1. Small changes that result in the breaking up, crumbling, and b. rain.

destruction of any kind of rock are c. gravity.

a. decomposition. d. erosion.
b. weathering.
c. corrosion. 12. The slow movement downhill of soil on the side of a
d. erosion. mountain is
called
2. The process of physically removing weathered materials is a. rockslide.
called b. avalanche.
a. weathering. c. creep.
b. transportation. d. crawl.
c. erosion.
d. corrosion. 13. The wide, level floor of a valley built by a stream is called a
a. channel.
3. Muddy water rushing downstream after a heavy rain is an b. valley.
example of c. floodplain.
a. weathering. d. island.
b. washing.
c. erosion. 14. The deposit at the mouth of a river where sediments are
d. transportation. dropped
is called a
4. The physical breakup of rocks without any changes in their a. riverbank.
chemical composition is b. delta.
a. oxidation. c. mouth.
b. mechanical weathering. d. source.
c. erosion.
d. transportation. 15. Rock fragments frozen in moving glacier ice polish and
scratch rocks at the base and on the walls of the glacier. This
5. Chemical weathering, the dissolving or breaking down of process is
minerals in rocks, is also called a. bulldozing.
a. oxidation. b. polishing.
b. reduction. c. plucking.
c. disintegration. d. abrasion.
d. decomposition.
16. The agent that has the least ability to erode is
6. The process of peeling off layers of rock, reducing the a. wind.
pressure on the rock’s surface, is called b. gravity.
a. chemical peel. c. streams.
b. exfoliation. d. glaciers.
c. wedging.
d. disintegration. 17. The major processes of wind erosion are
a. abrasion and bulldozing.
7. The weak acid formed by the reaction of water with carbon b. polishing and plucking.
dioxide is c. abrasion and deflation.
a. carbonic acid. d. deflation and polishing.
b. carbonate acid.
c. hydrocarbonic acid. 18. The picking up of loose materials from the surface by wind is
d. dihydrocarbonate acid. a. abrasion.
b. deflation.
8. A mixture of unconsolidated weathered earth materials and c. inflation.
humus is d. polishing.
a. gravel.
b. soil. 19. What is the pH of natural rainwater?
c. dirt. a. 5.0 to 5.5
d. mud. b. 5.6 to 6.2
c. 6.3 to 6.7
9. Decay-resistant, altered organic material is d. 7.0
a. soil.
b. clay. 20. Freezing water exerts pressure on the wall of a crack in a
c. topsoil. rock mass, making the crack larger. This is an example of
d. humus. a. mechanical weathering.
b. chemical weathering.
10. Two minerals that usually remain after granite has completely c. exfoliation.
weathered are d. hydration.
a. quartz and clay.
b. quartz and hematite. 21. Of the following rock weathering events, the last one to occur
c. olivine and granite. would probably be
d. quartz and basalt. a. exfoliation.
b. frost wedging.
11. Weathered materials move to lower elevations due to only c. carbonation.
a. wind. d. disintegration.
22. Which of the following would have the greatest overall effect d. arctic.
in lowering the elevation of a continent such as North America?
a. Continental glaciers 33. The soil called loam is
b. Alpine glaciers a. all sand and humus.
c. Wind b. mostly humus with some sand.
d. Running water c. equal amounts of sand, silt, and clay.
d. from the C horizon of a soil profile.
23. Broad meanders on a very wide, gently sloping floodplain
with oxbow lakes are characteristics you would expect to find in a 34. A moraine is a
river valley during what stage? a. wind deposit.
a. Newborn b. glacier deposit.
b. Youth c. river deposit.
c. Maturity d. Any of the above is correct.
d. Old age
35. The breaking up, crumbling, chemical decomposition, and
24. A glacier forms when destruction of rocks at or near Earth’s surface are called
a. the temperature does not rise above freezing. a. rockslide.
b. snow accumulates to form ice, which begins to flow. b. mining.
c. a summer climate does not occur. c. weathering.
d. a solid mass of snow moves downhill under the influence of d. erosion.
gravity.
36. Crushing of rock at a quarry to make smaller-sized gravel is
25. A likely source of loess is an example of
a. rock flour. a. physical weathering.
b. a cirque. b. chemical weathering.
c. a terminal moraine. c. mechanical weathering.
d. an accumulation of ventifacts. d. reduction weathering.
26. The landscape in a dry climate tends to be more angular
because the dry climate 37. Fragments of rocks fall into a mountain stream and are
a. has more winds. carried into the valley. This is an example of
b. lacks as much chemical weathering. a. weathering.
c. has less rainfall. b. erosion.
d. has stronger rock types. c. transportation.
d. decomposition.
27. Peneplains and monadnocks are prevented from forming by
a. mass movement. 38. Tree roots grow and expand, and eventually break through a
b. running water. sidewalk. This is an example of
c. deflation. a. corrosion.
d. rejuvenation. b. erosion.
c. wedging.
28. The phrase weathering of rocks means d. disintegration.
a. able to resist any changes, as in weathers the storm.
b. a discoloration caused by the action of the weather. 39. Damage to the Lincoln Memorial by rain and smog is an
c. physical or chemical destruction. example of
d. the same thing as rusting. a. physical weathering.
b. chemical weathering.
29. What are you doing to a rock if you pick up the small pieces c. exfoliation.
of a smashed rock? d. erosion.
a. Mechanical weathering
b. Chemical weathering 40. Ferromagnesian minerals will react with oxygen to produce
c. Erosion deeply colored iron oxides. This is an example of
d. Transportation a. hydration.
b. carbonation.
30. What are you doing to the fragments of a smashed rock if c. oxidation.
you carry the fragments to a new location? d. combination.
a. Mechanical weathering
b. Chemical weathering 41. You are planning a garden and need a soil that will hold
c. Erosion moisture for plant growth but also drain well. The soil that you
d. Transportation want to purchase is
a. humus.
31. What are you doing to a rock if you dissolve it in acid? b. loam.
a. Mechanical weathering c. clay-based.
b. Chemical weathering d. sandy.
c. Erosion
d. Transportation 42. The formation of a shallow layer of water by rain on the
surface, which dissolves materials and carries fragments away,
32. A deeper, richer layer of soil would be expected where the is called
climate is a. rain erosion.
a. wet and warm. b. sheet erosion.
b. dry and cold. c. waterfall.
c. tropical. d. stream erosion.
43. The most extensive glaciers in the United States are found in a. mineral composition.
a. Montana. b. place of origin.
b. Wyoming. c. rock texture.
c. Washington. d. sedimentary structure.
d. Alaska.
10. A time break in the rock record is called a (an)
44. Continental glaciers are found in a. unconformity.
a. Iceland. b. time lag.
b. Antarctic. c. crosscutting relationship.
c. Greenland. d. time warp.
d. Greenland and Antarctic.
11. Distinctive fossils of plants or animals that were distributed
45. An example of a chemical weathering process that is a major widely but lived only a short time with a common extinction time
concern in the northeastern United States is are called
a. erosion. a. short-lived fossils.
b. acid rain. b. correlation fossils.
c. hydration. c. index fossils.
d. oxidation. d. faunal successive fossils.

CHAPTER 21 12. The ability to use index fossils along with the ages of rocks in
1. Evidence of former life is called a different locations is
a. ghost. a. age correlation.
b. fossil. b. fossil association.
c. history. c. age comparison.
d. relic. d. relative dating.

2. In the early 1800s, William Smith noted that sedimentary rock 13. The process that is adding heat to the interior of Earth is
layers could be identified by a. conduction.
a. location. b. revolution.
b. color. c. radioactive decay.
c. fossils. d. solar energy.
d. size.
14. Modern geologic clocks include
3. The science of discovering fossils and their history is a. radiometric dating.
a. history. b. geomagnetic measurements.
b. paleontology. c. both a and b.
c. archeology. d. neither a nor b.
d. anthropology.
15. Major blocks of time in the geologic time scale are called
4. The meaning of the word fossil is a. decades.
a. petrified rock. b. eons.
b. ancient artifact. c. centuries.
c. petrified bones and the study of these bones. d. millennia.
d. evidence of ancient organisms.
16. The time before the time of life is called
5. There are three methods of fossil formation. The method that a. Precambrian.
is not a method of fossil formation is b. Postcambrian.
a. preservation of soft organic materials. c. Phanerozoic.
b. preservation of hard parts. d. Post-Phanerozoic.
c. preservation of signs of activity.
d. replacement. 17. The smallest block of time assigned to the geologic time
period is the
6. Hard parts of organisms that form fossils do not include a. eon.
a. shells. b. period.
b. teeth. c. era.
c. plants. d. epoch.
d. bones.
18. Which of the following does not describe a unit of geologic
7. Fossils are most often found in what type of rock? time?
a. Sedimentary a. Eon
b. Metamorphic b. Epoch
c. Igneous c. Period
d. Volcanic d. Century

8. “Geologic time” means 19. The time of recent life era is the
a. the relative age of humankind. a. Cenozoic.
b. the relative age of fossils. b. Mesozoic.
c. the relative age of Earth. c. Paleozoic.
d. the relative age of the universe. d. Phanerozoic.

9. Clues to the past that we get from rocks do not include 20. The earliest fossils represented life from
a. land. d. All of the above are correct.
b. oceans.
c. air. 31. The geologic time scale identified major blocks of time in
d. All of the above are correct. Earth’s past by
a. major worldwide extinctions of life on Earth.
21. Mammals first appeared in what era? b. the beginning of radioactive decay of certain unstable
a. Cenozoic elements.
b. Mesozoic c. measuring reversals in Earth’s magnetic field.
c. Paleozoic d. None of the above is correct.
d. Phanerozoic
32. You would expect to find the least number of fossils in rocks
22. Pangaea formed approximately from which era?
a. 25 million years ago. a. Cenozoic
b. 65 million years ago. b. Mesozoic
c. 225 million years ago. c. Paleozoic
d. 3.5 billion years ago. d. Precambrian

23. A fossil is 33. You would expect to find fossils of life very different from
a. actual remains of plants or animals such as shells or wood. anything living today in rocks from which era?
b. remains that have been removed and replaced by mineral a. Cenozoic
matter. b. Mesozoic
c. any sign of former life older than 10,000 years. c. Paleozoic
d. Any of the above is correct. d. Precambrian

24. Some of the oldest fossils are about how many years old? 34. The numerical dates associated with events on the geologic
a. 4.55 billion time scale were determined by
b. 3.5 billion a. relative dating of the rate of sediment deposition.
c. 250 million b. radiometric dating using radioactive decay.
d. 10,000 c. the temperature of Earth.
d. the rate that salt is being added to the ocean.
25. According to the evidence, a human footprint found
preserved in baked clay is about 5,000 years old. According to 35. Which of the following is not a fossil?
the definitions used by paleontologists, this footprint is a (an) a. Dinosaur footprints
a. fossil since it is an indication of former life. b. Petrified wood
b. mold since it preserves the shape. c. Saber-toothed tiger bones
c. actual fossil since it is preserved. d. Pieces of ancient Native American pottery
d. None of the above is correct. 36. An early record about the discovery of fossils and connection
of fossils to living organisms comes from the
26. A fossil of a fly, if found, would most likely be a. ancient Greeks.
a. a cast. b. ancient Romans.
b. formed by mineralization. c. Babylonians.
c. preserved in amber. d. Vikings.
d. Any of the above is correct.
37. Signs of activity that are a type of fossil preservation include
27. Which of the basic guiding principles used to read a story of all but
geologic events tells you that layers of undisturbed sedimentary a. tracks.
rocks have progressively older layers as you move toward the b. footprints.
bottom? c. burrows.
a. Superposition d. shells.
b. Horizontality
c. Crosscutting relationships 38. The observation that sediments are commonly deposited in
d. None of the above is correct. flat-lying layers is called the
a. principle of uniformity.
28. In any sequence of sedimentary rock layers that has not b. principle of superposition.
been subjected to stresses, you would expect to find c. principle of original horizontality.
a. essentially horizontal stratified layers. d. principle of crosscutting relationships.
b. the oldest layers at the bottom and the youngest at the top.
c. no faults, folds, or intrusions in the rock layers. 39. A geologic feature that cuts across or is intruded into a rock
d. All of the above are correct. mass must be younger than the rock mass. This is based on the
a. principle of uniformity.
29. An unconformity is a b. principle of superposition.
a. rock bed that is not horizontal. c. principle of original horizontality.
b. rock bed that has been folded. d. principle of crosscutting relationships.
c. rock sequence with rocks missing from the sequence.
d. All of the above are correct. 40. Criteria for a geologic clock process do not include that the
a. process must have been operating since Earth began.
30. Correlation and relative dating of rock units are made b. process must be measurable.
possible by application of the c. process must be uniform or subject to averaging.
a. principle of crosscutting relationships. d. process must include humans.
b. principle of faunal succession.
c. principle of superposition. 41. How many eons has there been since the birth of Earth?
a. 2 5. Fog and clouds are composed of
b. 4 a. water vapor.
c. 16 b. tiny droplets of liquid water.
d. Over 100 c. pockets of rain or snow.
d. large crystals of water vapor.
42. The geologic eon that is known for abundant fossil records
and living organisms is called 6. The continuous cycle of water precipitation and evaporation
a. Precambrian. is called
b. Postcambrian. a. rain.
c. Phanerozoic. b. weather.
d. Post-Phanerozoic. c. climate.
d. hydrologic cycle.
43. The earliest abundant fossils are found in what era?
a. Cenozoic 7. Tiny solid or liquid smoke, soot, dust, and salt crystals found in
b. Mesozoic the atmosphere are
c. Paleozoic a. of no concern.
d. Phanerozoic b. harmful, reducing rainfall.
c. aerosols.
44. Dinosaurs first appeared in what era? d. clouds.
a. Cenozoic
b. Mesozoic 8. Atmospheric pressure is measured using a
c. Paleozoic a. barometer.
d. Phanerozoic b. psychrometer.
c. thermometer.
45. What era is also called the age of mammals? d. hydrometer.
a. Cenozoic 9. Which molecules in the atmosphere absorb infrared radiation?
b. Mesozoic a. Water
c. Paleozoic b. Oxygen
d. Phanerozoic c. Carbon dioxide
d. a and c
46. The oxygen in our atmosphere is the result of
a. ultraviolet radiation. 10. What is the process of heating the atmosphere by the
b. photosynthesis. absorption of solar radiation and reemission of infrared radiation?
c. evolution of mammals. a. Solar energy
d. cooling climates. b. Greenhouse effect
c. Ozone depletion
47. Earth is thought to be d. Global emissions
a. 225 million years old.
b. 2.5 billion years old. 11. Near the surface, what happens to the temperature of the
c. 3.8 billion years old. atmosphere with increasing altitude?
d. 4.5 billion years old. a. Increases
b. Decreases
CHAPTER 22 c. Stays the same
1. The science that studies the atmosphere and weather d. Depends on the season
phenomena is
a. astronomy. 12. What is the layer of the atmosphere where we live?
b. astrology. a. Mesosphere
c. meteorology. b. Stratosphere
d. space science. c. Troposphere
d. Ozone layer
2. Up from the surface, 99 percent of the mass of Earth’s
atmosphere is found within 13. A layer of the atmosphere where the temperature increases
a. 12 km (7 mi). with height is a (an)
b. 16 km (10 mi). a. conversion.
c. 24 km (15 mi). b. inversion.
d. 32 km (20 mi). c. diversion.
d. cloud.
3. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is
a. oxygen. 14. What is the boundary between the troposphere and the
b. nitrogen. stratosphere?
c. argon. a. Thermal plane
d. carbon dioxide. b. Tropopause
c. Stratopause
4. Approximately how much of the total volume of the d. Inversion layer
atmosphere
is oxygen? 15. In what lower layer of the atmosphere would transcontinental
a. 21 percent aircraft escape convective turbulence?
b. 32 percent a. Mesosphere
c. 78 percent b. Stratosphere
d. 93 percent c. Troposphere
d. Ionosphere
16. Ultraviolet radiation is filtered by b. nitrogen, oxygen, and argon.
a. the ozone shield. c. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen.
b. the inversion layer. d. oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapor.
c. Earth’s magnetic field.
d. the greenhouse. 28. Which of the following gases cycle into and out of the
atmosphere?
17. The term that does not describe a layer of the atmosphere is a. Nitrogen
a. thermosphere. b. Carbon dioxide
b. stratosphere. c. Oxygen
c. mesosphere. d. All of the above are correct.
d. temposphere.
29. If it were not for the ocean, Earth’s atmosphere would
18. Uneven heating of Earth’s surface directly leads to probably be mostly
a. rain. a. nitrogen.
b. condensation. b. carbon dioxide.
c. convection. c. oxygen.
d. thermal radiation. d. argon.

19. A general horizontal movement of air is called 30. Your ear makes a “pop” sound as you descend in an elevator
a. wind. because
b. unusual. a. air is moving from the atmosphere into your eardrum.
c. hurricane. b. air is moving from your eardrum to the atmosphere.
d. storm. c. air is not moving into or out of your eardrum.
d. None of the above is correct.
20. Air moving from the ocean to the land is called a
a. tsunami. 31. Most of the total energy radiated by the Sun is
b. sea breeze. a. visible light.
c. wind. b. ultraviolet radiation.
d. storm. c. infrared radiation.
d. gamma radiation.
21. A rapidly moving “stream” of air near the top of the
troposphere is 32. How much of the total amount of solar radiation reaching the
a. an unusual wind pattern. outermost part of Earth’s atmosphere reaches the surface?
b. a jet stream. a. All of it
c. El Niño. b. About 99 percent
d. impossible. c. About 75 percent
d. About one-half
22. Water vapor in the atmosphere does not
a. participate in weather. 33. The solar radiation that does reach Earth’s surface
b. act as a greenhouse gas. a. is eventually radiated back to space.
c. maintain life on Earth. b. shows up as an increase in temperature.
d. filter ultraviolet radiation out of the atmosphere. c. is reradiated at different wavelengths.
d. All of the above are correct.
23. The amount of water vapor at a particular temperature is
defined as 34. The greenhouse effect results in warmer temperatures near
a. effective humidity. the surface because
b. actual humidity. a. clouds trap infrared radiation near the surface.
c. absolute humidity. b. some of the energy is reradiated back toward the surface.
d. humidity. c. carbon dioxide molecules do not permit the radiation to leave.
d. carbon dioxide and water vapor both trap infrared radiation.
24. The temperature at which condensation begins is the
a. dew point. 35. The temperature increases with altitude in the stratosphere
b. boiling point. because
c. frost point. a. it is closer to the Sun than the troposphere.
d. melting point. b. heated air rises to the stratosphere.
c. of a concentration of ozone.
25. The basic shapes of clouds do not include d. the air is less dense in the stratosphere.
a. cirrus.
b. cotton tuffs. 36. Ozone is able to protect Earth from harmful amounts of
c. cumulus. ultraviolet radiation by
d. stratus. a. reflecting it back to space.
b. absorbing it and decomposing, then reforming.
26. An airplane flying at about 6 km (20,000 ft) is above how c. refracting it to a lower altitude.
much of Earth’s atmosphere? d. All of the above are correct.
a. 99 percent
b. 90 percent 37. Summertime breezes would not blow if Earth did not
c. 75 percent experience
d. 50 percent a. cumulus clouds.
b. differential heating.
27. Earth’s atmosphere is mostly composed of c. the ozone layer.
a. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor. d. a lapse rate in the troposphere.
38. On a clear, calm, cool night, you would expect the air b. soot.
temperature over a valley floor to be what compared to the air c. dust.
temperature over a slope to the valley? d. All of the above are correct.
a. Cooler
b. Warmer CHAPTER 23
c. The same temperature 1. Condensation of water vapor into clouds or fog requires
d. Sometimes warmer and sometimes cooler a. high temperatures.
b. storms.
39. Air moving down a mountain slope is often warm because c. condensation nuclei.
a. it has been closer to the Sun. d. no wind.
b. cool air is denser and settles to lower elevations.
c. it is compressed as it moves to lower elevations. 2. Clouds that are between you and the Sun will appear gray
d. this occurs only during the summertime. because
a. the clouds filter sunlight.
40. Considering Earth’s overall atmosphere, you would expect b. the clouds reflect sunlight.
more rainfall to occur in a zone of c. the clouds refract sunlight.
a. high atmospheric pressure. d. the Sun’s shadow makes the clouds dark.
b. low atmospheric pressure.
c. prevailing westerly winds. 3. Which is not an example of precipitation?
d. prevailing trade winds. a. Rain
b. Dew
41. Considering Earth’s overall atmosphere, you would expect to c. Snow
find a desert located in a zone of d. Ice
a. high atmospheric pressure.
b. low atmospheric pressure. 4. Cloud droplets merge and fuse with millions of other droplets
c. prevailing westerly winds. to form large raindrops. This process is called
d. prevailing trade winds. a. seeding.
b. precipitation.
42. Water molecules can go (1) from the liquid state to the vapor c. coalescence.
state and (2) from the vapor state to the liquid state. When is the d. combination.
movement from the liquid to the vapor state only?
a. Evaporation 5. What type of clouds will usually produce a long, cold winter
b. Condensation storm with drizzle, rain, ice, and snow?
c. Saturation a. Cirrus
d. This usually does not occur alone. b. Cumulus
c. Stratus
43. What condition means a balance between the number of d. Storm
water molecules moving to and from the liquid state?
a. Evaporation 6. The transfer of heat from a region of higher temperature to a
b. Condensation region of lower temperature by the displacement of high-energy
c. Saturation molecules is
d. None of the above is correct. a. thermal energy.
b. conduction.
44. Without adding or removing any water vapor, a sample of the c. convection.
atmosphere experiencing an increase in temperature will have d. radiation.
a. a higher relative humidity.
b. a lower relative humidity. 7. The one term that does not describe an air mass is
c. the same relative humidity. a. maritime polar.
d. a changed absolute humidity. b. continental southern.
c. maritime tropical.
45. Cooling a sample of water vapor results in a (an) d. continental polar.
a. increased capacity.
b. decreased capacity. 8. A boundary between air masses is called a
c. unchanged capacity. a. boundary.
b. front.
46. On a clear, calm, and cool night, dew or frost is most likely c. dividing line.
to form d. barrier.
a. under trees or other shelters.
b. on bare ground on the side of a hill. 9. A low-pressure center where the winds move
c. under a tree on the side of a hill. counterclockwise into the low-pressure center is called a (an)
d. on grass in an open, low-lying area. a. occluded front.
b. stationary front.
47. The density of the atmosphere c. cyclone.
a. increases with increasing altitude. d. high.
b. decreases with increasing altitude.
c. remains the same, regardless of altitude. 10. Clear, fair weather is associated with a
d. decreases with decreasing altitude. a. high.
b. low.
48. Condensation nuclei provide a surface for fog or cloud c. stationary front.
formation. These particles include d. low-pressure center.
a. salt crystals.
11. A thunderstorm usually does not develop under what probably the result of
conditions? a. convection.
a. Warm air b. a barrier to moving air.
b. Cold air c. the meeting of moving air masses.
c. Moist air d. None of the above is correct.
d. Humid air
22. Without any heat being added or removed, a parcel of air that
12. Upward air motion that leads to the growth of cumulus clouds is expanding is becoming
to tremendous heights is called a (an) a. neither warmer nor cooler.
a. lift. b. warmer.
b. flight. c. cooler.
c. updraft. d. the temperature of the surrounding air.
d. rise.
23. A parcel of air shoved upward into atmospheric air in a state
13. The separation of charge associated with the movement of of instability will expand and become cooler,
water droplets as they fall or as they are lifted by an updraft can a. but not as cool as the surrounding air.
result in b. and thus colder than the surrounding air.
a. lightning. c. reaching the same temperature as the surrounding air.
b. hail. d. then warmer than the surrounding air.
c. thunder.
d. a rainbow. 24. A parcel of air shoved upward into atmospheric air in a state
of stability will expand and become cooler,
14. An intense low-pressure area with widespread winds greater a. but not as cool as the surrounding air.
than 120 km/h is a b. and thus colder than the surrounding air.
a. tornado. c. reaching the same temperature as the surrounding air.
b. tropical storm. d. then warmer than the surrounding air.
c. hurricane.
d. cyclone. 25. Cumulus clouds usually mean an atmospheric state of
a. stability.
15. A hurricane does not have b. instability.
a. gale winds. c. cool, dry equilibrium.
b. rain and thunderstorms. d. warm, humid equilibrium.
c. a high-pressure area.
d. an “eye” at its center. 26. When water vapor condenses in a parcel of air rising in an
unstable atmosphere, the parcel is
16. Weather prediction is not based on a. forced to the ground.
a. use of computer models. b. slowed.
b. the Farmer’s Almanac. c. stopped.
c. the study of the movement of air masses. d. accelerated upward.
d. knowledge of basic scientific laws.
27. A parcel of air with a relative humidity of 50 percent is given
17. The general pattern of weather that occurs for a region over an upward shove into the atmosphere. What is necessary before
a number of years is called cloud droplets form in this air?
a. a weather history. a. Cooling
b. the climate. b. Saturation
c. a forecast. c. Condensation nuclei
d. the environment. d. All of the above are correct.

18. The source of energy that drives the hydrologic cycle is 28. A cloud is hundreds of tiny water droplets suspended in the
a. the ocean. air. The average density of liquid water in such a cloud is about
b. latent heat from evaporating water. a. 0.1 g/m3.
c. the Sun. b. 1 g/m3.
d. Earth’s interior. c. 100 g/m3.
d. 1,000 g/m3.
19. Considering the average amount of water that evaporates
from Earth’s oceans each year and the average amount that 29. When water vapor in the atmosphere condenses to liquid
returns by precipitation, water,
a. evaporation is greater than precipitation. a. dew falls to the ground.
b. precipitation is greater than evaporation. b. rain or snow falls to the ground.
c. precipitation balances evaporation. c. a cloud forms.
d. there is no pattern that can be generalized. d. All of the above are correct.

20. A thunderstorm that occurs at 3 a.m. over a flat region of the 30. In order for liquid cloud droplets at the freezing point to
country was probably formed by freeze into ice crystals,
a. convection. a. condensation nuclei are needed.
b. differential heating. b. further cooling is required.
c. the meeting of moving air masses. c. ice-forming nuclei are needed.
d. Any of the above is correct. d. nothing more is required.

21. White, puffy cumulus clouds that form over a flat region of 31. Which basic form of a cloud usually produces longer periods
the country during the late afternoon of a clear, warm day are of drizzle, rain, or snow?
a. Stratus a. unusual weather cycle.
b. Cumulus b. atmospheric cycle.
c. Cirrus c. hydrologic cycle.
d. None of the above is correct. d. reverse flow cycle.

32. Which basic form of a cloud usually produces brief periods of 42. Water that returns to Earth’s surface in either solid or liquid
showers? form is called
a. Stratus a. rain.
b. Cumulus b. snow.
c. Cirrus c. ice.
d. None of the above is correct. d. precipitation.

33. The type of air mass weather that results after the arrival of 43. You are standing on a warm beach in Tahiti. Rain begins to
polar continental air is fall. The type of cloud must be
a. frequent snowstorms with rapid changes. a. cirrus.
b. clear and cold with gradual changes. b. cumulus
c. unpredictable but with frequent and rapid changes. c. stratus.
d. much the same from day to day, with conditions depending d. storm.
on the air mass and the local conditions.
44. Precipitation that is formed by cycling repeatedly through a
34. The appearance of high cirrus clouds, followed by thicker and thunderstorm, falling, and then being returned to the upper of
lower stratus clouds, then continuous light rain over several days the thunderclouds by updrafts is
probably means which of the following air masses has moved to a. rain.
your area? b. snow.
a. Continental polar c. hail.
b. Maritime tropical d. rain and snow.
c. Continental tropical
d. Maritime polar 45. The smallest, most violent weather event is a (an)
a. hurricane.
35. A fully developed cyclonic storm is most likely to form b. tornado.
a. on a stationary front. c. hailstorm.
b. in a high-pressure center. d. ice storm.
c. from differential heating.
d. over a cool ocean. CHAPTER 24
1. What is the most abundant compound near or on the surface
36. The basic difference between a tropical storm and a of Earth?
hurricane is a. O2
a. size. b. H2O
b. location. c. CO2
c. wind speed. d. N2
d. amount of precipitation. 2. Evaporation, precipitation, and return of water to the oceans
are called the
37. Most of the great deserts of the world are located a. rain cycle.
a. near the equator. b. aqueous cycle.
b. 30° north or south latitude. c. hydrologic cycle.
c. 60° north or south latitude. d. geologic cycle.
d. anywhere, as there is no pattern to their location.
3. What is the major source of freshwater?
38. The average temperature of a location is made more even by a. Streams
the influence of b. Underground water
a. a large body of water. c. Precipitation
b. elevation. d. Rivers
c. nearby mountains.
d. dry air. 4. What is a small body of running water?
a. Runoff
39. The climate of a specific location is determined by b. Stream
a. its latitude. c. Groundwater
b. how much sunlight it receives. d. Lake
c. its altitude and nearby mountains and bodies of water.
d. All of the above are correct. 5. The land that is drained by a stream is called the
a. riverbank.
40. The process that is not involved with how water cycles in and b. watershed.
out of the atmosphere is c. river valley.
a. evaporation. d. mouth of the stream.
b. boiling.
c. condensation. 6. A small body of standing water is called a
d. precipitation. a. stream.
b. pond.
41. The process of water vapor cycling in and out of the c. lake.
atmosphere with evaporation of water from the surface and d. watershed.
precipitation of water back to the surface is called the
7. The amount of groundwater is estimated to be c. removes degradable pollutants.
a. equal to the amount of surface water. d. adds chlorine.
b. less than the amount of surface water.
c. 25 times the amount of surface water. 18. Chlorination of water is used to
d. twice the amount of surface water. a. kill harmful bacteria.
b. break down organic matter.
8. The total amount of pore spaces in a given sample of c. remove persistent pollutants.
sediment is defined as d. provide needed nutrients.
a. grain size.
b. porosity. 19. The “rim of fire” surrounds the
c. permeability. a. Atlantic Ocean.
d. concentration. b. Indian Ocean.
c. Pacific Ocean.
9. The ability of a given sample of sediment to transport water is d. Gulf of Mexico.
defined as
a. grain size. 20. Dissolved materials and sediments are carried to oceans by
b. porosity. a. rain.
c. permeability. b. rivers.
d. concentration. c. groundwater.
d. pollutants.
10. The amount of groundwater in a specific area does not
depend on 21. What ion is found in seawater in the greatest amount?
a. porosity of the land. a. Sodium ion, Na+
b. type of sediments. b. Chloride ion, Cl–
c. slope of the land. c. Calcium ion, Ca2+
d. a nearby lake or reservoir. d. Potassium ion, K+

11. The surface of the boundary between the zone of saturation 22. The amount of dissolved salts in seawater is measured as
and the zone above is called the a. salt concentration.
a. water table. b. solubility.
b. permeable zone. c. salinity.
c. impermeable zone. d. percent.
d. groundwater table.
23. What is the part of a river where the freshwater mixes with
12. A layer of sand, gravel, sandstone, or any other highly the salt water from the oceans?
permeable material beneath Earth’s surface through which a. Watershed
groundwater can move is a (an) b. Estuary
a. well. c. Delta
b. spring. d. Wetland
c. aquifer.
d. artesian. 24. A regular group of long-wavelength waves with a low wave
height is called
13. Water that usually does not have to be filtered is obtained a. fetch.
from a b. swell.
a. lake. c. surf.
b. river. d. breakers.
c. well.
d. reservoir. 25. The distance that the wind blows across the open ocean is
the
14. The treatment of seawater to replenish freshwater a. fetch.
a. is readily available. b. swell.
b. kills ocean life. c. surf.
c. is energy-expensive. d. breaker.
d. requires excessive filtration.
26. Steep volcanic peaks in the ocean basin are
15. Deuterium from the oceans is considered a potential energy a. ridges.
source for b. seamounts.
a. chemical power. c. steeds.
b. thermal energy. d. quarter islands.
c. controlled fusion.
d. controlled fission. 27. Of the total supply, the amount of water that is available for
human consumption and agriculture is
16. Degradable pollution control is a. 97 percent.
a. landfills. b. about two-thirds.
b. recycling. c. about 3 percent.
c. wastewater treatment. d. less than 1 percent.
d. combustion.
28. Considering yearly global averages of precipitation that falls
17. The primary stage in wastewater treatment on and evaporates from the land,
a. removes persistent pollutants. a. more is precipitated than evaporates.
b. removes solids from wastewater. b. more evaporates than is precipitated.
c. there is a balance between the amount precipitated and the 39. If the wavelength of swell is 10.0 m, then you know that the
amount evaporated. fish below the surface feel the waves to a depth of
d. there is no pattern that can be generalized. a. 5.0 m.
b. 10.0 m.
29. In general, how much of all the precipitation that falls on land c. 20.0 m.
ends up as runoff and groundwater? d. however deep it is at the bottom.
a. 97 percent
b. About half 40. In general, a breaker forms where the water depth is about
c. About one-third one and one-third times the wave
d. Less than 1 percent a. period.
b. length.
30. Groundwater is c. height.
a. any water beneath Earth’s surface. d. width.
b. water beneath Earth’s surface from a saturated zone.
c. water that soaks into the ground. 41. Ocean currents are generally driven by
d. Any of the above is correct. a. the rotation of Earth.
b. the prevailing winds.
31. How many different oceans are actually on Earth’s surface? c. rivers from the land.
a. 14 d. All of the above are correct.
b. 7
c. 3 42. Of the following, the greatest volume of water is moved by
d. 1 a. Mississippi River.
b. California Current.
32. The largest of the three principal ocean regions of Earth is c. Gulf Stream.
the d. Colorado River.
a. Atlantic Ocean.
b. Pacific Ocean. 43. Water that is fit for human consumption and agriculture
c. Indian Ocean. is called
d. South American Ocean. a. seawater.
b. freshwater.
33. The Gulf of Mexico is a shallow sea of the c. distilled water.
a. Atlantic Ocean. d. mountain water.
b. Pacific Ocean.
c. Indian Ocean. 44. The continental divide that separates river systems in the
d. South American Ocean. United States is the
a. Mississippi River.
34. Measurement of the salts dissolved in seawater taken from b. Rocky Mountains.
various locations throughout the world shows that seawater has c. Appalachian Mountains.
a. uniform chemical composition and a variable concentration. d. Rio Grande.
b. variable chemical composition and a variable concentration.
c. uniform chemical composition and a uniform concentration. 45. The average domestic daily use of water per person is
d. variable chemical composition and a uniform concentration. estimated
35. The percentage of dissolved salts in seawater averages to be
about a. 25 gal.
a. 35 percent. b. 50 gal.
b. 3.5 percent. c. 100 gal.
c. 0.35 percent. d. 150 gal.
d. 0.035 percent.
46. Groundwater costs more for consumer use because
36. The salinity of seawater is increased locally by a. it must be pumped to the surface.
a. the addition of water from a large river. b. it requires addition of bactericides.
b. heavy precipitation. c. filtration is needed to remove salts.
c. the formation of sea ice. d. it is not chlorinated.
d. None of the above is correct.

37. Considering only the available light and the dissolving ability
of gases in seawater, more abundant life should be found in a
a. cool, relatively shallow ocean.
b. warm, very deep ocean.
c. warm, relatively shallow ocean.
d. cool, very deep ocean.

38. The regular, low-profile waves called swell are produced from
a. constant, prevailing winds.
b. small, irregular waves becoming superimposed.
c. longer wavelengths outrunning and outlasting shorter
wavelengths.
d. all wavelengths becoming transformed by gravity as they
travel any great distance.