PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

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4. Consider the following statements:

2022
1. In India, which one of the following compiles 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform
information on industrial disputes, closures,
to promote sustainable sanitation and is
retrenchments and lay-offs in factories
funded by the Government of India and the
employing workers?
World Health Organization.
(a) Central Statistics Office
(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an
Internal Trade apex body of the Ministry of Housing and
(c) Labour Bureau Urban Affairs in Government of India and
(d) National Technical Information System provides innovative solutions to address the
Manpower challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are

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2. In India, what is the role of the Coal
Controller’s Organization (CCO)? correct?

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1. CCO is the major source of Coal. Statistics (a) 1 only
in Government of India.
2. It monitors progress of development of (b) 2 only
Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government’s
notification relating to acquisition of
E (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies
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deliver the coal to end users in the 5. With reference to the ‘Tea Board’ in India,
prescribed time.
consider the following statements:
A

Select the correct answer using the code given

below. 1. The Ten Board is a statutory body.
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(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

2. It is a regulatory body attached to the
(b) 3 and 4 only Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers
(c) 1 and 2 only Welfare.
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(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in
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Bengaluru.
3. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth
Schedule of the Constitution of India, which 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai
one of the following statements best reflects and Moscow.
the consequence of it?
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of Which of the statements given above are
tribal people to non-tribal people. correct?
(b) This would create a local self-governing
(a) 1 and 3 only
body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union (b) 2 and 4 only
Territory.
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) The State having such areas would be
declared a Special Category State. (d) 1 and 4 only
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6. Consider the following statements: 9. Consider the following statements:

1. Pursuant to the report of H. N. Sanyal
Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act,
1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the
Supreme Court and the High Courts to
punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil
Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the
powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
1. The Constitution of India classifies
t h e min is ter s into four ranks viz.
Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with
Independent Charge, Minister of State and
Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union
Government, including the Prime Minister,
shall not exceed 15 percent of the total
number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only

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(c) 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(d) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. With reference to India, consider the following
statements:
10. Which of the following is/are the exclusive
1. Government law officers and legal firms are
recognised as advocates, but corporate power(s) of Lok Sabha?
lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded
from recognition as advocates.
E 1.
2.
To ratify the declaration of Emergency
To pass a motion of no-confidence against
C
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the Council of Ministers
the rules relating to legal education and
3. To impeach the President of India
recognition of law colleges.
N

Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct? below.
A

(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
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(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 3 only
8. Consider the following statements:
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1. A bill amending the Constitution requires 11. With reference to anti-defection law in India,
a prior recommendation of the President of consider the following statements?
India. 1. The law specifies that a nominated
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2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is legislator cannot join any political party
presented to the President of India, it is
within six months of being appointed to the
obligatory for the President of India to give
House.
his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be 2. The law does not provide any time-frame
passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya within which the presiding officer has to
Sabha by a special majority and there is no decide a defection case.
provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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12. Consider the following statements:
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor
General of India are the only officers of the
Government who are allowed to participate
in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the
Attorney General of India submits his
resignation when the Government which
appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
15. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok
Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct
of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of
Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date
as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that
the election of a candidate as Deputy
Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either
the principal opposition party or the ruling
party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power
as of the Speaker when presiding over

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the sitting of the House and no appeal lies

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13. With reference to the writs issued by the against his rulings.
Courts in India, consider the following 4. The well established parliamentary
statements: practice regarding the appointment of
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved
organisation unless it is entrusted with a
public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a
E by the Speaker and duly seconded by the
Prime Minister.
C
Which of the statements given above are
Comp any even though it may be a
correct?
Government Company.
N

3. Any public minded person can be a (a) 1 and 3 only

petitioner to move the Court to obtain the (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
A

writ of Quo Warranto.

(c) 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above are
correct? (d) 2 and 4 only
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(a) 1 and 2 only 2021

(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration
(c) 1 and 3 only
of wealth violates
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) the Right to Equality
14. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital (b) the Directive Principles of State Policy
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Mission, consider the following statements:

(c) the Right to Freedom
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal, health (d) the Concept of Welfare
coverage, every citizen of India should be
part of it ultimately.
2. What is the position of the Right to Property in
3. It has seamless portability across the
India?
country.
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Legal right available to citizens only
correct? (b) Legal right available to any person
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens
(b) 3 only
only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

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3. What was the exact constitutional status of
India on 26th January, 1950?
(a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic
Republic
4. Constitutional government means-
(a) a representative government of a nation
with federal structure
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal
powers
(c) a government whose Head enjoys real
powers
7. With reference to India, consider the following
statements:
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case,
parole cannot be denied to such prisoner
because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own
Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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(d) a government limited by the terms of the 8. At the national level, which ministry is the
Constitution

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nodal agency to ensure effective implementation
of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
5. Consider the following statements in respect
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:
2006?
1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and
under the Article 18 (1) of the Constitution
of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the
E Climate Change.
(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
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year 1954, were suspended only once. (c) Ministry of Rural Development
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
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restricted to a maximum of five in a

particular year. 9. A legislation which confers on the executive
A

Which of the above statements are not or administrative authority an unguided

correct? and uncontrolled discretionary power in
(a) 1 and 2 only
the matter o f application of law violates
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(b) 2 and 3 only

which one of the following Articles of the
(c) 1 and 3 only
Constitution of India?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Article 14
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6. With reference to India, consider the following (b) Article 28

statements: (c) Article 32
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1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the (d) Article 44

custody of the concerned magistrate and
such accused is locked up in police station, 10. Which one of the following in Indian polity
not in jail. is an essential feature that indicates that it is
2. During judicial custody, the police officer federal in character?
in charge of the case is not allowed to
(a) The independence of judiciary is
interrogate the suspect without the
safeguarded.
approval of the court.
(b) The Union Legislature has elected
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? representatives from constituent units.
(a) 1 only (c) The Union Cabinet can have elected
(b) 2 only representatives from regional parties.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 by Courts of Law.

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11. Which one of the following best defines the 13. With reference to India, consider the following
term ‘State’? statements:
1. There is only one citizenship and one
(a) A community of persons permanently
domicile.
occupying a definite territory independent
2. A citizen by birth only can become the
of external control and possessing an
Head of State.
organized government
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship
(b) A politically organized people of a cannot be deprived of it under any
d e f i n i t e territory and possessing an circumstances.
authority to govern them, maintain law Which of the statements given above is/are
and order, protect their natural rights and correct?
safeguard their means of sustenance (a) 1 only

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(c) A number of persons who have been living (b) 2 only

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in a definite territory for a very long time (c) 1 and 3 only
with their own culture, tradition and (d) 2 and 3 only
government

(d) A society permanently living in a definite 14. Which one of the following factors constitutes
territory with a central authority, an
E the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal
democracy?
C
executive responsible to the central
authority and an independent judiciary (a) A committed judiciary
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(b) Centralization of powers
(c) Elected government
12. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider
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(d) Separation of powers

the following statements:
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1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of

15. We adopted parliamentary democracy based
India can be called back to sit and act as a on the British model, but how does our model
Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of differ from that model?
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India with prior permission of the President 1. As regards legislation, the British
of India. P arliamen t is supreme or sovereign but
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in India, the power of the Parliament to

2. A High Court in India has the power to legislate is limited.
review its own judgement as the Supreme 2. In India, matters related to the
Court does. constitutionality of the Amendment of
an Act of the Parliament are referred to the
Which of the statements given above is/are Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
correct? Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 only below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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16. With reference to the Union Government,

consider the following statements:
1.
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee
suggested that a minister and a secretary be
designated solely for pursuing the subject of
administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was
constituted on the recommendation of the
Administrative Reforms Commission,
1966, and this was placed under the Prime
Minister’s charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
2020
A Parliamentary System of Government is one
in which-
(a) all political parties in the Parliament are
represented in the Government
(b) the Government is responsible to the
Parliament and can be removed by it
(c) the Government is elected by the people and
can be removed by them
(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament
but cannot be removed by it before
completion of a fixed term

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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 2. Which part of the Constitution of India

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(c) Both 1 and 2 declares the ideal of Welfare State?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
17. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which (c) Preamble
Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 15
E (d) Seventh Schedule
C
(b) Article 19
3. Consider the following statements:
(c) Article 21
N
1. The Constitution of India defines its
(d) Article 29
‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism,
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secularism, fundamental rights and

18. Consider the following statements: democracy.
1. In India, there is no law restricting the
2. The Constitution of India provides for
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candidates from contesting in one Lok ‘j u d i ci al rev i ew’ t o s afeg u ar d t h e

Sabha election from three constituencies. citizens’ liberties and to preserve the
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi ideals on which the Constitution is based.
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Lal contested from three Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are
constituencies.
correct?
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate
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(a) 1 only
contests in one Lok Sabha election from
many constituencies, his/her party should (b) 2 only
bear the cost of bye-elections to the (c) Both 1 and 2
constituencies vacated by him/her in the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
event of him/her winning in all the
constituencies.
4. One common agreement between Gandhism
Which of the statements given above is/are
and Marxism is-
correct?
(a) the final goal of a stateless society
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) class struggle
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) abolition of private property
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) economic determinism
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5. In the context of India, which one of the
following is the characteristic appropriate for
bureaucracy?
(a) An agency for widening the scope of
parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of
federalism
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability
and economic growth
(d) An agency or the implementation of public
policy
8. Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, a
person who is eligible to vote can be made
a minister in a State for six months even if
he/she is not a member of the Legislature of
that State.
2. According to the Representation of People
Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal
offence and sentenced to imprisonment for
five years is permanently disqualified from
contesting an election even after his release

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from prison.

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6. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is- Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal
effect (a) 1 only

(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no

legal effect either
E (b) 2 only
C
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) a part of the Constitution and has the same
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
N
legal effect as any other part

(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal

A

effect independently of other parts 9. Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India can summon a

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session of the Parliament at such a place as

7. With reference to the provisions contained in
he/she thinks fit.
Part-IV of the Constitution of India, which of
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the following statements is/are correct? 2. The Constitution of India provides for three

1. They shall be enforceable by courts. sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is

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not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.

2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
3. There is no minimum number of days that
3. The principles laid down in this part are to
the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
influence the making of laws by the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are

below. correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

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10. Consider the following statements: 13. Which one of the following categories of
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more Fundamental Rights incorporates protection
than three months. against untouchability as a form of dis-
2. State cannot enter into any contract with
crimination?
private corporations for sharing Aadhaar
data. (a) Right against Exploitation
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining
(b) Right to Freedom
insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
funded out of the Consolidated Fund of
(d) Right to Equality
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
14. In India, separation of judiciary from the
(a) 1 and 4 only

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(b) 2 and 4 only executive is enjoined by-

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(c) 3 only (a) the Preamble of the Constitution
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
11. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok (c) the Seventh Schedule
Sabha in-
(a) the matter of creating new All India
Services
E (d) the conventional practice
C
(b) amending the Constitution
(c) the removal of the government 15. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister
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(d) making cut motions also places other documents before the
P arliamen t which include ‘The Macro
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12. With reference to the funds under Members of Eco n o mic Framework Statement’. The
Parliament Local Area Development Scheme aforesaid document is presented because
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(MPLADS), which of the following

this is mandated by-
statements are correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create (a) Long standing parliamentary convention
durable assets like physical infrastructure
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(b) Article 112 and Article 110 (1) of the

for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must Constitution of India
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benefit SC/ST populations. (c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India

3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a
yearly basis and the unused funds cannot (d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and
be carried forward to the next year. Budget Management Act, 2003
4. The district authority must inspect at least
10% of all works under implementation
every year. 16. A constitutional government by definition is a-
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) government by legislature
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) popular government
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) multi-party government
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) limited government
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17. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of 2. Consider the following statements:
the following parts of the Constitution of India 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the
reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected
the Universal Declaration of Human Rights by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the
(1948)? Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
1. Preamble 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives
2. Directive Principles of State Policy details or what constitutes ‘incapacity and
3. Fundamental Duties proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the
Select the correct answer using the code given Supreme Court of India.
below. 3. The details of the process of impeachment
(a) 1 and 2 only of the Judges of the Supreme Court of
India are given in 4 the Judges (Inquiry)
(b) 2 only
Act, 1968.
(c) 1 and 3 only
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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is taken up for voting, the law requires the
motion to be backed by each House of the
18. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide

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Parliament and supported by a majority of
free legal services to which of the following total membership of that House and by not
type of citizens? less than two-thirds of total members of that
1. Person with an annual income of less than House present and voting.
Rs. 1,00,000 Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Transgender with an annual income of less
than Rs. 2,00,000
E correct?
(a) 1 and 2
C
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) (b) 3 only
with an annual income of less than Rs. (c) 3 and 4 only
3,00,000 (d) 1, 3 and 4
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4. All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given 3. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the
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below. Constitution of India during the prime

(a) 1 and 2 only ministership of-
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(b) 3 and 4 only (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) 2 and 3 only (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) 1 and 4 only (c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
2019
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1. Consider the following statements: 4. Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution
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1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualifica-

of India introduced an Article placing the tion) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from
election of the Prime Minister beyond disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of
judicial review. Profit’.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended
the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of five times.
India as being violative of the independence 3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in
of judiciary. the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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5. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of 8. With reference to the Legislative Assembly
India can the transfer of tribal land to private of a State in India, consider the following
parties for mining be declared null and void? statements:
(a) Third Schedule 1. The Governor makes a customary
(b) Fifth Schedule address to Members of the House at the
(c) Ninth Schedule commencement of the first session of the
(d) Twelfth Schedule year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a
rule on a particular matter, it follows the
6. Consider the following statements about
Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
(PVTGs) in India: Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union
Territory. (a) 1 only

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2. A stagnant or declining population is one of (b) 2 only
the criteria for determining PVTG status. (c) Both 1 and 2

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3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included 9. Consider the following statements:
in the list of PVTGs. 1. As per recent amendment to the Indian
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
E Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the
right to fell the bamboos grown on forest
C
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only areas.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other
N

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a
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minor forest produce.

7. With reference to the Constitution of India, 3. T h e S ch ed u l ed Tri b es an d O t h e r

Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition
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prohibitions or limitations or provisions

contained in ordinary laws cannot act of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows
as prohibitions or limitations on the constitu- ownership of minor forest produce to
tional powers under Article 142. It could mean forest dwellers.
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which one of the following? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) The decisions taken by the. Election correct?
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Commission of India while discharging its (a) 1 and 2 only

duties cannot be challenged in any court of (b) 2 and 3 only
law. (c) 3 only
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not (d) 1, 2 and 3
constrained in the exercise of its powers
by the laws made by Parliament.
10. Which Article of the Constitution of India
(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the
safeguards one’s right to marry the person of
country, the President of India can declare
one’s choice?
Financial Emergency without the counsel
(a) Article 19
from the Cabinet.
(b) Article 21
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on
certain matters without the concurrence of (c) Article 25
Union Legislature. (d) Article 29

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 PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

11. Consider the following statements: 14. In India, which of the following review the
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a independent regulators in sectors like
biological process to create a seed can be telecommunications, insurance, electricity,
patented in India. etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property
Parliament
Appellate Board.
2. Parliamentary Department Related
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented Standing Committees
in India.
3. Finance Commission
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms
correct? Commission
(a) 1 and 3 only 5. NITI Aayog
(b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given

S
below:
(c) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

IA
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
12. Which one of the following suggested that the (d) 2 and 5 only
Governor should be an eminent person from
outside the State and should be a detached
figure without intense political links or should
not have taken part in politics in the recent
E
15. Which of the following statements is/
are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit
C
(Amendment) Act, 2017?
past?
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission
N
months pre-delivery and three months
(1966) post-delivery paid leave.
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969) 2. Enterprises with creches must allow the
A

(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983) mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced
(d) National Commission to Review the
ID

entitlements.
Working of the Constitution (2000)
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
13. Consider the following statements:
U

(a) 1 and 2 only

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation (b) 2 only
Fund Management and Planning Authority
G

(c) 3 only
exists at both National and State levels. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the
compensatory afforestation programmes 16. In the context of any country, which one of the
carried out under the Compensatory following would be considered as part of its
Afforestation Fund Act, 2016. social capital?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) The proportion of literates in the population
correct? (b) T h e s t o c k o f i t s b u i l d i n g s , o t h e r
(a) 1 only infrastructure and machines
(c) The size of population in the working age
(b) 2 only
group
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the society
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 PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES
17. With reference to the Constitution of India,
consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction
to declare any central law to be consti-
tutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India
cannot be called into question by the
Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. In the context of polity, which one of the
following would you accept as the most
C
appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political
N
rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
A
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
ID
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
2018
U
1. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic
part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
G
Which of the following in the Constitution of
India correctly and appropriately imply the
above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd
Amendment to the Constitution.
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of
State Policy in Part IV.
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in
Part III.
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th
Amendment to the Constitution.
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GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE
2. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following
statements is not correct?
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill
if it contains only provisions relating
to imposition, abolition, remission,
alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the
custody of the Consolidated Fund of India
or the Contingency Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the
appropriation of moneys out of the
Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of
S
borrowing of money or giving of any guar-
antee by the Government of India.
IA
3. With reference to the election of the President
of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies
E 2.
from State to State.
The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok
Sabha is more than the value of the vote of
MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to
be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is
dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her
office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(13)
 PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

5. Which one of the following reflects the most
appropriate relationship between law and
liberty?
(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by
the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in
danger.
9. With reference to the Parliament of India,
which of the following Parliamentary Com-
mittees scrutinizes and reports to the House
whether the powers to make regulations, rules,
sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Con-
stitution or delegated by the Parliament are
being properly exercised by the Executive
within the scope of such delegation?

6. Consider the following statements: (a) Committee on Government Assurances

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
against the Governor of a State in any court
during his term of office.

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(c) Rules Committee
2. The emoluments and allowances of the
Governor of a State shall not be diminished

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(d) Business Advisory Committee
during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only 10. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
E 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to
C
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a
State, a person would be required to possess
7. Which of the following are regarded as the
N
the minimum qualification laid down by the
main features of the ‘Rule of Law’? concerned State Council of Teacher Educa-
1. Limitation of powers
A

tion.
2. Equality before law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching prima-
ID

4. Liberty and civil rights ry classes, a candidate is required to pass

Select the correct answer using the code given
a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in a
below:
accordance with the National Council of
(a) 1 and 3 only
U

(b) 2 and 4 only Teacher Education guidelines.

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
G

3. In India, more than 90% of teacher educa-

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
tion institutions are directly under the State
8. If the President of India exercises his power as Governments.
provided under Article 356 of the Constitution
in respect of a particular State, then- Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically correct?
dissolved.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that
State shall be exercisable by or under the
(b) 2 only
authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) the President can make laws relating to that
State. (d) 3 only

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 PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

11. Consider the following statements:

2017
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest 1. Consider the following statements:
party in the opposition was the Swatantra 1. The Election Commission of India is a
Party. five-member body.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a ‘Leader of the Oppo- 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the
sition’ was recognised for the first time in election schedule for the conduct of both
1969. general elections and bye-elections.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes
minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot relating to splits/mergers of recognised po-
be recognised as the Leader of the Opposi- litical parties.
tion. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only

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correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 3 only

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(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Which one of the following is not a feature of
E Indian federalism?
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
C
12. Consider the following statements:
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between
1. The Parliament of India can place a particu- the Centre and the States,
N
lar law in the Ninth Schedule of the Consti- (c) The federating units have been given un-
tution of India. equal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
A

2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth (d) It is the result of an agreement among the
Schedule cannot be examined by any court federating units.
ID

and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact
correct? that it calls into activity
U

(a) 1 only (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary

men and women.
(b) 2 only
G

(b) the methods for strengthening executive

(c) Both 1 and 2 leadership.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) a superior individual with dynamism and
vision.
(d) a band of dedicated party workers.
13. ‘Rule of Law Index’ is released by which of
the following?
4. Local self-government can be best explained
(a) Amnesty International as an exercise in-
(b) International Court of Justice (a) Federalism
(c) The office of UN Commissioner for Human (b) Democratic decentralization
Rights (c) Administrative delegation
(d) World Justice Project (d) Direct democracy

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 PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

5. Consider the following statements: 9. Which of the following are envisaged by the
Right against Exploitation in the Constitution
A Constitutional Government is one which-
of India?
1. Places effective restrictions on individual 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
liberty in the interest of State Authority forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
2. Places effective restrictions on the Author-
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
ity of the State in the interest of individual
4. Prohibition of employment of children in
liberty
factories and mines
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct? below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

S
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

IA
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. One of the implications of equality in society
is the absence of-
(a) Privileges
6. Which one of the following objectives is not
embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution
E (b) Restraints
(c) Competition
C
of India?
(d) Ideology
(a) Liberty of thought
N

(b) Economic liberty 11. Which principle among the following was
added to the Directive Principles of State
(c) Liberty of expression
A

Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Consti-

tution?
(d) Liberty of belief
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and
ID

women
7. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of (b) Participation of workers in the management
of industries
India is reflected in which of the following?
U

(c) Right to work, education and public assis-

(a) The Preamble tance
G

(b) The Fundamental Rights (d) Securing living wage and human conditions
of work to workers
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) The Fundamental Duties 12. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the
8. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a- citizens.
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorpo-
(a) Fundamental Right
rated in the Constitution of a State.
(b) Natural Right (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the
State.
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens
(d) Legal Right against the many.

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 PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

13. Consider the following statements: 16. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State
Assembly, the winning candidate must get
Directive Principles of State Policy constitute
at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be
limitations upon-
declared elected.
1. legislative function 2. According to the provisions laid down in
2. executive function the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the
Speaker’s post goes to the majority party
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

S
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IA
14. Which of the following statement(s) is/are 17. Which of the following are not necessarily
true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian the consequences of the proclamation of the
citizen? President’s rule in a State?

1. A legislative process has been provided to

enforce these duties.
E 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative
Assembly
C
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the
2. They are correlative to legal duties. State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
N
Select the correct answer using the code given
Select the correct answer using the code below:
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
A

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
ID

(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 18. Out of the following statements, choose the
U

one that brings out the principle underlying

the Cabinet form of Government:
G

15. In the context of India, which one of the
following is the correct relationship between
Rights and Duties?
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent
of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the
advancement of the personality of the
citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the
stability of the State.
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the
criticism against the Government whose
responsibilities are complex and hard to
carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities
of the Government whose responsibilities
are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy
for ensuring collective responsibility of the
Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the
head of the Government whose hold over
the people is in a state of decline.

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 PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

19. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination
paper can be filed by-
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which
the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in
the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.
20. With reference to the Parliament of India,
consider the following statements:
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by
a Member of Parliament who is not elected
but only nominated by the President of
23. In India, Judicial Review implies-
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce
upon the constitutionality of laws and
executive orders.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question
the wisdom of the laws enacted by the
Legislatures.
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the
legislative enactments before they are
assented to by the President.
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its
own judgements given earlier in similar or

S
India. different cases.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been 2016

IA
passed in the Parliament of India for the first
1. Consider the following statements:
time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The minimum age prescribed for any person
correct? to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
E 2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature
dissolution continues only for the remainder
C
(c) Both 1 and 2 period.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
N

correct?
21. The main advantage of the parliamentary form
of government is that- (a) 1 only
A

(a) the executive and legislature work inde- (b) 2 only

pendently.
(c) Both 1 and 2
ID

(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more

efficient. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) the executive remains responsible to the
legislature.
U

2. Which of the following statements is/are

(d) the head of the government cannot be
correct?
changed without election.
G

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its

22. The Parliament of India exercises control prorogation.
over the functions of the Council of Ministers 2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which
through has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall
1. Adjournment motion not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
2. Question hour
Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
below: (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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 PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

3. The Parliament of India acquires the power to 6. Which of the following is/are the indica-
legislate on any item in the State List in the tor/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the
national interest if a resolution to that effect is Global Hunger Index Report?
passes by the 1. Undernourishment

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total 2. Child stunting

membership 3. Child mortality
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than Select the correct answer using the code given
two-thirds of its total membership below.
(a) 1 only
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total
membership (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 , 2 and 3
(d) RajyaSabha by a majority of not less than
two-thirds of its members present and (d) 1 and 3 only

S
voting

IA
7. Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is a national
campaign to-
4. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’,
(a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute
which of the following statements is/are
persons and provide them with suitable
correct?
sources of livelihood
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear
only civil cases and not criminal cases
E (b) release the sex workers from their practice
and provide them with alternative sources
C
2. The Act allows local social activists as of livelihood
mediators/reconciliators. (c) eradicate the practice of manual scavenging
N

and rehabilitate the manual scavengers

Select the correct answer using the code given
below: (d) release the bonded labourers from their
A

bondage and rehabilitate them

(a) 1 only
ID

(b) 2 only
8. With reference to ‘Organization for the
(c) Both 1 and 2 Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 consider the following statements :
U

1. It is an organization of European Union in

working relation with NATO and WHO.
5. Consider the following statements:
G

2. It monitors the chemical industry to prevent

1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed
new weapons from emerging.
by the Governor of that State.
3. It provides assistance and protection to
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed States (Parties) against chemical weapons
tenure threats.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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 PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

9. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima 4. Consider the following statements :
Yojana’, consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to
1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay reject or to amend a Money Bill
a uniform premium of two percent for any
crop they cultivate in any season of the year. 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the
Demands for Grants.
2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses aris-
ing out of cyclones and unseasonal rains. 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual
Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?

(b) 2 only (a) 1 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 2 only

S
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
2015

IA
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. There is a Parliamentary System of Govern-
ment in India because the-
5. The fundamental object of the Panchayati
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
Raj system is to ensure which among the
(b) Parliament can amend the constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
E following?
C
1. People’s participation in development
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the
2. Political accountability
Lok Sabha
N

3. Democratic decentralization

4. Financial mobilization
A

2. Consider the following Statements regarding

the DPSP/Directive Principles of State Policy: Select the correct answer using the code given
ID

1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic below.

democracy in the country
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. The provisions contained in these Principles
(b) 2 and 4 only
are not enforceable by any court.
U

Which of the statements given below is correct? (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
G

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2 6. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed
by-

3. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian (a) a simple majority of member present and
Constitution is enshrined in its- voting

(a) Preamble (b) three-fourths majority of member present

and voting
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights (c) two-thirds majority of the House

(d) Seventh Schedule (d) absolute majority of the House

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 PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

7. ‘To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity
and Integrity of India’ is a provision made in
the-
(a) Preamble of the Constitute
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties
8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India
is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chair-
11. Who/Which of the following is the Custodian
of the Constitution of India?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India
12. With reference to the Union Government,
consider the following statements.
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible
for the preparation of Union Budget that is
presented to the parliament
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Con-

S
man of the Civil Services Board. solidated Fund of India without the authori-
Which of the statements given above is/are zation of Parliament of India.

IA
correct? 3. All the disbursements made from Public
(a) 1 only Account also need the Authorization from
(b) 2 only the Parliament of India
Which of the following statements given
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
E above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
C
(b) 2 and 3 only
9. Consider the following statements: (c) 2 only
N

1. The Legislative Council of a state in India (d) 1, 2, and 3

can be larger in size than half of the Legis-
A

lative Assembly of that particular state.

13. India is a member of which among the
2. The Governor of a State nominates the following?
ID

Chairman of the Legislative Council of that

1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
particular state.
2. Association of South-East Asian Nations
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. East Asia Summit
correct?
U

Select the correct answer using the code given

(a) 1 only
below.
(b) 2 only
G

(a) 1 and 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) India is a member of none of them
10. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth 2014
Schedule in the Constitution of India are made 1. The power of the Supreme Court of India to
in order to- decide disputes between the Centre and the
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes States falls under its
(b) determine the boundaries between states (a) advisory jurisdiction
(c) determine the powers, authorities, and (b) appellate jurisdiction
responsibilities of Panchayats (c) original jurisdiction
(d) protect the interests of all the border States (d) writ jurisdiction

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 PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

2. Consider the following statements: 5. Which of the following is/are the function/
functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. The President shall make rules for the more
convenient transaction of the business of 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
the Government of India, and for the alloca-
tion among Ministers of the said business. 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Commit-
tees
2. All executive actions of the Government of
India shall be expressed to be taken in the 3. Allocation of financial resources to the
name of the Prime Minister. Ministries

Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct? below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

S
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 2 only

IA
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. In the Constitution of India, promotion of

international peace and security is included in 6. Which of the following are associated with
the-
E ‘Planning’ in India?
C
(a) Preamble to the Constitution 1. The Finance Commission
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
2. The National Development Council
N

(c) Fundamental Duties

3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ninth Schedule
A

4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development

5. The Parliament
ID

4. Which of the following are the discretionary

powers given to the Governor of a State? Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Sending a report to the President of India below.
for imposing the President’s rule
U

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

2. Appointing the Ministers
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
G

3. Reserving certain bills passed by the

(c) 2 and 5 only
State Legislature for consideration of the
President of India (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of
the State Government
7. Which one of the following is the largest
Select the correct answer using the code given
Committee of the Parliament?
below.
(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) The Committee on Estimates

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) The Committee on Public Undertakings

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) The Committee on Petitions

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8. Consider the following statements regarding a 2. With reference to Indian History, the
No-Confidence Motion in India: Members of the Constituent Assembly from
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence the Provinces were-
Motion in the Constitution of India. (a) directly elected by the people of those
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be Provinces
introduced in the Lok Sabha only. (b) nominated by the Indian National Congress
and the Muslim League
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative
correct?
Assemblies
(a) 1 only
(d) selected by the Government for their
(b) 2 only expertise in constitutional matters
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of

S
Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be
9. Which one of the following Schedules of the
t h e authority to initiate the process for

IA
Constitution of India contains provisions re-
determining the nature and extent of individual
garding anti-defection?
or community forest rights or both?
(a) Second Schedule
(a) State Forest Department
(b) Fifth Schedule (b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
E (c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/
Mandai Revenue Officer
C
(d) Gram Sabha
10. The power to increase the number of judges in
4. ‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitu-
N
the Supreme Court of India is vested in-
tion has been as one of the Indian provided in-
(a) the President of India
(a) the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
A

(b) the Parliament

(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of
(c) the Chief Justice of India State Policy
ID

(d) the Law Commission (c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive
2013 Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
1. With reference to National Legal Services
U

Authority, consider the following statements:

5. Consider the following statements
1. Its objective is to provide free and compe-
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India
tent legal services to the weaker sections of
G

can be initiated by an introduction of a bill

the society on the basis of equal opportuni-
in the Lok Sabha only.
ty.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make chang-
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal
es in the federal character of the Constitu-
Services Authorities to implement the le-
tion, the amendment also requires to be rat-
gal programs and schemes throughout the
ified by the legislature of all the States of
country.
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

6. According to the Constitution of India, which
of the following are fundamental for the gov-
ernance of the country?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental
Duties
7. Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall
be collectively responsible to the Parlia-
9. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
(a) In India, the same person cannot be
appointed as Governor for two or more
States at the same time
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States
in India are appointed by the Governor of
the State just as the Judges of the Supreme
Court are appointed by the President
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the
Constitution of India for the removal of a
Governor from his/her post
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a
legislative setup, the Chief Minister is ap-

S
ment. pointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of
majority support

IA
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office
during the pleasure of the President of In-
dia. 10. Consider the following statements:
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to Attorney General of India can-
1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok
the President about the proposals for Legis-
lation.
E 2.
Sabha
be a member of a committee of the Lok
C
Which of the statements given above is/are
Sabha
correct?
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
N
(a) 1 only
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
A

(c) 1 and 3 only correct?

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only
ID

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
8. In the context of India, which of the following
(d) 1 and 3 only
principles is/are implied institutionally in the
U

parliamentary government?
11. Consider the following statements:
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of
The Parliamentary Committee on Public
G

the Parliament.
Accounts (PAC)-
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy 1. consists of not more than 25 Members of
confidence in the Parliament. the Lok Sabha
3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the 2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance
State. accounts of Government
Select the correct answer using the codes 3. examines the report of CAG
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? `
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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12. The Parliament can make any law for whole
or any part of India for implementing interna-
tional treaties-
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
16. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Development Council is an
organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept
in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of
India.

3. The Constitution of India prescribes that

13. What will follow if a Money Bill is substan- Panchayats should be assigned the task of
tially amended by the Rajya Sabha? preparation of plans for economic develop-
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the ment and social justice.
Bill, accepting or not accepting the recom-
Which of the statements given above is/are
mendations of the Rajya Sabha
correct?
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill

S
further (a) 1 only
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the

IA
(b) 2 and 3 only
Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for (c) 1 and 3 only
passing the Bill
(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of
E
17. The Government enacted the Panchayat
C
the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act
House. in 1996. Which one of the following is not
N
2. While the nominated members of the two identified as its objective?
Houses of the Parliament have no voting
right in the presidential election, they have (a) To provide self-governance
A

the right to vote in the election of the Vice (b) To recognize traditional rights
President.
ID

Which of the statements given above is/are (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
correct? (d) To free tribal people from exploitation
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
U

(c) Both 1 and 2 18. Which of the following bodies does not/do not
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 find mention in the Constitution?
G

1. National Development Council

15. Who among the following constitute the
National Development Council? 2. Planning Commission
1. The Prime Minister
3. Zonal Councils
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet Select the correct answer using the codes
4. Chief Ministers of the States given below.
Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) 1 and 2 only
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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4. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an

2012
1. The distribution of powers between the
Centre and the States in the Indian Constitu-
tion is based on the scheme provided in the-
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
2. Consider the following provisions under the
Directive Principles of State Policy as en-
shrined in the Constitution of India:
adjournment motion is-
(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of
urgent public importance
(b) to let opposition members collect informa-
tion from the ministers
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in
demand for grant
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the in-
appropriate or violent behaviour on the part
of some members
5. Consider the following statements:

S
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civ- 1. Union Territories are not represented in the
il code. Rajya Sabha.

IA
2. Organizing village Panchayats 2. It is within the purview of the Chief
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas Election Commissioner to adjudicate
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable lei- the election disputes.
sure and cultural opportunities 3. According to the Constitution of India, the
Which of the above are the Gandhian Princi-
ples that are reflected in the Directive Princi-
E Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha only.
C
ples of State Policy? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only correct?
N
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
A

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above
ID

3. Which of the following is/are among the

6. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha
Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in
Speaker, consider the following statements:
the Indian Constitution?
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure
U

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our compos-

of the President.
ite culture
2. He/She need not be a member of the House
G

2. To protect the weaker sections from social

at the time of his/her election but has to
injustice
become a member of the House within six
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit months from the date of his/ her election.
of inquiry
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres her resignation has to be addressed to the
of individual and collective activity Deputy Speaker.
Select the correct answer using the codes Which of the statements given above is/are
given below: correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above
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7. According to the Constitution of India, it is 10. Which of the following are included in the
the duty of the President of India to cause original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
to be laid before the Parliament which of the
1. A dispute between the Government of India
following?
and one or more States.
1. The Recommendations of the Union
Finance Commission 2. A dispute regarding elections to either
2. The Report of the Public Accounts House of the Parliament or that of
Committee Legislature of a State
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor 3. A dispute between the Government of India
General
and a Union Territory
4. The Report of the National Commission for
Scheduled Castes 4. A dispute between two or more States.
Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the codes

S
given below. given below:
(a) 1 only

IA
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 only

8. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the

Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the
E (d) 3 and 4 only
C
Parliament during the passage of
11. What is the provision to safeguard the
1. Ordinary Legislation
N
autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill 1. While appointing the Supreme Court
A

Select the correct answer using codes the Judges, the President of India has to consult
given below: the Chief Justice of India.
ID

(a) 1 only 2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed

(b) 2 and 3 only by the Chief Justice of India only.
(c) 1 and 3 only
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on
U

(d) 1, 2 and 3
the Consolidated Fund of India to which the
legislature does not have to vote.
G

9. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/

her appointment- 4. All appointments of officers and staffs of
(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Supreme Court of India are made by the
the Houses of the Parliament but must be- Government only after consulting the Chief
come a member of one of the Houses within Justice of India.
six months Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of correct?
the Houses of the Parliament but must be-
come a member of the Lok Sabha within six (a) 1 and 3 only
months (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of
(c) 4 only
the Parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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12. Which of the following special powers have 14. Which of the following provisions of the
been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India have a bearing on
Constitution of India? Education?

(a) To change the existing territory of a State 1. Directive Principles of State Policy
and to change the name of a State 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies

(b) To pass a resolution empowering the 3. Fifth Schedule

Parliament to make laws in the State
4. Sixth Schedule
List and to create one or more All India
Services 5. Seventh Schedule

(c) To amend the election procedure of the Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
President and to determine the pension of
(a) 1 and 2 only

S
the President after his/her retirement

(d) To determine the functions of the Election (b) 3, 4 and 5 only

IA
Commission and to determine the number (c) 1, 2 and 5 only
of Election Commissioners
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

13. Which of the following are the methods of

Parliamentary control over public finance in
E15. How do District Rural Development Agencies
C
(DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural
India? poverty in India?
N
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before 1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions
the Parliament in certain specified backward regions of the
country.
A

2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated

Fund of India only after passing the 2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific
ID

Appropriation Bill study of the cause of poverty and mal-

nutrition and prepare detailed remedial
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and measures.
vote-on-account
U

3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-de-

4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review partmental coordination and cooperation
of programme of the Government against for effective implementation of anti-poverty
G

macroeconomic forecast and expenditure programmes.

by a Parliamentary Budget Office 4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament utilisation of the funds intended for
anti-poverty programme.
Select the correct answer using the codes
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below:
correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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16. With reference to the Delimitation Commis-
sion, consider the following statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission
cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Com-
mission are laid before the Lok Sabha or
State Legislative Assembly, they cannot
effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
19. In the areas covered under the Panchayat
(Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
what is the role/power of Gram Sabah?
1. Gram Sabah has the power to prevent
alienation of land in the scheduled area.
2. Gram Sabah has the ownership of minor
forest produce
3. Recommendation of gram Sabha is required
for granting prospecting licence or mining
lease for any mineral in the scheduled areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

S
(a) 1 only

17. Which of the following is/ are the principal (b) 1 and 2 only

IA
feature(s) of the Government of India Act, (c) 2 and 3 only
1919?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive
government of the provinces. 2011
2. Introduction of separate communal elector-
ates for Muslims
E 1. In India, if a religious sect/community is given
the status of a national minority, what special
C
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the advantages it is entitled to?
centre to the provinces
1. It can establish and administer exclusive
N
Select the correct answer using the codes
educational institutions.
given below:
(a) 1 only 2. The President of India automatically
A

(b) 2 and 3 only nominates a representative of the com-

(c) 1 and 3 only munity to Lok Sabha.
ID

(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime

Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
18. With reference to consumer’s rights/privileges Which of the statements given above is/are
under the provision of law in India which of
U

correct?
the following statements correct?
(a) 1 only
1. Consumer are empowered to take samples
G

(b) 2 and 3 only

for food testing
2. when consumer files a complaint in any (c) 1 and 3 only
consumer forum, no fee is required to be (d) 1, 2 and 3
paid.
3. In case of death of consumer, his/her legal
heir can file a complaint in the consumer 2. Under the Constitution of India, which one of
the following is not a Fundamental Duty?
forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the codes (a) To vote in public elections
given below: (b) To develop the scientific temper
(a) 1 only
(c) To safeguard public property
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) To abide by the Constitution and respect
(d) 1, 2 and 3 its ideals
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3. What is the difference between ‘vote-on- 6.
account’ and ‘interim budget’?
1. The provision of a ‘vote-on-account’ is used
by a regular Government, while an ‘interim
budget’ is a provision used by a caretaker
Government.
2. A ‘vote-on-account’ only deals with the
expenditure in Government’s budget, while
an ‘interim budget’ includes both expendi-
ture and receipts.
7.
Which of the statements given above is/are
When the annual Union Budget is not passed
by the Lok Sabha-
(a) the Budget is modified and presented again
(b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha
for suggestions
(c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to
resign
(d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation
of Council of Ministers
Consider the following:

S
correct? 1. Right to education

IA
2. Right to equal access to public service
(a) 1 only
3. Right to food
(b) 2 only
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Hu-
(c) Both 1 and 2 man Rights under ‘Universal Declaration of

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

E Human Rights’?
(a) 1 only
C
(b) 1 and 2 only
N

4. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds (c) 3 only

from the Consolidated Fund of India must (d) 1, 2 and 3
A

come from-

(a) The President of India 8. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment)

ID

Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the

(b) The Parliament of India
Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country,
(c) The Prime Minister of India provides for which of the following?
U

1. Constitution of District Planning

(d) The Union Finance Minister
Committees.
G

2. State Election Commissions to conduct all

5. All revenues received by the Union Govern- panchayat elections.
ment by way of taxes and other receipts for the 3. Establishment of State Finance Commis-
conduct of Government business are credited sions.
to the- Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a) Contingency Fund of India
(a) 1 only
(b) Public Account
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Consolidated Fund of India (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) Deposits and Advances Fund (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Indian Polity (Prelims PYQs)

(Answer)
2022
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
C A A B D B B B B B B D
13 14 15
C D A

2021
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
B B B D D B B D A A A A
13 14 15 16 17 18

S
A D C B C B

IA
2020
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
B A B A D D D A C B B D
13
D
14
B
15
D
16
D
17
D
18
A
E
C
2019
N
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
B C A A B C B A B B C C
A

13 14 15 16 17 18
A A C D D B
ID

2018
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
C C A A B C C B B B B A D
U

2017
G

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
D D A B B B A C C A B C
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
D D A D B C C D C D A

2016
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
B B D B D C C B B

2015
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
D C B B C A D D D A D C B

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PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

2014
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A B B C C B C D B

2013
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
C C D B D C B A C C B D
13 14 15 16 17 18
A B B B C D

2012
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

S
C B C A D B C A A C A B
13 14 15 16 17 18 19

IA
A C B C C C B

2011
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
C A B B C D E D C
C
N
A
ID
U
G

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PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

S
IA
E
C
N
A
ID
U
G

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PRELIMS PLATINUM NOTES GUIDANCE IAS INSTITUTE

S
IA
E
C
N
A
ID
U
G

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