M

[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A 7. The number of silicon atoms per m3 is 5 × 1028.
1. A concave mirror of focal length f, produces an This is doped simultaneously with 5 × 1022 atoms
image P time the size of the object. If the image is per m3 of Arsenic and 5 × 1020 per m3 atoms of
real, then the distance of the object from the mirror
Indium. Calculate the number of holes. Given that
is:
ni = 1.5 × 1016m–3. Is the material n-type or p-type:
(1) (P – 1)f (2) (P + 1)f
(1) 3.54 × 109 m–3, n-type
 P −1  P +1
(3)  f (4)  f (2) 2.54 × 109 m–3, p-type
 P   P 
(3) 4.54 × 109 m–3, p-type
(4) 4.54 × 109 m–3, n-type.
2. 64 charged drops coalesce to form a bigger charged
drop. The potential of bigger drop will be n times 8. What will be the input A and B for the Boolean
that of smaller drops then n is:
(1) 4 (2) 16 ( )(
expression A + B g AgB = 1 : )
(3) 64 (4) 8 (1) 0, 1 (2) 1, 0
(3) 0, 0 (4) 1, 1
3. A motor vehicle moves such that the velocity is a
linear function of time. The graph between 9. What is the ratio of forward and reverse resistance
acceleration and time and velocity and time, of p-n junction diode:
respectively will be: (1) 10–4 : 1 (2) 10–2 : 1
(1) Straight line, straight line (3) 104 : 1 (4) 102 : 1
(2) Straight line, parabola
(3) Parabola, straight line 10. In a common base circuit, the current gain is 0.96. If
(4) Parabola, parabola the base current is 60 A, find the emitter current is:
(1) 3 mA (2) 1.5 mA
4. Radius of curvature of an equiconvex lens is
(3) 1.44 mA (4) 2.1 mA
0.2 m. Its refractive index is 1.5. It two such lenses
are kept separated with common principal axis by 11. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely at
a distance of 0.2 m, what will be the effective focal
the nth power of distance. Then time period of a
length of the combination:
planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun
(1) 20 cm
will be proportional to:
(2) 40 cm
 n +1   n −1 
(3) 60 cm    
(1) R 2  (2) R 2 
(4) 30 cm
 n−2 
 
(3) Rn (4) R 2 
5. A stone of mass 4 kg is whirled in a horizontal
circle by attaching it to a 169 m long string. The
12. The truth table for the following combination of
string can withstand a maximum tension of 4N.
logic gates shown as below:
The maximum speed of revolution of the stone
such that the string does not break is :
(1) 10 m/s
(2) 13 m/s A B Y A B Y
(3) 16 m/s 0 0 1 0 0 0
(4) 12 m/s (1) 1 0 1 (2) 1 0 1
0 1 0 0 1 1
6. The incident photon involved in the photoelectric
1 1 1 1 1 1
effect experiment:
(1) Completely disappear
(2) Comes out with increased frequency
(3) Comes out with a decreased frequency
(4) Comes out without change in frequency

[2]
 A B Y A B Y
18. If 1g of substance of relative density 2 and 4 g of
0 0 0 0 0 0
another substance of relative density 3 are mixed
(3) 1 0 0 (4) 0 1 0 together, then the relative density of the mixture is:
0 1 0 1 0 0 (1) 2.4 (2) 2.5
1 1 1 1 1 1 (3) 2.7 (4) 2.8
13. A radioactive nucleus can decay by two different 19. A material has Poisson's ratio 0.5. If a uniform rod
processes. The mean value period for the first of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 × 10–3, the
process is t1 and that for the second process is t2. percentage increase in its volume is:
The effective mean value period for the two (1) 0% (2) 2%
processes is: (3) 4% (4) 8%
t +t
(1) 1 2 (2) t1 + t2 20. Two Carnot engines are operated in succession.
2 The first one, receives heat from a source at
t 1t2 T1 = 400 K and rejects to sink at T2K. The second
(3) t1t2 (4)
t1 + t2 engines receives heat rejected by first engine and
rejects to another sink at T3 = 100K. If the
14. Which one of the following gases possesses the efficiency of both the engines are equal then T2 is:
large internal energy: (1) 250 K (2) 300 K
(1) 2 moles of helium occupying 1 m3 at 300 K (3) 200 K (4) 100 K
(2) 56g of nitrogen at 107 Nm–2 at 300 K
(3) 8 grams of oxygen at 8 atm at 300 K 21. If two disturbances represented by
  
(4) 6 × 1026 molecules of argon occupying y1 = 4sin ( t ) and y 2 = 3sin  t +  interfere at
40 m3 at 900 K.  3 
a point. Then the amplitude of the resulting
15. Cp and Cv are specific heats at constant pressure disturbance will be:
and constant volume respectively. It is observed (1) 37 (2) 5
that Cp – Cv = a for hydrogen gas, Cp – Cv = b for (3) 5 2 (4) 3 2
nitrogen gas, The correct relation between a and b
is: t t ˆ
22. A = cos t iˆ + sin t ˆj and B=cos iˆ + sin j
1 2 2
(1) a = 28b (2) a = b
14 are function of time, then the value of t at which
(3) a = b (4) a = 14b they are orthonogonal:

(1) a t = (2) t =0
16. Two heat engines A and B have their sources at 
1000 K and 1100 K and their sinks are at 500 K  
(3) t = (4) t =
and 400 K respectively. What is true about their 4 2
efficiencies:
(1) A = B (2) A > B 23. A light rod carries three equal masses A, B and C
(3) A < B (4) Cannot predict as shown in figure. What will be velocity of B in
vertical position of rod, if it is released form
17. A square loop and a long straight wire are situated
horizontal position as shown in figure:
in a common plane such that one edge of the square
is parallel to the wire. The mutual inductance
between the wire and loop is:

8 gl
(1)
0 aq 0 a
ln ( 2 )
7
(1) ln ( 2 ) (2)
4 2 4 gl
0 a 0 a (2)
(3) (4) 7
 
[3]
 2 gl (1) v1 + v2
(3)
7 (2) v1 – v2
10 gl (3) v12 − v22
(4)
7
(4) v22 − v12

24. A particle of mass m oscillates along the horizontal

28. A body of mass m is placed on the earth surface,
diameter AB inside a smooth spherical shell of the which is taken from earth surface to a height of
radius R. At any instant the kinetic energy of the h = 3R. Then change in gravitational potential
particle is K. Then the force applied by particle on energy:
the shell at this instant is: mgR 2
(1) (2) mgR
4 3
3 mgR
(3) mgR (4)
4 2

29. The largest and shortest distance of the earth from

the sun are r1 and r2. Its distance from the sun when
it is at perpendicular to the major axis of the orbit
K 2K drawn from the sun is:
(1) (2)
R R r +r r +r
(1) 1 2 (2) 1 2
3K K 4 r1 − r2
(3) (4)
R 2R 2r1r2 r1 + r2
(3) (4)
r1 + r2 3
25. F is a force acting on a particle having position
r r
vector r . Let  be the torque of this force about 30. Block A is hanging from a vertical spring and is at
rest. Block B strikes the block A with velocity v and
the origion then:
rr r r sticks to it. Then the value of v for which the spring
(1) r .  0 and F.  0 just attains natural length is:
rr r r
(2) r . = 0 and F. = 0
rr r r
(3) r . = 0 and F.  0 k
rr r r
(4) r .  0 and F. = 0 m A
v
m B
26. The speed of homogeneous solid sphere after
60mg 2 6mg 2
rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height h (1) (2)
k k
from rest without sliding is:
10mg 2
10 (3) (4) None of these
(1) gh (2) gh k
7
a − x2
6 4 31. Consider expression P = , where P is
(3) gh (4) gh bt
5 3 power, x is position coordinates and t is time. What
is dimensional formula for the constant b?
27. An eagle flies at constant velocity horizontally (1) M–1L0T0 (2) M–1L0T2
–1 1 0
across the sky, carrying a mouse and releases the (3) M L T (4) M–1L1T2
mouse while in flight. From the eagle's perspective,
the mouse falls vertically with speed v1. From an 32. Consider the following two statements
observer on the ground's perspective, the mouse Statement I: The binding energy per nucleon is
falls at an angle with speed v2. What is the speed of practically independent of mass number for nuclei
of middle mass number (30 < A < 170).
the eagle with respect to the observer on the
ground?

[4]
 Statement II: Binding energy per nucleon is lower SECTION - B
for both light nuclei (A < 30) and heavy nuclei 36. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are
(A > 170). separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
(1) only statement I is correct repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons
(2) only statement II is correct missing from each ion will be: (e being the charge
(3) Both statement I and II are correct on an electron)
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect. 40 Fd 2 40 Fe2
(1) (2)
e2 d2
33. Gravitational potential difference between a point
40 Fd 2 40 Fd 2
on surface of planet and another point 10m above (3) (4)
is 4J/kg. Considering gravitational field to be e2 q2
uniform, how much work is done in moving a mass
of 2kg from the surface to a point 5m above the 37. Three point charges +q, –2q and +q are placed at
surface: points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and
(1) 4 J (2) 5 J (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude
(3) 6 J (4) 7 J and direction of the electric dipole moment vector
of this charge assembly are:
34. Two infinite parallel conductors P1 and P2 have (1) 2qa along the line joining points
charges Q1 and Q2 on them. The charges on the (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
sides A, B and C and D respectively are: (2) qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z
= 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
(3) 2qa along + x direction
(4) 2qa along + y direction

38. Two condensers, one of capacity C and other of

capacity C/2 are connected to a V-volt battery, as
shown in the figure. The work done in charging
(1) QA = QD = Q1 + Q2 and Q B = −QC = Q1 − Q2 fully both the condensers is:
2 2
Q1 + Q2 Q1 − Q2
(2) QA = QC = and Q B = QD =
2 2
Q1 + Q2 Q1 − Q2
(3) QB = QC = and Q A = QD =
2 2
Q1 + Q2 1 3
(4) QA = QB = QC = QD = (1) CV 2 (2) CV 2
2 2 4
1
(3) CV 2 (4) 2CV2
35. The intensity of an electric field inside a capacitor 2
is E. The work required to make a charge q, move
in a closed rectangular circuit is: 39. Two identical conducting balls A and B have
positive charges q1 and q2 respectively but
q1  q2. The balls are brought together so that they
touch each other and then kept in their original
positions. The force between them is:
(1) Less than that before the balls touched
(2) Greater than that before the balls touched
(3) Same as that before the balls touched
(1) 2(I + b)qE (4) Zero
(2) 2/qE
(3) 2bqE 40. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in the
(4) Zero position of stable equilibrium in uniform electric
field of intensity E. This is rotated through an angle
 from the initial position. The potential energy of
the electric dipole in the final position is:
(1) –pE cos (2) pE (1 – cos)

[5]
 (3) pE cos (4) pE sin

R
41. A disc of radius R and thickness has moment of
6
inertia I about an axis passing through its centre
(1) YB = 2YA (2) YA = YB
and perpendicular to its plane. The disc is melted
and recast into a solid sphere. The moment of (3) YB = 3YA (4) YA = 3YB
inertia of a sphere about its diameter is:
I I 47. Assertion: A constant force is a conservative force.
(1) (2) Reason: For a constant force work done in any
5 6
( )
r r
(3)
I
(4)
I  F .dr is equal to zero.
closed path i.e., Ñ
32 64
42. Two identical long conducting wires AOB and
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
COD are placed at right angle to each other, with
Reason is a correct explanation of the
one above other such that O is their common point
Assertion.
for the two. The wires carry I1 and I2 currents,
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
respectively. Point P is lying at distance d from O
Reason is a correct explanation of the
along a direction perpendicular to the plane
Assertion.
containing the wires. The magnetic field at the
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason in false.
point P will be:
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
0  I1  0
(1)   (2) ( I1 + I 2 )
2d  I 2  2d 48. Assertion: Fuse wire must have high resistance per
0
( ) 0
( )
1/2 unit length and low melting point.
(3) I12 + I 22 (4) I12 + I 22
2d 2d Reason: Fuse is used for small current flow only.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
43. A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving Reason is a correct explanation of the
in a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic Assertion.
field. What should be the energy of an -particle to (2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
describe a circle of same radius in the same field: Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1) 2 MeV (2) 1 MeV Assertion.
(3) 0.5 MeV (4) 4 MeV (3) If Assertion is True but the Reason in false.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
44. The length of a metal wire is l1 when the tension in
it is T1 and l2 when the tension in it it T2. The 49. Assertion: If a particle moves in X-Y plane, it has
unstretched length of the wire is: only z-component of angular momentum.
( )
r r r
T l −T l T l −T l Reason: Angular momentum L = r  p is
(1) 2 2 1 1 (2) 2 2 1 1
T2 − T1 T1 + T2 always perpendicular to both position vector and
T2l1 − T1l2 T2l1 − T1l2 linear momentum vector.
(3) (4)
T1 + T2 T2 − T1 (1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
45. A body falls from rest for 4s. The average speed Assertion.
will be (g = 10 m/s2): (2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1) 20 m/s
Assertion.
(2) 10 m/s
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason in false.
(3) 40 m/s
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
(4) 80 m/s

46. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two

materials A and B are as shown in the figure. If YA
and YB are the Young's moduli of the materials,
then:

[6]
50. Assertion: In a metre bridge experiment, point for
an unknown resistance is measured. Now, the
unknown resistance is put inside an enclosure
maintained at a higher temperature. The null point
can be obtained at the same point as before by
decreasing the value of the standard resistance.
Reason: Resistance of a metal remains constant
with increase in temperature
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason in false.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
51. Which is the correct order of atomic radii? 57. A compound is treated with Tollen's reagent.
(1) Mn > Fe > Co Formation of a silver mirror indicates the
(2) Mn = Fe = Co presence of the following group.
(3) Sc < Ti > V O
(4) Zn > Cu > Ni ||
(1) –CHO (2) — C—
52. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed
(3) –NO2 (4) –NH2
in an empty container at 25o C. The fraction of
the total pressure exerted by oxygen is
58. The correct order of bond dissociation energy
1
(1) among N2, O2, O2– is shown in which of the
2
following arrangements?
2
(2) (1) N 2  O2−  O2
3
1 273 (2) O−2  O2  N 2
(3) 
3 298 (3) N 2  O2  O−2
1
(4) (4) O2  O2−  N 2
3

53. In DNA, the linkages between different 59. CsCl crystallises in body centered cubic lattice. If
nitrogenous bases are: ‘a’ is its edge length then which of the following
(1) Phosphate linkages expression is correct?
(2) H-bonding (1) rCs+ + rCl− = 3a
(3) Glycosidic linkages 3a
(4) Peptide linkages (2) rCs+ + rCl− =
2
54. Which of the following is the correct expression
3
for the 1st law of thermodynamics under (3) rCs+ + rCl− = a
2
adiabatic conditions?
(4) rCs+ + rCl− = 3a
(1) U = q + 2W (2) U = q – W
(3) q = –W (4) U = W

55. The function of enzymes in the living system is 60.

to:
(1) Catalyse biochemical reactions
(2) Provide energy
(3) Transport oxygen (1)
(4) Provide immunity

56. Which of the following is not a hazardous (2)

pollutant present in automobile exhaust gases?
(1) N2 (2) CO
(3) CH4 (4) Oxide of Nitrogen

[7]
 vapour pressure (in mm) at the same temperature
will be
(3) (1) 360 (2) 350
(3) 300 (4) 700

(4)
68. Salts of A(atomic mass: 15), B(atomic mass: 27),
and C(atomic mass: 48) were electrolysed using
the same amount of charge. It was found that
61. Which of the following pairs have approximately
when 4.5g of A was deposited, the mass of B and
the same atomic radii?
C deposited was 2.7g and 9.6g. The valency of A,
(1) Zr and Hf (2) Al and Mg
B, and C, respectively;
(3) Al and Ga (4) Na and Ne
(1) 1, 3 and 2 (2) 3, 1 and 3
(3) 2, 6 and 3 (4) 3, 1 and 2
62. The metal that gives hydrogen gas upon treatment
with both acids as well as bases is:
69. Be2C + H2O → Be(OH)2 + [X] ; "X" is:
1) Zinc (2) Mercury
(3) Iron (4) Magnesium (1) C2H2 (2) CH4
(3) C2H4 (4) None of these
63. PA and PB are the vapour pressures of pure liquid
components, A and B, respectively of an ideal 70. 10–6M HCl is diluted to 100 times. Its pH is:
binary solution. If A represents the mole fraction (1) 6 (2) 8
of component A, the total pressure of the solution (3) 6.98 (4) 7.02
will be:
(1) PA + A(PB – PA) 71. The chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is/are:
(2) PA + A(PA – PB) (1) CaSO4.2H2O
(3) PB + A(PB – PA) (2) 2CaSO4.H2O
1
(4) PB + A(PA – PB) (3) CaSO4 . H 2O
2
64. The rate of a chemical reaction tells us about (4) CaSO4.H2O
(1) The reactants taking part in the reaction
(2) The products formed in the reaction 72. How many number of atoms are effectively
(3) How slow or fast the reaction is taking place present in a cubic unit formed by an arrangement
(4) None of the above of eight BCC unit cells?
(1) 12 (2) 14
65. Which one of the following statements is correct? (3) 16 (4) 18
(1) All amino acids except lysine are optically
active 73. Which is the best description for the behaviour of
(2) All amino acids are optically active Bromine in the reaction given below?
(3) All amino acids except glycine are optical H2O + Br2 → HOBr + HBr
active (1) Proton acceptor only
(4) All amino acids except glutamic acids are (2) Both oxidised and reduced
optically active (3) Oxidised only
(4) Reduced only
66. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly
acidic medium gives: 74. The IUPAC name of the compound is:
(1) Aniline
(2) Nitrosobenzene
(3) N-Phenylhydroxylamine
(4) p-Hydroxyaniline
(1) 1 - Ethoxy - 2 - nitrocyclohexane
67. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol has
(2) 1- Nitro-2-ethoxyhexane
a vapour pressure of 290 mm at 300 K. The
(3) 2- Ethoxy - 1 - nitrocyclohexane
vapour pressure of propyl alcohol is 200 mm. If
(4) 1 - Ethoxy - 2 - nitrobenzene
the mole fraction of ethyl alcohol is 0.6, its
[8]
 (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
75. Standard reduction electrode potentials of three Reason is not correct explanation of
metals A, B & C are respectively +0.5 V, –3.0V Assertion.
& –1.2V. The reducing powers of these metals (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
are (4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(1) A > B > C
(2) C > B > A 80. Which of the following are incorrect orders of
(3) A > C > B property indicated against it?
(4) B > C > A
(1) SO 4–2 < SO3–2 < S– 2 (Order of Polarizability)
76. The carboxyl functional group (–COOH) is (2) ClO4–1  ClO –1  ClO 2–1  Cl –1 (order of
present in
Polarizability)
(1) Picric acid
(2) Barbituric acid (3) Sc+2  Ti +3  V +3  Cr +3 (order of
(3) Ascorbic acid polarizing Power)
(4) Aspirin (4) Cd +2  Zn +2  Hg +2 (order of polarizing
power)
77. Assertion: The enthalpy of reaction remains
constant in the presence of a catalyst.
81. For a certain redox reaction, E° is positive. This
Reason: A catalyst participating in the reaction
means that
forms different activated complex and lowers
(1) ΔG° is positive, K is greater than 1
down the activation energy but the difference in
(2) ΔG° is positive, K is less than 1
energy of reactant and product remains the same.
(3) ΔG° is negative, K is greater than 1
(1) Both the assertion and the reason are correct,
(4) ΔG° is negative, K is less than 1
and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
82. The tests performed on compound X and their
(2) Both the assertion and the reason are correct,
inferences are:
and the reason is not correct explanation of the
Test Inference
assertion.
(a) 2, 4-DNP test Coloured
(3) The assertion is correct, but the reason is
(b) Iodoform test yellow precipitate
incorrect. (c) Azo-dye test No dye formation
(4) Both the assertion and the reason are incorrect Compound ‘X’ is:

78. Which of the following salts has the same value

as of van’t Hoff factor (i) as that of K3[Fe(CN)6]?
(1) Na2SO4 (1)
(2) Al(NO3)3
(3) Al2(SO4)3
(4) NaCl
(2)
79. Assertion: In strongly acidic solutions, aniline
becomes more reactive towards electrophilic
reagents.
Reason: The amino group being completely
protonated in strongly acidic solution, the lone (3)
pair of electrons on the nitrogen is no longer
available for resonance.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of (4)
Assertion.

[9]
83. Match the column: (3) n-butyl alcohol
(4) n-propyl alcohol
(A) A process carried (p) Adiabatic
out
88. Which of the following is a condensation
infinitesimally
polymer?
slowly
(1) Nylon 6,6
(B) A process in (q) E = 0, H = 0 (2) Neoprene
which no heat (3) Teflon
enters or leaves (4) Buna-S
the system
89. The correct match between Item I and Item II is
(C) A process carried (r) Reversible
out at constant Item I Item II
temperature
(a) Natural (I) 1, 3-butadiene +
(D) Cyclic process (s) Isothermal rubber styrene

(b) Neoprene (II) 1, 3-butadiene +

(1) A-p, B-r, C-s, D-q
acrylonitrile
(2) A-r, B-p, C-s, D-q
(3) A-r, B-q, C-s, D-p (c) Buna N (III) Chloroprene
(4) A-p, B-s, C-q, D-r
(d) Buna S (IV) Isoprene
84. Among the following complexes (A–F),
K3[Fe(CN)6] (A), [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (B),
(1) (A) – (III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Na3[Co(oxalate)3] (C), [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 (D),
(2) (A) – (III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
K2[Pt(CN)4] (E) and [Zn(H2O)6](NO3)2 (F)
(3) (A) – (IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
The diamagnetic complexes are:
(4) (A) – (IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, C, E, F
(3) B, C, E, F 90. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(4) B, C, D, E
(1)
85. The correct stability order for the following
species is
(2)

(1) (II) > (IV) > (I) > (III) (3)

(2) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
(3) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)
(4) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)

SECTION - B
86. Vapour density of two gases are in the ratio of
2 : 9. What will be the ratio of their molar masses?
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 9 (4)
(3) 1 : 9 (4) 1 : 1

87. In the following sequence of reactions,

P+I Mg HCHO
CH3CH 2OH ⎯⎯⎯
2
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
Ether
→ B ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ 91. Assertion: Extraction of iron metal from iron
H 2O
C ⎯⎯⎯
→D oxide ore is carried out by heating with coke
The compound D is Reason: The reaction, Fe2O3(s) → 2Fe (s) + 3/2
(1) propanal O2 (g) is a spontaneous process
(2) butanal

[10]
 (1) Both the assertion and the reason are correct, (3) A and B are correct statements.
and the reason is the correct explanation of (4) A, B and C are correct statements.
the assertion.
(2) Both the assertion and the reason are correct, 95. In the following reaction,
and the reason is not correct explanation of −
the assertion. B ( OH )3 + H 2O →  B ( OH )4  + H +
(3) The assertion is correct, but the reason is (1) B(OH)3 is a tribasic acid.
incorrect.
(2) B(OH)3 is a monoacidic Lewis basic
(4) Both the assertion and the reason are
(3) B(OH)3 is a monobasic Lewis acid
incorrect.
(4) B(OH)3 is amphoteric
92. The value of van der Waals constant 'a' for gases
O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 are x, y, z and c 96. The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. The pOH of
respectively, where z > c > y > x. The gas which an aqueous buffer solution of HA in which 50%
can most easily be liquefied is: of the acid is ionized is
(1) O2 (1) 7.0
(2) N2 (2) 4.5
(3) NH3 (3) 2.5
(4) CH4 (4) 9.5

93. Tyndall effect is observed when: 97. The ore that contains both iron and copper is:
(1) The diameter of the dispersed particle is (1) Malachite
much larger than the wavelength of light (2) Azurite
used (3) Dolomite
(2) The diameter of the dispersed particle is (4) Copper pyrites
much smaller than the wavelength of light
used
98. Find the number of chiral carbon in –D–(+)–
(3) The refractive index of the dispersed phase is
Glucose:
greater than that of the dispersion medium
(1) 2
(4) The diameter of the dispersed phase particle
(2) 3
is similar to the wavelength of light used
(3) 4
94.
(4) 5

99. In a set of reactions, p-nitrotoluene yielded a

product E. The product E is:

(A) P is benzene diazonium chloride.

(B) Q cannot give bromine water test.
(C) R and S are position isomers.
(D) During the formation of R and S from Q. (2)
Formation of a new C–C bond will take place.
(1)
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(1) A, C and D are correct statements.
(2) A, B, C and D are correct statements.

[11]
 100. Which of the following will react with water:
(1) CHCl3 (2) Cl3CCHO
(3) (4)
(3) CCl4 (4) ClCH2CH2Cl

SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A (1) Remains the same size each year
101. Food chain consists of (2) Decreases by the same amount each year
(1) producers, consumers and decomposers (3) increase by large amount each year.
(2) producers, carnivores and decomposers (4) None of the above
(3) producers & primary consumers
(4) producers, herbivores, and carnivores 108. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed
the performance of F1 hybrid is often superior to both
102. Pyramid of energy is always its parents. This phenomenon is called.
(1) Inverted (1) Metamorphosis
(2) Splicing
(2) Upright
(3) Transformation
(3) Spindle shaped (4) Heterosis
(4) None of these
109. Some blue green algae can be used as biofertilizer
103. Today concentration of green house gases is high because.
because of (1) They have ability to fix nitrogen
(1) Use of refrigerators (2) They can perform photosynthesis
(2) Increased combustion of oil and coal (3) They grow every where
(4) None of these
(3) Deforestation
(4) All the above
110. Objective of plant breeding is
(1) Disease/stress resistance
104. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
(2) Better yield
(1) Biological process (3) Better quality
(2) Physical process (4) All the above
(3) Mechanical process 111. When two plants with genotypes Rr Tt and rrtt are
(4) Chemical process crossed the phenotypic ratio of the offspring will be
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
105. Wild life is important because (3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(1) It is the source of gene bank for breeding
programme in agriculture. 112. Which among the following was not proposed by
(2) It balances population. Mendel?
(3) It maintains food chains and natural cycles. (1) Dominance
(4) All the above (2) Segregation
(3) Independent assortment
106. Which of the following is an example of ex-situ (4) Incomplete dominance
conservation?
(1) Seed bank 113. A: Cross of F1 individual with recessive
(2) Sacred groves homozygous parent is test cross
(3) National park R: The ratio of heterozygous and recessive
(4) Wild life sanctuary individuals is 2 : 1 in monohybrid test cross.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason

107. When a population is undergoing exponential growth
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
if:

[12]
 (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason (3) There are 44 meaningless and 20 codons code for
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. amino acids.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (4) There are 64 type of t-RNAs found in all cells.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
120. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of
114. Mendel crossed a pure white flowered recessive pea
plant with dominant pure red flowered plant. The first (1) Zygote
generation of hybrids from the cross should show. (2) Synergids
(1) 50% white flowered & 50% red flowered plants. (3) Antipodals
(2) All red flowered plants (4) Secondary nucleus
(3) 75% red coloured and 25% white flowered
plants. 121. A: Chasmogamous flowers require pollinating
(4) All white flowered plants.
agents for pollination.
R: Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their sex
115. The possible blood groups of the offsprings of parents
organs.
universal donor and universal recipient.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
(1) A, B and AB (2) O, A, B and AB
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) O and AB (4) A & B
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
116. Match the CI with CII and choose the correct option.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
CI CII
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
A Monohybrid cross P T and t
122. A: A typical microsporangium of angiosperms is
B Test cross Q TT
generally surrounded by four wall layers
C Alleles R Tt X Tt R: The outer three wall layers perform the
function of protection and help in dehiscence
S tt of anther to release pollen grains.
D Homozygous tall T Tt X tt (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) A-R, B-T, C-S, D-Q (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
(2) A-T, B-R, C-Q, D-S is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) A-R, B-T, C-P, D-Q (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) A-R, B-P, C-T, D-Q (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
117. Turner’s syndrome is due to 123. Which among the following statement about
(1) Monosomic chromosome sporopollenin is false?
(2) Trisomic chromosome (1) Sporopollenin is resistant to most type of
(3) Polysomic chromosome enzymes.
(4) Bisomic chromosome (2) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperature
and strong acids.
118. Which among the following is not a heritable (3) Exine has apertures called germ pores where
sporopollenin is located.
Mutation?
(4) Exine is made up of sporopollenin.
(1) Somatic mutation
(2) Point mutation
124. What happens in double fertilization?
(3) Gene mutation (1) Fertilization of the egg and the central cell by two
(4) Chromosomal mutation sperms brought by the same pollen tube.
(2) Fertilization of the egg and central cell by two
119. There are 64 codons in genetics because sperms brought by different pollen tubes.
(1) Genetic code is triplet (3) Fertilization of two eggs in some embryo sac by
(2) There are 64 amino acids to be coded two sperms brought by one pollen tube.
(4) Fertilization of the egg by two male gametes.

[13]
125. In Bryophyllum vegetative propagation is by 134. Fluid mosaic model is to explain the structure of
(1) Leaves plasma membrane was proposed by
(2) Stem (1) Danielli and Davson
(3) Roots (2) Singer and Nicolson
(4) Rhizomes (3) Robertson
(4) Robert brown
126. A wooden peg inserted in a rock causes its breaking
during rainy season. It is due to development of 135. Carbohydrate molecule attached to lipid and protein
(1) Osmotic pressure molecule form glycocalyx. These carbohydrates are
(2) Turgor pressure
usually.
(3) Imbibition pressure
(1) Monosaccharides
(4) Plasmolysis
(2) Starch
(3) Oligosaccharides
127. The transport of water and salts takes place through
(4) polysaccharides
(1) Phloem (2) Xylem
(3) Sieve tubes (4) Sclerenchyma
SECTION - B
128. Process of transpiration in plants will be the lowest in 136. Mitosis is significant because it
(1) When there is high humidity in atmosphere (1) Is completed very rapidly.
(2) High wind velocity (2) Can take place underground.
(3) There is excess of water in the cell (3) Produces identical cells or genetic compliment
(4) Environmental conditions are very dry (4) Can occur in all parts of plant body.

129. NADP is converted into NADPH2 in 137. Chlorenchyma consist of

(1) Photosystem II (1) Collenchymatous tissue
(2) Photosystem I (2) Sclerenchymatous tissue
(3) Calvin cycle (3) Parenchymatous tissue
(4) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation (4) Fibres

130. The end products of fermentation is 138. In which of following season cambium is most active
(1) C2H5OH and CO2 (1) Spring
(2) H2O and CO2 (2) Autumn
(3) CO2 (3) Winter
(4) Pyruvic acid and H2O (4) None
131. The reactions of kreb’s cycle take place. 139. In monecious plants
(1) In endoplasmic reticulum (1) Male and female flowers and neutral flowers are
borne on the same plant.
(2) In the cytoplasm
(2) Male and female parts are borne on different
(3) On the surface of mitochondrion
plants.
(4) In matrixofmitochondrion (3) Male and female flowers parts are borne on same
plant but not on same flower.
132. According to cell theory. (4) Male and female parts on same flower.
(1) Cell can Reproduce
(2) Cell are living 140. In Amorphophallus vegetative reproduction is carried
(3) Cell are fundamental units out through.
(4) Cell have nuclei (1) Corm (2) Rhizome
(3) Bulbils (4) Offsets
133. Lignin is the main constituent in:
141. Roots are described as adventitious depending upon
(1) Woody tissues
their
(2) Phloem
(1) Function
(3) Growing tissue (2) Anatomy
(4) Cortex (3) Place of origin
(4) Position, aerial (or) underground

[14]
142. Perianth is?
(1) when only calyx is present
(2) outer part of flower in which calyx and corolla are
not always distinguishable
(3) when stamens and androecium are not
distinguishable
(4) None of the above
143. Which among the following is not a stem modification
(1) Corm of Colocasia
(2) Rhizome of ginger
(3) pitcher of Nepenthes
(4) Tuber of potato
144. ICBN means
(1) International classification of biological
nomenclature
(2) International class of biological nomenclature
(3) International code of biological naming
(4) International code of botanical nomenclature
145. A: Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh
habitats
B: Archaebacteria survive in extreme conditions due
to presence of peptidoglycan in their cell wall
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
146. Identify the correct sequence of taxa in Linnean
hierarchy.
(1) species, genus, family, order, class
(2) class family species, genus, order
(3) species, genus, phylum, family, class
(4) phylum, class, family, species, order
147. The phylogenetic system refers to grouping
(1) According to floral similarities
(2) According to all morphological characters
(3) According to evolutionary trends
(4) of plants in order of their increasing
complexities.
148. Lichens are well-known combination of an algae and
a fungus, where fungus has.
(1) A symbiotic relationship with the algae
(2) A parasitic relationship with algae
(3) An epiphytic relationship with algae
(4) A saprophytic relationship with algae
149. Virus envelope is known as
(1) capsid
(2) Nucleoprotein
(3) core
(4) prions
150. A: Red algae contributes in producing coral reef.
R: Some red algae secrete and deposit calcium
carbonate on their walls.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION - A Animal Phylum Characters
151. Select the correct statements with respect to (1) Cnidaria Found in polyp
cyclostomes: form,
(a) They have paired fins. it's common
(b) They have circular mouth without Jaws. name is
(c) They bear 6-15 pairs of gills. jellyfish
(d) They migrate to deep sea for spawning. (2) Cnidaria Coral-made up
of
Choose the most appropriate answer from the CaCO3
options given below : (3) Aschelminthes Developed
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only muscular
(3) (b) and (d) only (4) (a) and (d) only pharynx,
Pseudocoelomate

152. Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below :

[15]
 (4) Arthropoda Body is covered
by 159. Identify the various sites of circulatory system
calceseous shell, labelled A, B, C, D in diagram.
Respiration by
book-lungs

153. Which one of the following animal shows

bioluminiscence?
(1) Hydra
(2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Aurelia
(4) Obelia

154. Find out the correct statement with respect to Bone

:- (1) A - PO2 = 104 mm Hg
(1) Matrix is hard (2) B - PO2 = 40 mm Hg
(2) Having solid and pliable intracellular material (3) C - PCO2 = 40 mm Hg
which can resist compression (4) D - PCO2 = 40 mm Hg
(3) Chondrocytes are enclosed in small cavities 160. Match the terms given in column I with their
(4) At very few locations in vertebrates cartilage physiological processes given in Column II and
replacement occur by bone choose the correct answer.
155. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap Column-I Column-II
junctions are mostly found in which type of tissues?
A Proximal i Formation of
(1) Muscular tissue
convoluted concenterated
(2) Epithelial tissue
tubule urine
(3) Connective tissue
B Distal ii Absorption of
(4) Neural tissue
convoluted small
tubule amount of area
156. Female genital aperture of earthworm is located in
the segment :- C Henle's loop iii Reabsorption of
(1) 5 to 9 Nutrients
(2) 14 D Countercurrent iv Conditional
(3) 17 and 19 mechanism reabsorption
(4) 18 E Collecting v Maintenance of
duct concentration
157. Assertion : The sight, smell and presence of food gradient
in the oral cavity can stimulate secretion of saliva. in medulla
Reason : Salivary amylase works at pH-6.8.
(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason (1) A-iii B-v C-iii D-ii E-i
is a correct explanation of the assertion. (2) A-iii B-iv C-i D-v E-ii
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is (3) A-i B-iii C-ii D-v E-iv
not a correct explanation of the assertion. (4) A-iii B-i C-iv D-v E-ii
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false. 161. Urea, NaHCO3, K+, H+, NH3, uric acid, CO2
bilirubin, cholesterole oxalate salt, NaCl
158. What will happen if the secretion of oxyntic cells How many of the substances given above causes an
of the gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor? increasing osmotic gredient in renal matrix
(1) Gastric juice will be deficient in gastric lipase (1) Two (2) Six
(2) Absorption of vit B12 will remain occur (3) Eight (4) Four
(3) In the absence of secretion, pH will fall in
stomach 162. How many of the following statements is/are
(4) Protein will not be digested in stomach correct?

[16]
 (A) The number of RBC in human female is 5.5 to
6.0 billions/mm .
(B) WBCs are the most abundant cells of blood.
(C) Human RBCs is oval and non nucleated.
(D) Average life span of RBCs is 120 days.
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
163. In which the following group ventricle pumps out
mixed blood?
(1) Mammals (2) Amphibia
(3) Birds (4) Fishes
164. Find out incorrect statement :
(1) In heart attack, heart muscles are suddenly
damaged
(2) 130/90 is hypotension
(3) Heart failure and cardiac arrest are different
(4) Angina pectoris is identified as acute chest
pain
165. When a Neuron is not conducting any impulse i.e,
resting, the axonal membrane comparatively
________ to potassium ions (K+) and nearly
________ to sodium (Na+) ions:
(1) Less permeable, impermeable respectively
(2) More permeable, impermeable respectively
(3) Less permeable, more impermeable respectively
(4) Impermeable, impermeable respectively
166. Which part of peripheral nervous system is known
as voluntary nervous system :-
(1) Autonomic nervous system
(2) Visceral nervous system
(3) Somatic nervous system
(4) Sympathetic nervous system
167. In Human eye when Red, Green and Blue cones are
stimulated equally, a sensation of ___ is Produced:
(1) Red light
(2) Green light
(3) Blue light
(4) White light
168. In eye the visual acuity is greatest at :
(1) Macula lutea
(2) Blind spot
(3) Fovea centralis
(4) Limbus
169. Mark the correct statement :
(1) Vestibular apparatus is influenced by gravity
and movements
(2) Vestibular apparatus is a part of middle ear.
(3) The external ear receives sound waves and
directs them to the round window
(4) Both (1) and (2)
170. During muscle contraction -
A. I bands get reduced
B. A band retain the length
C. Length of sarcomere decrease.
D. Breakdown of ATP
E. H-zone remain unchange.
(1) Only A, B, C are correct
(2) Only A, B, C and D are correct
(3) Only A, B, C and E are correct
(4) All are correct statements
171. Which of the following statements are true /false?
i. Thyrocalcitonin regulates blood glucose
levels.
ii. Oxytocin stimulates contractions of uterine
muscles during birth.
iii. Grave’s disease is caused by malfunctioning
of the thyroid gland.
iv. ADH stimulates the absorption of water and
increased urine production.
(1) i and iii are true ; ii and iv are false
(2) i and ii are true ; iii and iv are false
(3) i and iv are false ; ii and iii are true
(4) i, ii and iii are true ; iv only false
172. Statement I : Progesterone acts on mammary
glands & stimulates the formation of alveoli and
milk secretion.
Statement II : ADH stimulates resorption of water
and electrolytes by distal tubules
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
173. _______ stimulates the synthesis and secretion of
steroid hormones from the _______ ?
(1) CRH, Adrenal Medulla
(2) Gonadotrophins, Gonads
(3) CRH, Adrenal Cortex
(4) ACTH, Adrenal medulla
[17]
174. Identify A, B and C in the diagramatic
representation of the mechanism of hormone
action.
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) A-Steroid Hormone; B-Hormone-receptor
Complex, C-Protein
(2) A-Protein Hormone, B-Receptor; C-Cyclic
AMP
(3) A-Steroid Hormone; B-Receptor, C – Second
Messenger
(4) A-Protein Hormone; B-Cyclic AMP, C-
Hormone-receptor Complex
175. Read the following statement carefully and answer
the question given below :
(A) Cyclic changes occurs in endometrium during
menstrual cycle.
(B) External thin membrane of uterus is
perimetrium.
(C) Strong uterine contraction occur in
myometrium at the time of parturition.
(D) The uterus opens into narrow cervix through
vagina.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) A and B (2) A, B and C
(3) A, B and D (4) B and D
176. Assertion : The male sex accessory ducts include
rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas
deferens
Reason : The male accessory glands include paired
seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired bulbourethral
glands.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the
reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason
is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong
177. Fill in the blanks in the following statements :-
The human male ejaculates about ........ million
sperms during a coitus of which, for normal
fertility, at least ........... percent sperms must have
normal shape and size and at least ........ percent of
them must show vigorous motility.
(1) 400 - 500, 60, 40 (2) 100 - 120, 40, 60
(3) 200 - 300, 60, 40 (4) 200 - 300, 40, 60
178. Which hormone is essential to maintain wall of
uterus during pregnancy?
(1) FSH (2) LH
(3) GnRH (4) Progesterone
179. Choose the incorrect statement :-
(1) In embryo transfer technique embryos with
more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into
the uterus.
(2) Artificial insemination technique is used when
female partner in couple is infertile.
(3) Amniocentesis is needed to test for presence
of sickle cell anaemia in foetus.
(4) Amniocentesis is misused to determine the sex
of the unborn child.
180. Assertion (A): Opium is derived from latex of
unripe fruits of papavar Somniferum
Reason (R): Excessive doses of drug may lead to
comma and death
(1) A and R are correct, R is correct explanation
of A.
(2) A and R are correct but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(4) A and R both are incorrect.
181. Brunner's glands are found in
(1) Submucosa of stomach
(2) Mucosa of duodenum
(3) Submucosa of duodenum
(4) Submucosa of ileum
182. Select the correct and incorrect statement from
following and choose the correct option :-
(A) According to theory of special creation, earth
is about 4000 years old.
(B) About 15 billion years ago, primates called
Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were
existing.
(C) Some land reptiles probably 300 million years
ago went back into water to evolve into fish
like reptiles
[18]
 Option Correct Incorrect (3) Virus (4) Insects

(1) A&B Only C 187. Primary structure of a protein relates to

(2) Only A B&C (1) α-helical folding of a polypeptide
(2) Association of two polypeptides
(3) B&C only A (3) The sequence of amino acids
(4) only B A&C (4) β-pleated sheet folding of a polypeptide

188. In water canal system of Spongilla, water flows

183. According to Darwin :-
through which one of the following way ?
(A) which are (B) and which make
(1) Spongocoel → ostia → osculum → exterior
resource utilization (C) for few, will enable
only those to reproduce and leave (D) progeny". (2) Ostia → spongocoel → osculum → exterior
Fill in the blanks and select correct option ? (3) Osculum → spongocoel → ostia → exterior
(4) Osculum → ostia → spongocoel → exterior
A B C D
189. In Ctenophora offspring is produced _______and
(1) Mutations Non- Best Less
development is _______ ?
directional
(1) Sexually & indirect.
(2) Variations Directional Better More (2) Asexually & indirect.
(3) Sexually and asexually both & direct.
(3) Variations Heritable Better More
(4) Sexually and asexually both & indirect.
(4) Heritable Trait good Few
184. Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA 190. Bones and cartilages are considered as :-
technology is incorrectly paired with its use? (1) Loose and dense connective tissue
(1) Restriction enzyme – Production of blunt ends respectively
(2) DNA ligase – Creates sticky ends of (2) Dense regular and dense irregular tissue
restriction fragments respectively
(3) DNA polymerase – used in a PCR to amplify (3) Both are specialised connective tissue
section of DNA
(4) Both are loose connective tissue
(4) Reverse transcriptase – Production of cDNA
from mRNA
191. Find out the correct pair for cockroach -
185. Match column-I with column-II and select the (1) A pair of testis 2nd to 4th abdominal segmental
correct answer from the codes given below. (2) Mushroom gland 6th to 7th abdominal
Column-I Column-II segmental
(A) PCR (i) Pest resistant (3) Titillator–Right phallomere
crop (4) Outermost layer of spermatophore– Utriculi
(B) Gene therapy (ii) Study of disease brevivores
(C) GM plant (iii) AIDS patients
(D) Transgenic (iv) Correction of 192. Protein coated fat globules are called___which are
animals genetic defect transported into ___ in villi
Select the correct option which correctly fills up
(1) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv) both the blanks:
(2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) (1) Cholesterol, capillaries
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) (2) Chylomicrons, Lacteals
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv) (3) Micelles, Chylomicrons
(4) Phospholipids, Lacteals
SECTION – B
186. The process of RNA interference has been used in
193. Find correct option about occupational respiratory
developement of plants resistant to:
disorders :
(1) Nematodes (2) Fungi

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 (1) Inflammation leading to Anemia (E) HIV destroys T-helper cells
(2) Not seen in stone grinding workers (1) One (2) Two
(3) Proliferation of muscular tissue (3) Three (4) Four
(4) Cause serious lung damage.
197. 'A' is an improved breed of cattle and 'B' is an
improved breed of chicken. Which of the following
194. Match the column-A and column-B about the options correctly identifies A and B?
embryonic development of human :-
Column-A Column-B
(i) End of one (a) Most of the major
month organ systems

(ii) End of (b) Appearance of

second hair on the head
month (1) A– Jersey, B–Leghorn
(2) A–Surti, B–Sangamneri
(iii) End of (c) Heart formation
(3) A–Marwari, B–Sirohi
third month (4) A– Beetal, B–Jamunapuri
(iv) During fifth (d) Eye-lids separated
month 198. Finches of Darwin in Galapagos island adapted for:
(1) Vegetarian
(v) End of sixth (e) Limbs and (2) Insect eating
month digits formation (3) Fish eating
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) (i) – e, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(2) (i) – e, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – b, (v) – d 199. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
(3) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – d (a) Bacillus (i) Cloning
(4) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – a, (iv) – b, (v) – d thuringiensis Vector
(b) Taq polymerase (ii) T-DNA
195. Statement-I :- There may even be some far (c) Agrobacterium (iii) Thermus
reaching implications of drug alcohol abuse. tumifaciens aquaticus
Statement-II :- The adverse effects of drug alcohol (d) pBR-322 (iv) Cry
abuse are just not restricted to the person who is Protein
using them. Select the correct option from the following:
Choose the correct answer from the given options:- (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct. (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is not (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
correct. (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are not (4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
correct. 200. In following figure of agarose gel electrophoresis,
(4) Statement-I is not correct but statement-II is which lane showing undigested DNA?
correct.

196. Select the correct statements about AIDS from the

statements given below :-
(A) It spreads through body fluids
(B) It also spreads through physical contact by
mere touch
(1) 1
(C) Intravenous drug addicts are more prone to
(2) 4
AIDS
(3) 3
(D) Now a days it is spreading through conscious
(4) 2
behaviour pattern

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