Directions: Read the following selections carefully.

BEGIN HERE:

1. When quartz sandstone undergoes metamorphism, its quartz crystals grow larger and turn into a
rock called quartzite. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement that can be derived from
the given information?

A. Size of crystals may be linked with hardness of rock.

B. Size of crystals may be linked with roughness of rock.
C. Metamorphism may be linked with the size of crystals.
D. Metamorphism may be linked with the formation of a new type of rock.
2. Metamorphism happens when rock is heated by a nearby magma or when rock is buried deep below
the surface where the pieces of Earth's crust collide. Which of the following causes metamorphism?

A. high pressure and low elevation

B. low elevation and high temperature
C. high pressure and high temperature
D. high elevation and high temperature

3.The mineral garnet is formed under high temperature and high pressure. On the other hand, the
mineral gypsum is formed under low temperature and low pressure. In which type of rock would you
likely classify garnet?
A. Sandstone C. Sedimentary rock
B. Igneous rock D. Metamorphic rock

4. Which of the following dating method involves the use of radioactive isotopes to determine the age of
stratified rocks?
A. isotope dating C. absolute dating
B. relative dating D. stratified dating
5. Suppose you want to determine the age in years of a rock sample with a suspected age of greater
than I million years but less than 10 million years, which radiometric dating would be most
appropriate?

Radiometric Dating Method Half-life ears

A. Carbon-14 5,730
B. Potassium-Argon 1.3 billion
C. Uranium-Lead 4.5 billion
D. Rubidium-Strontium 48 billion

6. Suppose the layer of rock from which you obtained a sample does not contain a radioactive isotope
that may be used for radiometric dating, which is the best alternative method that you can use to
estimate the age of the rock layer?

A. Date the layer of interest by measuring its depth and multiply it to a hypothesized rate of deposition
of layers.
B. Date the layer above the layer of interest then conclude that the sample must be older than the layer
above.
C. Date the layer below the layer of interest then conclude that the sample must be younger than the
layer below.
D. Date the layer directly beneath and layer directly above the layer of interest then conclude that the
age must be within that range of age.
7. A chemical reaction was carried out in various conditions and the measurements of yield were recorded
in the table below.
Set-up Reactant X Reactant Y Yield

1 10 60 50

2 20 60 62

3 30 60 73

4 40 60 85

If you are asked to determine the conditions for increasing the yield. Which hypothesis would you
need to test?

A. Yield increases as long as reactant Y is kept constant.

B. Yield increases when you continue running several set ups.
C. Yield increases when the amount of reactant X is increased.
D. Yield increases if you make sure to start with low amount of reactant X.

8. You went on to test your hypothesis and your recorded data are shown below.
Set- Reactant X Reactant Y Yield
up
1 10 60 51

2 20 60 63

3 30 60 73

4 40 60 86

5 50 60 97

6 60 60 110

7 70 60 109

8 80 60 111

Based on the result, what hypothesis should you test this time?

A. Yield stops increasing after six trials.

B. Yield increases with both the amount of X and Y.
C. Maximum yield is obtained using around 60 g of X.
D. Maximum yield is obtained using around 60 g of Y.

9. Suppose you encounter a problem requiring you to generate a given amount of yield for a chemical
reaction, which of the following should you explore?
A. the effect of the number of trials on the amount of yield
B. the effect of the amount of reactant/s on the amount of yield
C. the maximum yield produced using a fixed amount of one reactant
D. the amount of yield produced with the available maximum amount of one reactant

10. Which of the following is a polar molecule?

A. water C. nitrogen
B. oxygen D. fatty acid
11. Listed in the box are processes that occur in nature.
Adhesion Burning Cohesion
Condensation Decomposition Digestion Evaporation
Hydrolysis Melting
Rusting

If you were to classify the given processes equally into two groups, what would be the most suitable
basis?

A. organic vs inorganic processes

B. physical vs chemical processes
C. reversible vs irreversible process
D. spontaneous vs non-spontaneous process

12. Which of the following lists the intermolecular forces according to increasing strength?

A. Dipole-dipole interaction < H-bonding < Van der Waals forces

B. H-bonding < Van der Waals forces < dipole-dipole interaction
C. Van der Waals forces < H-bonding < dipole-dipole interaction
D. Van der Waals forces < dipole-dipole interaction < H-bonding

13. Which of the following organisms possess a complete digestive system?

HYDRA JELLYFISH PLANARIA EARTHWORM ASCARIS CAT

A. l, Il, Ill C. l, Ill, V

B. IV, v, VI D. Il, IV, VI
14. Refer to the figure below.

Based on the illustration above, which is the function of protein pump in neurons?

A. It improves the rate of impulses along axon.

B. It is used to produce concentration gradients of both Na+ and K+ ions.
C. It pumps sodium ions (Na+) out of the cell and pump potassium ions (K+) into the cell.
D. It pumps sodium ions (Na+) out of the cell and pump potassium ions (K+) out of the cell.

15. In gametogenesis, how many chromosomes will a haploid cell contain after e diploid cell with
46 chromosomes has undergone meiosis?

A. 92 chromosomes C. 23 chromosomes
B. 46 chromosomes D. 12 chromosomes

16.A ray of light incident upon a mirror makes an angle of 36.00 with the mirror. What is the angle
between the incident ray and reflected ray?

A. 36.00 c. 72.00
B. 54.00 D. 90.00
17. The index of refraction (n) is å measure of how much light bends when it passes into another
medium. Which diagram best illustrates the behavior of light as it travels through two different
media?

18. Which of the following diagram best predicts the propagation of polarized light when
passing through polarizing and analyzing filters?
 19. In describing the motion of.an object moving at constant acceleration, which of the
following will provide sufficient information?
l. Position II. Velocity III. Acceleration
A. I only C. Il and III
B. land II D. l, Il and Ill
20. Suppose you were to determine the velocity at which an object moves at a specific
time, what information will be helpful to you?
A. initial speed and direction
B. initial velocity and acceleration
C. initial direction and acceleration
D. initial direction and initial velocity
Given below are information about the movement of an object.
Initial Final Initial
Direction Acceleration
Position Position Speed
5m 44 m 10 m/s North 2m/s2 , North

21. What is the velocity of the object after 3 seconds?

4 m/s, North B.10 m/s, North C. 13 m/s, North D. 16 m/s. North

Use the figure below for item no. 22.

22. What is the source of this information?

A. National Disaster Coordinating Council
B. Department of Science and Technology
C. Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology
D. Philippine Atmospheric, Geophysical and Astronomical Services Administration

23. Which statement supports the credibility of the source?

A. The source is a government agency tasked with disaster risk management.
B. The source is a government agency tasked with monitoring of volcanic and seismic
activity.
C. The source is a government agency tasked with monitoring of the weather to promote
people's safety.
D. The source is a government agency tasked with improving the state of science and
technology in the country.
24. Which of the following lists characterize a source that determines its credibility?
A. capability, function, reliability
B. usefulness, timeliness, accuracy
C. intention, head of the agency, number of employees
D. acceptability of information, popular patronage, wide dissemination
Study the picture below, then answer items 25 and 26.

Ea rth

25. What makes the earth habitable based on the picture?

A. It has the right diameter needed to sustain life.

B, It has the right temperature needed to sustain life.
C. It has the right amount of water needed to sustain life.
D. It has the right amount of oxygen needed to sustain life.

26. If earth will be at the position of mercury, which of the choices below will probably occur?

A. The temperature of earth might increase.

B. The diameter of the earth might decrease.
C. The amount of oxygen supply might decrease.
D. The water envelop of the earth might increase.

27. Earth belongs to a spiral type galaxy known as the Milky Way. Suppose earth has the same
distance from the sun but belongs to an elliptical galaxy, would life still be possible?

A. Yes, because elliptical galaxies have heavy elements which will make the earth life
supporting.
B. Yes, because elliptical galaxies have active nuclei with radiation that will support life on
earth.
C. No, because elliptical galaxies have dust and gases which will exterminate life on earth.
D. No, because elliptical galaxies do not have heavy elements that are essential to support
life.

28. Lew Carl holds a 200 g physics book on an outstretched hand as shown in the figure. Which
pair of forces makes up the interaction pair?

A. force of earth on the book, force of earth on the hand

B. force of the hand on the book, force of earth on the book
C. force of the book on earth, force of the book on the hand
D. force of the hand on the book, force of the book on the hand
 29. A block of ice is given an initial push toward the container truck. After the initial push is
removed and net force is suddenly reduced to zero, the block of ice
A. stops abruptly C. stops during a short time interval
B. changes direction D. continues to move at constant velocity

For Item 30, refer to the figure below.

F1 = 5N F2 =12N
500g

30. What event will produce the LEAST acceleration of the object?

A. doubling Fl C. reducing Fl by half

B. doubling F2 D. reducing the mass of the object by half

31. The illustration below shows the basic outline of the process of photosynthesis. What
will be its products?

light
CO2 + water carbohydrate + oxygen

A. glucose and starch C. glucose and water

B. glucose and oxygen D. glucose and carbon dioxide

32. Study the graph below. Which of the following best describes the relationship between
light intensity and photosynthesis?

Rate of
Photosynthesis

Light intensity

A. As light intensity decreases, rate of photosynthesis increases.

B. As light intensity increases, rate of photosynthesis increases.
C. As light intensity decreases. rate of photosynthesis decreases.
D. As light intensity increases, rate of photosynthesis decreases.
 For item 33, study the illustration below.

33. Based from the illustration above, identify the two products of light reaction that are
needed in order for Calvin cycle to take place.

A. 02 and C02
B. 02 and Glucose
C. ADP and NADP+
D. ATP and NADPH

For Item 34, study the situation below.

The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency and inversely proportional
to its wavelength. The figure below shows the different colors of visible light (types of photons)
with their corresponding frequencies and wavelengths.
Frequency in Terahertz Wavelength in nanometers
Color of Light
Red 435— 495 685 - 605
Orange 495 _ 515 605 - 585
Yellow 515-535 585 - 560
Green 535 - 630 560 - 475
Blue 630 - 660 475 — 455
Indigo 660 - 680 455 — 440
Violet 680 - 740 440 — 405

34. Based on the given table, which statements below may be the reasons why red light is used
as a safe light in dark room for photographic or x-ray films?

l. Red light has the longest wavelength, hence it possesses the lowest energy to affect
photographic or x-ray films.
II. Red light has the shortest wavelength, hence it possesses the highest energy to affect
photographic or x-ray films.
Ill. Red light has the lowest frequency, hence it possesses the lowest energy to affect
photographic Or x-ray films.
IV. Red light has the highest frequency, hence it possesses the highest energy to
affect photographic or x-ray films.

A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. III and IV

35. Which of the following factors affect the energy possessed by light?

I. Frequency II. Wavelength III. Color of light

A. I and II B. I and III C, Il and III D. l, II and III

36. Ultraviolet rays have higher frequency than any of the visible colors of light. Which may be the
reason why we easily get sunburned under UV light but not under visible light?

A. Since UV rays have higher frequency, they possess more energy to cause burning of skin
than visible light.
B. Since UV rays have higher frequency, they possess less energy to cause burning of skin
than visible light.
C. Since UV rays have higher energy, they possess short wavelength to cause burning of skin
than visible light.
D. Since UV rays have higher energy, they possess long wavelength to cause burning of skin
than visible light.

37. Density- dependent factors usually occur only when a population is large. Which of the following
factors are considered to be density dependent?
I. Parasitism
II. Crowding & Stress
III. Frost
IV. Storms

A. I and II B. III and IV C. I and III D. II and IV

38. Why are lice, ticks, and helminths considered to be density- dependent limiting factors?

A. They benefit from the host.

B. They kill other organisms to obtain food.
C. They benefit other organism without being harmed.
D. They compete with other organisms to capture food.

39. Which of the following best explains the

graph below?

carrying capacity

Time
A. Population with zero growth has reached a steady state.
B. Most population undergoes growth as shown in growth curve.
C. A population achieved steady state when it reached the carrying capacity of the
environment.
D. If a population reaches the carrying capacity of its environment, certain factors keep the
population from growing further.
40. A process by which materials break down into their component elements through the
action of chemical agent is called chemical weathering. In which type of chemical
weathering does the formation of rust on iron caused by prolonged contact with water
occur?
A. Dissolution
B. Electrolysis
C. Hydrolysis
D. Oxidation

For Item 41, study the situation below.

l. Water flowing in a stream into a rock and eventually create a hole in the rock.
II. Roots of plants growing into cracks may put pressure on the surrounding rocks eventually
breaking rocks apart as the roots grow.
III. Glacier movement can cause pressure release as it moves away from a surface of rock.
IV. Ice crystals can grow in cracks of rocks overtime which weakens the rocks causing them
to break apart.

41. What type of weathering occurs in all the situations?

A. Chemical weathering C. Hydrolysis
B. Physical weathering D. Oxidation

42. In weathering of rocks, what will happen when pollutants like carbon dioxide, nitrogen and
sulfuric oxides mix with rain water creating acid rain which can dissolve limestone and other
rock forms?

I. Carbonation process will act on rocks.

II. Oxidation process will occur when oxygen combines with minerals and oxides.
III. Carbon dioxide will dissolve in water and form carbonic acid.
IV. There will be a dissociation of 1-120 into H+ and OH —ions which chemically
combine with minerals and bring about changes such as decomposition of
crystalline structure and formation of new compounds.

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and IV only D. II and III only

Refer to the following figure for questions 43 to 45.

43. What particles are found in the innermost part of an atom?

A. Neutron and Electron

B. Neuron and Nucleus
C. Proton and Nucleus
D. Proton and Neutron
44. Which table of information describes the given figure?

45. You were given a chance to illustrate what you learned about atomic model. The following topics
were proposed by your classmates:
l. Medicine
II. Electricity
Ill. Green Energy
IV. Agriculture

Which of the proposed topics best illustrates the application of Atomic Model?
A. l & III B. I & II C. Il & Ill D. II & IV

46. Among the statements below about absolute age of rocks, which is TRUE?

A. Absolute age refers to the position of rock layers.

B. Absolute age of rocks is determined by radioactive method such as carbon 14dating.
C. Absolute age means age in comparison with other rocks, either younger or older.
D. Absolute age states that, deeper layer must be older than layers closer to the surface.
 For Item 47, study the situation below.
The table below shows the different information about absolute and relative dating.
I. Relative dating uses qualitative methods of dating.
II. Absolute dating determines the age remains using Radiometric methods.
III. Radiocarbon dating and potassium argon dating are examples of Relative dating.
IV. Absolute dating is used to arrange geological events and the rocks they leave behind
in a sequence.
47. Which statement/s above is/are NOT TRUE about absolute and relative dating?

A. I only B. II and IV only C. I and II only D. III and IV only

48. Dating is a technique used in archeology to ascertain the age of fossils, artifacts and other
items considered to be valuable by archeologist. Absolute and relative dating are the main
categories of classification methods of dating technique. Which of the following clearly explain
the difference between relative dating and absolute dating?

A. Relative dating uses quantitative methods while absolute dating uses qualitative methods.
B. Relative dating techniques do not tell the exact age, it can only compare items as younger or
older while absolute dating can tell the exact age of an artifact by employing various
techniques.
C. Relative dating employs radio-carbon dating method while absolute dating employs trapped
electron method.
D. Relative dating is based upon physical and chemical properties of artifacts while absolute
dating is based upon the study of layer formation of rocks.

49. Among the different organ systems, the final control of homeostasis is

A. Digestive System C. Endocrine System

B. Respiratory System D. Nervous System

50. How is digestive system associated with circulatory system?

A. The esophagus is a pathway for both food and air.

B. B. The pharynx is a passageway for both food and air.
C. Blood carries nutrients to the body cells from small intestines.
D. Blood carries nutrients to the body cells from large intestines.

51. Explain why homeostasis plays a vital role especially in endothermic animals.

A. It regulates body temperature.

B. It acts at all five levels of biological organization.
C. It regulates blood glucose with insulin and glucagon.
D. It maintains the balance between acidity and alkalinity.
For items 52 to 54, refer to the figure below.

D C>thock Ray Tube

for deter-miring q/m ratio of the electron

52. What evidence was stated by J.J. Thompson on the occurrence of negatively charged particles
based on the above illustration?
A. Positively charged particles repel negatively charged particles.
B. Positively charged particles attract positively charged particles.
C. Positively charged particles reflect negatively charged particles.
D. Positively charged particles attract negatively charged particles.

53. Suppose Cathode Rays were negatively charged particles, which statement will satisfy this
condition?
A. It will bend toward negative plate because like charges repel.
B. It will bend toward positive plate because opposite charges attract.
C. It will bend toward the positive plate because opposite charges repel.
D. It will bend toward the negative plate because opposite charges attract.

54. In which technology below can the discoyery of J.J. Thompson be best applied
A. Treatment of Tumors C. Aerodynamic Plane
B. Magnetic Train D. Nuclear Submarine

55. Which of the following are the bases for Geologic Time Scale of the Earth?
I. varying temperatures fossil evidence in Earth's rocks
II. the age of rocks
III. land masses and
IV. bodies of water

A. II and III only C. I and III only

B. III and IV only D. III and IV only
 56. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the cenozoic era starting from the oldest?

A Paleocene C. Eocene

Eocene Miocene

Oligocene Paleocene

Miocene Pleistocene

Pliocene Oligocene

Pleistocene Pliocene

Holocene Holocene

B. Miocene D. Holocene

Paleocene Pleistocene

Eocene Pliocene

Oli ocene Miocene

Pliocene Oligocene

Holocene Eocene

Pleistocene Paleocene
57. Based on the information below, what is the chronological sequence of the major events in
geological history?

I. Spread of reptiles and insects: first mammal-like reptiles

arise
II. First dinosaurs and first egg laying mammals arise
III.Archaic mammals and birds, begin to replace dinosaurs;
first flowering plants exist.
IV. Recent ice ages, various human species exist
V. First clear evidence of life (one-celled bacteria)

A. I, II, III, IV, IV C. V, I, II, III, IV

B. V, III, II, I, IV D. II, V, III, I, IV

Study the table showing the different regions of the electromagnetic spectrum of light. Use this table
for items 58 — 60.

58. Based on the given table, which of the following statements are TRUE?

I. The greater the frequency of the region, the smaller its wavelength.
II. The energy of the EM radiation is directly proportional to the region's frequency.
III. The energy of the EM radiation is inversely proportional to the region's
wavelength.

A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, III, III

59. Which of the following affects the energy possessed by each region?
l. Frequency
ll. Wavelength
Ill. Speed of the EM particle
A. I and Il B. I and Ill C. Il and Ill D. l, Il and Ill

60. Based on the information from the table, which statement determines the energy of the EM particle?
A. The energy of the EM radiation is directly proportional to frequency.
B. The energy of the EM radiation is inversely proportional to frequency.
C. The energy of the EM radiation is directly proportional to both frequency and wavelength.
D. The energy of the EM radiation is directly proportional to the wavelength but inversely
proportional to the frequency.

*** END OF SCIENCE **