MCQ POWERCLASS 2

1. Charges 4Q, q and Q are placed along X–axis at positions x=0 , x=l/2 and x=l , respectively. Find the value of
q so that force on charge Q is zero.
Q −Q
(a) Q (b) (c) (d) –Q
2 2

2. An electric dipole of length 2 cm is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field 2 ×105 N /C . If the dipole
experiences a torque of 8 ×10−3 Nm , the magnitude of either charge of the dipole, is
(a) 4 µC (b) 7 µ C (c) 8mC (d)2mc

3. The magnitude of the electric field due to a point charge object at a distance of 4.0 m is 9 N/C. From the same
charged object, the electric field of magnitude, 16N/C will be at a distance of
(a) 1 m (b) 2 m (c) 3m (d) 6 m

4. The electric flux through a closed Gaussian surface depends upon

(a) Net charge enclosed and permittivity of the medium
(b) Net charge enclosed, permittivity of the medium and the size of the Gaussian surface
(c) Net charge enclosed only
(d) Permittivity of the medium only

5. If the amounts of electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively are φ1 and φ2, the electric
charge inside the surface will be
(2  1 ) (2  1 )
(a)
(2  1 )ε 0 (b)
(2  1 )ε 0 (c)
ε0 (d)
ε0

6. Four charges equal to –Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q is at its center. If the system is
in equilibrium, the value of q is
−Q Q −Q Q
(a) (1+ 2 √ 2) (b) (1+2 √ 2) (c) (1+ 2 √ 2) (d) (1+2 √ 2)
4 4 2 2

7. Let [ε 0] denote the dimensional formula of the permittivity of vacuum. If M = mass, L = length, T = time and A =
electric current, then
1 3 2 1 3 4 2
(a) [ε 0 ]  [M L T A] (b) [ε 0 ]  [M L T A ]

(c)
[ε 0 ]  [M 1L2 T 1A 2 ] (d)
[ε 0 ]  [M 1L2 T 1A]

8. An infinite number of charges, each of charge 1 µC, are placed on the x–axis with co–ordinates x = 1, 2, 4, 8,...,∞.
If a charge of 1 C is kept at the origin, then what is the net force acting on 1 C charge?
(a) 9000 N (b) 12000 N (c) 24000 N (d) 36000 N

9. An electric charge q is placed at the Centre of a cube of side a. The electric flux on one of its faces will
q q q q
(a) (b) 2 (c) 2 (d)
6 ϵ0 ϵ0 a 4 π ϵ0 a ϵ0

10. Two small, charged spheres A and S have charges 10 µC and 40 µC respectively, and are held at a separation of
90 cm from each other. At what distance from A, electric intensity would be zero?
(a) 22.5 cm (b) 18 cm (c) 36 cm (d) 30 cm
11. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two dielectric blocks in series. One of the blocks has thickness d 1 and
dielectric constant k 1 and the other has thickness d 2 and dielectric constant k 2 as shown in figure. This
arrangement can be thought as a dielectric slab of thickness
d (¿ d ¿ ¿1+ d 2) ¿ and effective dielectric constantk . The k is ......
k 1 d 1+ k 2 d 2
(a)
d 1 +d 2
k 1 d 1+ k 2 d 2
(b)
k 1 +k 2
(d ¿ ¿ 1+d 2 )
(c) k 1 k 2 ¿
( k 1 d 2+ k 2 d 1)
2 k1 k2
(d)
k1+ k2

12. If a particle having mass m and electric charge q is made to fall freely in the uniform electric field, what will be
the kinetic energy of the particle after time t?
2 2 2 2 2 2
2E t Eq m E q t Eqm
(a) (b) (c) (d)
mq 2t
2
2m 2t

13. Inside a uniformly charged spherical shell, electric field is __________ and electrostatic potential is __________
(a) equal, zero (b) equal, equal (c) zero, constant (d) zero, zero

14. 2C electric charge is displaced from a point of electric potential –20 V to some other point. The work done is 200
J, then electric potential of second point V 2=¿ __________ volt.
(a) 60 (b) 80 (c) 180 (d) 220

^ ^j in electric field ⃗
15. The work done by the charge Q through displacement ∆ r⃗ =a i+b ^ E 2 ^j is __________
E =E1 i+
(a) Q[ E1 a+ E 2 b] (b) Q [ √( E a) +(E b) ]
1
2
2
2

Q(E1 + E2 )
(c) (d) Q ¿
√ a2 +b 2
16. What is the diameter of sphere of 4V potential kept near the points situated at same distance from an electron?
(a) 14.4Å (b) 7.2 Å (c) 1.4 Å (d) 0.7 Å

17. The dipole moment of a dipole is 4 ×10−9Cm. The potential of a point 0.2 m away from centre of dipole, on a line
making an angle of 60° with the axis of dipole is __________
(a) 4.5V (b) 45V (c) 450V (d) 4500V

18. For a point on the axis of the electric dipole θ=0 and θ=π =¿__________, __________
−kp kp + kp kp + kp kp
(a) 2
,+ 2 (b) 2
,− 2 (c) 0, 0 (d) ,−
r r r r r r

19. Two plates of parallel plate capacitor are joined inside with metal rod. The capacitance of a capacitor is
__________
ε0 A 2 ε0 A
(a) zero (b) (c) (d)
d d
infinite

20. Which of the following equation doesn’t represent energy of charged capacitor?
2
Q 1 1 2 1 2
(a) (b) QV (c) QV (d) CV
2C 2 2 2
21. A charge of 2 ×10−2 C moves 30 revolutions per second on a circle of diameter 80 cm. The current linked with
the circuit is ….….
(a) 0.02 A (b) 20 A (c) 0.60 A (d) 60 A

22. SI unit of resistivity and its dimensional formula is …… .

(a) Ω m ,[M 1 L2 T −3 A−2 ] (b) Ω m ,[M 1 L3 T −3 A−2 ]
(c) Ω m−1 ,[M 1 L3 T −3 A−2 ] (d) Ω −1 m ,[M 1 L3 T −3 A−2 ]

23. A resistive wire is stretched till its length is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent decrease in diameter, the
change in the resistance of a stretched wire will be ……
(a) 300 % (b) 200 % (c) 100 % (d) 50 %

24. When 2 Ω is connected between poles of a cell current obtained is 0.5 A. When 5 Ω resistor is connected emf
obtained is 1.5 V then current flowing in the circuit will be …… A
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5 (c) 1 (d) 2

25. In figure shown, calculate current flowing through 5 V battery.

(a) 0.17 A (b) 0.33 A (c) 0.5 A (d) 0.67 A

26. In the circuit shown, the current in the 1 Ω resistor is ……

(a) 1.3 A, from P to Q (b) 0 A

(c) 0.13 A, from Q to P (d) 0.13 A, from P to Q

27. Two batteries with emf 12 V and 13 V are connected in parallel across a load resistor of 10 Ω . The internal
resistances of the two batteries are 1 Ω and 2 Ω respectively. The voltage across the load lies between
(a) 11.6 V and 11.7 V (b) 11.5 V and 11.6 V
(c) 11.4 V and 11.5 V (d) 11.7 V and 11.8 V

28. A wire has a non-uniform cross-section as shown in figure. A steady current is flowing through it. Then the drift
speed of the electrons while going from A and B ……..

(a) is constant throughout the wire. (b) decreases

(c) increases (d) varies randomly

29. Drift velocity of electrons is …… .

(a) in the direction of current density.
(b) in the direction opposite to that of electric field.
(c) in any random direction.
(d) not defined.
30. Unit of mobility is …… .
(a) m 2 V −1 S−1 (b) m 2 ℧ C−1 (c) k g−1 Cs (d) all of these

31. Unit of electric current density is …...

(a) Am (b) Am-1 (c) Am-2 (d) AC-1

32. A magnetic field can be produced by ………..

(a) A moving charge (b) A changing electric field
(c) None of these (d) Both (a) and (b)

33. Lorentz force acting on a charged particle is zero. If electric field is 5

V
m |→ →
, then (B × V ) =¿ |
(a) zero (b) infinite (c) 5 (d) none of these

34. Two straight parallel wires, both carrying 10 Ampere in the same direction attract each other with a force of
−3
1 ×10 N. If both currents are doubled, what will be the force of attraction?
(a) 1 ×10−3 N (b) 2 ×10−3 N (c) 4 ×10−3 N (d) 0.25 ×10−3 N

35. If radii of circular paths followed by one proton and one ∝-particle, in the plane, perpendicular to uniform
magnetic field, are equal then ratio of their momenta is ......
(a) 1 ∶ 1 (b) 2 ∶ 1 (c) 1 ∶ 2 (d) 1 ∶ 4

36. Six current carrying conductor are shown in figure. I 1=1 A , I 2=2 A , I 3=3 A , I 4=1 A ,
( )
→ →
I 5=4 A , I 6=5 A . A closed surface normal to plane is shown. Line integral ∮ B . dl
over closed path shown by dotted line will be ……
−1
(a) zero (b) μ0 Wb m
−1 −1
(c) 2 μ0 Wb m (d) 4 μ 0 Wb m

37. When shunt connected to galvanometer has the value equal to resistance of galvanometer, range of current meter
would become ......
(a) twice (b) thrice (c) four times (d) five times

38. From Ampere’s circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady current, the
variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is
(a) A linearly increasing function of distance r upto the boundary of the wire and then decreasing one with 1/r
dependence for the outside region.
(b) A linearly decreasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then a linearly increasing one for
the outside region.
(c) Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
(d) A linearly increasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then linearly decreasing for the
outside region.

39. A bar magnet is held perpendicular to a uniform field . By how much angle it is to be rotated so that the value of
torque becomes halve to the original value of torque?
(a) 30 ° (b) 45 ° (c) 6 0 ° (d) 75 °

40. If relative permeability and magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic substance are μr and x mrespectively then ......
(a) μr <1 , x m <0 (b) μr <1 , x m >0 (c) μr >1 , x m <0 (d) μr >1 , x m >0
41. The variation of magnetic susceptibility x m with temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best represented by
figure…

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

42. Gauss’s law for magnetism is……

(a) ∮ ⃗
B . d l⃗ =0 (b) ∮ ⃗
B . d l⃗ =μ 0 ∑ I (c) ∮ ⃗
B . d ⃗s =μ 0 ∑ I (d) ∮ ⃗
B . d ⃗s =0

43. Pole strength of a magnet is 5 Am and the magnetic length of it is 10 cm. Calculate the magnetic dipole moment
of it.
(a) 0.5 A m2 (b) 5 A m 2 (c) 50 A m2 (d) 20 A m2

44. _____rule is used to find the direction of induced current in a conducting wire ,moving in a magnetic field.
(a) Fleming's left hand (b) Fleming's right hand
(c) Ampere's (d) Expanded right hand

45. A square loop of length L and resistance R is placed in uniform magnetic field as shown in figure. Now it is
moved in magnetic field with velocity ⃗v Current induced in loop ________
Bvl
(a) clockwise direction
R
Bvl
(b) : anticlockwise direction
R
2 Bvl
(c) anticlockwise direction
R
(d) zero

46. A coil of surface area 100 c m2 having 50 turns is held perpendicular to the magnetic field of intensity 0.02
−2
Wb m .The resistance of the coil is 2 Ω . If it is removed from the magnetic field in Is, the induced charge in the
coil is.
(a) 5C (b) 0.5 C (c) 0.05 C (d) 0.005 C

47. Dimensional formula of self-inductance is ___ _____

(a)[ M 1 L1 T −2 A−2 ] (b)[ M 1 L2 T −1 A−2 ] (c) [ M 1 L2 T −2 A−2 ] (d) [ M 1 L2 T −2 A−1 ]

48. Electric current in a circuit decreases from 5.0 A to 0.0A in 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V induced, self-
inductance of the circuit is ________
(a) 2H (b) 4H (c) 8H (d) 16 H

49. In LCR series circuit resistance offered by L and C to current is called ......
(a) resistance (b) total resistance (c) reactance (d) impedance

50. Unit of ω C is ......

(a) H (b) Ω (c) ℧ (d) Faraday
51. In an L – C- R circuit, R ¿ √ 7 Ω , X L =11Ω and X C =8Ω, then the value of impedance = …………
(a) 4Ω (b) 3Ω (c) 9Ω (d) 3√ 7Ω

52. In LCR circuit when power factor is maximum then………

(a) X L =X C (b) R=0 (c) X L =0 (d) X C =0

53. A transformer is used to light 140 W, 24 V lamp from 240V A.C. mains. The current in the mains is 0.7 A. The
efficiency of transformer is nearest to .........
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 70% (d) 60%

54. When 1 μF capacitor is connected across V ¿ 100 √ 2sin ( 100 t )Volt, current passing through milliammeter
connected in the circuit is .......
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 80

55. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance

'R' are connected in series to an ac source of potential difference 'V' volts as shown in
figure. Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The
amplitude of current following through LCR series circuit is 10 √ 2 A . The impedance
of the circuit is ......
(a) 5 Ω (b) 4 √ 2 Ω (c) 5 √ 2 Ω
(d) 4 Ω

56. By which one of the following equation the magnitudes of electric and magnetic fields in an electromagnetic wave
are related ?
2 2
E0 B0 B0 E0
(a) B0 = (b) E0 = (c) E0 = (d) B0 =
C C 2C 2C

57. Choose the correct option relating wavelengths of different parts of electromagnetic wave spectrum:
(a) λ radio waves > λ micro waves> λ visible > λ x−rays (b) λ visible > λ micro waves> λ radio waves > λ x−rays
(c) λ visible > λ x−rays λ radio waves> λ micro waves (d) λ x−rays> λ micro waves> λ radio waves> λ visible

1
58. Dimension of is same as dimension of ...... (Where μ = magnetic constant, ε = dielectric)
με
(a) square of velocity (b) velocity (c) acceleration (d) momentum

59. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in free space along the X-direction. At a particular
B = 2.1 x 10-8 k^ T then find ⃗
point in space and time, where ⃗ E at this point ?
V V V
(a) –2.1 ^j (b) –4.2 ^j (c) 6.3 ^j (d) –3.2 ^j
m m m
V
m

3
60. Power of a convex lens of refractive index is 2.5D in air. If it is inerted in liquid of refractive index 2, then new
2
power will be _________
(a) -1.25 (b) -1.5 (c) 1.25 (d) 1.5

61. A plane mirror produces a magnification of _________

(a) zero (b) infinite (c) -1 (d) +1
62. A light ray is incident perpendicular to one face of a 90 ° prism and is totally internally reflected at the glass-air
interface. If the angle of reflection is 45 ° , we conclude that for the refractive index n as

1 1
(a) n< (b) n> √ 2 (c) n> (d) n< √ 2
√2 √2
63. Light ray travels from air to glass and air to water, as shown in figure (i) and (ii) respectively. What is refraction
angle for figure (iii)?

(a) 30 ° (b) 35 ° (c) 60 ° (d) 41 °

64. Focal lens of plane convex lens μ= ( 32 ) is f and radius of curvature of curved surface is R. So write the relation
between f and R .
R 3R
(a) f =R (b) f = (c) f =2 R (d) f =
2 2

65. Green light of wavelength 5460 Å is incident on an air and glass interface. If refractive index of glass is 1.5, then
wavelength of light in glass would be _________
(a) 5460 Å (b) 4860 Å (c) 3640 Å (d) 2100 Å

66. Ratio of amplitude of two coherent sources is 5 : 2. Ratio of intensity of fringes of constructive and destructive
interference for stationary interference of these wave is ......
49 25 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 4 7 2

67. Huygen’s principle cannot explain .......

(a) interference (b) Diffraction
(c) polarisation (d) photo-electric effect

68. The line perpendicular to wavefront and which represents propagation of wave is .......
(a) wave line (b) only straight line (c) ray (d) wave

69. In Young’s slit experiment, if the distance between two slits is halved and the distance between the slits and the
screen is doubled then the width of fringe will be ...... .
(a) unchanged (b) halved (c) doubled (d) four times

70. What will be angle of first order maxima obtained by Fraunhofer diffraction by single slit using light of
wavelength 500 nm?(slit width=5×10 -5m)
(a) 1.5 ×10−4 radian (b) 1.5 ×10−3 radian
−3
(c) 1 ×10 radian (d) 3 ×10−3 radian
71. Electrons are emitted from photo-cell with maximum speed of 4 ×108 cm/s. Its stopping potential will be
………… (Mass of electron ¿ 9 ×10−31 kg).
(a) 30 V (b) 45 V
(c) 59 V (d) information is insufficient

72. On metal surface radiation of 2000 Å and 5000 Å is incident sequentially. Change in kinetic energy of photo-
electric emitted during this will be ………… h=6.6 ×10−34Js.
(a) 3.71 eV (b) 5.94 eV (c) 7.42 eV (d) 2.97 eV

73. Slope of V 0  v graph shows …………….

h
(a) h (b) (c) eh (d) e h
e

74. Graph shown in figure is the relation between photo-current (i) versus incident voltage (V). Maximum energy of
electron emitted will be ………
(a) 2 eV
(b) 4 eV
(c) 0 eV
(d) 4 J

75. An electron enters perpendicularly into uniform magnetic field having magnitude 0.5 ×10−4 T. If it moves on a
circular path of radius 2 mm, its de-Broglie wavelength is …………
(a) 3410 (b) 4140 (c) 2070 (d) 2785

76. In given graph if V 02 ¿ V 01 then ………….

(a) λ 1 = √ λ2
(b) λ 1< ¿ λ 2
(c) λ 1 ¿ λ 2
(d) λ 1 ¿ λ 2

77. For metals cesium, potassium, sodium and lithium graph of stopping potential ( V 0 ¿  frequency (v) is shown in
figure. These graph are parallel.
Arrange work function from larger to smaller value.
(a) (i) ¿ (ii) ¿(iii) ¿ (iv)
(b) (i) ¿ (iii) ¿ (ii) ¿(iv)
(c) (iv) ¿ (iii) ¿ (ii) ¿ (i)
(d) (i) = (ii) = (iii) = (iv)

78. Radiation of 4 f o frequency is incident on metal surface with f o threshold frequency maximum kinetic energy of
photo-electric emitted will be ………….
3hfo hfo
(a) 3h f o (b) 2h f o (c) (d)
2 2

79. Velocity of particle having 1 mg mass is 72 km/hr. Its de-Broglie wavelength is ……………
(a) 3.3 . ×10−29 (b) 3.3 ×10−10 (c) 3.3 ×10−32 (d) 3.3 ×10−6

80. To reduce de-Broglie wavelength of an electron from 10−10 m to 0.5 ×10−10 m, its energy should be ………….
(a) Increased to 4 times (b) doubled
(c) halved (d) decreased to fourth part

81. If the radius of the second orbit in hydrogen atom is R then radius of the third orbit is …..
 R
(a) 3R (b) 2.25R (c) 9R (d)
3

82. The linear speed of the electron in the nth Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is proportional to ….
1 1
(a) n (b) n3 (c) (d) 3
n n
+¿¿
83. How much energy is required to send the electron at infinite distance from the n = 3 orbit in He
(a) 12.08 eV (b) 6.04 eV (c) 30.2 eV (d) 3.02 eV

84. The shortest wavelength in the Lyman series is 911.6 . Then the longest wavelength in Lyman series is …….
(a) 1215 Å (b) ∞ (c) 2430 Å (d) 600 Å

85. The angular momentum of an electron in 4 th orbit is 2 x 10−34 Js, then its angular momentum in 5thorbit is ….
(a) 5 x 10−34 Js (b) 2.5 x 10−34 Js (c) 10 x 10−34 Js (d) 2 x 10−34 Js

86. Nucleus radius 13Al27 is 3.6 fm, then the nucleus radius of 52Te125 will be ......
(a) 4 fm (b) 5 fm (c) 6 fm (d) 8 fm

87. If m 0 is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8O17, m p and m n are the mass of a proton and a neutron respectively, the
nuclear binding energy of the isotope is ........
(b) (m 0 – 8m p−9 mn )c 2
2
(a) (m 0 – 8m p)c 2 (c) m o c (d) (m 0 –17 m n)c 2

88. A graph of binding energy per nucleon versus atomic mass is shown in the figure. There are different location of
nucleus A, B, C, D, E, F and if the following four reactions takes place then in which reaction, the emitted energy
is obtained positive?
(i) A+ B →C +ε (ii) C → A + B+ε
(iii) D+ E=F+ ε (iv) F → D+ E+ ε
where ε is the energy released
(a) (ii), and (iv)
(b) (ii), and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)

89. The dependence of binding energy per nucleon BN on the mass number A which one of the following is a graph
showing it?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

90. Among the following which is used to control the rate of reaction in nuclear fission reaction?
(a) Water (b) Heavy water (c) Cadmium (d) Graphite

91. What Is responsible for depletion barrier in depletion layer?

(a) Ions (b) Electrons (c) Holes (d) Forbidden gap

92. Keeping forward bias voltage from 0.6 V to 0.7 V in a p−n junction diode its current become 1 mA ¿ 3 mA . The
dynamic resistance of diode is …………
(a) 50 Ω (b) 500 Ω (c) 600 Ω (d) 233 Ω
 93. The potential barrier of 0.5 V exist across a p−n junction. If the depletion region is 5.0 ×10−7 m wide, then the
intensity of the electric field in the region is ……
(a) 1.0 ×10 9 V /m (b) 1.0 ×106 V /m (c) 2.0 ×105 V /m (d) 2.0 ×106 V /m

94. If the input frequency is 50 Hz in halfwave rectification, what is the output frequency?
(a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz (c) 100 Hz (d) zero

95. If the input frequency is 50 Hz in full wave rectification, what is the output frequency?
(a) 50 Hz (b) 100 Hz (c) 25 Hz (d) 200 Hz

96. Increasing forward voltage in diode, the width of depletion layer is ……..
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) does not change
(d) increases in proportion to the applied voltage

97. p−n junction diode has a resistance of 25 Ω when forward biased and 25000 Ω when reverse biased. The current
in the diode will be ………..

1 1 1 1
(a) A (b) A (c) A (d) A
15 7 25 480

98. Which of the following diode is in forward bias?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

99. Which type of semiconductor has band diagram shown in the figure?
(a) n - type semiconductor – room temperature
(b) n - type semiconductor – 0 K temperature
(c) n - type semiconductor - 0˚ temperature
(d) intrinsic semiconductor

100. Breakdown voltage means ……

(a) voltage at which current become zero in reverse bias
(b) voltage at which current increases suddenly in reverse bias
(c) voltage at which current becomes zero in forward bias
(d) voltage at which current increases suddenly in forward bias