VSAT
1. In a star topology of the SE II, which statement is true for
communicating from VSAT to another VSAT?
a. It uses two MODCOD schemes
b. There are two hops from VSAT to hub
c. OB and IB will be present
d. DVB-RCS is used during transmission and
reception
2. For the OB, which component does the backbone
decoding to IP?
a. DPS
b. DRPP
c. IPM
d. RSP
3. What is ACM?
a. A robust MODCOD is used as a standard.
b. The hub changes its MODCOD depending on
VSAT’s reception.
c. A coding scheme that changes due to weather
conditions.
d. The VSAT changes its MODCOD due to Es/No
level
4. Which statement is true about the RSP?
a. Forwards TRF to the demodulator
b. Transmits the ATM cells to the BUC
c. FEC coding is done
d. Groups ATM cells to baseband frames
5. Which statement is false?
a. The BUC is used for reception
b. The antenna set-up should have minimal cross
pol
c. The LNB is part of the ODU.
d. The IDU is located inside a shelter.
6. VSAT has to transmit at a specific time at a specific
channel. Which statement is false?
a. To avoid collision on the inbound data
b. Bandwidth and time sharing with other VSAT
c. The hub can keep track of who's VSAT data it is
now receiving.
d. To Improve reception on the VSAT
7. For the GEO 2 at the ATMC, what is the most efficient
MODCOD used in the OB?
a. QPSK 3/4
b. 16APSK 5/6
c. QPSK 2/3
d. 8PSK 2/3
8. At the outbound data flow, what component converts
signal to L-band frequency?
a. RFT
b. BUC
c. LNB
d. MCR
9. In the IB, what will happen?
a. The modulation of backbone frames
b. The backbone is converted into MPEG frames
c. Constructs the baseband from IP
d. Performs the 8PSK or QPSK modulation (SA
ATSEP 7PSK pero typo lang)
10. In the IB, the RFT is used to?
a. Acquires all the L, C,Ku and Ka bands from the
satellite
b. Up converts the L-Band to a satellite frequency
c. Passes data to the MCR
d. Amplifies the ATM cells
11. At the outbound, the IPM does?
a. MPEG 2 of the same MODCOD is arranged into
backbone frames
b. Calculates the outbound data rate
c. encapsulate the ATM cells
d. Receives traffic from the RFT
12. Which hub component is used during the inbound and
outbound data flow?
a. DRPP
b. MCR
c. IPM
d. RFT
13. About the inbound, which component is used as an
interface to the outside world?
a. DRPP
b. RSP
c. BUC
d. NIC
14. In the SE II, which statement is true about the LNB?
a. A device used in the OB transmission
b. A component located at the dish for reception
and transmission
c. Used to forward signals to the satellite
d. It has DVB S2 transmission signal present
15. The SE II system has three parts, which is not supplied by
GILAT?
a. VSAT
b. Hub
c. Transponder
d. Antenna
16. Which statement is true about DRPP on the OB?
a. Receives IP packets from NIC
b. Checks the traffic and converts it to backbone
c. Converts backbone to IP
d. ATM cells is created
17. For the GEO 2 at the ATMC which statement is true?
a. There are three carrier types with dynamic
channel
b. There is one channel for robust transmission
c. The outbound has multiple frequency
d. The inbound has a fixed channel frequency
18. In the IB, which statement is true?
a. The hub receives data on DVB-S2 standard
b. The VSAT transmits to the satellite via the RFT
c. The VSAT receives the time and frequency plan
and will transmit on the slot allocated
d. A downlink data will be present
19. In the Hub during IB data flow, which statement is false?
a. Es/No from VSAT is reported
b. MCR receives modulated signals from RFT
c. HSP receives data from MCR
d. DPS converts IP packets to backbone
20. On the IB, which statement is true at the hub?
a. An L-band signal is received by the MCR 30. The DPS function is to?
b. The RFT transmits data to the satellite a. Marks OB traffic with appropriate MODCOD’s
c. HSP forwards mpeg frames to IPM b. Adds required FEC information in the option
d. DPS receives ATM cells from HSP field in the IP header
c. Talks to HSP for available VSAT capacity
21. Which is a more efficient MODCOD? d. Gives information to the modulator
a. QPSK 8/9
b. 8PSK 3/4 31. On the IB data flow, which hub component will you find
c. 16APSK 2/3 backbone packet data?
d. 8PSK 3/5 a. QoS
b. HSP
22. In the SE II, which statement is false? c. MCR
a. The inbound uses DVB-RCS as its standard d. DPS
b. The inbound uses MF-TDMA to be received at
the hub 32. In the DVB-S2 transport stream which is used to minimize
c. Modulation is limited to QPSK jitter?
d. The maintenance burst contains Es/No data a. Normal Frames
b. Baseband Frames
23. On the IB data flow, which hub component will you find c. MPEG frames
IP packet data? d. Short Frames
a. QoS
b. HSP 33. The VSAT’s measured receive Es/No level is reported by
c. MCR the VSAT via what?
d. DPS a. The HSP
b. The DVB-RCS data stream
24. Which statement is false about the hub? c. SYNC slot
a. The Hub has inbound data from the VSAT d. CSC
b. Manage and control the network elements
c. Has 2 modulation schemes, namely ACM and 34. Given the following MODCOD below, which will be
CCM utilized by the Logon burst?
d. Accommodate a maximum of 30000 VSAT’s a. QPSK2/3
b. 8PSK3/4
25. The component that creates the NCR signal. c. QPSK1/2
a. IPM d. 8PSK2/3
b. DPS
c. HSP 35. Collision may occur during what?
d. Satellite a. During a VSAT that has just turned-on
b. After reception of DVB-RCS
26. In the IBSS, which statement is true? c. During transmission of the outbound signal
a. Decodes traffic from the VSAT’s. d. After the LNB transmission
b. Modulates and multiplexes traffic towards the
remote terminal. 36. Given the following MODCOD’s below, which will be
c. Provides means to distribute traffic to the utilized by the SYNC or maintenance log?
internet a. QPSK2/3
d. The hub takes data from the VSAT’s and b. 8PSK3/4
retransmits it to the intended VSAT for VSAT to c. QPSK3/4
VSAT communication.
d. 8PSK2/3
27. In the hub, how many NMS will you see?
37. VSAT Sync is present when?
a. 3
a. Theres a change in Es/No level
b. 4
b. Every one second as allocated
c. 2
c. Transfer VSAT capability
d. 1
d. The VSAT just turned-on

28. The SE II products, which VSAT platform can support star 38. The piggybacking for a capacity request in the TRF slot is
and mesh topology? found in this field
a. access a. SAC
b. accent b. ATM cells
c. web enhance c. TRF
d. VSAT extend d. SYNC

29. In the OB traffic, the Allot QoS does what? 39. In the OB, what is the main function of the IPE?
a. Measures current available OB bit rate and a. Process baseband frames
sends to DPS b. Modulation and coding
b. Convert IP packets to backbone c. Takes ATM cells for processing
c. Traffic policy rules enforcer d. Backbone to MPEG
d. Sends IP and BB packets to DPS
40. When a change of Es/No is received by the hub from a 50. When does a VSAT transmits its payload or traffic?
certain VSAT, what does HSP do? a. After initialization or power-on
a. Marks the atm cells on the new MODCOD for b. the hub publishes the RCS tables via the OB
that VSAT c. during the allotted traffic slot
b. Advertises a new MODCOD suitable to that d. when it receives the time and frequency plan
VSAT
c. DPS changes the MODCOD to be mark on each
packet for that particular VSAT 51. Which hub component does not belong to the group?
d. HSP does nothing since it is not part of the a. DPS
outbound data flow b. MCR
c. QoS
41. Why is cross polarization being avoided? d. HSP
a. To maximize satellite channel space
b. Due to the interference it creates
c. Other satellite subscribers will have better TX
power
d. Both horizontal and vertical polarization is
present
42. On the OB data flow, which statement is false?

a. The traffic goes into the QoS server

b. The MCR is not included
c. The HSP converts traffic data to backbone
d. RFT transmits data to the satellite

43. What is a traffic slot?

a. Carries the OB Es/No readings to the hub using
the relative robust MODCOD
b. Contains a SAC field
c. Composed of two or more atm cells
d. Where VSAT will get its intended data

44. The hub component that creates the DVB-RCS table?

a. DPS
b. IPM
c. HSP
d. RSP

45. Which Slot Type can ask for a capacity request?

a. SYNC
b. CSC
c. SAC
d. ATM cells

46. An ATM cell is how many bytes?

a. 5
b. 48
c. 53
d. 8

47. The IPM does the?

a. FEC coding
b. Setting of the output frequency of the VSAT
c. Decides the MODCOD to be used
d. Modulation and coding of the ATM cells

48. In the SE II, What is an LNB?

a. An amplifier to up-convert the received signal
b. A unit that converts satellite signal to L-band
c. An antenna used to receive the outbound
signal
d. A device that amplifies the DVB-S2 signal

49. When is VSAT communications used?

a. To establish communication between two
points.
b. To communicate a remote area
c. To connect two regional areas
d. When great distances must be connected and
no other cheaper means is available
 12. The condition which exists when the interrogator is
NAVIGATION attempting to acquire and lock onto the response to its own
interrogations.
DME a. track mode
b. search mode
1. DME airborne equipment is also called c. PRF
a. transponder d. none of the above
b. interrogator
c. transmitter 13. The time the transmitter is activated to send reply pulses
d. receiver a. track mode
b. reply to interrogation
2. DME ground equipment is called c. duty cycle
a. transponder d. one cycle per second
b. interrogator
c. transmitter 14. The transmitter is unloaded in the remaining 98.1 % of the
d. receiver time means
a. no reply
3. Transponder equipment consist of b. receive interrogation
a. transmitter c. no power dissipation
b. receiver d. all of the above
c. both a & b
d. none of the above 15. A period immediately following the decoding of a valid
interrogation
4. 12.36 us time in DME is equivalent to a. reply efficiency
a. 2 NM b. effective radiated power
b. one way trip distance c. receiver delay time
c. 1 NM d. receiver dead time
d. none of the above
16. Directs the interrogation pulses to the receiver and the reply
5. The total channel for interrogation is pulses to antenna
a. 63 a. mixer
b. 126 b. ferris discriminator
c. 252 c. coder
d. none of the above d. none of the above

6. Pulse spacing for Y-channel interrogation in microseconds 17. Amplifies the small interrogation pulses
a. 12 a. PA
b. 30 b. Modulator
c. 36 c. Gaussian pulse shaper
d. 24 d. none of the above

7. DME transponders are collocated with VOR with respect to 18. This is only a LF amplifier
a. frequency a. mixer
b. identification b. modulator
c. power c. IF amplifer
d. both a & b d. video amplifer

8. As the distance to DME station decreases, the slant range error 19. The readout is maintained steadily
a. remains constant a. velocity memory
b. increases b. static memory
c. decreases c. automatic standby
d. is insignificant d. none of the above
9. The time as measured between the 90 and 10 percent
amplitude points of the pulse 20. Deliberate random variation of the time interval between
a. rise time successive interrogations
b. decay time a. PRF
c. both a & b b. duty cycle
d. pulse duration c. jitter
d. none of the above
10. The time interval between the 50% amplitude points on the
leading edges of the pulses
a. pulse duration
b. pulse spacing
c. pulse width
d. none of the above

11. Is the frequency which each pulse pair has

a. PPS
b. PRF
c. PFR
d. none of the above
 d. 20

VOR 11. The Doppler of a periodic wave from a moving source,

the received frequency will be __________________
1. The magnitude of the resultant envelope in quadrature than the radiated frequency as it moves away.
phasing: a. lower
a. Will be constant at Ec b. higher
b. Will never be less than Ec. c. the same
c. Will be sometimes less than Ec. d. none of the above
d. None of the above.
12. In a CVOR (Conventional VOR), the 30 Hz AM signal is the
2. The desired objective in combining Ess with Ec is to have
them at: phase voltage.
a. 90 a. carrier
b. 0 and 180 b. reference
c. 210 c. variable
d. 75 d. none of the above

3. Space modulation Factor is given by the formula: 13. In a CVOR (Conventional VOR), the 30 Hz FM signal is the
a. Ecs cos  / Ecm
b. Ess sin  / Ec phase voltage.
c. Ess cos  / Ec a. carrier
d. Esm / Ecm b. reference
c. variable
4. Misphasing in space modulation is caused by: d. none of the above
a. The relative phase of current in the antennas,
and Tx lines are incorrect. 14. In a DVOR (Doppler VOR), the 30 Hz FM signal is the
b. Ecs is greater than Ess
c. Magnitude of the carrier is large phase voltage.
d. All of the above a. carrier
5. As misphasing of Ess with respect to Ec is increased: b. reference
a. Harmonics Develops c. variable
b. Indication of fundamental frequencies at the d. none of the above
receiver becomes less
c. Effective space modulation is reduced 15. In a DVOR (Doppler VOR), the 30 Hz AM signal is the
d. All of the above
phase voltage.
a. carrier
6. It is used as reference in obtaining maximum space
b. reference
modulation:
c. variable
a. Space modulation factor
d. none of the above
b. Quadrature phasing
c. DDM = 0
16. The sideband antenna rotation of a DVOR is
d. DDM = .155
.
a. clockwise
7. When carrier and sidebands are mixed in any transmitter
b. counter clockwise
circuit, the process is called
c. axial
a. space modulation
d. none of the above
b. transmitter modulation
c. amplitude modulation
d. phase modulation 17. The sideband antenna rotation of a CVOR is
.
8. Vectorially, that portion or component of the total a. clockwise
sidebands which is in phase with the carrier is the b. counter clockwise
c. axial
a. Sine projection of Ess d. none of the above
b. Cosine projection of Ess
c. Tangent projection of Ess 18. The variation in level fed to the sideband antennas in
d. None of the above DVOR is called the

9. When sidebands modulate a carrier with other than 0 function.

deg difference in RF phase, a process called a. bleeping
takes place. b. breeding
a. space modulation c. bleaching
b. phase modulation d. blending
c. amplitude modulation
d. frequency modulation 19. The carrier frequency of a VOR is modulated by

.
10. When two volts of total sideband signal space modulates
a. 30 Hz
a 10-volt carrier, the maximum space modulation factor
b. 9960 Hz
is
c. Neither a nor b
d. Both a and b
a. 0.2
b. 0.02
c. 2
20. A modulation process wherein the sidebands are 29. The reference and variable phase modulations of a VOR
combined with the carrier in space or outside the shall be along the reference magnetic meridian
transmitting equipment. through the station.

a. Amplitude Modulation a. in-phase

b. Frequency Modulation b. out-of-phase
c. Space Modulation c. bi-phase
d. None of the above d. none of the above
21. A VOR System is composed of .
a. VOR Transmitting Station 30. The polarization of a VOR antenna radiation is
b. VOR Receiving Station .
c. Neither a nor b a. horizontal
d. Both a and b b. vertical
c. both a and b
22. A navigational aid that is designed to provide bearing d. neither a nor b
information to aircrafts.
a. VOR 31. The VOR monitor will initiate transfer/shutdown when
b. DME the bearing error exceeds
c. Localizer
d. Glidepath degree.
a. 0.25
23. The modulation index of an FM signal in a VOR has a b. 0.50
modulation index of c. 0.75
d. 1.0
.
a. 12 32. The VOR monitor will initiate transfer/shutdown when
b. 14 the modulating components falls down below
c. 16 percent.
d. 18 a. 5
b. 10
24. The resultant waveform when the reference signal and c. 15
variable signal is combined in space is called a d. 20
.

a. cardioid pattern
b. course width
c. blending function
d. course line

25. The resultant or radiated waveform of a variable signal of

a VOR is called

.
a. omni-directional
b. figure of eight
c. cardioid pattern
d. none of the above

26. The resultant or radiated waveform of a reference signal

of a VOR is called

.
a. omni-directional
b. figure of eight
c. cardioid pattern
d. none of the above

27. The output of a goniometer’s sinusoidal signal is fed to

the

antenna slot.
a. NE-SW
b. NW-SE
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

28. The output of a goniometer’s cosine pattern signal is fed

to the

antenna slot.
a. NE-SW
b. NW-SE
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
ILS
10. A hybrid bridge circuits is used in the ILS equipment as:
1. Which of the following airport does not have an ILS a. Divider and combiner
equipment installed. b. Antenna recombining network
a. Subic International Airport c. Antenna distribution network
b. General Santos International Airport d. All of the above
c. Bacolod International Airport
d. Cagayan de Oro Airport:
11. The ILS T- point is only limited at what tolerance height in
2. Which of the statement is false? meters?
a. CSB signal is a full AM waveform by which both 90 a. +3 meters
Hz and 150 Hz is in phase with the carrier
b. Zero crossing point after the third period of the 90 b. - 3 meters
Hz signal shall coincide in time with zero crossing c. ± 3 meters
point after the 5th period of the 150 Hz signal to d. None of the above
generate an SBO signal.
c. SBO signal is an AM waveform signal where 90 Hz 12. The ILS T-Point is also known as
and 150 Hz may have the same amplitude. a. Threshold point
d. Both b and c. b. Reference datum
c. Touch down point
3. The vertical plane that defines the zero-micro ampere (0 d. Threshold reference
DDM) of the runway is produced by what ILS sub-system?
a. Glideslope 13. An aircraft is approaching at the center of runway, at what
b. Localizer percentage of modulation of signal does it receive?
c. Marker Beacon a. 0 percent
d. T-DME b. 20%
4. A fly up indications means that c. 40%
a. The aircraft moves above the glide path, the needle d. 80%
will move up 14. referring to question no. 3, what would be its reading?
b. The aircraft moves above the glide path, the needle a. 0.0 DDM
will move down
b. 0.155 DDM
c. The aircraft moves below the glide path, the needle
c. 0 micro ampere
will move up
d. Both a and c
d. The aircraft moves below the glide path, the needle
will move down
15. A quality by which your signal can be trusted and will
5. The course deviation indicator’s vertical needle deflects 75
prevent radiation in the event of radiating a false signal in
micro amperes left of the meter, which means that the aircraft
ILS
receives a/the:
a. Quality
a. 90 Hz signal predominating the 150 Hz signal
b. 90 Hz signal only b. Reliability
c. Both a and b c. Integrity
d. None of the above d. Availability

16. What is the General Equation for the CSB signal?

6. What does DDM stands for?
a. Depth in difference of modulation
17 The general equation for the SBO signal can be written as
b. Difference in depth of modulation
c. Displacement in depth of modulation
18 The course width of the ILS is 4 degrees what would be the
d. Displacement of difference in modulation
DDM measured in half width point (edge of course point)?
a. 0.155
7. Which of the ILS sub-system can provide a correct descent
b. 0.0755
and approach of the runway?
c. 0.175
a. Localizer, Glideslope, and Marker Beacons
d. 0.0875
b. Localizer, Glideslope, and T-DME
c. Localizer and Glideslope only
19. Category of an ILS which has no decision height to be
d. Both a and b
consider during an ILS approach
a. Category I
8. One of the requirements to generate or produce the SBO
b. Category II
signal is that sidebands of the 90 Hz and 150 Hz shall be
c. Category III
d. None of the above
a. Out of phase with the Carrier
b. In phase
20. A combination of Clearance CSB and SBO is required by
c. In phase reversal
ICAO Annex 10 to what purpose
d. Both a and c.
a. To mask the side lobes produced by the course
pattern
9. Which statement is true
b. To create the localizer coverage from 10° to 35°
a. According to CAR-ANS Part 6 also known as the
c. To make the course pattern more directional
Manual of standards for Radio navigation aids, ILS is
the standard visual precision approach and landing. d. Both a and b
b. ILS consist of sub-system known as the localizer, the
glide slope, and marker beacons which can provide
visual information to an approaching aircraft.
c. In the event that the marker beacons are costly to
use due to terrain problem, a DME cannot be used to
provide distance information as part of the system,
d. Both a and b.
21. A Marker beacon situated at a distance of around 800 meters
from the runway threshold will display visual indicator on
aircraft’s cockpit upon receiving the beacon’s signal of what 29. Which statement is false
color? a. According to CAR-ANS Part 6 also known as the
a. White Manual of Regulations for Radio navigation aids, ILS
b. Yellow
is the standard non- visual precision approach and
c. Blue
landing.
d. It will not display any color
b. ILS consist of sub-system known as the localizer, the
22 Localizer is a ground based navigational equipment which
glide slope, and marker beacons which can provide
provides what kind of information? visual information to an approaching aircraft.
a. Lateral information c. In the event that the marker beacons are costly to
b. Vertical information use due to terrain problem, a DME can be used to
c. Distance information provide distance information as part of the system.
d. All of the above d. Both a and b.

23. A pilot is receiving the ILS tone of a specific airport. Which 30. When an aircraft using the ILS information from a ground-
of the following Morse code most likely the pilot receives? based station at a distance of 10 Nmile, it is said that the ILS
a. I-CRK receiver is receiving what kind of signal.
b. M-LAA a. Space Modulated signal
c. ILS b. Amplitude Modulated signal
d. Both a and c c. Transmitter modulated signal
d. All of the above
24. Which statement is true for a pilot using the ILS
Glideslope?
31. This module of ILS increases the power of both CSB and SBO
a. As the aircraft moves left of centerline the needle
to a desired output level
moves to the right
a. Modulator
b. When the aircraft is in the centerline the needle is
in the center of CDI b. Power-Amplifier
c. As the aircraft moves right of centerline the needle c. Relay
moves to the left d. Driver
d. The needle is at the center of the CDI when on
path. 32. For a 2F Capture effect glide slope, the clearance, signal has a
modulating signal of
25. A fly down indication means that a. 90 Hz
a. As the aircraft moves below the glide path the needle b. 150 Hz
will move up c. Carrier only
b. As the aircraft moves above the glide path the needle d. Both a and b
will move down
c. As the aircraft moves below the glide path the needle 33. An aircraft is located center runway and the vertical needle is
will move down at the center of the CDI, what is the % modulation of each
d. As the aircraft moves above the glide path the needle tone.
will move up a. 20 %
b. 40%
26. Which of the conventional ILS sub-system can provide a c. 80%
correct descent and approach of the runway? d. None of the above
a. Localizer, Glideslope, and Marker Beacons
b. Localizer, Glideslope, and E-DME
c. Localizer, Glideslope only
d. Both a and b 34. Referring to question no. 3, what is the % modulation if the vertical
needle stays at 75 µA of the CDI
a. 20 %
27. A course deviation indicator of an aircraft provides the pilot b. 40%
on his landing the following information: c. 80%
a. Lateral guidance information only d. None of the above
b. Vertical guidance information only
35. The half course sector is a horizontal plane containing the course line
c. Vertical and lateral guidance only
and limited by loci of points nearest to the course of what DDM?
d. Vertical, horizontal, and distance information
a. 0.155
28. Aircraft on course indicates that the information receives b. 0.0755
means c. 0.175
d. 0.08175
a. Aircraft is in the middle of the runway
b. Aircraft is at the center of the runway 36. What is the frequency difference of clearance signal and course
c. Aircraft is traversing the runway at the center signal?
d. All of the above a. 50 KHz
b. 8 KHz
c. 90 Hz
d. 150 Hz

37 It represents the centerline of the runway when monitored back into

the equipment upon detection

a. CSB
b. SBO
c. Position
 d. Width c. Modulator unit
d. PLL Synthesizer
38. Which of the following is not part of the Localizer Antenna System.
a. Monitor and Feed Cable 49. Which statement/s is/are true and correct?
b. Antenna Network
a. ILS use non-visual approach procedures that may not
c. Field Antenna
d. Obstruction lights
require runway visibility during approach and landing
b. The vertical landing plane containing the runway
39. In general application, increasing the number of antennas for the centerline is defined by a VHF transmitter called the
localizer means localizer
a. number of lobes increases c. Both a and b are correct
b. radiated signal becomes more directional d. Both a and b are not true
c. back course is produced
d. increases the coverage of the localizer 50. The automatic monitor system shall provide a warning
designated control point located at
40. What is the percent of modulation of 150 Hz tone if the horizontal
needle stays at 150µA above 2.0° glide path angle?
a. ANS Office
a. 12.25% b. Control Tower
b. 31.25% c. Site
c. 27.25% d. None of the above
d. 80%
51. The Carrier frequency of the 2F Glidepath equipment is
41. Which is not true?
a. The determination of course sector of the localizer depends 334.404 MHz. What is the clearance carrier frequency?
only on the length of the runway a. 333.960 MHz
b. Course sector is limited only from 3 to 6 degrees as per ICAO b. 334.400 MHz
and CAR-ANS standards c. 334.396 MHz
c. Course width is the same as the course sector d. 334.392 MHz
d. All of the statements are correct
52. It consists of two antennas of which the upper antenna is
42. The coverage of the localizer sector shall extend from the localizer placed three times the height of the lower antenna
antenna to what distances?
a. Sideband Glideslope
a. 46.3 km (25v NM) within plus or minus 10 degrees from the
front course line. b. Null reference Glideslope
b. 31.5 km (17 NM) between 10 degrees and 35 degrees from c. M-Array Glideslope
the front course line. d. M-array Capture Effect
c. 18.5 km (10NM) outside of plus or minus 35 degrees if
coverage is provided. 53. A deviation along the course line is called
d. All of the above a. Course Interference
b. Scalloping
c. Course bend
43. The keying rate of Marker beacons is maintained within plus d. None of the above
or minus?
a. 35% 54.What will be the depth of modulation of the larger signal, if
b. 10% the CDI horizontal needle indicates a 150 uA reading fly down
c. 5% indication
d. 15% a. 47.85%
44. Component of the ILS equipment that supplies Dc voltages to b. 48.75%
several components like the monitor unit, control unit, transmitter c. 48.57%
unit and the MPU. d. 52.25%
a. Regulator Unit
b. DC/DC unit 55. Referring to item 54, what will be the depth of modulation of
c. Rectifier unit the smaller signal?
d. All of the above a. 31.15%
b. 31.25%
45. It provides the 108 to 110 MHz with a built in DIP switch for c. 31.43%
50 KHz plus minus 4 KHz steps selection d. 27.5%
a. RF Oscillator
b. PLL Synthesizer 56. What will be the depth of modulation of the larger signal if the CDI
c. Modulator Unit horizontal needle indicates a 75 uA reading fly down indication?
d. None of the above a. 44.375%
b. 35.625%
46. Component of the ILS equipment that generates ideal signal c. 44.735%
and use to calibrate the monitor units. d. 35.265%
a. Modulator unit
b. Test Signal Generator 57. Referring to item 56, what is the DDM reading?
c. MPU a. 8.75%
d. Generator Unit b. 7.75%
c. 7.57 %
47. Components of ILS that switches transmitter 1 to transmitter 2 d. 8.57%
and vice versa consisting of the same type of coaxial relays.
a. Antenna Change over unit 58. At low angles misphasing, the harmonic magnitude is low
b. MPU
c. Control Unit 59. For an M-Array Glideslope, clearance signal is fed to what
d. Remote Control Status Unit antenna?
a. Upper antenna only
48. In the NEC Localizer equipment, the 90+150 signal is
b. Upper and lower antenna
generated from what part of the localizer equipment?
c. Lower antenna only
a. Generator unit d. None of the above
b. RF Oscillator
 d. Coupler

60. The carrier signal can be mathematically written in this 70.Course line shifted to the left; one tone is greater than the
equation other
cosωt Ans: use CARR MOD BAL dial
71. Monitoring (feedback sample of RF via COAX)
Ans: Integral Monitoring
61.One of the disadvantages of the ILS is that aircrafts fly straight
in towards the runway during approach and landing because 72. Input RF fed to hybrid circuit, what will be the resulting amplitude
ILS has Ans: Reduced to 50%; 0.707 of the amplitude input RF
a. No segmented approach
b. multi-path effect 73. A/C normally received LLZ at 75uA, CDI vertical needle abrupt to
c. Sensitive areas center
d. Critical areas Ans: LLZ shutdown; SBO of LLZ not transmitting

62.This document specifies the requirements for the radio
navigational aids systems to be complied with by the service
providers and equipment suppliers
a. Doc 9871
b. Manual of Standards for Radio navigational Aids
c. ICAO Annex Volume 10
d. Both B and C
74. Monitor to cease radiation if:
Ans: Power is below 50%; Shift occurred on mean
centerline by greater than 10.5 m @ ILS reference for
CAT I ILS
75.Measure of space modulation determined by ratio of energy
by the SB to the energy by the carrier
Ans: DDM

63. What is the nominal distance of the glide path antenna to the
runway centerline?
a. 120 m
b. 120 ft
c. 300 m
d. 300 ft

64.A component of the ILS equipment that distributes the RF

signals from the transmitter to the localizer and glide path
antennas

a. antenna network
b. monitor network
c. hybrid circuit
d. combining network

65.An approaching aircraft on the left of the runway receives the

localizer at 0.150 uA. What will be the equivalent value in
DDM003F

a. 0.155 DDM
b. -0.155 DDM
c. 0.000155 DDM
d. -0.0 DDM

66.The CDI’s horizontal needle deflects upward while the vertical

needle stays on the center. What is the current status of the
aircraft with respect to the CDI readings?

a. The aircraft is below glidepath angle and at the runway

centerline
b. The aircraft is above glidepath angle and at the runway
centerline
c. The aircraft is below glidepath angle and the localizer
might be out of service
d. Both a and c are correct

67.The runway half course sector can be calculated using this

formula Insert formula pero none of the above sagot haha

68.A component of the ILS equipment that transfers the system

from Main to standby transmitter when alarm is detected
a. MPU
b. Antenna Switching Unit
c. Static Relay
d. Distributor unit
69. A component of the ILS Localizer Equipment that produces
the 1020 Hz, 90 Hz, and 150 Hz signal.
a. Modulator
b. Generator unit
c. Synthesizer