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TOTAL RECALL
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VETERINARY
PARASITOLOGY
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TIPS FOR VETERINARY
PARASITOLOGY
§ MEMORIZE > FAMILIARIZE
§ DR SALCEDO’S SAMPLEX IS KEY
§ PRONOUNCE THE SCIENTIFIC NAMES
§ INCLUDE THE FISHES

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TOTAL RECALL:
VETERINARY PARASITOLOGY
1. It is also called the brown stomach worm. (2016,
2019)
a. Ostertagia ostertagi
b. Ostertagia leptospicularis
c. Trichostrongylus axei
d. Habronema muscae
e. None of the above
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TOTAL RECALL:
VETERINARY
PARASITOLOGY
1. It is also called the

brown stomach
worm. (2016, 2019)
ü
Ostertagia
Source: Taylor, Coop, Wall. 2016. Veterinary Parasitology. Wiley-Blackwell.
ostertagi
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2. How long can the cockroach live without food?
(2016, 2017, 2019)
a. One week
b. One month
c. One year
d. One day
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2. How long can the cockroach live without food?

(2016, 2017, 2019)
üOne month
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3. The macronucleus of this ciliate is horseshoe-

shaped. (2016,2017)
a. Ichthyopthirius
b. Balantidium
c. Trichodina
d. None of the above

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3. The macronucleus of this ciliate is horseshoe-

shaped. (2016,2017)
ü Ichthyopthirius
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Source: https://www.researchgate.net/figure/a-White-spot-disease-caused-by-the-protozoan-Ichthyophthirius-multifiliis-
in-the_fig1_332582633
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4. Most common final host of the thorny-headed

worm. (2016)
a. Dog
b. Pig
c. Horse
d. Human
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4. Most common final host of the thorny-headed
worm. (2016)
a. Dog (occasional)
b. Pig
c. Human (occasional)
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5. This is called the nodular worm. (2016)
a. Haemonchus
b. Esophagostomum
c. Ostertagia
d. Trichostrongylus

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VETERINARY
PARASITOLOGY
5. This is called the nodular

worm. (2016)
ü Esophagostomum
Source:
https://web.stanford.edu/group/parasites/ParaSites2002/oesophagostomiasis/Intro.html#:~:t
ext=Although%20it%20is%20a%20well,of%20the%20host%20it%20infects.
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6. It causes the granular coccidiosis in carps. (2017)

a. Eimeria cyprinii
b. Eimeria subepithelialis
c. Eimeria carpelli
d. Eimeria aurata
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6. It causes the granular coccidiosis in carps. (2017)
ü Eimeria subepithelialis
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7. Eimeria perforans infects the small intestines of
which animal? (2019)
a. Cattle
b. Rabbit
c. Mouse
d. Deer
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7. Eimeria perforans infects the small intestines of which

animal. (2019)
ü Rabbit
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8. What is the average size of the female

giant kidney worm? (2017, 2019)
a. 30 cm
b. 40 cm
c. 80 cm
d. 100 cm
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8. What is the average

size of the female giant
kidney worm? (2017,
2019)
ü 100 cm
Source: Ferreira, et al. 2009. Dioctophyma renale in a dog: Clinical diagnosis and
surgical treatment. Vet Parasitology.
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9. Important coccidia of goldfish. (2016,

2017, 2018)
a. Eimeria annulate
b. Eimeria piriformis
c. Eimeria aurata
d. Eimeria tenella
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9. Important coccidia of goldfish. (2016, 2017, 2018)
ü Eimeria aurata
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10. Most common mode of transmission of

Toxoplasma gondii in kittens
a. Transplacental
b. Transmammary
c. Feco-oral
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10. Most common mode of transmission of Toxoplasma

gondii in kittens. (2016)
ü Transmammary
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11. Which of the following is a sexual form

of reproduction in protozoans? (2016)
a. Schizogony
b. Syngamy
c. Endopolyogeny

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11. Which of the following is a sexual form of

reproduction in protozoans? (2016)
ü Syngamy
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12. How does female Tabanus spp. eat its food?
(2016)
a. Chewing
b. Sucking
c. Gnawing

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12. How does female Tabanus spp. eat its food?

(2016)
üSucking
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13. Milk spots in the liver of pigs are caused by?
(2016)
a. Fasciola gigantica
b. Fascioloides magna
c. Ascaris suum
d. Schistosoma spindale
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13. Milk spots in the liver of pigs are

caused by? (2016)
üAscaris suum
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14. Merozoites are a product of? (2016)
a. Gametogony
b. Sexual reproduction
c. Asexual reproduction
d. Syngamy
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14. Merozoites are a product of? (2016)
üAsexual reproduction
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15. Among these species, which cannot be called
an arrow-headed worm? (2019)
a. Parascaris equorum
b. Toxocara vitulorum
c. Toxocara cati
d. Toxascaris leonina
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15. Among these species, which cannot

be called an arrow-headed worm?
(2019)
üToxascaris leonina
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16. What is the causative agent of Chaga’s
disease? (2016)
a. Trypanosoma cruzi
b. Trypanosoma evansi
c. Trypanosoma gambiense
d. Pentatrichomonas hominis
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16. What is the causative agent of

Chaga’s disease? (2016)
üTrypanosoma cruzi
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16. Which of the following orders have no wings?
(2016)
a. Phthiptera
b. Blattodea
c. Diptera
d. Brachycera
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16. Which of the following orders have

no wings? (2016)
üPhthiptera
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17. Leishmania adleri affects which of these
animals? (2018)
a. Parakeets
b. Lizard
c. Eagle
d. Bear
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17. Leishmania adleri affects which of

these animals? (2018)
üLizard
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18. How long can an adult flea survive without a
viable host? (2018)
a. 2-3 months
b. 4-7 days
c. 1-3 weeks
d. 8-9 hours
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18. How long can an adult flea survive

without a viable host? (2018)
ü4-7 days
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19. What insect causes lesion under the
ear of the pig? (2016)
a. Linognathus
b. Haematopinus
c. Damalinia
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19. What insect causes lesion under the ear of

the pig? (2016)
üHaematopinus
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20. How long is the lifespan of the adult
horse bot fly? (2016, 2018)
a. 5-6 days
b. 3-4 days
c. 1-2 days
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20. How long is the lifespan of the adult

horse bot fly? (2016, 2018)
ü1-2 days
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21. What is the size of the egg of
Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus? (2016)
a. 50-70 μm x 20-30 μm
b. 50- 70 mm x 20-30 mm
c. 80-100 mm x 40-50 mm
d. 80-100 μm x 40-50 μm

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21. What is the size of the egg of

Macracanthorhynchus
hirudinaceus? (2016)
ü 80-100 μm x 40-50 μm
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Source: Iran J Parasitol. 2015 Apr-Jun; 10(2): 245–249.

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22. How long is the prepatent period of Dirofilaria
immitis? (2016)
a. 1-2 months
b. 6-7 months
c. 9-10 months
d. 3-4 months

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22. How long is the prepatent period of

Dirofilaria immitis? (2016)
ü6-7 months
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Source: Today’s Veterinary Practice. https://todaysveterinarypractice.com/diagnosis-canine-heartworm-infection/

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23. The cause of scaly leg in parakeets? (2017, 2019)
a. Cnemidocoptes gallinae
b. Dermanyssus gallinae
c. Cnemidocoptes pilae
d. Ornithonyssus bursa

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23. The cause of scaly leg

in parakeets? (2017,
2019)
ü Cnemidocoptes
pilae
Source: http://www.birds-online.de/gesundheit/gesparasiten/grabmilben_en.htm
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24. A helminth that possesses both the female
and male reproductive organs. (2019)
a. Dioecious
b. Monoecious
c. Dichoptic

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24. A helminth that possesses both the female and male

reproductive organs. (2019)
ü Monoecious
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25. Which of these must be differentiated from
Dirofilaria immitis in a blood smear examination
for microfilaria? (2017)
a. Dipetalonema reconditum
b. Parafilaria multipapillosa
c. Dirofilaria corynoides

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25. Which of these must be differentiated from

Dirofilaria immitis in a blood smear examination
for microfilaria? (2017)
üDipetalonema reconditum
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Source: https://capcvet.org/guidelines/heartworm/
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26. Surra in Hindu means? (2016)

a. Rotten
b. Bloated
c. Discoloration

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26. Surra in Hindu means? (2016)
üRotten
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27. A fly with an arista that is plumose only

on its dorsal side? (2017, 2018)
a. Sarcophaga hemorrhoidalis
b. Glossina morsitans
c. Musca sorbens
d. Calliphora vomitoria
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27. A fly with an arista that is plumose

only on its dorsal side? (2017, 2018)
üGlossina morsitans (Tsetse fly)

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28. Adult insects are also called? (2017)

a. Marita
b. Coracidium
c. Imago

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29. Also called the variegated tick?

(2017)
a. Amblyomma cajennense
b. Dermacentor nigrolineatus
c. Amblyomma variegatum
d. Boophilus decoloratus
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29. Also called the variegated tick?

(2017)
üAmblyomma variegatum
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30. Drug of choice for the treatment of

coccidiosis? (2017)
a. Acriflavine
b. Metronidazole
c. Solustibosan
d. Amprolium
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30. Drug of choice for the treatment of

coccidiosis? (2017)
üAmprolium
TOTAL RECALL
Veterinary anatomy
TIPS FOR THE BOARD EXAM
Ø STAY HEALTHY
Ø STRICT TIME ALLOCATION
Ø ALWAYS QUIZ EACH OTHER
Ø FAMILIARIZE > MEMORIZE
TIPS FOR VETERINARY ANATOMY
Ø READ THE QUESTIONS AND CHOICES CAREFULLY;
ØIDENTIFY KEY WORDS
Ø FAMILIARIZE THE ILLUSTRATIONS TO VISUALIZE
Ø DO NOT GET INTIMIDATED
Ø DO NOT RELY TOO MUCH ON MNEMONICS

TOTAL RECALL: VET ANAT
1. The portion of the mandible that articulates with the
temporal bone is the: (2017, 2018)
a. Coronoid process
b. Angle
c. Condylar process
d. Zygomatic process
1. The portion of the mandible that articulates
with the temporal bone is the: (2017, 2018)
ØCONDYLAR PROCESS OF THE MANDIBLE
2. From a lateral approach, separation of which two
muscles would expose the lateral surface of the femoral
bone? (2017)
a. Triceps surae and semitendinosus
b. Semitendinosus and biceps femoris
c. Biceps femoris and vastus lateralis
d. Vastus lateralis and sartorius
2. From a lateral approach, separation of which two
muscles would expose the lateral surface of the femoral
bone? (2017)
ØBiceps femoris and vastus lateralis
Source: Lahunta et al. Guide to the Dissection of the Dog
3. Which germ layer was the nervous system
derived from? (2016)
a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Ectoderm and mesoderm
3. Which germ layer was the nervous system derived from? (2016)
Ø ECTODERM
4. What cells are in the lacunae of the bone?
(2018)
a. Chondrocytes
b. Osteocytes
c. Osteoclasts
d. Osteoblasts
4. What cells are in the isle of lacunae of the
bone? (2018)
ØOsteocytes
5. The primary action of the triceps brachii
muscle is to: (2017)
a. Flex the shoulder
b. Extend the shoulder
c. Flex the elbow
d. Extend the elbow
5. The primary action of the triceps brachii muscle is to: (2017)
ØExtend the elbow
6. The primary action of the internal obturator,
external obturator and the gemellus is to:
a. Flex the hip
b. Extend the hip
c. Adduct the hip
d. Rotate the pelvic limb
6. The primary action of the internal obturator, external obturator
and the gemellus is to:
ØRotate the pelvic limb
7. This animal has an organ that separates the glandular
and the non-glandular parts of its stomach: (2016)
a. Carabao
b. Dog
c. Cat
d. Goat
7. This animal has an organ that separates the glandular and the non-glandular
parts of its stomach: (2016)
ØNone of the above. HORSE.

Source: Dyce, Sack and Wensing.
2017. Textbook of Veterinary
Anatomy. Saunders
8. Which condition would most likely result in “sinking” of the right
carpal pad toward the floor surface where the limb supports weight?
(2017, 2018)
a. Fracture of the fourth carpal bone
b. Dislocation of the fourth carpal bone
c. Fracture of the accessory carpal bone
d. Dislocation of the accessory carpal bone
8. Which condition would most likely result in “sinking” of
the right carpal pad toward the floor surface where the limb
supports weight? (2017, 2018)
Ø Fracture of the accessory carpal bone

9. What protein is the ligamentum nuchae made of? (2017,
2018, 2019)
a. Laminin
b. Elastin
c. Fibronectin
d. Collagen
9. What protein is the ligamentum nuchae made of?
Ø Elastin
10. Muscle that functions to retract the tongue:
a. Genioglossus
b. Hyoglossus
c. Geniohyoideus
d. Mylohyoideus
10. Muscle that functions to retract the tongue:
Ø Hyoglossus
11. In adult animals, remnants of the fetal arterial blood supply from
the placenta provide blood to the: (2017)
a. Liver
b. Duodenum
c. Urinary Bladder
d. Linea alba
11. In adult animals, remnants of the fetal arterial blood supply from
the placenta provide blood to the: (2017)
ØUrinary Bladder
12. Which cartilage of the larynx is most responsible for preventing
collapse or constriction of the laryngeal airway? (2017)
a. Cricoid
b. Arytenoid
c. Thyroid
d. Epiglottis
12. Which cartilage of the larynx is most responsible for preventing
collapse or constriction of the laryngeal airway? (2017)
Ø Cricoid
13. What part of the gastrointestinal tract does feces form? (2019)
a. Colon
b. Ileum
c. Cecum
d. Jejunum
13. What part of the gastrointestinal tract does feces form? (2019)
Ø Ileum
14. The uveal tract is comprised of the following except: (2016)
a. Ciliary body
b. Retina
c. Iris
d. Choroid plexus
14. The uveal tract is comprised of the following except: (2016)
Ø Retina
15. Which of these animals possess a urethral process:
(2016)
a. Horse
b. Goat
c. Pig
d. Chicken
TOTAL RECALL:
VET ANAT
15. Which of these animals
possess a urethral process:
(2016)
Ø Goat
16. Which of cervical vertebra has very prominent ventrolaterally
projected transverse processes: (2018)
a. C8
b. C7
c. C2
d. C1
16. Which of cervical vertebra has very prominent ventrolaterally
projected transverse processes: (2018)
Ø C1 (Atlas)
17. During spermatogenesis, which of these become the first haploid:
(2019)
a. Spermatid
b. Spermatogonium
c. Primary spermatocyte
d. Secondary spermatocyte
17. During spermatogenesis, which of these become the first haploid:
(2019)
Ø Secondary spermatocyte
Source: Mcgeady, et al. 2006. Veterinary Embryology
18. Which of these animals possess a continuous eruption of incisors:
(2019)
a. Goat
b. Cow
c. Rabbit
d. Snake
TOTAL RECALL:
VET ANAT
18. Which of these
animals possess a
continuous eruption
of incisors: (2019)
Ø Rabbit
Source: seavs.com
19. What is the main difference of the physical appearance of goats
vs. sheep? (2017)
a. Beards
b. Facial glands
c. Hair coat
d. Horns/antlers
19. What is the main difference of the physical appearance of goats
vs. sheep? (2017)
Ø Beards
20. Which muscle aids in voiding of urine or semen from the penis?
(2017)
a. Bulbospongiosus
b. Ischiocavernosus
c. Retractor penis
d. Urethralis
TOTAL RECALL:
VET ANAT
20. Which muscle aids
in voiding of urine or
semen from the penis?
(2017)
Ø Urethralis
From: TF Fletcher 2012. Applied Anatomy of the Dog - Cat: Lower Urinary Tract
21. Which part of the vertebrae is the most stable and resilient
against disc herniation due to the intercapital ligaments? (2019)
a. Cervical
b. Cranial Thoracic
c. Caudal Thoracic
d. Both cranial and caudal thoracic
21. Which segment of the vertebrae is the most stable and resilient
against disc herniation due to the intercapital ligaments? (2019)
Ø CranialThoracic
Vertebrae
Source: Lahunta et al. Guide to the Dissection of the Dog

22. Which portion of the ruminant ribcage is the widest portion?
(2018)
a. 1st-3rd ribs
b. 3rd-5th ribs
c. 6th-8th ribs
d. 9th-12th ribs
22. Which portion of the ruminant ribcage is the widest portion?
(2018)
Ø 6th-8th ribs
23. Which bone is the least stressed during the support phase of
locomotion? (2018)
a. Ulna
b. Radius
c. Tibia
d. Fibula
23. Which bone is the least stressed during the support phase of
locomotion? (2018)
Ø Ulna
24. Lobe of the lung absent in horse? (2016)
a. Right middle lobe (cardiac lobe)
b. Right accessory lobe (intermediate lobe)
c. Right caudal lobe (diaphragmatic lobe)
d. Left caudal lobe (diaphragmatic lobe)
24. Lobe of the lung absent in horse? (2016)
Ø Right middle lobe (cardiac lobe)

25. Which epaxial muscle acts as a stabilizer of the vertebral column?
(2017)
a. iliocostalis thoracis
b. interspinales
c. longissimus thoracis et luborum
d. multifidus
e. none of the above
25. Which epaxial muscle acts as a stabilizer of the vertebral column?
(2017)
Ø multifidus
26. Which part of the wall of the equine hoof provides the most
support? (2018, 2019)
a. stratum externum
b. stratum medium
c. stratum lamellatum
d. laminar corium
26. Which part of the wall of the equine hoof provides the most
support? (2018, 2019)
Ø stratum medium
27. Modified skin in the base of the horn of bovines (2019)
27. Modified skin in the base of the horn of bovines (2019)
Ø Epikaras
28. Tearing and separation of the tendon of insertion of which
muscle woud most seriously impair an animal’s ability to stand on
the affected limb? (2017)
a. biceps brachii
b. quadriceps femoris
c. gastrocnemius
d. deep digital flexor
28. Tearing and separation of the tendon of insertion of which
muscle woud most seriously impair an animal’s ability to stand on
the affected limb? (2017)
Ø quadriceps femoris
29. Which of the following is the dental formula of the dog? (2016)
a. 2 (3/3 1/1 4/4 2/3)
b. 2 (3/3 1/1 3/2 1/1)
c. 2 (0/4 1/1 3/3 3/3)
d. 2 (3/3 1/1 4/4 3/3)
29. Which of the following is the dental formula of the dog? (2016)
Ø2 (3/3 1/1 4/4 2/3) - dog

Ø2 (3/3 1/1 3/2 1/1) - cat
Ø2 (0/4 1/1 3/3 3/3) - cattle
Ø2 (3/3 1/1 4/4 3/3) - horse
30. Which of these classifications of eggs have the least yolk but are
equally distributed? (2018, 2019)
a. Microlecithal
b. Mesolecithal
c. Isolecithal
d. Macrolecithal
30. Which of these classifications of eggs have the least yolk but
equally distributed? (2018, 2019)
ØIsolecithal
31. Arterial supply of lower dental arcade? (2019)
31. Arterial supply of lower dental arcade? (2019)
Ø Inferior alveolar
32. How many lobes are present in the kidney of the chicken? (2016)
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
32. How many lobes are present in the kidney of the chicken? (2016)
Ø 3
33. In pigs, which teeth are especially dangerous, necessitating
detusking? (2017)
a. Maxillary incisors
b. Mandibular canines
c. Maxillary molars
d. Mandibular molars
33. In pigs, which teeth are especially dangerous, necessitating
detusking? (2017)
Ø Mandibular canines
Source: http://www.vivo.colostate.edu/hbooks/pathphys/digestion/pregastric/pigpage.html
34. What is the adult fate of the genital tubercle? (2018)
a. Vulva
b. Cervix
c. Vestibule
d. Clitoris
34. What is the adult fate of the genital tubercle? (2018)
Ø Clitoris
35. What is the future fate of the paraxial mesoderm? (2016)
a. Somitomeres
b. Somites
c. Dermomyotomes
d. Sclerotomes
35. What is the future fate of the paraxial mesoderm? (2016)
Ø Somitomeres
36. Which organ is transitional epithelium present? (2016)
a. Penile urethra
b. Ureter
c. Urinary bladder
d. Pelvic urethra
36. Which organ is transitional epithelium present? (2016)
Ø Urinary bladder
37. Where can you find Hassal’s corpuscles? (2019)
a. Mesenteric lymph nodes
b. Bursa of fabricius
c. Thymus
d. Cervical lymph nodes
37. Where can you find Hassal’s corpuscles? (2019)
Ø Thymus
Source: https://www.dartmouth.edu/~anatomy/Histo/lab_6/lymphoid/DMS117/popup.html
38. Which of the following cranial nerves are involved in the process
of swallowing food bolus? (2017)
a. Trigeminal, Vagus, Accessory
b. Glossopharyngeal, Vagus, Hypoglossal
c. Trigeminal, Abducens, Vagus
d. Trigeminal, Glossopharyngeal, Hypoglossal
38. Which of the following cranial nerves are involved in the process
of deglutition? (2017)
ØGlossopharyngeal, Vagus,
Hypoglossal
39. Which of the following is the main function of the air sacs?
(2017)
a. To provide buoyancy
b. To exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide
c. To pull and push air out of the lungs
d. To separate internal organs
39. Which of the following is the main function of the air sacs?
(2017)
Ø To pull and push air out of the lungs

40. Which of the following animals has submucosal glands
throughout the length of its esophagus? (2019)
a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Giraffe
d. Carabao
40. Which of the following animals have submucosal glands
throughout the length of its esophagus? (2019)
Ø Dog
41. One of these is a paired muscle that functions to open the jaw?
(2016)
a. Medial and lateral pterygoids
b. Digastricus
c. Masseter
d. Temporalis
41. One of these is a paired muscle that functions to open the jaw?
(2016)
Ø Digastricus
Medial and lateral pterygoids – closes the jaw
Masseter – closes the jaw (well-developed in herbivores)
Temporalis – closes the jaw (largest muscle in the head)
42. Which vessel is the most appropriate for collection of 20 ml of
blood from a healthy, mature sow? (2017)
Ø Cranial vena cava
Ø Jugular vein
Ø Auricular vein
Ø Tail vein
Ø None of the above
42. Which vessel is the most appropriate for collection of 20 ml of
blood from a healthy, mature sow? (2017)
Ø Cranial vena cava

43. In the early development of the brain, all of these are the three
brain vesicles except: (2019)
a. Prosencephalon
b. Rhombencephalon
c. Mesencephalon
d. Diencephalon
43. In the early development of the brain, all of these are the three
brain vesicles except: (2019)
Ø Diencephalon
https://www.drawittoknowit.com/course/embryology/glossary/developmental-process/brain-vesicles
44. Caudal movement of the proximal portion of the tibia, relative to
the femur, indicates what the tearing of the: (2019)
a. Caudal cruciate ligament
b. Cranial cruciate ligament
c. Collateral ligament
d. Meniscofemoral ligament
44. When limb bears weight, caudal movement of the proximal
portion of the tibia, relative to the femur, indicates what the tearing
of the: (2019)
Ø Caudal cruciate ligament

45. The blastodisc, from which the chick embryo arises, is made of
what cells? (2019)
a. Blastocytes
b. Blastomeres
c. Blastic cells
d. Blastoderm
45. The blastodisc, from which the chick embryo arises, is made of
what cells? (2019)
Ø Blastomeres
46. Muscle most closely in contact with the ventral surface of the
cervical vertebrae and intervertebral disks is: (2019)
a. Sternohyoideus
b. Sternocephalicus
c. Longus colli
d. Longus capiti
46. Muscle most closely in contact with the ventral surface of the
cervical vertebrae and intervertebral disks is: (2019)
Ø Longus colli
47. Embryological origin of the median ligament of the bladder?
(2018)
47. Embryological origin of the median ligament of the bladder?
(2018)
Ø urachus and the umbilical arteries

48. An incision through the skin and superficial fascia over the
ventral portion of the eleventh intercostal space would first reveal
which subcutaneous skeletal muscle? (2017)
a. thoracic diaphragm
b. latissimus dorsi
c. external abdominal oblique
d. external intercostal
48. An incision through the skin and superficial fascia over the
ventral portion of the eleventh intercostal space would first reveal
which subcutaneous skeletal muscle? (2017)
Ø external abdominal oblique

49. Also called the trumpeter’s muscle (2016)
a. Zygomaticus
b. Sternocephalicus
c. Buccinator
d. Diaphragm
49. Also called the trumpeter’s muscle (2016)
Ø Buccinator
50. Belt-like cell-to-cell junction: (2016)
a. Zonula occludens
b. Zonula adherens
c. Desmosome
d. Hemidesmosome
50. Belt-like cell-to-cell junction: (2016)
Ø Zona adherens
Source: Dellman’s textbook of Veterinary Anatomy

TOTAL RECALL
VETERINARY PHYSIOLOGY
TOTAL RECALL: VET PHYSIO
1. What is the most essential agent for stimulation of secretion of
hydrochloric acid by the parietal cell? (2017)
A. gastrin
B. acetylcholine
C. cholecystokinin
D. histamine
E. None of the above
1. What is the most essential agent for stimulation of secretion of
hydrochloric acid by the parietal cell? (2017)
ØHistamine
2. The second heart sound (S2) is produced by closure of which
heart valves? (2019)
A. aortic and mitral
B. mitral and pulmonary
C. mitral and tricuspid
D. aortic and pulmonary
E. none of the above
2. The second heart sound (S2) is produced by closure of which
heart valves? (2019)
Ø Aortic and pulmonary

3. How long is the gestation period of rabbits? (2016)
A. 31 days
B. 30 days
C. 29 days
D. 28 days
3. How long is the gestation period of rabbits? (2016)
Ø 31 days
4. This animal has an oval red blood cell. (2016)
A. Horse
B. Dog
C. Camel
D. Goat
4. This animal has an oval red blood cell. (2016)
Ø Camel
Source: https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/66898/picture-of-a-camels-red-blood-cells
5. Depolarization of the T tubule is directly linked to the opening
of the calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the:
(2017)
A. Cardiac muscles
B. Skeletal muscles
C. Both cardiac and skeletal muscles
D. none of the above
5. Depolarization of the T tubule is directly linked to the opening
of the calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the:
(2017)
Ø Skeletal muscles
6. Which part of the brain influences conscious movements of the
body? (2018)
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Hypothalamus
D. Forebrain
6. Which part of the brain influences conscious movements of the
body? (2018)
Ø Cerebrum
7. Colostrum is absorbed via: (2017)
A. Phagocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Facilitated transport
D. Active transport
7. Colostrum is absorbed via: (2017)
Ø Pinocytosis
8. The major source of blood urea is the: (2017)
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Intestines
8. The major source of blood urea is the: (2017)
Ø Liver
9. What is the ideal sperm concentration of dogs? (2016)
A. 100 million/ml
B. 250 million/ml
C. 300 million/ml
D. 400 million/ml
9. What is the ideal sperm concentration of dogs? (2016)
Ø 300 million/ml
10. Which best describes Heinz bodies in the red blood cells?
(2019)
A. Denatured hemoglobin
B. Nuclear remnants
C. Mitochondrial remnants
D. Digested organelle
TOTAL
RECALL: VET
PHYSIO
10. Which best describes
Heinz bodies in the red blood
cells? (2019)
ØDenatured
hemoglobin
Source: https://eclinpath.com/hematology/morphologic-features/red-blood-cells/rbc-inclusions/heinz-body-hemolytic-anemia-in-cat-with-acetaminophen-toxicosis/
11. These photoreceptors in the retina that function in low or dim
light are known as: (2016)
A. Rods
B. Cones
C. Both rods and cones
D. None of the above
11. These photoreceptors in the retina that function in low or dim
light are known as: (2016)
Ø Rods
12. The osmolality of the plasma relative to extravascular fluid is
provided by: (2017)
A. carbohydrates
B. albumin
C. inorganic ions
D. lipids
12. The osmolality of the plasma relative to extravascular fluid is
provided by: (2017)
Ø Albumin
13. Which part of the ruminant stomach is the site of the production of
volatile fatty acids? (2019)
A. Abomasum
B. Omasum
C. Rumen
D. Reticulum
13. Which part of the ruminant stomach is the site of the
production of volatile fatty acids? (2019)
Ø Rumen
14. How long is the half-life of oxytocin? (2019)
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 4-5 minutes
C. 8-9 minutes
D. 6-10 minutes
14. How long is the half-life of oxytocin? (2019)
Ø 1-2 minutes
15. Concerning heart sounds, which statement is correct? (2017)
A. the 1st sound corresponds to opening of the AV valves
B. the 2nd sound corresponds to closure of the AV valves
C. the 3rd sound is produced by rapid diastolic ventricular filling
D. the 4th sound is produced by turbulence of blood flow
15. Concerning heart sounds, which statement is correct? (2017)
Ø the 3rd sound is produced by rapid diastolic

ventricular filling
16. Pigs exhibit what type of placenta? (2016)
A. Epitheliochorial
B. Hemochorial
C. Endotheliochorial
D. Syndesmochorial
16. Pigs exhibit what type of placenta? (2016)
Ø Epitheliochorial
17. Pepsinogen is activated by? (2017)
A. Food
B. Bile
C. Pepsin
D. Acid
17. Pepsinogen is activated by: (2017)
Ø Acid
18. Equine red blood cell volume is determined by: (2019)
A. PCV
B. HCT
C. MCHC
D. MCV
18. Equine red blood cell volume is determined by: (2019)
ØHCT
19. Which part of the mammary gland produces milk? (2019)
A. Lactiferous duct
B. Cisterns
C. Alveoli
TOTAL RECALL: VET
PHYSIO
19. Which part of the mammary gland
produces milk? (2019)
ØAlveoli
Source: Dellman, et al. 2006. Dellman’s Textbook of

Veterinary Histology. Wiley-Blackwell.
20. What vitamin aids in the epithelialization of the uterine lining?
(2019)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
20. What vitamin aids in the epithelialization of the uterine
lining? (2019)
ØVitamin A
21. Which hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland?
(2017)
A. ADH
B. Calcitonin
C. LH
D. Oxytocin
21. Which hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland?
(2017)
ØLH
22. This term refers to an abnormal breathing pattern characterized by
deep inspiration of air, almost like a gasping movement. (2018)
A. DRG
B. VRG
C. Apneustic
D. Pneumotaxic
22. This term refers to an abnormal breathing pattern
characterized by deep inspiration of air, almost like a gasping
movement. (2018)
ØApneustic
23. An increase in receptor numbers induced by a deficiency of the
hormone specific for those receptors is called? (2018)
A. Heterogenous downregulation
B. Homogenous upregulation
C. Heterogenous upregulation
D. Direct upregulation
23. An increase in receptor numbers induced by a deficiency of
the hormone specific for those receptors is called? (2018)
ØHomogenous upregulation
24. Part of the respiratory system where most of the filtering,
humidifying and warming of the inspired air occurs? (2018, 2019)
A. Nasal passages
B. Pharynx
C. Trachea
D. Nares
24. Part of the respiratory system where most of the filtering,
humidifying and warming of the inspired air occurs? (2018,
2019)
ØNasal passages
25. Which substance, when released by the sweat glands, produces
vasodilation? (2017, 2018, 2019)
A. Dopamine
B. Prostaglandin
C. Bradykinin
D. Serotonin
25. Which substance, when released by the sweat glands,
produces vasodilation? (2017, 2018, 2019)
ØBradykinin
26. Renin converts ____ into ____? (2016)
A. Angiotensinogen; Angiotensinogen II
B. Angiotensin I; Angiotensinogen II
C. Angiotensinogen; Angiotensinogen I
D. Angiotensin I; Angiotensinogen
26. Renin converts ____ into ____? (2016)
ØAngiotensinogen; Angiotensin I
27. What body part produces sex pheromones in dogs and cats? (2019)
A. Pineal gland
B. Prostate gland
C. Anal gland
D. Foot pads
27. What body part produces sex pheromones in dogs and cats?
(2019)
ØAnal gland
28. Which species is seasonally polyestrous and has a 17-day estrus
cycle? (2017)
A. Goat
B. Ewe
C. Elephant
D. Cat
28. Which species is seasonally polyestrous and has a 17-day
estrus cycle? (2017)
ØEwe
29. A hormone produced by the posterior pituitary gland. (2018)
A. ADH
B. Calcitonin
C. LH
D. Oxytocin
29. A hormone produced by the posterior pituitary gland. (2018)
ØADH
30. This segment of the male reproductive system is where the sperm
cells mature. (2018)
A. Seminiferous tubules
B. Vas deferens
C. Spermatic cord
D. Epididymis
30. This segment of the male reproductive system is where the
sperm cells mature. (2018)
ØEpididymis
31. The cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion is mediated by: (2017)
A. cholecystokinin
B. gastrin
C. secretin
D. acetylcholine
31. The cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion is mediated by :
(2017)
ØAcetylcholine
32. The following statement/s is/are not true regarding Kartagener’s
syndrome. (2017)
A. Congenital disease
B. Involves primary ciliary dyskinesia
C. Usually involves severe respiratory problems
D. Can be corrected with vincristine
32. The following statement/s is/are not true regarding
Kartagener’s syndrome. (2017)
Ø Can be corrected with vincristine
33. A decrease of this factor will increase blood flow turbulence. (2017,
2018, 2019)
A. Velocity of blood flow
B. Blood density
C. Blood pressure
D. Blood viscosity
33. A decrease of this factor will increase blood flow turbulence.
(2017, 2018, 2019)
ØBlood viscosity
34. This is the process in which the semen is delivered to the
penile urethra via muscular contraction. (2019)
A. Delivery
B. Emission
C. Expulsion
34. This is the process in which the semen is delivered to the
penile urethra via muscular contraction. (2019)
ØEmission
35. These muscles increase the angle in between bones. (2018)
A. Pronators
B. Flexors
C. Extensors
35. These muscles increase the angle in between bones. (2018)
ØExtensors
36. Supplemented in pancreatic enzyme deficiency (2018, 2019)
A. Low chain triglycerides
B. Medium chain triglycerides
C. High chain triglycerides
36. Supplemented in pancreatic enzyme deficiency (2018, 2019)
Ø Medium chain triglycerides

37. pH of saliva in most mammals. (2017)
A. Acidic
B. Alkalinic
C. Slightly acidic
D. Slightly alkalinic
E. Neutral
37. pH of saliva in most mammals. (2017)
ØSlightly alkalinic
38. What is the normal osmolarity of plasma? (2016)
A. 0.300 osm
B. 300 mOsm/kg
C. 0.300 mOsm/kg
D. 300 osm
38. What is the normal osmolarity of plasma? (2016)
Ø 0.300 osm
39. Temporal summation of muscle contraction is primarily due to:
(2017)
A. Increased size of the positive after potential
B. Increased cellular Na+ concentration
C. Decreased intracellular K+ concentration
D. Increased cellular Ca+ concentration
39. Temporal summation of muscle contraction is primarily due
to: (2017)
ØIncreased cellular Ca+

concentration
40. Renin is a/n ___ secreted by the ___ in response to ___. (2017)
A. Hormone; kidneys; hypertension
B. Hormone; lungs; hypertension
C. Enzyme; kidneys; hypotension
D. Enzyme; lungs; hypertension
40. Renin
is an ENZYME secreted by the
KIDNEYS in response to HYPOTENSION.
(2017)
41. This uterine layer is responsible for the secretion of uterine
milk. (2018)
A. Serosa
B. Myometrium
C. Endometrium
41. This uterine layer is responsible for the secretion of uterine
milk, a white secretion which serves as a nourishment for the
developing embryo. (2018)
ØEndometrium
42. This is the act of mating in sheep. (2016)
A. Coupling
B. Eweing
C. Tupping
D. Covering
42. This is the act of mating in sheep. (2016)
Ø Tupping
43. If the pH of a solution is 4, the pOH is? (2016, 2017, 2018,
2019)
43. If the pH of a solution is 4, the pOH is? (2016, 2017, 2018,
2019)
14 – 4 = 10
pOH is 10
Magic number: 14
44. The transverse motion of membrane lipids takes hours or days to
complete, while the transverse motion of membrane proteins: (2017)
A. faster
B. slower
C. never happen
D. takes months and years to complete
44. The transverse motion of membrane lipids takes hours or
days to complete, while the transverse motion of membrane
proteins: (2017)
Ønever happen
45. Which of the following appropriately defines diffusion of ions
across a biological membrane? (2017)
A. Net transfer down an electrochemical gradient
B. Net transfer against electrochemical gradient
C. Net transfer against a concentration gradient
D. Net transfer down an electrical gradient
45. Which of the following appropriately defines diffusion of ions
across a biological membrane? (2017)
ØNet transfer down an electrochemical gradient
46. Negative pressure is present in: (2016)
A. Thorax
B. Abdomen
C. Pleural cavity
D. Peritoneal cavity
46. Negative pressure is present in: (2016)
ØThorax
47. Where is the respiratory center of brain located? (2016)
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Cerebellum and pons
D. Medulla and pons
47. Where is the respiratory center of brain located? (2016)
ØMedulla and pons

48. What is the ideal volume of canine ejaculate? (2016, 2019)
A. 1 ml
B. 3 ml
C. 5 ml
D. 6 ml
48. What is the ideal volume of canine ejaculate? (2016, 2019)
Ø6 ml
49. The continuous bilayer appearance of the plasma membrane is
attributed to the: (2017)
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
C. Proteins
D. Ion channels
49. The continuous bilayer appearance of the plasma membrane
is attributed to the: (2017)
ØLipids
50. Which does not have a digestive function? (2017)
A. Trypsinogen
B. Pepsin
C. Ribonuclease
D. Beta-glucosidase
50. Which does not have a digestive function? (2017)
ØTrypsinogen
ZOOTECHNICS
TOTAL RECALL 2020

KATRINA PAZ D. CALIMAG, DVM
1. Socialization among foals starts at what age?
a. 1-2 months
b. 2-3 months
c. 3-4 months
d. 4-5 months
1. Socialization among foals starts at what age?
a. 1-2 months
b. 2-3 months
c. 3-4 months
d. 4-5 months
2. Corn fodder is a type of?
a. Roughage
b. Concentrate
c. Mixed feed
d. Pasture
2. Corn fodder is a type of?
a. Roughage
b. Concentrate
c. Mixed feed
d. Pasture
3. Which of the following is expressed as a
dominant gene?
a. Polled
b. Holed
c. Horned
3. Which of the following is expressed as a
dominant gene?
a. Polled
b. Holed
c. Horned
4. Where did the Angus X Brahman originate?
a. UK
b. Germany
c. USA
d. Italy
4. Where did the Angus X Brahman originate?
a. UK
b. Germany
c. USA
d. Italy
5. Why do hamsters should not be placed in one
cage?
a. Because they’re allergic to each other

b. Because they mate
c. Because they prefer to be alone
d. Because they fight
5. Why do hamsters should not be placed in one
cage?
a. Because they’re allergic to each other

b. Because they mate
c. Because they prefer to be alone
d. Because they fight
6. Breed that produces white eggs
a. Barred Plymouth Rock

b. White Plymouth Rock
c. White Leghorn
d. Black Australorp
6. Breed that produces white eggs
a. Barred Plymouth Rock

b. White Plymouth Rock
c. White Leghorn
d. Black Australorp
7. What is the age of goats for disbudding?
a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks
c. weeks
d. weeks
7. What is the age of goats for disbudding?
a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks
c. weeks
d. weeks
8. Best site for venipuncture in a pregnant sow
a. External jugular vein

b. Internal jugular vein
c. Ear vein
d. cephalic vein
8. Best site for venipuncture in a pregnant sow
a. External jugular vein

b. Internal jugular vein
c. Ear vein
d. cephalic vein
9. Gestation period of Pigs
a. 54
b. 72
c. 114
d. 150
9. Gestation period of Pigs
a. 54
b. 72
c. 114
d. 150
10. Gestation period of Ewes:
a. 54
b. 72
c. 114
d. 150
10. Gestation period of Ewes:
a. 54
b. 72
c. 114
d. 150
11. Gestation period of Guinea Pigs:
a. 34-58
b. 59-72
c. 75-80
d. 92-98
11. Gestation period of Guinea Pigs:
a. 34-58
b. 59-72
c. 75-80
d. 92-98
12. Chromosome number of sheep
a. 51
b. 52
c. 53
d. 54
12. Chromosome number of sheep
a. 51
b. 52
c. 53
d. 54
13. How many generations of full-sibling mating
are needed to attain pure inbred mice?
a. 10
b. 12
c. 20
d. 30
13. How many generations of full-sibling mating
are needed to attain pure inbred mice?
a. 10
b. 12
c. 20
d. 30
14. Breed that produces brown eggs
a. Plymouth rock
b. Ameraucana
c. Andalusian
d. Ancona
14. Breed that produces brown eggs
a. Plymouth rock
b. Ameraucana
c. Andalusian
d. Ancona
15. The ff breeds of pigs have drooping ears
except
a. Landrace
b. Duroc
c. Pietrain
15. The ff breeds of pigs have drooping ears
except
a. Landrace
b. Duroc
c. Pietrain
16. Incubation period of an ostrich egg
a. 32 days
b. 42 days
c. 52 days
d. 62 days
16. Incubation period of an ostrich egg
a. 32 days
b. 42 days
c. 52 days
d. 62 days
17. Meat of goat
a. Chevon
b. Chevalin
c. Mutton
d. Beef
17. Meat of goat
a. Chevon
b. Chevalin
c. Mutton
d. Beef
18. This breed has red to cherry red color,
drooping ears
a. Berkshire
b. Pietrain
c. Duroc
d. Landrace
18. This breed has red to cherry red color,
drooping ears
a. Berkshire
b. Pietrain
c. Duroc
d. Landrace
19. Major protein in mammalian milk
a. Casein
b. Rennin
c. Prolamin
d. Lectin
19. Major protein in mammalian milk
a. Casein
b. Rennin
c. Prolamin
d. Lectin
20. Fruit toxic to birds
a. Apples
b. Cherries
c. Oranges
d. Avocado
20. Fruit toxic to birds
a. Apples
b. Cherries
c. Oranges
d. Avocado
21. What do you call a pig castrated before sexual
maturity
a. Stud
b. Barrow
c. Stag
d. Gilt
21. What do you call a pig castrated before sexual
maturity
a. Stud
b. Barrow
c. Stag
d. Gilt
22. What is the color of the beak and legs of a
White leghorn ?
a. White
b. Pink
c. Yellow
d. Red
22. What is the color of the beak and legs of a
White leghorn ?
a. White
b. Pink
c. Yellow
d. Red
23. Wat do you call a castrated boar after sexual
maturity?
a. Stud
b. Barrow
c. Stag
d. Gilt
23. Wat do you call a castrated boar after sexual
maturity?
a. Stud
b. Barrow
c. Stag
d. Gilt
24. What color of horse has brown body with
black mane tail ears legs?
a. Chestnut
b. Bay
c. Black
d. Brown
24. What color of horse has brown body with
black mane tail ears legs?
a. Chestnut
b. Bay
c. Black
d. Brown
25. How to restrain horse with minimum effort ?
a. Use a rope
b. Use a twitch
c. Put horse in stable
25. How to restrain horse with minimum effort ?
a. Use a rope
b. Use a twitch
c. Put horse in stable
26. Which animal is dependent on sunlight to
utilize vitamin D?
a. Salamander
b. Frog
c. Crocodile
d. Cat
26. Which animal is dependent on sunlight to
utilize vitamin D?
a. Salamander
b. Frog
c. Crocodile
d. Cat
27. All of the following grass is used as feed except
a. Timothy grass
b. Foxtail
c. Sorghum
27. All of the following grass is used as feed except
a. Timothy grass
b. Foxtail
c. Sorghum
28. Which of the following mineral is important for
cattle and goat?
a. Chromium
b. Molybdenum
c. Nickel
d. Salt
28. Which of the following mineral is important for
cattle and goat?
a. Chromium
b. Molybdenum
c. Nickel
d. Salt
29. Which is the color of the legs and beak of the
White Plymouth Rock?
a. White
b. Pink
c. Yellow
d. Red
29. Which is the color of the legs and beak of the
White Plymouth Rock?
a. White
b. Pink
c. Yellow
d. Red
30. Napier is commonly harvested through cut
and carry because of
a. Tall Grass length

b. Short Grass length
c. Very tough Grass
d. Grass taste
30. Napier is commonly harvested through cut
a. Tall Grass length

b. Short Grass length
c. Very tough Grass
d. Grass taste
30. Napier is commonly harvested thrrough cut
Napier ( Pennisetum purpureum)

31. Which among the ff. is a dual purpose cattle
breed?
a. Simmental
b. Holstein Friesian
c. Angus
d. Belgian Blue
31. Which among the ff. is a dual purpose cattle
breed?
a. Simmental
b. Holstein Friesian
c. Angus
d. Belgian Blue
32. What breed of goat is used for meat?
a. Toggenburg
b. La Mancha
c. Guernsey
d. Boer
32. What breed of goat is used for meat?
a. Toggenburg
b. La Mancha
c. Guernsey
d. Boer
33. When will an ostrich start laying eggs?
a. 1 year old
b. 2 years old
c. 4 years old
d. 5 years old
33. When will an ostrich start laying eggs?
a. 1 year old
b. 2 years old
c. 4 years old
d. 5 years old
34. What is the first sign of courting in Philippine
eagles?
a. Offering food
b. Mating calls
c. Aerial display
d. Nest building
34. What is the first sign of courting in Philippine
eagles?
a. Offering food
b. Mating calls
c. Aerial display
d. Nest building
35. Which is NOT a basis for choosing a terminal
sire?
a. Excellent growth rate

b. Well-developed muscles of loin and leg
c. High libido
d. Good mothering ability
35. Which is NOT a basis for choosing a terminal
sire?
a. Excellent growth rate

b. Well-developed muscles of loin and leg
c. High libido
d. Good mothering ability
36. At what age is a heifer earliest bred?
a. 10 – 12 months
b. 12 – 14 months
c. 14 – 16 months
d. 16 – 18 months
36. At what age is a heifer earliest bred?
a. 10 – 12 months
b. 12 – 14 months
c. 14 – 16 months
d. 16 – 18 months
37. Wind sucking is a common behavior seen in?
a. Mare
b. Queen
c. Cow
d. Bitch
37. Wind sucking is a common behavior seen in?
a. Mare
b. Queen
c. Cow
d. Bitch
38. The sexual maturity of tilapia in months is
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 7
38. The sexual maturity of tilapia in months is
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 7
39. Popcorning is a common behavior of?
a. Guinea pig
b. Hamster
c. Rats
d. Hare
39. Popcorning is a common behavior of?
a. Guinea pig
b. Hamster
c. Rats
d. Hare
40. Arched back and with bulging eyes when angry
is what animal?
a. Ram
b. Stallion
c. Boar
d. Bull
40. Arched back and with bulging eyes when angry
is what animal?
a. Ram
b. Stallion
c. Boar
d. Bull
41. Chemical which helps in making of salted egg
a. Saponin
b. Tanin
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
41. Chemical which helps in making of salted egg
a. Saponin
b. Tanin
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
42. Floating is a procedure which usually done in
what animal?
a. Rabbit
b. Horse
c. Pig
d. Cattle
42. Floating is a procedure which usually done in
what animal?
a. Rabbit
b. Horse
c. Pig
d. Cattle
43. Sexual maturity of Bangus
a. 1 year
b. 3-4 years
c. 5 years
d. 22 months
43. Sexual maturity of Bangus
a. 1 year
b. 3-4 years
c. 5 years
d. 22 months
44. What species is a bullock?
a. Ovine
b. Bovine
c. Porcine
d. Equine
44. What species is a bullock?
a. Ovine
b. Bovine
c. Porcine
d. Equine
45. Breed origin of fighting cocks in the Philippines
a. Banaba
b. Joloanon
c. Paraoakan
d. Darag
45. Breed origin of fighting cocks in the Philippines
a. Banaba
b. Joloanon
c. Paraoakan
d. Darag
46. Gait of horse (arrange from slowest to fastest)
1. Trot 2. Canter 3. Walk 4. Gallop
a. 3214
b. 3124
c. 3421
d. 3412
1. Trot 2. Canter 3. Walk 4. Gallop
a. 3214
b. 3124
c. 3421
d. 3412
1. Walk
2. Trot: 2-beat gait
3. Canter: 3-beat gait
4. Gallop: 4-beat gait
47. Humped breeds of cattle
a. Bos taurus
b. Bos indicus
c. Both A and B
d. NOTA
47. Humped breeds of cattle
a. Bos taurus
b. Bos indicus
c. Both A and B
d. NOTA
48. The ff. are dual purpose chicken breeds
EXCEPT
a. Rhode Island Red

b. Plymouth Rock
c. Cornish
d. Wyandotte
48. The ff. are dual purpose chicken breeds
EXCEPT
a. Rhode Island Red

b. Plymouth Rock
c. Cornish
d. Wyandotte
49. Egg bound refers to
a. Large eggs
b. Small eggs
c. Broken egg
d. Egg stuck in cloaca
49. Egg bound refers to
a. Large eggs
b. Small eggs
c. Broken egg
d. Egg stuck in cloaca
50. This is the type of cage used in layers
a. Single
b. Floor
c. Multi-layer
d. Battery
50. This is the type of cage used in layers
a. Single
b. Floor
c. Multi-layer
d. Battery
51. A foal that vocalizes, with its ears pinned while
bearing its teeth shows
a. Anxiety
b. Fear
c. Aggression
d. Calmness
51. A foal that vocalizes, with its ears pinned while
bearing its teeth shows
a. Anxiety
b. Fear
c. Aggression
d. Calmness
Additional:
1. Eggshell formation
2. The uterus or shell gland of the left oviduct is
responsible for the formation of the eggshell which
takes about 20–21 h in the chicken
Additional:
Familiarize on
Breeds
Color
Markings
Space requirements for cages/fences per species
Gestation period
Egg production
VETERINARY
PATHOLOGY
1) Osteoclast is stimulated by:
a. Parathormone
b. Calcitonin
c. Calcium
d. Growth hormone
1) Osteoclast is stimulated by:
a. Parathormone
b. Calcitonin – inhibitor
c. Calcium
d. Growth hormone
2) Osteoblast is stimulated by:
a. Parathormone
b. Calcitonin
c. Calcium
d. Growth hormone
2) Osteoblast is stimulated by:
a. Parathormone
b. Calcitonin
c. Calcium
d. Growth hormone
3) This disease is caused by fumonisin
in horses
a. Equine Leukoencephalomalacia
b. Equine influenza
c. Equine herpesvirus
d. Equine infectious anemia
3) This disease is caused by fumonisin
in horses
a. Equine Leukoencephalomalacia
b. Equine influenza
c. Equine herpesvirus
d. Equine infectious anemia
4) Aflatoxin affects which organ?
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Heart
d. Small intestines
4) Aflatoxin affects which organ?
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Heart
d. Small intestines
5) Ochratoxin affects which organ?
a. Spleen
b. Kidney
c. Heart
d. Small intestines
5) Ochratoxin affects which organ?
a. Spleen
b. Kidney
c. Heart
d. Small intestines
6) What is the color of an atelectatic
lung?
a. dark purple
b. dark blue
c. light yellow
d. Light red
lung?
a. dark purple
b. dark blue
c. light yellow
d. Light red
lung?
a. dark purple
b. dark blue
c. light yellow
d. Light red
7) Cells infected by EIA
a. Macrophages
b. Neutrophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Plasma cells
7) Cells infected by EIA
a. Macrophages
b. Neutrophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Plasma cells
8) Which of the following is the clinical
signs of EIA
a. Emaciation
b. Small hemorrhages
c. Pale mm
d. Vomiting
8) Which of the following is the clinical
signs of EIA
a. Emaciation
b. Small hemorrhages
c. Pale mm
d. Vomiting
9) Coggin’s test is used to diagnose
what disease?
a. Equine influenza
b. Equine herpesvirus
c. Equine infectious anemia
d. Equine Leukoencephalomalacia
9) Coggin’s test is used to diagnose
what disease?
a. Equine influenza
b. Equine herpesvirus
d. Equine Leukoencephalomalacia
10) What nerve is consistently affected
in Marek’s disease?
a. Sciatic nerve
b. Femoral nerve
c. Facial nerve
d. Radial nerve
10) What nerve is consistently affected
in Marek’s disease?
a. Sciatic nerve
b. Femoral nerve
c. Facial nerve
d. Radial nerve
11) Organ where dirofilaria cannot be
found
a. eye
b. brain
c. aorta
d. lymph node
11) Organ where dirofilaria cannot be
found
a. eye
b. brain
c. aorta
d. lymph node
12) Clinical signs manifested by
canine distemper survivor
a. Myoclonus
b. Jaundice
c. Vomiting
d. Skin hemorrhages
12) Clinical signs manifested by
canine distemper survivor
a. Myoclonus
b. Jaundice
c. Vomiting
d. Skin hemorrhages
13) Sample submitted for diagnostic
random testing for pseudorabies
a. Whole blood
b. Plasma
c. Serum
d. Urine
13) Sample submitted for diagnostic
random testing for pseudorabies
a. Whole blood
b. Plasma
c. Serum
d. Urine
14) What age does TGE affects?
a. All ages
b. Growers
c. Weaners
d. Sows
14) What age does TGE affects?
a. All ages
b. Growers
c. Weaners
d. Sows
15) What stain is used in staining the
capsule of bacillus anthracis?
a. Gram stain
b. Giemsa stain
c. Loeffer stain
d. Eosin Stain
15) What stain is used in staining the
capsule of bacillus anthracis?
a. Gram stain
b. Giemsa stain
c. Loeffer stain
d. Eosin Stain
16) Wet form / Diptheritic lesions of
flow pox can be found on?
a. Oropharynx
b. Spleen
c. Liver
d. kidney
16) Wet form / Diptheritic lesions of
flow pox can be found on?
a. Oropharynx
b. Spleen
c. Liver
d. kidney
17) These are methods to reduce
toxicity in cassava except
a. grinding
b. soaking in water
c. sun dry
d. chopping
17) These are methods to reduce
toxicity in cassava except
a. grinding
b. soaking in water
c. sun dry
d. chopping
18) What age group are greatly
affected by PED?
a. Growers
b. Suckling pigs
c. Sows
d. Weanlings
18) What age group are greatly
affected by PED?
a. Growers
b. Suckling pigs
c. Sows
d. Weanlings
19) When does autolysis start?
a. After death
b. Before death
c. During death
19) When does autolysis start?
a. After death
b. Before death
c. During death
20) Canine distemper causes enamel
hypoplasia due to?
a. direct infection of the enamel organ

b. chewing gum fits
c. specific virus infection of the
ameloblast
d. nervous damage
20) Canine distemper causes enamel
hypoplasia due to?
a. direct infection of the enamel organ

b. chewing gum fits
c. specific virus infection of the
ameloblast
d. nervous damage
21) What is the routine test for
microfilaria ?
a. direct smear
b. coagulated blood
c. ELISA
d. all of the above
21) What is the routine test for
microfilaria ?
a. direct smear
b. coagulated blood
c. ELISA
d. all of the above
22) What do you call the inflammation
of epiphysis of bone?
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Phlebitis
c. Necrosis
d. Osteoblastic
22) What do you call the inflammation
of epiphysis of bone?
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Phlebitis
c. Necrosis
d. Osteoblastic
23) FMD lesion is mostly found in
which part of the foot?
a. Coronet
b. Growth rings
c. Wall
d. Outer wall
23) FMD lesion is mostly found in
which part of the foot?
a. Coronet
b. Growth rings
c. Wall
d. Outer wall
24) What lesion is noted in Mad Cow
disease infected animal?
a. Fusiform
b. Filiform
c. Spongy
d. Fibrous
24) What lesion is noted in Mad Cow
disease infected animal?
a. Fusiform
b. Filiform
c. Spongy
d. Fibrous
25) What test is used to diagnose
PED?
a. direct smear
b. coagulated blood
c. ELISA
d. all of the above
25) What test is used to diagnose
PED?
a. direct smear
b. coagulated blood
c. ELISA
d. all of the above
26) What is the brain lesion seen in
ND?
a. Infarct
b. Hemorrhage
c. Demyelination
26) What is the brain lesion seen in
ND?
a. Infarct
b. Hemorrhage
c. Demyelination
26) FMD characteristic lesion
a. Tiger heart
b. Hemorrhagic spleen
c. Mottled liver
d. Brain damage
27) FMD characteristic lesion
a. Tiger heart
b. Hemorrhagic spleen
c. Mottled liver
d. Brain damage
28) Cause of death of calves that die
of FMD but not show any lesions?
a. Myocarditis
b. High viremia
c. Sepsis
d. Muscle trauma
28) Cause of death of calves that die
of FMD but not show any lesions?
a. Myocarditis
b. High viremia
c. Sepsis
d. Muscle trauma
29) Which of the following is sex
dependent?
a. CME
b. Pyometra
c. GDV
d. TVT
29) Which of the following is sex
dependent?
a. CME
b. Pyometra
c. GDV
d. TVT
30) Red infarct could be present in the
following organ, except:
a. Heart
b. Lungs
c. Small intestine
d. NOTA
30) Red infarct could be present in the
following organ, except:
a. Heart (and kidney): white infarct

b. Lungs
c. Small intestine
d. NOTA
31) Type II hypersensitivity is also
known as:
a. Delayed
b. Immediate
c. Immune-complex
d. Cytotoxic
31) Type II hypersensitivity is also
known as:
a. Delayed
b. Immediate
c. Immune-complex
d. Cytotoxic
32) Zebra-stripe lesion of rinderpest
indicates:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Ulceration
c. Erosion
d. NOTA
indicates:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Ulceration
c. Erosion
d. NOTA
indicates:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Ulceration
c. Erosion
d. NOTA
33) Lesion produced by
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an
example of what type of necrosis?
a. Liquefactive
b. Coagulative
c. Gangrenous
d. Caseous
a. Liquefactive
b. Coagulative
c. Gangrenous
d. Caseous
a. Liquefactive
b. Coagulative
c. Gangrenous
d. Caseous
a. Liquefactive
b. Coagulative
c. Gangrenous
d. Caseous
34) In lead poisoning in ruminants, it
lodges in what organ?
a. Rumen
b. Reticulum
c. Omasum
d. Adomasum
34) In lead poisoning in ruminants, it
lodges in what organ?
a. Rumen
b. Reticulum
c. Omasum
d. Adomasum
35) Milk spot is caused by:
a. Fibrosis
b. Necrosis
c. Metastasis
a. Fibrosis
b. Necrosis
c. Metastasis
a. Fibrosis
b. Necrosis
c. Metastasis
36) Least check vital organ during
necropsy of bird
a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Heart
d. Lungs
36) Least check vital organ during
necropsy of bird
a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Heart
d. Lungs
37) Enzyme released during muscle
necrosis:
a. lactase dehydrogenase
b. pyruvate dehydrogenase
c. glutamate dehydrogenase
37) Enzyme released during muscle
necrosis:
a. lactase dehydrogenase
b. pyruvate dehydrogenase
c. glutamate dehydrogenase
38) Areas to be cut to attain display
stage in necropsy of buffalo
a. Open the ribcage

b. Open the head
c. Cut the limbs
d.None of the above
38) Areas to be cut to attain display
stage in necropsy of buffalo
a. Open the ribcage

b. Open the head
c. Cut the limbs
d.None of the above
39) What to do in a carcass which is
suspected for anthrax?
a. Do necropsy
b. Bury to the ground
c. Refrigerate
d. NOTA
39) What to do in a carcass which is
suspected for anthrax?
a. Do necropsy
b. Bury to the ground
c. Refrigerate
d. NOTA
40) This animal should be carried in
such way to avoid struggling thus
causing spinal trauma
a. Rabbit
b. Snake
c. Cats
d. Hamster
40) This animal should be carried in
such way to avoid struggling thus
causing spinal trauma
a. Rabbit
b. Snake
c. Cats
d. Hamster
41) Animal with normal oval RBC
a. Horse
b. Goat
c. Camel
d. Monkey
41) Animal with normal oval RBC
a. Horse
b. Goat
c. Camel
d. Monkey
42) Megakaryocyte is true for the
following except
a. precursor to platelets
b. giant cell in bone marrow
c. multinucleated
d. multilobar nucleus
42) Megakaryocyte is true for the
following except
a. precursor to platelets
b. giant cell in bone marrow
c. multinucleated
d. multilobar nucleus
43) Philippines have been declared
free of the following OIE notifiable
diseases except
a. FMD
b. Peste de Petis Ruminantes
d. Rinderpest
43) Philippines have been declared
free of the following OIE notifiable
diseases except
a. FMD
b. Peste de Petis Ruminantes
d. Rinderpest
44) To demonstrate Giardia in a
sample, what stain will you use?
a. Loeffer stain
b. Giemsa stain
c. Acid-Schiff stain
d. Methylene blue
44) To demonstrate Giardia in a
sample, what stain will you use?
a. Loeffer stain
b. Giemsa stain
c. Acid-Schiff stain
d. Methylene blue
45) What vaccine is used for cattle to
prevent bovine respiratory complex
upon arrival at the feedlot?
a. Parainfluenza
b. Adeno virus 2
c. BVD MLV
d. Herpes virus
45) What vaccine is used for cattle to
prevent bovine respiratory complex
upon arrival at the feedlot?
a. Parainfluenza
b. Adeno virus 2
c. BVD MLV
d. Herpes virus
46) Why is cattle not greatly affect by
Mycotoxicosis?
a. Because they have immunity against
Mycotoxins
b. Because Mycotoxin is degraded in the rumen
c. Because of the special gene that blocks
Mycotoxin
d. Because Mycotoxin can be easily broken
down by saliva
46) Why is cattle not greatly affect by
Mycotoxicosis?
a. Because they have immunity against
Mycotoxins
b. Because Mycotoxin is degraded in the rumen
c. Because of the special gene that blocks
Mycotoxin
d. Because Mycotoxin can be easily broken
down by saliva
47) What is the lesion in poultry
affected by ochratoxin
a. fatty liver with hemorrhage

b. enlarged pale kidneys with urates
c. heart necrosis
d. All of the above
47) What is the lesion in poultry
affected by ochratoxin
a. fatty liver with hemorrhage

b. enlarged pale kidneys with urates
c. heart necrosis
d. All of the above
48) . For proper fixation, tissue samples
should be placed in 10% neutral buffered
formalin at a ratio of:
a. 4:1
b. 6:1
c. 8:1
d. 10:1
48) . For proper fixation, tissue samples
should be placed in 10% neutral buffered
formalin at a ratio of:
a. 4:1
b. 6:1
c. 8:1
d. 10:1
49) Avian Influenza is inactivated at:
a. 24 ºC, 24 hours
b. 28 ºC, 24 hours
c. 32 ºC, 24 hours
d. 38 ºC, 24 hours
49) Avian Influenza is inactivated at:
a. 24 ºC, 24 hours
b. 28 ºC, 24 hours
c. 32 ºC, 24 hours
d. 38 ºC, 24 hours
50) Migration of Ascaris larvae to the
lungs causes:
a. bronchopneumonia
b. granulomatous pneumonia
c. interstitial pneumonia
d. embolic pneumonia
50) Migration of Ascaris larvae to the
lungs causes:
a. bronchopneumonia
b. granulomatous pneumonia
c. interstitial pneumonia
d. embolic pneumonia
Familiarize on
Lesions
Necropsy
ADDL duty experiences
VETERINARY
PHARMACOLOGY
TOTAL RECALL 2020

1) What drug is a good choice for control
of seizures in cats?
a. Phenobarbital
b. Phenytoin
c. Diazepam
d. Primidone
1) What drug is a good choice for control
of seizures in cats?
a. Phenobarbital
b. Phenytoin
c. Diazepam
d. Primidone
2) Which of these are toxic to cats?
a. Phenobarbital
b. Phenytoin
c. Diazepam
d. Primidone
2) Which of these are toxic to cats?
a. Phenobarbital
b. Phenytoin
c. Diazepam
d. Primidone
3) These are all positive inotropes except
a. Digoxin
b. Milrinone
c. Dopamine
d. Hydralizine
3) These are all positive inotropes except
a. Digoxin
b. Milrinone
c. Dopamine
d. Hydralizine
4) Mycoplasma is resistant to
a. Ethanol
b. Alkaline detergent formulations
c. Quaternary ammonium compounds
d. Hydrogen peroxide
4) Mycoplasma is resistant to
a. Ethanol
b. Alkaline detergent formulations
c. Quaternary ammonium compounds
d. Alkaline detergent formulations
5) Sedative not to be used in horses
because with pre-existing cardiac
conditions
a. Xylazine
b. Acepromazine
c. Detomidine
d. Butorphanol
5) Sedative not to be used in horses
because with pre-existing cardiac
conditions
a. Xylazine
b. Acepromazine
c. Detomidine
d. Butorphanol
6) Other name for Arthus reaction
a. Hypersensitivity type I
b. Hypersensitivity type II
c. Hypersensitivity type III
d. Hypersensitivity type IV
6) Other name for Arthus reaction
a. Hypersensitivity type I
b. Hypersensitivity type II
c. Hypersensitivity type III
d. Hypersensitivity type IV
7) What is the usual cause of death in OP
poisoning?
a. Respiratory failure
b. Kidney failure
c. Muscle weakness
d. Liver failure
7) What is the usual cause of death in OP
poisoning?
a. Respiratory failure
b. Kidney failure
c. Muscle weakness
d. Liver failure
8) Why should 2-PAM be given IV slowly?
a. It causes kidney failure if given too fast

b. It causes respiratory arrest if given too
fast
c. It causes blindness if given too fast
8) Why should 2-PAM be given IV slowly?
a. It causes kidney failure if given too fast

b. It causes respiratory arrest if given too
fast
c. It causes blindness if given too fast
9) Which of these causes CNS toxicity?
a. Strychnine
b. Cycasin
c. N-propyl disulfide
d. Zinc phosphide
9) Which of these causes CNS toxicity?
a. Strychnine
b. Cycasin
c. N-propyl disulfide
d. Zinc phosphide
10) What is the toxin found in Cassava?
a. Strychnine
b. Cycasin
c. Cyanide
d. Zinc phospide
10) What is the toxin found in Cassava?
a. Strychnine
b. Cycasin
c. Cyanide
d. Zinc phospide
11) What is the toxin found in Ipil-Ipil?
a. Linamarin
b. Mimosine
c. Lotaustralin
d. Cyanide
11) What is the toxin found in Ipil-Ipil?
a. Linamarin
b. Mimosine
c. Lotaustralin
d. Cyanide
12) OP poisoning antidote
a. Atropine
b. Pralidoxime
c. 2-PAM
d. All of the above
12) OP poisoning antidote
a. Atropine
b. Pralidoxime
c. 2-PAM
d. All of the above
13) Most commonly used metaphylaxis in
calves
a. Florphenicol
b. Tilmicosine
c. Oxytetracycline
d. Ceftiofur
13) Most commonly used metaphylaxis in
calves
a. Florphenicol
b. Tilmicosine
c. Oxytetracycline
d. Ceftiofur
14) When should methaphylaxis be
given?
a. Within 24 hours upon arrival

b. After 3 days
c. Before arrival
d. After 7 days
14) When should methaphylaxis be
given?
a. Within 24 hours upon arrival

b. After 3 days
c. Before arrival
d. After 7 days
15) DOC for Erysipelas
a. Cefazolin
b. Enrofloxacin
c. Penicillin
d. Ceftiofur
15) DOC for Erysipelas
a. Cefazolin
b. Enrofloxacin
c. Penicillin
d. Ceftiofur
16) Which antiemetic drug is not safe for
a pregnant bitch
a. Maropitant
b. Metoclopramide
c. Ondansetron
d. Meclizine
16) Which antiemetic drug is not safe for
a pregnant bitch
a. Maropitant
b. Metoclopramide
c. Ondansetron
d. Meclizine
17) How does Fipronil spread from site of
administration?
a. Diffusion
b. Absorption
c. Elimination
17) How does Fipronil spread from site of
administration?
a. Diffusion
b. Absorption
c. Elimination
18) Concentration of Coumaphos in
commercially available products
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%
18) Concentration of Coumaphos in
commercially available products
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%
19) Effect of dexamethasone when given
in late term pregnancy
a. Abortion
b. Mummification of fetus
c. premature parturition
d. No effect
19) Effect of dexamethasone when given
in late term pregnancy
a. Abortion
b. Mummification of fetus
c. premature parturition
d. No effect
20) When methanol oxidizes, it becomes
a. formic acid
b. lactic acid
c. benzoic acid
d. acetic acid
20) When methanol oxidizes, it becomes
a. formic acid
b. lactic acid
c. benzoic acid
d. acetic acid
21) All of the following are bactericidal
EXCEPT
a. Streptomycin
b. Vancomycin
c. Azithromycin
d. Tobramycin
21) All of the following are bactericidal
EXCEPT
a. Streptomycin
b. Vancomycin
c. Azithromycin
d. Tobramycin
22) Anti coagulant found in guava
a. Quercetin
b. Tannic acid
c. Vitamin K
d. Warfarin
22) Anti coagulant found in guava
a. Quercetin
b. Tannic acid
c. Vitamin K
d. Warfarin
23) All of the following should strictly not
be administered with tiamulin EXCEPT
a. Monensin
b. Narasin
c. Lincomycin
d. Salinomycin
23) All of the following should strictly not
be administered with tiamulin EXCEPT
a. Monensin
b. Narasin
c. Lincomycin
d. Salinomycin
24) Effect of pgf2 alpha when given
during diestrus
a. Vaginal bleeding
b. Pyometra
c. Uterine prolapse
d. Vaginal prolapse
24) Effect of pgf2 alpha when given
during diestrus
a. Vaginal bleeding
b. Pyometra
c. Uterine prolapse
d. Vaginal prolapse
25) Best drug to induce parturition in
horse
a. Oxytocin
b. PGf2alpha
c. Prostin
d. Dinoprostone
25) Best drug to induce parturition in
horse
a. Oxytocin
b. PGf2alpha
c. Prostin
d. Dinoprostone
26) Which drug is used to kill tapeworm
in ruminants
a. Pyrantel
b. Levamisole
c. Febantel
d. Fenbendazole
26) Which drug is used to kill tapeworm
in ruminants
a. Pyrantel
b. Levamisole
c. Febantel
d. Fenbendazole
27) Also known as the potassium sparing
diuretic
a. Spironolactone
b. Furosemide
c. Hydrochlorthiazide
d. Mannitol
27) Also known as the potassium sparing
diuretic
a. Spironolactone
b. Furosemide
c. Hydrochlorthiazide
d. Mannitol
28) What is the drug of choice for
Psittacosis
a. Penicillin
b. Ampicillin
c. Doxycycline
d. Cefazolin
28) What is the drug of choice for
Psittacosis
a. Penicillin
b. Ampicillin
c. Doxycycline
d. Cefazolin
29) What disease is fenbendazole given in
sheep?
a. Lymphadenitis
b. Erysipelas
c. Scabby mouth
d. Haemonchosis
29) What disease is fenbendazole given in
sheep?
a. Lymphadenitis
b. Erysipelas
c. Scabby mouth
d. Haemonchosis
30) What is epinephrine’s effect in
bronchial smooth muscles
a. Contract
b. Relax
c. Dilate
d. Constrict
30) What is epinephrine’s effect in
bronchial smooth muscles
a. Contract
b. Relax
c. Dilate
d. Constrict
31) Drug used to alleviate laminitis in
horses
a. Paracetamol
b. Firocoxib
c. Phenylbutazone
d. Diclofenac
31) Drug used to alleviate laminitis in
horses
a. Paracetamol
b. Firocoxib
c. Phenylbutazone
d. Diclofenac
32) What is Fentanyl?
a. NSAID
b. Antiemetic
c. Diuretic
d. Opiate
32) What is Fentanyl?
a. NSAID
b. Antiemetic
c. Diuretic
d. Opiate
33) What drug is banned in fattener?
a. Clenbuterol
b. Salbutamol
c. Paracetamol
d. All of the above
33) What drug is banned in fattener?
a. Clenbuterol
b. Salbutamol
c. Paracetamol
d. All of the above
34) What active ingredient is not considered to be
part of any of the commercially available spot-on
formulations for canines?
a. Fipronil
b. S-Methoprene
c. Coumaphos
d. Selamectin
34) What active ingredient is not considered to be
part of any of the commercially available spot-on
formulations for canines?
a. Fipronil
b. S-Methoprene
c. Coumaphos
d. Selamectin
1. Revolution (Selamectin)
2. Frontline Plus (Fipronil S-methoprene)
3. K9 advantix (Imidacloprid+Permethrin)
4. Advocate (Imidacloprid+Moxidectin)
35) Which antibiotic is banned for use in meat
producing animals since it may cause bone marrow
suppression?
a. Enrofloxacin
b. Trimethoprim-Sulfa
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Tetracycline
35) Which antibiotic is banned for use in meat
producing animals since it may cause bone marrow
suppression?
a. Enrofloxacin
b. Trimethoprim-Sulfa
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Tetracycline
36) A dog was presented to the clinic with exercise intolerance, orthopnea, and soft
moist coughing. Crackling sounds and muffled heart sounds were heard upon
auscultation of the thorax. Thoracic radiography revealed a globose cardiac
silhouette with increased diaphragmatic and sternal contact. In addition, diffuse
alveolar and bronchial patterns were also seen suggestive of pulmonary edema.
What drug will you use to address the latter?
a. Sildenafil
b. Pimobendan
c. Enalapril
d. Furosemide
36) A dog was presented to the clinic with exercise intolerance, orthopnea, and soft
moist coughing. Crackling sounds and muffled heart sounds were heard upon
auscultation of the thorax. Thoracic radiography revealed a globose cardiac
silhouette with increased diaphragmatic and sternal contact. In addition, diffuse
alveolar and bronchial patterns were also seen suggestive of pulmonary edema.
What drug will you use to address the latter?
a. Sildenafil
b. Pimobendan
c. Enalapril
d. Furosemide
37) What is the MOA of the answer in
#36?
a. Inhibits sodium-potassium-chloride symporters at the ascending thick

loop of Henle
b. Inhibits phosphodiesterase-III and increases intracellular Ca sensitivity
c. Inhibits cyclic guanosine monophosphate specific phosphodiesterase
type-5 found in smooth mm of pulmonary vasculature and corpora
cavernosa
d. Prevents formation of angiotensin II by competing with angiotensin I for
the angiotensin converting enzyme
37) What is the MOA of the answer in
#36?
a. Inhibits sodium-potassium-chloride symporters at the ascending thick

loop of Henle
b. Inhibits phosphodiesterase-III and increases intracellular Ca sensitivity
c. Inhibits cyclic guanosine monophosphate specific phosphodiesterase
type-5 found in smooth mm of pulmonary vasculature and corpora
cavernosa
d. Prevents formation of angiotensin II by competing with angiotensin I for
the angiotensin converting enzyme
38) For the answer in #37, what dose and
route will you use?
a. 0.2 mg/kg IV
b. 2 mg/kg IV
c. 4 mg/kg IV
d. 8 mg/kg IV
38) For the answer in #37, what dose and
route will you use?
a. 0.2 mg/kg IV
b. 2 mg/kg IV
c. 4 mg/kg IV
d. 8 mg/kg IV
39) All of the following are bacteriostatic
EXCEPT
a. Clindamycin
b. Neomycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Spectinomycin
39) All of the following are bacteriostatic
EXCEPT
a. Clindamycin
b. Neomycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Spectinomycin
40) DOC for avian campylobacteriosis
a. Chlorampenicol
b. Gentamycin
c. Amoxicillin
d. Erythromycin
40) DOC for avian campylobacteriosis
a. Chlorampenicol
b. Gentamycin
c. Amoxicillin
d. Erythromycin
41) Loop diuretic
a. Furosemide
b. Spironolactone
c. Mannitol
d. Chlorothiazide
41) Loop diuretic
a. Furosemide
b. Spironolactone
c. Mannitol
d. Chlorothiazide
42) Delay healing of corneal ulceration
a. Dexamethasone
b. Tobramycin
c. Meloxicam
d. Hypromellose
42) Delay healing of corneal ulceration
a. Dexamethasone
b. Tobramycin
c. Meloxicam
d. Hypromellose
43) Treatment for liverfluke in ruminants:
a. Triclabendazole
b. Albendazole
c. Ivermectin
d. Levamisole
43) Treatment for liverfluke in ruminants:
a. Triclabendazole
b. Albendazole
c. Ivermectin
d. Levamisole
44) Antibiotic contraindicated for
neonates
a. Sulfonamides
b. Cefalexin
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Amoxicillin
44) Antibiotic contraindicated for
neonates
a. Sulfonamides
b. Cefalexin
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Amoxicillin
45) Antibiotics which target 30s
ribosomal subunit EXCEPT
a. Tetracycline
b. Gentamycin
c. Chlorampenicol
d. Oxytetracycline
ribosomal subunit EXCEPT
a. Tetracycline
b. Gentamycin
c. Chlorampenicol
d. Oxytetracycline
ribosomal subunit, except:
a. Kanamycin
b. Lincomycin
c. Chlorampenicol
d. Erythromycin
ribosomal subunit, except:
a. Kanamycin
b. Lincomycin
c. Chlorampenicol
d. Erythromycin
47) Type of administration of vaccine for
Newcastle disease in a flock
a. Aerosol spray
b. Intranasal
c. Water drinker
d. All of the above
47) Type of administration of vaccine for
Newcastle disease in a flock
a. Aerosol spray
b. Intranasal
c. Water drinker
d. All of the above
48) Strain of Newcastle vaccine given at
day old:
a. La-Sota
b. B1
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
48) Strain of Newcastle vaccine given at
day old:
a. La-Sota
b. B1
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
49) A bitch has been bleeding for a week from the vagina. The owner
stated last heat occurred 3 months ago. Upon closer examination, a 2-cm
diameter cauliflower-like growth was seen at the inner fold of the vulva.
Impression smear revealed round cells with a vacuolated cytoplasm. What
is the treatment of choice?
a. Doxorubicin
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Vincristine
d. Procarbazine
49) A bitch has been bleeding for a week from the vagina. The owner
stated last heat occurred 3 months ago. Upon closer examination, a 2-cm
diameter cauliflower-like growth was seen at the inner fold of the vulva.
Impression smear revealed round cells with a vacuolated cytoplasm. What
is the treatment of choice?
a. Doxorubicin
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Vincristine
d. Procarbazine
50) What is the route of administration of
the answer in # 49?
a. Strictly IV
b. IV, IM, SC
c. PO
d. Strictly Lumbar IM
50) What is the route of administration of
the answer in # 49?
a. Strictly IV
b. IV, IM, SC
c. PO
d. Strictly Lumbar IM
Familiarize on
Doses of drugs
Simple computation (Stock solution)
Toxicosis and Antidotes
More on memorization of drugs
(Cardiovascular, Nervous)
VETERINARY
MICROBIOLOGY
TOTAL RECALL 2020

1. This specific stain is used for microscopic
visualization of Aspergillus
a. Giemsa stain
b. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
c. Periodic Acid Schiff stain
d. Gram stain
1. This specific stain is used for microscopic
visualization of Aspergillus
a. Giemsa stain
b. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
c. Periodic Acid Schiff stain
d. Gram stain
2. In gram staining, which component is the
mordant?
a. Crystal violet
b. Safranin
c. Iodine
d. Acetone
2. In gram staining, which component is the
mordant?
a. Crystal violet
b. Safranin
c. Iodine
d. Acetone
3. Which stain is the most appropriately used in
microscopic visualization of Bacillus spp.?
a. Loeffler stain
b. H&E stain
c. Wright stain
d. Gram stain
3. Which stain is the most appropriately used in
microscopic visualization of Bacillus spp.?
a. Loeffler stain
b. H&E stain
c. Wright stain
d. Gram stain
4. Which of these is the most appropriate in
diagnosing EIA?
a. ELISA
b. Conventional PCR
c. Coggin’s test
d. CBC
4. Which of these is the most appropriate in
diagnosing EIA?
a. ELISA
b. Conventional PCR
c. Coggin’s test
d. CBC
5. XLD agar is used to culture which organism?
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Salmonella
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
5. XLD agar is used to culture which organism?
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Salmonella
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
6. Antibiotic sensitivity testing commonly uses
which agar?
a. Nutrient agar
b. Blood agar
c. Mueller Hinton agar
d. Chocolate agar
6. Antibiotic sensitivity testing commonly uses
which agar?
a. Nutrient agar
b. Blood agar
c. Mueller Hinton agar
d. Chocolate agar
7. Which of these bacteria can grow in a 7.5%
NaCl condition?
a. Eschericia coli
b. Listeria
c. Corynebacterium
d. Staphylococcus
7. Which of these bacteria can grow in a 7.5%
NaCl condition?
a. Eschericia coli
b. Listeria
c. Corynebacterium
d. Staphylococcus
8. The following are lactose fermenters except?
a. E. coli
b. Enterobacter
c. Salmonella
d. Klebsiella
8. The following are lactose fermenters except?
a. E. coli
b. Enterobacter
c. Salmonella
d. Klebsiella
9. Anthrax can cause thrombotic capillaries in the
alveoli due to a complex toxin composed of a
protective antigen, edema factor and lethal factor.
All of these are derived from?
a. Endotoxin
b. LPS
c. Capsule
d. all of the above
9. Anthrax can cause thrombotic capillaries in the
alveoli due to a complex toxin composed of a
protective antigen, edema factor and lethal factor.
All of these are derived from?
a. Endotoxin
b. LPS
c. Capsule
d. all of the above
10. Which age group is most susceptible to
diseases?
a. Growers
b. Weanlings
c. Neonates
d. Breeders
10. Which age group is most susceptible to
diseases?
a. Growers
b. Weanlings
c. Neonates
d. Breeders
11. Etiology of Johne’s disease
a. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
b. Mycobacterium bovis
c. Mycoplasma paratuberculosis
d. Mycoplasma tuberculosis
11. Etiology of Johne’s disease
a. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
b. Mycobacterium bovis
c. Mycoplasma paratuberculosis
d. Mycoplasma tuberculosis
12. Etiology of mal de caderas
a. Trypanosoma theileri
b. Trypanosoma equi
c. Trypanosoma equinum
d. Trypanosoma evansi
12. Etiology of mal de caderas
a. Trypanosoma theileri
b. Trypanosoma equi
c. Trypanosoma equinum
d. Trypanosoma evansi
13. Which of these is a major lesion of the
Bubonic Plague?
a. cutaneous hemorrhages
b. hemorrhagic nodules in the ventrum
c. hemorrhagic lymph nodes
d. necrosis of mucosal borders
13. Which of these is a major lesion of the
Bubonic Plague?
a. cutaneous hemorrhages
b. hemorrhagic nodules in the ventrum
c. hemorrhagic lymph nodes
d. necrosis of mucosal borders
14. Where is the toxin of the puffer fish
produced?
a. Spines
b. Toxin gland
c. Pancreas
d. Liver
14. Where is the toxin of the puffer fish
produced?
a. Spines
b. Toxin gland
c. Pancreas
d. Liver
15. What is the effect of puffer fish toxin?
a. Cardiac dysrhythmia
b. Blindness
c. Cough
d. Inappetence
15. What is the effect of puffer fish toxin?
a. Cardiac dysrhythmia
b. Blindness
c. Cough
d. Inappetence
16. Transmission of Japanese Encephalitis
Virus
a. Tick bite
b. Direct contact with infected intermediate hosts
c. Mosquito bite
d. Reduviid bug bite
16. Transmission of Japanese Encephalitis
Virus
a. Tick bite
b. Direct contact with infected intermediate hosts
c. Mosquito bite
d. Reduviid bug bite
17. FMD virus can survive for 24 hours in humans
and can be transmitted through direct contact with?
a. Skin
b. Fingernails
c. Hair
d. Mouth
17. FMD virus can survive for 24 hours in humans
and can be transmitted through direct contact with?
a. Skin
b. Fingernails
c. Hair
d. Mouth
18. What disease should be differentiated from in
cases of grape-like miliary nodules in tuberculosis-
afflicted birds?
a. Salmonellosis
b. Aspergillosis
c. Coligranulomatosis
d. Chlamydiosis
18. What disease should be differentiated from in
cases of grape-like miliary nodules in tuberculosis-
afflicted birds?
a. Salmonellosis
b. Aspergillosis
c. Coligranulomatosis
d. Chlamydiosis
19. Which of the immunoglobulins are mostly
found in milk, especially colostrum?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgF
19. Which of the immunoglobulins are mostly
found in milk, especially colostrum?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgF
20. Which of part of the egg embryo will you
inject sample for viral isolation?
a. Allantois
b. Chorion
c. Chorioallantoic membrane
d. Yolk
20. Which of part of the egg embryo will you
inject sample for viral isolation?
a. Allantois
b. Chorion
c. Chorioallantoic membrane
d. Yolk
21. This virus can be isolated from joints in
poultry
a. Picornavirus
b. Paramyxovirus
c. Birnavirus
d. Reovirus
21. This virus can be isolated from joints in
poultry
a. Picornavirus
b. Paramyxovirus
c. Birnavirus
d. Reovirus
22. Which of these is a requirement for growth of
the fastidious Haemophilus parasuis and
Avibacterium paragallinarum?
a. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

b. V factor
c. both a and b
d. Z factor
22. Which of these is a requirement for growth of
the fastidious Haemophilus parasuis and
Avibacterium paragallinarum?
a. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

b. V factor
c. both a and b
d. Z factor
23. Which of these produces histamine?
a. Macrophages
b. Mast cells
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils
23. Which of these produces histamine?
a. Macrophages
b. Mast cells
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils
24. This causes hyperestrogenism in gilts
a. Aflatoxin
b. Citrinin
c. Zearalenone
d. Fumonosin
24. This causes hyperestrogenism in gilts
a. Aflatoxin
b. Citrinin
c. Zearalenone
d. Fumonosin
25. Hantavirus is transmitted by what to
humans
a. Horses
b. Mosquitoes
c. Dung beetles
d. Rodents
25. Hantavirus is transmitted by what to
humans
a. Horses
b. Mosquitoes
c. Dung beetles
d. Rodents
26. Reservoir host of nipahvirus?
a. Pangolin
b. Lizards
c. Fruit bats
d. Monkeys
26. Reservoir host of nipahvirus?
a. Pangolins
b. Lizards
c. Fruit bats
d. Monkeys
27. This term refers to the continuous, systematic collection,
analysis and interpretation of health-related data needed for the
planning, implementation and evaluation of public health
practice
a. Virulence
b. Surveillance
c. Incidence
d. Prevalence
27. This term refers to the continuous, systematic collection,
analysis and interpretation of health-related data needed for the
planning, implementation and evaluation of public health
practice
a. Virulence
b. Surveillance
c. Incidence
d. Prevalence
28. This refers to the occurrence of more cases
of diseases than expected in a given area
a. endemic
b. pandemic
c. epidemic
d. sporadic
28. This refers to the occurrence of more cases
of diseases than expected in a given area
a. endemic
b. pandemic
c. epidemic
d. sporadic
29. What is the status of Newcastle disease in
the Philippines?
a. endemic
b. pandemic
c. epidemic
d. sporadic
29. What is the status of Newcastle disease in
the Philippines?
a. endemic
b. pandemic
c. epidemic
d. sporadic
30. How will be the judgment for cysticercosis
in pork?
a. pass for slaughter

b. condemn
c. hold as suspect
d. reject or delay slaughter
30. How will be the judgment for cysticercosis
in pork?
a. pass for slaughter

b. condemn
c. hold as suspect
d. reject or delay slaughter
31. Consumer Act of the Philippines
a. RA7394
b. RA9482
c. RA 9268
d. RA8485
31. Consumer Act of the Philippines
a. RA7394
b. RA9482
c. RA 9268
d. RA8485
32. Anthrax is transmitted to humans by
a. inhalation
b. ingestion
c. wound
d. biting flies
e. All of the above
32. Anthrax is transmitted to humans by
a. inhalation
b. ingestion
c. wound
d. biting flies
e. All of the above
33. Japanese encephalitis virus is transmitted to
humans by?
a. Mosquito bite
b. Direct contact
c. Aerosol
d. Ingestion
33. Japanese encephalitis virus is transmitted to
humans by?
a. Mosquito bite
b. Direct contact
c. Aerosol
d. Ingestion
34. How is Mycoplasma transmitted?
a. Mosquito bite
b. Direct contact
c. Aerosols
d. Ingestion
34. How is Mycoplasma transmitted?
a. Mosquito bite
b. Direct contact
c. Aerosols
d. Ingestion
35. This is a diseases of the respiratory system
for weanlings and a reproductive system
disease for sows
a. PRRS
b. PED
c. Swine Flu
d. Hog Cholera
35. This is a diseases of the respiratory system
for weanlings and a reproductive system
disease for sows
a. PRRS
b. PED
c. Swine Flu
d. Hog Cholera
36. This is computed as #deaths/#of positive
animals x 100
a. Incidence rate
b. Proportional culling rate
c. Case fatality rate
d. Number of cases
36. This is computed as #deaths/#of positive
animals x 100
a. Incidence rate
b. Proportional culling rate
c. Case fatality rate
d. Number of cases
37. EIA is transmitted through
a. Direct contact
b. Biting insect
c. Inanimate object
d. NOTA
37. EIA is transmitted through
a. Direct contact
b. Biting insect
c. Inanimate object
d. NOTA
38. In suspected nitrate poisoning, these
samples are collected except:
a. Eyeball (vitreous humor)

b. Frozen samples of plasma
c. Urine
d. Liver sample
38. In suspected nitrate poisoning, these
samples are collected except:
a. Eyeball (vitreous humor)

b. Frozen samples of plasma
c. Urine
d. Liver sample
39. How is Strangles transmitted?
a. Direct contact with exudates

b. Aerosols
c. Biting lice
d. Rodents
39. How is Strangles transmitted?
a. Direct contact with exudates

b. Aerosols
c. Biting lice
d. Rodents
40. What brain samples are used in Rabies
diagnosis?
a. Cerebrum
b. Brainstem and cerebellum
c. Fornix
d. Amygdala
40. What brain samples are used in Rabies
diagnosis?
a. Cerebrum
b. Brainstem and cerebellum
c. Fornix
d. Amygdala
41. This refers to the number of cases of a given
disease or attribute that exists in a population at a
specified point in time
a. Incidence
b. Virulence
c. Surveillance
d. Prevalence
41. This refers to the number of cases of a given
disease or attribute that exists in a population at a
specified point in time
a. Incidence
b. Virulence
c. Surveillance
d. Prevalence
42. Clinical signs include profuse, watery diary
which is often yellow in color and usually seen
in sucking pigs
a. PED
b. PRRS
c. Swine Flu
d. Hog Cholera
42. Clinical signs include profuse, watery diary
which is often yellow in color and usually seen
in sucking pigs
a. PED
b. PRRS
c. Swine Flu
d. Hog Cholera
43. What is the temperature of pigs with CSF?
a. >41 degrees celsius

b. 36 degrees celsius
c. 30 degrees celsius
d. 39 degrees celsius
43. What is the temperature of pigs with CSF?
a. >41 degrees celsius

b. 36 degrees celsius
c. 30 degrees celsius
d. 39 degrees celsius
44. What is the main lesion found in humans
infected with the Bubonic plague?
a. swollen neck
b. swollen and hemorrhagic lymph nodes
c. pustules on skin
d. jaundice
44. What is the main lesion found in humans
infected with the Bubonic plague?
a. swollen neck
b. swollen and hemorrhagic lymph nodes
c. pustules on skin
d. jaundice
45. How is Strangles prevented in horses?
a. intranasal vaccination
b. injectable vaccination
c. new arrivals are quarantined for 1 week
d. share equipment from horses of unknown health
status
45. How is Strangles prevented in horses?
a. intranasal vaccination
b. injectable vaccination
c. new arrivals are quarantined for 1 week
d. share equipment from horses of unknown health
status
46. Most pathogenic AI
a. H5N1
b. H5N6
c. H5N7
d. H5N5
46. Most pathogenic AI
a. H5N1
b. H5N6
c. H5N7
d. H5N5
47. The avian influenza strain that has been
recently identified in the Philippines is
a. H5N1
b. H5N6
c. H5N7
d. H5N5
47. The avian influenza strain that has been
recently identified in the Philippines is
a. H5N1
b. H5N6
c. H5N7
d. H5N5
48. Dourine is transmitted through
a. Coitus
b. Biting insect
c. Direct contact
d. NOTA
48. Dourine is transmitted through
a. Coitus
b. Biting insect
c. Direct contact
d. NOTA
49. What do you call the toxin in cassava?
a. Linamarin
b. Aflatoxin
c. Aspergillus
d. Silimarin
49. What do you call the toxin in cassava?
a. Linamarin
b. Aflatoxin
c. Aspergillus
d. Silimarin
50. How is ASF transmitted?
a. Contaminated feeds and fomites

b. Contact with infected animal’s body fluids
c. Ticks that feed on infected animals
d. Transport vehicles
e. All of the above
50. How is ASF transmitted?
a. Contaminated feeds and fomites

b. Contact with infected animal’s body fluids
c. Ticks that feed on infected animals
d. Transport vehicles
e. All of the above
Familiarize on
• PRRS • ASF
• Rabies • AI
• Anthrax • ND
• Covid-19 • PED
• CAE • PGE
Familiarize on
• Disease transmission (Vector to animal vv, animal to

animal, animal to human vv)
• Symptoms
• Age group affected
• Lesions noted
• Causative agent
Familiarize on
• Epidemiology terms and calculations

• Judgment at Ante-mortem Inspection
• Patterns of disease transmission
• Principles of biosecurity
• Necropsy
• Slaughterhouse practices

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TOTAL RECALL

§ MEMORIZE > FAMILIARIZE

§ DR SALCEDO’S SAMPLEX IS KEY

§ PRONOUNCE THE SCIENTIFIC NAMES

§ INCLUDE THE FISHES

1. It is also called the

2. How long can the cockroach live without food?

3. The macronucleus of this ciliate is horseshoe-

d. None of the above

3. The macronucleus of this ciliate is horseshoe-

4. Most common final host of the thorny-headed

e. None of the above

5. This is called the nodular

6. It causes the granular coccidiosis in carps. (2017)

6. It causes the granular coccidiosis in carps. (2017)

7. Eimeria perforans infects the small intestines of which

8. What is the average size of the female

8. What is the average

9. Important coccidia of goldfish. (2016,

9. Important coccidia of goldfish. (2016, 2017, 2018)

10. Most common mode of transmission of

10. Most common mode of transmission of Toxoplasma

11. Which of the following is a sexual form

d. None of the above

11. Which of the following is a sexual form of

d. None of the above

12. How does female Tabanus spp. eat its food?

13. Milk spots in the liver of pigs are

14. Merozoites are a product of? (2016)

15. Among these species, which cannot

16. What is the causative agent of

16. Which of the following orders have

17. Leishmania adleri affects which of

18. How long can an adult flea survive

19. What insect causes lesion under the ear of

20. How long is the lifespan of the adult

e. None of the above

21. What is the size of the egg of

Source: Iran J Parasitol. 2015 Apr-Jun; 10(2): 245–249.

e. None of the above

22. How long is the prepatent period of

Source: Today’s Veterinary Practice. https://todaysveterinarypractice.com/diagnosis-canine-heartworm-infection/

e. None of the above

23. The cause of scaly leg

d. None of the above

24. A helminth that possesses both the female and male

d. None of the above

25. Which of these must be differentiated from

26. Surra in Hindu means? (2016)

d. None of the above

26. Surra in Hindu means? (2016)

27. A fly with an arista that is plumose only

27. A fly with an arista that is plumose

üGlossina morsitans (Tsetse fly)

28. Adult insects are also called? (2017)

d. None of the above

29. Also called the variegated tick?

29. Also called the variegated tick?

30. Drug of choice for the treatment of

30. Drug of choice for the treatment of

ØIDENTIFY KEY WORDS

Ø FAMILIARIZE THE ILLUSTRATIONS TO VISUALIZE

Ø DO NOT GET INTIMIDATED