trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết nhất. Vì theo quy tắc nếu từ có 3 âm tiết có
đuôi –ATE thì trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ nhất.
C. intention /ɪnˈtenʃən /(n): Trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết hai. Vì theo quy tắc từ có 3 âm tiết có đuôi –
TION trọng âm thường rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai (rơi vào âm tiết trước nó).
D. commitment / kəˈmɪt.mənt /(n): Trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết hai. Vì theo quy tắc tiền tố hậu tố
không làm thay đổi trọng âm chính (COMMITMENT – có gốc là động từ COMMIT) nên trọng âm
rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai.
Phương án B có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ nhất, các phương án còn lại có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết
thứ hai.
Vậy đáp án đúng là B
Question 22. Đáp án B
Kiến thức : Đồng nghĩa (từ đơn)
Giải thích:
Ta có: hampering: cản trở/ ngăn cản
Xét các đáp án:
A. allowing: cho phép B. preventing: ngăn cản
C. encouraging: khuyến khích D. promoting: thúc đẩy
Từ đồng nghĩa: hampering: cản trở/ ngăn cản = preventing: ngăn cản
Vậy đáp án đúng là B
Tạm dịch: Những cơn bão dữ dội đã cản trở nỗ lực cứu hộ và hiện có rất ít cơ hội tìm thấy thêm
người sống sót.
Question 23. Đáp án B
Kiến thức : Đồng nghĩa (từ đơn)
Giải thích:
Ta có: dawn (n): bình minh, sự khởi đầu
Xét các đáp án:
A. outcome (n): kết quả, hậu quả B. beginning (n): sự bắt đầu
C. expansion (n): mở rộng, phát triển D. continuation (n): sự tiếp tục
Từ đồng nghĩa: dawn (n): bình minh, sự khởi đầu = beginning (n): sự bắt đầu
Vậy đáp án đúng là B
Tạm dịch: Với sự khởi đầu của khám phá không gian, quan điểm cho rằng các điều kiện khí quyển
trên Trái đất có thể là duy nhất trong hệ mặt trời đã được củng cố.
Question 24. Đáp án B
Kiến thức : Trái nghĩa (từ đơn)
Giải thích:
Ta có: facilitate (v): làm cho dễ dàng/ tạo thuận lợi
Xét các đáp án:
A. ease (v): làm cho dễ dàng B. block (v): ngăn cản/ cản trở
C. speed (v): tăng tốc D. build (v): xây dựng
Từ trái nghĩa: facilitate (v): làm cho dễ dàng/ tạo thuận lợi >< block (v): ngăn cản/ cản trở
Vậy đáp án đúng là B
Tạm dịch: Các chương trình khác nhau đã được thiết kế để tạo thuận lợi cho việc lưu trữ và phân tích
dữ liệu nghiên cứu.
Question 25. Đáp án C
Kiến thức : Trái nghĩa (cụm từ/ thành ngữ)
Giải thích:
Ta có cụm từ: land/fall on one’s feet: rất thành công/may mắn
Xét các đáp án:
A. be successful: thành công B. be satisfied: hài lòng
C. be unlucky: không may mắn D. be disappointed: thất vọng
Cụm từ trái nghĩa:
land/fall on one’s feet: rất thành công/may mắn >< be unlucky: không may mắn