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Shreejit Classes

CLASS 09 - SOCIAL SCIENCE


Std 9th Study Material search and join Telegram channel
Time Allowed: 2 hours Maximum Marks: 60

General Instructions:
All Questions are compulsory

Question No. 1 to 6 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the
questions:
Robespierre followed a policy of severe control and punishment. All those whom he saw as being
enemies of the republic – ex-nobles and clergy, members of other political parties, even members
of his own party who did not agree with his methods – were arrested, imprisoned and then tried
by a revolutionary tribunal. If the court found them ‘guilty’ they were guillotined. Robespierre’s
government issued laws placing a maximum ceiling on wages and prices. Meat and bread were
rationed. Peasants were forced to transport their grain to the cities and sell it at prices fixed by the
[6]
government. The use of more expensive white flour was forbidden; all citizens were required to
eat the pain d’égalité (equality bread), a loaf made of wholewheat. Equality was also sought to be
practiced through forms of speech and address. Instead of the traditional Monsieur (Sir) and
Madame (Madam) all French men and women were henceforth Citoyen and Citoyenne (Citizen).
Churches were shut down and their buildings converted into barracks or offices. Robespierre
pursued his policies so relentlessly that even his supporters began to demand moderation. Finally,
he was convicted by a court in July 1794, arrested and on the next day sent to the guillotine.

1. A period from ________ became so infamous that it began to be referred to as the ________.

a) 1796 to 1796, Reign of Guillotine b) 1795 to 1795, Despotic power of


Robespierre

c) 1794 to 1798, Rule of Aparthied d) 1793 to 1794, Reign of Terror


2. Which of the following is not the measures taken by Robespierre to bring equality in French
society?

a) Use of Sir and Madam for men and b) Churches were shut down and their
women citizen started instead of buildings were converted into offices
Citoyen and Citoyenne. and barracks.

c) Foods, such as meat and bread were d) Citizens were required to eat
rationed. equality bread, white flour was
forbidden.
3. Against whom the Robespierre followed the policy of severe control and punishment?

a) political parties members b) ex-clergy

c) ex-nobels d) all of these

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4. Study the picture the identify the incorrect option:

a) This is Guillotine, a device, named b) All are correct


after inventor Dr. Guillotin

c) It was a device consisting of one pole d) This device was used to behead a
and two blades guilty person
5. Two products that were rationed under Robespierre’s government:

a) Meat and Tobacco b) Meat and Bread

c) Tobacco and Salt d) Salt and Bread


6. ________ was laid on wages and prices. Peasants were forced to sell their grain at a ________ price.

a) Minimum ceiling, subsidized b) Minimum ceiling, fixed

c) Maximum ceiling, fixed d) Maximum ceiling, subsidized

Question No. 7 to 12 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the
questions:
The Indian landmass has a central location between East and West Asia. India is a southward
extension of the Asian continent. The trans-Indian Ocean routes, which connect the countries of
Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia, provide a strategic central location to India. The
Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean, thus helping India to establish close contact
with West Asia, Africa, and Europe from the western coast and with Southeast and East Asia from
the eastern coast. No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India has and
[6]
indeed, it is India’s eminent position in the Indian Ocean, which justifies the naming of an Ocean
after it. Since the opening of the Suez Canal in 1869, India’s distance from Europe has been
reduced by 7000 km. India’s contacts with the World have continued through ages but her
relationships through the land routes are much older than her maritime contacts. The various
passes across the mountains in the north have provided passages to the ancient travellers, while
the oceans restricted such interaction for a long time. These routes have contributed to the
exchange of ideas and commodities since ancient times.

7. What significance did the opening of the Suez Canal have for India?

a) Distance between India and Europe b) Distance between India and Europe
remained the same has widened

c) Distance between India and Europe d) None of these


has shrunk
8. India is centrally located between the ________ and the _________.

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a) West Asia, East Asia b) Southeast Asia, East Asia

c) Central Asia, North Asia d) East Asia, West Asia


9. Complete the sentence:
The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered of great significance
because ________.

a) India could establish close contact b) All of the above


with West Asia, Africa, and Europe
from the western coast.

c) India is strategically located at the d) India could establish close contact


centre of the trans-Indian Ocean with Southeast and East Asia from
routes. the eastern coast.
10. What is indicated in the given picture?

a) India and route of Suez canal b) India on national Highway of Trade


and Commerce

c) India, its land routes and mountain d) India on International Highway of


passes Trade and Commerce
11. The aquatic communication of India is much _______ interaction compared to land contact.

a) recent b) ancient

c) comfortable d) profitable
12. The passage to the ancient travellers was provided by ________ through India's ________ .

a) tickets, rail routes b) passes, sea routes

c) passes, land routes d) passes, air routes

Question No. 13 to 18 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the [6]
questions:
The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the Deccan
Plateau respectively. The Western Ghats lie parallel to the western coast. They are continuous and
can be crossed through passes only. The Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Ghats. Their
average elevation is 900–1600 metres as against 600 metres of the Eastern Ghats. The Eastern
Ghats stretch from the Mahanadi Valley to the Nigiris in the south. The Eastern Ghats are
discontinuous and irregular and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal. The Western
Ghats cause orographic rain by facing the rain-bearing moist winds to rise along the western
slopes of the Ghats. The Western Ghats are known by different local names. The height of the

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Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south. The highest peaks include the Anai
Mudi and the Doda Betta. Mahendragiri is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. Shevroy Hills and
the Javadi Hills are located to the southeast of the Eastern Ghats. The famous hill stations of
Udagamandalam, popularly known as Ooty and the Kodaikanal are located here. One of the
distinct features of the Peninsular plateau is the black soil area known as Deccan Trap. This is of
volcanic origin, hence, the rocks are igneous. Actually, these rocks have denuded over time and are
responsible for the formation of black soil. The Aravali Hills lie on the western and northwestern
margins of the Peninsular plateau. These are highly eroded hills and are found as broken hills.
They extend from Gujarat to Delhi in a southwest-northeast direction.

13. Alluvial deposits: Great Northern Plains; Lava Deposits: (?)

a) Deccan Plateau b) Malwa Plateau

c) Central Highlands d) Coastal Plains


14. Choose the odd one out from the following with respect to their flowing directions.

a) Godavari b) Narmada

c) Krishna d) Kaveri
15. Match the following peaks with their height:

Column I Column II

A. Anai Mudi 1. 2,695 metres

B. Doda Betta 2. 2,637 metres

C. Mahendragiri 3. 1,501 metres

a) A-1 , B-2, C-3 b) A-2 , B-3, C-1

c) A-2 , B-1, C-3 d) A-3 , B-2, C-1


16. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) The Western Ghats cause b) The average elevation of Western


oceanographic rains as they face the Ghats is 900-1600 metres.
rain-laden winds from west.

c) The Western Ghats are higher than d) The Eastern Ghats stretch from
the Eastern Ghats. Nilgiris to the Mahanadi Valley in
the south.
17. The Western Ghats cause orographic rain. What is orographic rain?

a) leeward rainfall b) relief rainfall

c) rain-bearing winds d) windward rainfall


18. Choose the odd one out:

a) Kodaikanal is at a lower altitude b) Kodaikanal is in the Eastern Ghats.


than Ooty.

c) Kodaikanal is a famous hill station. d) Kodaikanal is also known as

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Udagamandalam.

Question No. 19 to 24 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the
questions:
Farming is the main production activity in Palampur. 75 percent of the people who are working
are dependent on farming for their livelihood. They could be farmers or farm labourers. The well-
being of these people is closely related to production on the farms. But remember that there is a
basic constraint in raising farm production.
The land area under cultivation is practically fixed. Since 1960 in Palampur, there has been no
expansion in land area under cultivation. By then, some of the wastelands in the village had been
[6]
converted to cultivable land. There exists no further scope to increase farm production by
bringing new land under cultivation. larger areas of land more effectively. The first few tubewells
were installed by the government. Soon, however, farmers started setting up private tubewells. As
a result, by the mid-1970s the entire cultivated area of 200 hectares (ha.) was irrigated. The
standard unit of measuring land is hectare, though in the villages you may find land area being
discussed in local units such as bigha, guintha etc. One hectare equals the area of a square with
one side measuring 100 meters.

19. What is the highest constraining factor/bottleneck in terms of agricultural produce?

a) Physical capital b) Land

c) Labour d) Human capital


20. Which of the following statements is not true:

a) Private sector investment in form of b) Public sector investment in form of


fertilizer subsidies led to an tubewells led to a boom in
agricultural boom in Palampur. agricultural produce in Palampur.

c) Land area under cultivation has d) Conversion of wastelands into


been under a constraint in Palampur cultivable land had been completed
since 1960. by 1960 in Palampur.
21. ________ is the backbone of economy in Palampur.

a) Pottery b) Fishing

c) Mining d) Farming
22. In which economic sector are most of the people of Palampur engaged?

a) Secondary sector b) Both secondary sector and tertiary


sector

c) Tertiary sector d) Primary sector


23. There exists no further scope to increase farm production by bringing new land under cultivation
in Palampur -- Which of the following was done before 1960 to increase production?

a) multiple cropping was practised b) tubewells were installed by the


government

c) cropping pattern was changed by the d) wastelands were converted to

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large farmers cultivable lands
24. The main reason for irrigation of the entire cultivated area of Palampur was ________

a) construction of canals of irrigation b) installation of private tubewells by


the farmers

c) setting up of water harvesting units d) installation of tubewells by the


government

Question No. 25 to 30 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the
questions:
The health of a person helps him to realise his/her potential and the ability to fight illness. He/She
will not be able to maximise his/her output to the overall growth of the organisation. Indeed;
health is an indispensable basis for realising one’s well-being. Henceforth, improvement in the
health status of the population has been the priority of the country. Our national policy, too, aims
at improving the accessibility of healthcare, family welfare and nutritional service with a special
focus on the underprivileged segment of the population. Over the last five decades, India has built
a vast health infrastructure and has also developed the manpower required at primary, secondary
and tertiary sector in government, as well as, in the private sector. These measures, which have
been adopted, have increased the life expectancy to over 68.3 years in 2014. Infant mortality rate [6]
(IMR) has come down from 147 in 1951 to 34 in 2016. Crude birth rates have dropped to 20.4 and
death rates to 6.4 within the same duration of time. Increase in life expectancy and improvement
in childcare are useful in assessing the future progress of the country. Increase in longevity of life
is an indicator of good quality of life marked by self-confidence. Reduction in infant mortality
involves the protection of children from infection, ensuring the nutrition of both the mother and
the child, and childcare. There are many places in India which do not have even these basic
facilities. There are only 381 medical colleges in the country and 301 dental colleges. Just four
states, like Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharastra and Tamil Nadu have the maximum number
of colleges.

25. A/An ________ person can fully realize his potential and can be an ________ for the economy.

a) healthy, asset b) none of these

c) illiterate, burden d) unhealthy, liability


26. Infant mortality rate (IMR) has come down from 147 in 1951 to 34 in 2016. What do you mean
by IMR?

a) Number of years a person is b) Number of deaths under one year of


expected to live. age occurring among the live births.

c) Number of people per 1,000 who die d) Number of babies born for every
during a particular period of time. 1,000 people during a particular
period of time.
27. Which of the following is correct regarding national health policy?

a) Both (a) and (b) b) Aimed towards improving access to


health services and nutrition among

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the privileged classes.

c) Aimed towards improving access to d) Aimed towards improving access to


nutrition among the underprivileged health services among the
classes. underprivileged classes.
28. What does a decrease in the Infant Mortality Rate of a country signifies?

a) Increase in GNP b) Increase in number of colleges in a


country

c) Economic development of a country d) Increase in life expectancy


29. Factors that are used for assessing the future progress of a country:

a) Reduction in infant mortality b) Increase in life expectancy

c) Improvement in childcare d) Increase in life expectancy and


improvement in childcare
30. Choose the incorrect option in context of steps involved reduction in infant mortality:

a) Increase in life expectancy b) Ensuring the nutrition for both


mother and children

c) Improvement is Childcare d) Protection of children from infection

Question No. 31 to 36 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the [6]
questions:
The most common form that democracy takes in our times is that of representative democracy. In
the countries we call democracy, all the people do not rule. A majority is allowed to take decisions
on behalf of all the people. Even the majority does not rule directly. The majority of people rule
through their elected representatives. This becomes necessary because:
a. Modern democracies involve such a large number of people that it is physically impossible for
them to sit together and take a collective decision.
b. Even if they could, the citizen does not have the time, the desire or the skills to take part in all
the decisions.
A democratic decision involves consultation with and consent of all those who are affected by that
decision. Those who are not powerful have the same say in taking the decision as those who are
powerful. This can apply to a government or a family or any other organisation. Thus democracy
is also a principle that can be applied to any sphere of life. It enables us to judge an existing
democracy and identify its weaknesses. It helps us to distinguish between a minimal democracy
and a good democracy. The most common form of democracy in today’s world is ruled through
people’s elected representatives. But if the community is small, there can be other ways of making
democratic decisions. All people can sit together and take decisions directly. This is how Gram
Sabha should work in a village. No country is a perfect democracy. Every democracy has to try to
realise the ideals of democratic decision-making. This cannot be achieved once and for all. This
requires a constant effort to save and strengthen democratic forms of decision-making. What we
do as citizens can make a difference to making our country more or less democratic. This is the
strength and the weakness of democracy: the fate of the country depends not just on what the
rulers do, but mainly on what we, as citizens, do. This is what distinguished democracy from other

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governments. Other forms of government like monarchy, dictatorship or one-party rule do not
require all citizens to take part in politics. In fact most non-democratic governments would like
citizens not to take part in politics. But democracy depends on active political participation by all
the citizens. That is why a study of democracy must focus on democratic politics.

31. Which of these is an example of perfect democracy?

a) UK b) None of these

c) India d) USA
32. Assertion (A): Representative democracy considered the most common form of democracy.
Reason (R): A large number of people in democracies can’t sit together and take decisions
collectively.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


33. In the Indian political system, ________ is an example of direct democracy.

a) Zila Parishad b) Gram Sabha

c) Vidhan Sabha d) Panchayat Samiti


34. Which of these is not a feature of monarchy, dictatorship, or one-party rule?

a) Censorship of press b) Citizens taking part in politics

c) No opposition party or parties d) One-man rule


35. Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks:
The fate of the country depends not just on what the ________ do, but mainly on what the ________
do.

a) leaders, people b) rulers, citizens

c) people, leaders d) citizens, rulers


36. A study of democracy must focus on democratic politics because ...

a) Political consultation with and b) Modern democracies involve a large


consent is required in democratic number of people in decision-
decision-making making.

c) Democracy depends on active d) Every democracy has to try to realise


political participation by the citizens. the politics of democratic decision-
making.

Question No. 37 to 42 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the [6]
questions:
Values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle and were in turn nurtured by it, formed the
foundation for India’s democracy. These values are embedded in the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution. They guide all the 28 articles of the Indian Constitution. The Constitution begins with
a short statement of its basic values. This is called the Preamble to the constitution. Taking

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inspiration from American model, most countries in the contemporary world have chosen to begin
their constitutions with a preamble. The Preamble of the Constitution reads like a poem on
democracy. It contains the philosophy on which the entire Constitution has been built. It provides
a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of government, to find out whether it is
good or bad. It is the soul of the Indian Constitution.

PREAMBLE
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN
SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and
worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY
assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR
CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT,
ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION

37. Here are some of the guiding values of the Constitution and its meaning. Match them correctly:

Column I Column II

A. Sovereign 1. The government will not favour any religion

B. Republic 2. People have the supreme right to make decisions

C. Fraternity 3. Head of the state is an elected person

D. Secular 4. People should live like brothers and sisters

a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

c) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 d) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1


38. In which amendment of the Indian Constitution the terms Socialist and Secular were added in
Preamble?

a) 43rd b) 41st

c) 45th d) 42nd
39. As per ________ term, social inequalities have to be reduced.

a) Justice b) Socialist

c) Liberty d) Democratic
40. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
i. No external power can dictate the government of India.
ii. Citizens cannot be discriminated on the grounds of caste, religion and gender.
iii. A form of government where people enjoy equal political rights, elect their rulers and hold
them accountable.
iv. The constitution has been drawn up and enacted by the Government of India.

a) Option (iii) b) Option (i)

c) Option (iv) d) Option (iii)

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41. Choose the correct statement in the context of liberty:

a) There will be no unreasonable b) Citizens can not express their


restrictions on the citizens thoughts and do what they wish to

c) The state can impose any restriction d) The state will plan the actions of the
on the citizens citizens
42. Country A has a constitution and a prime minister. The official head of the state is the king. Under
which of the following category this country fall:

a) Republic Monarchy b) Constitutional Monarchy

c) Monarchy Republic d) Constitutional Republic


43. Assertion (A): Bastille was hated by all and the revolutionaries attacked the Bastille prison. [1]
Reason (R): It was seen as a symbol of the despotic power of the king.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


44. Assertion (A): The Bastille was hated by all and demolished. [1]
Reason (R): It was a fortress prison where people hoped to find hoarded ammunition.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


45. Assertion (A): The National Assembly was indirectly elected by the highest taxpayers. [1]
Reason (R): It was elected by a group of electors who were chosen by the passive citizens.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


46. Assertion (A): The subsistence crisis occurred frequently during the Old Regime. [1]
Reason (R): In Old Regime, the monarch did not have the power to impose taxes.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


47. Assertion (A): In June, the tax-paying citizens of France assembled in the hall of an indoor [1]
tennis court.
Reason (R): They vowed to limit the powers of the monarch.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


48. Assertion (A): Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Suez Canal. [1]
Reason (R): A narrow channel of sea formed by the Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar.

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a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


49. Assertion (A): The land boundary of India does not include Andaman and Nicobar and [1]
Lakshadweep.
Reason (R): They are the island continents located at the oceanic belt of the Indian
subcontinent.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


50. Assertion (A): Peninsular India helps in establishing close contact with coastal Africa, Asia, [1]
and Europe.
Reason (R): The Suez Canal has reinforced the connection further between India and these
continents.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


51. Assertion (A): The Northern plains can be divided into four regions: bhabar, terai, bhangar, [1]
and khadar.
Reason (R): The northern plains are generally flat land with no variations in its relief
features.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


52. Assertion (A): All the streams disappear in this bhabar belt. [1]
Reason (R): This area lies parallel to the slopes of Shiwaliks and has pebble deposits.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


53. Assertion (A): Hilly region has a rugged terrain in contrast with the plains. [1]
Reason (R): This area has mountains and valleys which make its terrain rugged.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


54. Assertion (A): Small farmers have to arrange capital by borrowing. [1]
Reason (R): They have to buy seeds and water for irrigation and also to pay back the loan
with a high rate of interest.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the

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correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


55. Assertion (A): Every production is organised by combining land, labour, physical capital, and [1]
human capital.
Reason (R): The aim of production is to produce the goods and services we want.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


56. Assertion (A): Land and capital are scarce factors of production. [1]
Reason (R): Land and capital are practically fixed and their quantities cannot be increased.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


57. Assertion (A): Countries having no natural resources can also become rich and developed. [1]
Reason (R): It can be done by importing the natural resource needed in their country.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


58. Assertion (A): Fiji refutes the one-vote-one-value principle of democracy. [1]
Reason (R): In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and one vote of value.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


59. Assertion (A): President in Pakistan has the power to dismiss the national and provincial [1]
assemblies.
Reason (R): This was done by ‘Legal Framework Order’ which amended the Constitution of
Pakistan.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


60. Assertion (A): One of the finest constitutions the world has ever had came up after two years [1]
of discussions.
Reason (R): The members of the Constituent Assembly deliberated for 114 days spread over
three years.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

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