No.

2023504
Test Booklet Code
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P3 2
Section - A (Physics)
5. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric

1. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with

field ' ' in the space between the plates. If the
frequency 'n', the frequeney ofits potentinl energy
8
distance hetween the plates is 'd' and the area of
ach plate is'A', the
(1) 4n :
energy Rtored in the capacitor
Fpermittivity of free space)
(2)
2n ()
(4)
Polar moleculesare the molecules: (2
(1) haring a permanent electrie dipole moment.
(2 having zero dipole moment.
3) EAd
(3) acquire a dipole monment only in the presence
of electric field due to displacement of
charges. 2'oAd
4) acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic
field is absent. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a
current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving
3. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with a speed of 10° m/s parallel to the conductor.
with flow of current through a metallic conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron
Column-II gives some mathematical relations and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant.
involving electrical quantities. Match Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced
Column I and Column - II with appropriate
-

by the electron at that instant.

relations.
Column I Electron U= 10 m/s F
Column-II
m Fqlv8)
(A) Drift Velocity 20 cm
P)
nep
P
B) Electrical Resistivity neva 5A
F
(1) 8x 10-20 N
C) Relaxation Period (R) es (2 4x 10-20N
m

8) 8TX 10-20 N
(D) Current Density
J (4) 4TX 10-20 N
-MLT2
(1) (A)-R), (B)-Q). (C)-S), D)-P) 7. If E and G
T neA respectively denote energy andA
(2) (A)-CR), B)-(S); (C-P), D)-(Q)
(3) (A)-(R), (B)-6), (C)-Q), D)-P) gravitational constant,thenhas the dimensions
of 2G
4) (A)-(R), (B)-P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
(1) [M][L-2IT-
Two charged spherical conductors of radius R, and
R are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of 2)[M][L-](T] Cur2]x L
surface charge densities of the spheres (o,loo) is: 3) [MI[L-][T-j M2
R
(4) [M][L) [T°]
(1) n2) 8. A lens of large focal
length and large aperture is
best suited as an
objective of an astronomical
(2) R 62
telescopesince:
R2 (1) a large aperture contributes to the quality
and visibility of the
R2 images.
(3) R
R1 (2) a large area of the
objective ensures better
light gathering power.
(4)
R1 (3) a large
aperture provides a better resolution.
Re (4) all of the above.
 P3
3
Match Column -I and Column and a
A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm
concave
9.
the correct match from the
-II and choose 12. the
given choices. lens B of focal length 5 cm are'kept along
between them. lfa
Column-I BAme axis with a distance d'
Column-II
parallel beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B as
a

Root mean square beam, then the distance'd' in cm will be

(A) (P) m parallel
speed of gas molecules (1) 30

B Pressure exerted 3 RT (2 25 20 seo

M
by ideal gas (3 15

(4) 50
C) Average kinetic energy R 2
of a molecule
18. The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is .
D) Total internal energy S) The escape velocity from the surface of another
of I mole of a
neyAT
planet having a radius, four times that of Earth
and same mass density is:
diatomic gas
hv2 GM
(1) (A)-(R), B)-(). (C)-(P), (D)-(S) 2 (1) 4U R
(2) (A)- (R). (B)- (P), (C)- (S), D)-(Q) (2) aM
3) (A)- ) . (B)- (R), (C)- (S), (D) - (P) R2
(3) 2v
4) (A)- (Q), (B)-(P). (C)-(S), D)- R) 4R
4 3 v
Consider the following statements (A) and (B)
and identify the correct answer.
(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, 14. Aradioactive nucleus 7X undergoes spontaneous
when used as a voltage regulator. decay in the sequence
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies where Z is the
between 0.1 V to 0.3 V. 17XZ-1B >z-3Cz-2D,
atomic number of element X. The possible decay
(1) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
particlesin the sequence are:
(2) (A) and (B) both are correct.
(A) and (B) both are incorrect. ) B a, B*
(3)
4) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect. 2) a, B,B
11. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In 3) a, Bt, B-
which direction will it move ?
t,a,B
76
--

15. A screw gauge gives the following readings when

used to measure the diameter of a wire

Main scale reading :0 mm

Circular scale reading: 52 divisions

Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to
towards the right as its potential energy will
(1) 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter
increase.
of the wire from the above data is:
(2) towards the left as its potential energy wil
increase. (1) 0.052 cm 0 S 2mm

» 8) towards the right as its potential energy will (2 0.52 cm

decrease.
towards the left as its potential energy will
(3) 0.026 cma
(4)
decrease. 4 0.26 cm
 P8
An inductor of inductance L. a capacitor ot The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours
19.
Capacitance C and a rosiator of reaistance "R are The fraction of original activity that will remain
be
nfter 150 hours would
:
connected in series to an ac sOurce of potential
difference V" volts as shown in figure. 5 0 ' /

Potential difference across l, C and R is 40 V. 2

10 V and 40 V, reapectively. The amplitude of (1) 2000 2 '
3/2
current flowing through LCR series circuit i8
(2) 1/2
10/2 A. The impedance of the cireuit i8;

W (3) 2/2
40 V +10 V+ 40 V
2 S
(4)

(1) 5Q The equivalent capacitance of the combination

20.
is:
(2) 42 shownin the figure
B
3) 5/2 n-
(4) 4Q

17. A particle is released from height S from the

surface of the Earth. Ata certain height its kinetic
energy is three times its potential energy. The
height from the surface of earth and the speed of (1) 3C/2
the particle at that instant are respectively: (2) 3C

2C
. (1) S3eS P Mg
3)

4'2 (4 C/2

(2) 21. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that

mv consists of four wires of equal length, equal areaof
cross-section and same material is 0.25 2. What
(3) 2
K
KEE
will be the effective resistance if they are connected
4
inseries? www-

(4) 2 2 (1) 4 0
M
0.250 dm
(2)
18. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined
ww
plane, starting from rest at time t= 0. Let S, be (3) 0.5 Q
the distance travelled by the block in the interval

t = n - 1 to t=n. Then, the ratio is

4) 10
; *
Sn+1
22. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
2n fragments each of mass number 120, the bindingS
(1) 2n-1 energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei 1s
7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The
2n-1 total gain in the Binding Energy in the process18
(2) 2n
(1) 216 MeV
20 120
2n-1 (2) 0.9 MeV
(3) 2n+1
(3) 9.4 MeV
240 8 - 76)
2n+1 240x
(4) 2n-1 (4) 804 MeV

2
 n P3
The electron concentration ball of mass M and
density
in
an n-type | The velocity ofa small
26.
semiconductor is the same as hole concentration d, when dropped in a
container filled with
glycerine
in a p-type semiconductor. An external field becomes constant after
some time. If the density
(electric) is applied across each of them. Compare acting on
the currents in them. then the viscous force
ofglycerine is,
2
1) No current will flow in
only flow in n-type.
p-type, current will the ball will be

(2) current in n-type= current in 2Mg

p-type. (1)
(8) current in p-type > current in n-type.
current in n-type >current in Mg
p-type. (2) 2
The number of photons per second on an average
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of (8) Mg
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of
3.3x 10-3 watt will be: (h=6.6x 10-34 Js) (4
1015
1) 3D x 3 of emergence from the
1018 27. Find the value of the angle
(2)
1017 6x107
prism. Refractive index the glass is v3.
of
(3) 3
1016
(4) 6 - A
95 Athick current carrying cable ofradius 'R' carries
current 'T uniformly distributed across its
lxAln8
cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r)
due to the cable with the distance r from the axis
of the cable is represented by
8
60
IAno=Naino
(1) 90

2) 60
(1) B
30°
3)
4) 45 Ain9
connected a c r o s s
28. A capacitor of capacitance 'C, is
an ac source of voltage V, given by
V=V, sinot

The displacement current between

the plates of
2) B the capacitor, would then be given by

() a-VouCsinut VEVeAM
()4-VgoCcosot
cOsot
3)

3) B 4) lasinot
29. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are
chosen as the fundamental physical quantities.
Find the dimensions of energy.
(1) F][A-1][T] MLf L2
(2) F][A] [T]
4) B
el3) (F][A]IT)
CAICT2
MT
4 [F][A][T-1
 P3
6
30. Ina potentiometer circuit a cell
of EMF 1.5 Vgives
balance point at 36 cm length of wire. 34. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength * is
If another incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible
cell of EMF 2.5 V
replaces
what length of the wire, the
the first cell, then at work function. If m' mass is of photoelectron
balance point occurs? emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength
(1) 62 cm d then:
2 mk

2) 60 cm
(1)
(3) 21.6 cm
6
mc
mv?
4) 64 cm
(2)
n

2
(3)
81 A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The 2m

time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 2mc

kg 2
is suspended by it is: 2

(1) 0.628 s F 35. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of

15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
(2) 0.0628 s frietional force are 10% of the input energy. How
K- x10 Nim much power is generated by the turbine ?
3) 6.28 s
(g 10 m/s )
(4) 3.14s (1) 7.0 kW
(2 10.2 kW 2 m a

32. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in

38.1kW h
4) 12.3 kW
r-direction, which one of the following combination 2
gives the correct possible directions for electric
field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively? Section B (Physics) 1 *
-2 Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at
36.
(1)
-i+h i+k 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop.
Calculate the potential ofthe bigger drop.
1) 1980 V
(2)
(2) 660 V
(3) 1320 V
(3) 49 1520 V

37. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from

(4) j+k, -j-k
33. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes,
when the room temperature is 20°C. The time
taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C
to 60°C at a room temperature same at 20°C is
a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane
mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis
of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the
final image would be formed at a distance of:
KO

(1) 13 20m
T2 6 0 cm -40 cm-
(1) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a |
13
10 virtual image.
(2) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real
image.
8) 5 (3) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real
image.
30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a |
(4)
(4) 13 virtual image.
2 0 4

S
:
 P3
Nm Lyoo N/m signals
are
lox2 K the input digital
A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity 41. For the given circuit, and C.
What would
terminals A, B
S8. applied at the
v=kVk< 1) from the surface of the earth. be the output at
the terminal y?
Vescape velocity) 6
The maximum height above the surface reached 1
5
bythe particle is: A0
Rk2 K mgh
2
1) 1-k2 5
0-
k
D
2
2
R+k 2GM &M

R h

Rk x

(4) 1+k

39. In the product B

0-

-32-3
=qu xBi+Bj+Bok}
A

1 and v42it4j+6k and

For q 2 4
1 t4 T5 t6

F-4i-20j +12k (1) -OV

B?
What will be the complete expression for 5 V
(2) OV
(1) 6i+6j-8k F q(V E)
5 V
A
- 2 0 p Í =frók ) (3)
(3)
(2) -8i-8j-6k 5V
4 (4)
-6-6)-8
A 48 From circular ring of mass "M and radius 'R' an
4) 8i +8j-6k 42. a

arc corresponding to a 90° sector is

removed. The

Two conducting circular loops of radii R and R moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring
40. about an axis passing through the centre of the
centres
are placed in the same plane with their
coinciding. IfR,>>R2, the mutualinductance
M ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is
between them will be directly proportional
to : K times "MR2, Then the value of 'K is:

(1)
R ,
1)
R
(2)
R1 . (2)
R2
R R
MRMRZ
2 MR2

(3)
R2 3)
R

4)
R
 8
P3
43. Three reaistors having resistances ri, Po nd ra10. ball of mass 0.15
are connected as shown in the given circuit. The 10
kg is dropped from
from a lheight
a
m, strikes the ground and rebounds to
height. T'he the
same
atioof eurrents in terma ofresistances used the ball is (g magnitude of impulse imparted to
1 10 m/s) nearly:
in the circuit is: v 0x
(1) 1.4 kg m/s
200
l' (2) 0 kg m/s l S 2

O3 12

-0 (3) 4.2 kg m/s

Ai 4e B
() 2.1 kg m/s 4 3
10A

47. A series LCR circuit

(1) 80 pP capacitor and
containing 5.0 H inductor,
40N resistor is connected to
230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular
frequencies of the source at which
power
2) transferred to the circuit is half the
power at the
2+3 resonant angular frequency are likely to be
32 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
r2 2 (1)
T2t3 V2
12 (2) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s

(3) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s

(4)
(4) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
(2+G)*3
44. A car starts ffom rest and accelerates at 5 m/s*.
48. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
Att=4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window bya
balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A
person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and
mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm
acceleration ofthe ball at t=6 s?
and another unknown mass 'm' is suspended from
(Take g= 10 m/s*)
the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure.
ml&
Find the value of 'm' such that the rod is in
1) 20/2 m/s, 10 m/s2
equilibrium. (g=10m/s)
VSa420mj.3
(2) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2 60X
0 20 cm 40 cm 160 cm

3) 20 m/s, 0 4

(4) 20V2 m/s, 0

2 kg m
45. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains
supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W 12
kg
+ (20Xm
lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer,
what is the current in the primary circuit ?
2023504 0-3 3
(2) kg
4A P 2 p-v
R
2
(2) 0.2 A 3) 3
A 2)
3) 0.4 A

(4) 2A 2228 x (4
12A
44
12
 A i n e -

in
9 for graphical
correct option
Choose the
which shows a
graph
A particle moving in a circle of radius R with n | 68.
representation of Boyle'slaw, different
uniform speed takes a time 2T 1 to complete
e one
o ne
volume of a gas at
vs,
of pressure
revolution.
temperatures:

Ifthis particle were projected with the same speed

at an angle '0' to the horizontal, the maximum
height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of
projection, 8, is then given by:
V: 2 r
600 K
=sin 2gT 400K_
200 K
R -2g
xS Volume (V)
ATTRE Hm0x

cos
gT 2 (dms)
(2)
TR

3) = cos
gT?
200 K
400 K
600 K=
-sin sin Volume (V) >
ET
(dm)
12a and
50. A uniform conducting wire of length
resistance 'R is wound up as a current carrying
coil in the shape of,
an equilateral triangle of side'a'. (200 K, 400 K, 600 K)
a square of side 'a'.
(1)
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each (3)
case respectively are
(1) 4 Ia and 3 Ia2 Volume (V)
3Ia2and 3 la?
(dm3)
(2)
)31a2and Ia2
(4) 3 Ia and 4 Ia2
003
600
K

Section- A (Chemistry)
(4)
number of tetrahedral and
61. Right option for the
octahedral voids in hexagonalprimitive unit cell
are
Volume (V)>
(1) 12,6 (dm3)
(2) 8,4
3) 6, 12
54. The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect
4 . 1 2023504 is exhibited by", is:
atomic and
52. Zr (Z=40) and Hf(Z=72) have similar 1) Urea solution
1onic radii because of:
(2) NaCl solution
1) having similar chemical properties
belonging to same group
(2) (3) Glucose solution
3) diagonal relationship
lanthanoid contraction
4) Starch solution
4)
 10
P3
61. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of:
option
55. Which one among the following is the correcttor oe
Vitamin B
right relationship between Cp and Cy (1)
Tor
mole of ideal gas ?
2 Vitamin B12
(1) Cy= RC»
(3) Vitamin Bg
(2 Cp+Cy R
Cp- R
(4) Vitamin B
(4) Cp=RC 62. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCI and
state
CH,COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16
56. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid and 91.0 S cm mol respectively. The molar
and vapour phase, are: conductance of CH,COOH at infinite dilution is.
(1) Chain in both Choose the right option for your answer.

(2) Chain and dimer, respectively (1) 540.48 Scm2 mol-1

(3) Linear in both 201.28 S em2 mol-1
(2
(4) Dimer and Linear, respectively
390.71 S cm mol
3)
57. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen,
emits
4) 698.28 S cm mol1
which of the following particles?
(1) Neutron (n). 63) The incorrect statement among the following
is
Beta (B))
(1) Actinoids are highly reactive metals,
) Alpha (a) especially when finely divided.
4) Gamma (y)
2) Actinoid contraction is greater for element
to element than Lanthanoid contraction.
58. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation
reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are
product formation is based on?
(3)
colorless in the solid state.
(1) Huckel's Rule Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and
(4)
(2) Saytzeff's Rule electricity.
(3) Hund's Rule

4 Hofmann Rule 64. Statement I:

Acid strength increases in the order given as

59. BFs is planar and electron deficient compound. HF <<HCl << HBr << HI.
Hybridization and number ofelectrons around the
central atom, respectively are: Statement II:
sp and 8 As the size of the elements F, CI, Br, I increases
(1) down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl,
s p and 4
(2) HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength
8) sp and 6 increases.

4) s p and 6 In the light of the above statements, choose the

correct answer from the options given below.

60. What is the IUPACname ofthe organic compound

(1) Statement I is incorrect but
formed in the following chemical reaction ?
Statement Lis,tue.
Acetone.
a) CaHsMgBr, dry Btner Product (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
i) H0, H* true.
2-methyl butan-2-ol
(1) (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are

2-methylpropan-2-ol e 3 false.
(2)
pentan-2-ol (4) Statement I is correct but Statement l
(3)
pentan-3-ol is false.
(4)
 CH3 C0D H C CD + t
124 6 S.1
CH C0ONa + HCR NaC 26 P3
11 264

The correct structure of dissolving

is
2,G-Dimethyl-dec-4-0ne 69. The following solufíonsyere prepared by
10gofglucose (CH 12Ö)
in 250 ml of water (P),
10g of urea (CH,N,0) in 250 ml ofwater (P) and
10 K of u c r o s e (C12H2z), n 250 ml of
for the decreasing
water The right option
(Pz).
(1) these solutions i9:
order of Osmotic pressure of
(1) Pa>P,>P2
(2) P2>P> P +

(3) P>P2 P
2) ) P2> Pa> P
centred
70. The correct option for the number ofbody
Bravais lattice unit
unit cells in all 11 types of
cells is:
(1) 3

(2) 7
(3) 5
(3)
(4) 2
achieved
71. The maximum temperature that can be
in blast furnace is :
(1) upto 5000 K
(4 2) upto 1200K

3) upto 2200 K
4) upto 1900 K
is
66. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of'C-X bond 72. For reaction A>B, enthalpy of reaction
a
is
1S - 4.2 kJ mol*l and enthalpy of activation
9.6 kJ mol. The correct potential energy profile
CH-Cl> CH-F>CH-Br> CH-I for the reaction is shown in option.

(2CH-F<CH3-C<CH,-Br< CH,-I
(3) CH-F> CH,-Cl> CH-Br > CH,-I
B
(4) CH3-F< CH-Cl>CH3-Br> CH-I PE
1)
67. Aparticular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, Reaction Progress
broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
emitted by the transmitter is: [speed of light, S
3 x tos TJ 2x10
c3.0x 10 ms]
PE B
(1) 21.92 cm f x 2 A
219.3 m 3 x10 1368 x1ox 3006
(2) 1o2 Reaction ProgresS
219.2 m
T4O
3)
I3 368) 300021
4) 2192 m
73
PE |A
The pK, of dimethylamine and pK, of acetic
acid (3) B
The correct
are 3.27 and 4.77 réspéctivelyat (K).
T
acetate Reaction Progress
option for the pH of dimethylammonium
solution is 2640
348
1) 6.25

(2) 8.50 PE
430 (4) A B
3) 5.50

.4 7.75 Reaction Progress

Co S So2
8x
 P3 12
73. The compound wheh ehowe metamerism i8 77. Fthvlene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is
(1) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor
(2)
atm

(2) Hexadentate ligand with feur " and two

4) CH,O N donor atroma
() nidentate ligand
4. The major produet of the following chemieal
(4) Bilentate ligand with twa "N donor atoma
CH
78. Which one of the following methrda can be ased t
-CH=CH, +Hr (CH,CO),0,,
2
f
CH obtain highly pure metal which ia liquid at rom
temperature?
CH
(1) CBr CH-CH3 (1) Tone refining
CH Electrolysis
(2)
CH3. (3) Chromatography
.2
CH
CH-CH,- CH-Br (4) Distillation

CH3 ( 79.) Identify the compound that will react with Hinsherga
(3) CH-CH- CH,-0-cOC,H reagent to give a solid which diseolves in alkai.
CH3
CH CH-CH CH2
N
CH
(4) CH3 (1) CH3 CH
CH3 Br CH
75. Which of the following reactions is the metal CH2
displacement reaction? Choose the right option. (2) CH o
(1) 2PbNOJ22Pb0+4NO +0,T
(2) 2KCI0, 2KCl+30, (3) CH3
CH CH3

CrOg +2A1 Al,0, +2Cr CH2

4) Fe+2HCI> FeCl2+HT (4) CH3
Given below are two statements
16 80. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides
Statement I : one which is covalent and soluble in organic
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of solvents is:
narcotic analgesics. Beryllium chloride
(1)
Statement II :
(2) Calcium chloride
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics.
(3) Strontium chloride
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. 4) Magnesium chloride
Statement I is incorrect but
(1)
Statement II is true. 81. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer ofetha
Both Statement I and Statement II are is
(2)
true. ()0
Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) (2) 120
false.
Statement I is correct but Statement II (3) 180
4)
is false. (4) 60
 43
Ce 1513 Pa
18
An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon I with List II.
-

87. Match List -

and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right List-II

Ji2)
option for the empirical formula of this compound List- I
is: [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] (i) 5.92 BM
)[Fe(CN),-
(1) CH Cz8 H2.2
Fe(H,Ol+
0 BM
(2) CH 12 (b)
4.90 BM
(3) CH2 C C Haz2
c) Fe(CN A (ii)
CH3 (d) FeH,0P
iv) 1.73 BM

a n s w e r from the options given

$S. Noble gases are named because of their inertness Choose the correct
towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect below.
statement about them.
(1) (a-iv), (b)-6), ()-Gi), (d)-(i)
(1) Noble gases have large positive valuesof
electron gain enthalpy. (2) (a)-(iv), b)-(i), (c)>-6), (d)-(ii)
(2) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
(3) (a)-i), (b)-Giv), (c)-(üi), (d)-)
,(8) Noble gases have very high melting and
boiling points. 4) (a-), b)-(üi), )-iv), (d)-(i)
4) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
following chemical
88) The product formed in the
Which one of the following polymers is prepared
84 reactionis:
by addition polymerisation?
(1) Dacron
(2) Teflon CH-C-OCH
A) Nylon-66 NaBH42
CoHOH
Novolac
CH3
85. Match List - I with List - II.

List-II QH
List-I
(a PCl5 Square pyramidal CH-C-OCH
Trigonal planar (1)
b) SF i)
BrF5 ii) Octahedral CH3
BF3 iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options given OH H
below. CH-C-OCH,
(1) (a)-iv), b-(ii), (c)-(), (d)-6) (2) OH
,2) (a)-iv), (b)-Gii), (©)-), (d)-i)
(a)-i), (b)-(ii), (c>-iv), (d)-6)
CH3
3)
(4) (a)-ii), b)-), (©-Gv), (d)-i)
CH-CHg-OH
Section - B (Chemistry) OD
3
86. For irreversible expansion of an
ideal gas under CH3
isothermal condition, the correct option is:
OH
(1) AU0, AStotal=0 H
(2) AU=0,AStotal=0 CH2-C-CH
(3) AU0, AS,otal#0 (4) OH

4) AU=0, AStota#0 CH
 14
P3
In which one of the following arrangements the 93. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic
89. acid is
to the 20 S cm2 mol. What is the
given sequence is not strictly according dissociation
properties indicated againstit? constant of acetic acid ? ChoOBe the correct option
CO, < Si02 y Increasing
(1)
oxidizing power A 350 S cm mol
SnO <Pb02 "Ht
Increasing acidic
() HF<HC
<HBr < HI strength AL CHcoo 50 Scm mol
=

Increasing pka
.(8) H0 <HS C
<HSe <H,Te values (1) 2.50x 10-5 mol L-1
Increasing
(4) NH,< PHa acidic character (2) 1.75x 101 mol L-1
AsH< SbH3
(3) 2.50x 10-1 mol L-1
1 -4 0 0

CHCH,CO0-NatNaf CH,CH, +
90. Heat 4) 1.75x10- mol L-1 h n 20
Na,COg the
Consider the above reaction and identify 94. Choose the correct option for the total pressure
missing reagent/chemical. in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g Og and 2 g Ho confined
DIBAL-H x in a total volume of one litre at 0°C is
1)
(2 BH Given R=0.082 L atm mol-lK-1, T=273 K]
(3) Red Phosphorus
(1) 26.02
(4) Ca0 / AX
(2) 2.518
91. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in
o 082
nature?
3) 2.602
NEO
N O e
NO2 4 25.18
82 3
(2) POCl3 o138 142

(3) CH,O 95. The correct option for the vlue of vapour pressure
N
of a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in
(4) SbCls
molar ratio 3: 2 is:
Sb
92. Match List -I with List - II.
[At 45°C vapour pressure of bénzene is
List-I List-II 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg.
Assume Ideal gas]
a) 2s0,(g)+0,e))Acidrain
2S0,) (1) 350 mm of Hg

(b) HOCKg)hu-(i) Smog 160 mm of Hg

(2
OH+C1
3) 168 mm of Hg
CaCO+HSO (Giij Ozone
4) 336 mm of Hg
CaSO+H,0+C0 depletion
(d) NO) (iv) Tropospheric
NO()+O(e 96. From the following pairs of ions which one is not
pollution anis0-electronicpair?
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (1) Fe2t, Mn2+
(1) (a-i), (b-Gi), (©-6v), (d-6) 02-, F-
(2)
2) (a)-, b)-6i), ()-Gi), (d)-v)
a - 6 i ) , (b-Gii), ()-6v), (d)-0)
3) Nat, Mg2+
4) (a-6v), (6)-6ii), (©)-6). (d)-6i) 4) Mn2+, Fe3+
 P3
15 II.
I with List
-

The intermediate compound X in the following 100. Match List

-

List-II
chemical reaction is:
9 List-I

Hell-Volhard

CH3 CO, HC ) Zelinsky reaction

+CrO,Cl H,0 H (a) Anhyd.AlCl/

CuCl

CI ( i ) G a t t e r m a n n - K o c h

CH (b) R-C- CH+ reaction

(1) NaOX
i i ) Haloform
(c) R-CH-OH reaction

CH(OCrOHCL) +R'COOH

(2)
Conc. HS04
a)R-CH,COOHiv) Esterification

(3)
CHOCOCH); . X/Red
(i) Ho
P
correct a n s w e r
from the options given
Choose the
below.
Cl (a)-cü), (b)-i), (c)-(iv),
(d)-)
)
CH (a)-iv), b)-Ö). (©-i), (d)-(i)
I (2)
4 3) (a)-ii), b-i). (©-i. d)-Giv)

(4) (a)-). (b)-iv), ()-(ii), (d)-)

The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical

Section A (Biology : Botany)
reactionis:
correct?
NH2 101. Which of the following statements is not
Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
Br Br
Br
Br NaNO,, HCI Br Y R (1)
0-5°C ecosystem is upright.
biomass in is generally
5r Br
Br (2) Pyramid of sea

inverted.
(1) CuCN/KCNs
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
(3)
(2) H,O upright.
(4) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
CH,CH,OH
(4) HI 102. Which ofthe following plants is monoecious?
1) Cycas circinalis

The slope of Arrhenius Plot In k v/soffirst (2) Carica papaya

9.
(3) Chara
order reaction is -

5x 103 K. The value of E, of

for your (4) Marchantia polymorpha
the reaction is. Choose the correct option
answer.
03/ The first stable product of
CO, fixation in sorghum
Given R=8.314 JK- Imol-l] is

(1) -83 kJ mol- (1) Phosphoglyceric acid

(2 41.5 kJ mol k e (2) Pyruvic acid
83.0 kJ mol
3) Oxaloacetic acid
3)
4) Succinic acid
4) 166 kJ mol-1

Jn nA IntA AnRT
 P3 16
104. Diadelphous stamens are found in: 110. Which of the following is
incorrect an
(1) China rose and citrus statement?
(2) China rose (1) Nuclear pores act as passages for
proteins
and RNA molecules in both
Citrus between nucleus and cytoplasm.
directions
(4) Pea
(2) Mature sieve tube elements po8sess
a
105. conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
DNA strands on a gel atained with ethidium
bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear organelles.
as: (3) Microbodies both in plant and
are present
(1) Bright blue bands animal cells.
(2) Yellow bands (4) The perinuclear space forms a barrier
between the materials present inside the
Bright orange bands nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
Dark red bands
111. Match List -I with List - II.
106.
Plants follow different pathways in response to
environment or phases of life to form different List -I List -II
kinds of structures. This ability is called:
(aLenticels ) Phellogen
(1) Maturity b Cork cambium (i) Suberin deposition
(2) Elasticity (c)Secondary cortex |(iii) Exchange of gases
(3) Flexibility (dCork iv) Phelloderm
.4) Choose the correct answer from the options given
Plasticity below.
107. Match List - I with List - II. (a) (b) (c) (d)
List - I List - I (1) iv)) (ü) ) i)
(a) Protoplast fusion ) |Totipotency (2) Giv) ii) i)
(b)Plant tissue culture | ü) Pomato (3) i) iv) i)
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones (4) ii) iv) )
(dMicropropagation iv Virus fre plants 112. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon,
Choose the correct answer from the nitrogen,
options given phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
below.
given time, is referred as
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1) Standing crop
(1) iv) i) ) (2) Climax
(2) (1i) iv) i)
(3) Climax community
(3) i) iv) (4) Standing state
4) ii) iv) 6) )
113. The term used for transfer of
108. In the equation GPP-R=NPP pollen grains from
anthers of one plant to stigma of a different
plant
R represents: which, during pollination, brings genetically
(1) Respiration losses different types of pollen grains to stigma, is:
(2) Radiant energy 1) Cleistoganmy
(3) Retardation factor (2) Xenogamy
(4) Environment factor (3 Geitonogamy
(4) Chasmogamy
109. The production
of
gametes by the parents,
of
formation zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be 114. Which of the
understood from a diagram called following stages of meiosis involves
division of centromere?
(1) Net square
1) Telophase II
(2) Bullet square
A2) Metaphase I
(3) Punch square
(3) Metaphase II
(4) Punnett square
(4) Anaphase II
2023504
 P3
17
Whic lsich of the following is a correct sequence of
ps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)? 120, Gemmae are P
Some Liverworts
.( Annealing, Denaturation, Extension (1)
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (2) MOBses
()
Pteridophytes
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (3)
Some Gymnosperms
(4) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (4)
recombinant
process for
when gene targetting involving gene amplification 121. During the purification ethanol
addition of chilled
is attempted in an individuals tissue to DNA technology,
treat precipitates out:
disease, itis known as:

(1) Safety testing (1) Polysaccharides

2) Biopiracy (2) RNA

(3) Gene therapy .3) DNA
4) Molecular diagnosis (4) Histones

List I with List - II. Match List I with List I.-

17. Match
-

122.
-

List - I
List I List - II List-I More attraction in
Primary constriction in|
(a) Cristae ) (a) Cohesion liquid phase
chromosome Mutual attraction
Disc-shaped sacs in
(b) Thylakoids (b) Adhesion
1 ) among water
Golgi apparatus
Gi)nfoldingsin molecules
(c) Centromere Water loss in liquud
mitochondria (c)Surface tension i )
Flattened membranous phase
|Attraction towards
(d)|Cisternae (iv) sacs in stroma of iv
(d) Guttation polar surfaces
plastids
Choose the correct answer from the options given Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. below.

(a) (b) (c) (d) a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) ) ii) (iv) (1) i) iv) (ii)
(2) (iv) (ii) i) (2) iv) ) (11)
3) iv) (ii) (i) 3) iv) (ii)
4 (ii) iv) ) i) i) ) (iv) i)
18. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a
123. The site of perception of light in plants during
population is: photoperiodism is :
(1) Genetic drift (1) Leaf
(2) Natural selection
(2) Shoot apex
3) Geneticrecombination
3) Stem
4) Mutation 4) Axillary bud
.When the centromere is situated in the middle of
chromosome 124. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
two equal arms of chromosomes, the is
1sreferred as:
(1) IBA
(1) Acrocentric
(2 AA
(2) Metacentric
(3) Telocentric
3) NAA
4) Sub-metacentric (4) 2, 4-D
 18
P3
Crrageen 130. Match List - I with List - I .
0.
Which of the following algac produce
(1)
List-I List IT
1Blue-green algae (oCells with active cell (Vascular
(2) Green algae division capacity
TiRsue having all cells|
0tissues
Brown algae (b)similar in structure Meristematic
(4) Red algae and function 1)tissue
Tissue having (ii) Sclereids
(c)
126. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
different types of cells
Dead cells with highly
(d) thickened walls and iv) Simple tissue
(a)DNA mRNA ( d ) |narrowlumen_
Select the correct answer from the options given
(1) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; below.
(c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (1) (ii) i) iv) )
(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein 2) iv) ii)
(a)-Translation;(b)-Replication; (3) iv) iii) i) )
(3) (i) (ii)
(c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction (4) ) (iv)

(a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; 131. Atypical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:

4)
(c)-Translation; (d)-Protein 8-nucleate and 8-celled
(1)
8-nucleate and 7-celled
(2)
7-nucleate and 8-celled
are not secondary 3)
127. Which of the following
7-nucleate and 7-celled
metabolites in plants? 4)
132. Which of the following algae contains mannitolas
(1) Rubber, gums
reserve food material?
(2) Morphine, codeine Ulothrix
(1)
(3) Amino acids, glucose (2) Ectocarpus
(3) Gracilaria
Vinblastin, curcumin
(4) (4 Voluox

in nature, 133. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two

128. Inspite of interspecific competition kinds of spores. Such plants
are known as
might
which mechanism the competing species
have evolved for their
survival? (1) Heterosporous
Homosorus
Predation
(2)
(1) (3) Heterosorus
.(2)
(2)
Resource partitioning (4) Homosporous

(3)
Competitive release
134. Mutations in plant cells c a n be induced by:
Mutualism 1) Zeatin
4)
2) Kinetin
(3) Infrared rays
Which of the following is
notan application of PCR
129. 4) Gamma rays
Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
Detection of gene mutation 135. Amensalism can be represented as
1)
(2) Molecular diagnosis
(1) Species A(+);;Species B (0)
(2 Species A(-);Species B (0)
(+)
(3) Gene amplification (3) Species A (+);Species B
(-)
Purification of isolated protein (4) Species A(-);Species B
(4)
 P3
19
Section B
(Blology : Botany) statements is incorrect ?
141. Which ofthe following
What is the role of involves both
RNA Cyclic photophosphorylntion
tOcess of transCription in polymernse
S6. IIl in the
N (1) PSI and PS II.
eukaryotes?
Transeribes only snRNAs
(1) Both ATP and NADPH+H+ a r e
(2)
(2) Transcribes rRNAs (288, 188 and Aynthesized during non-cyclic

Transcribes tRNA, bs rRNA and 6.88) photophosphorylation.

.3)
anRNA only and lack
(4) Transcribes precursor of mRNA (3) Stroma lamellae have
PS I
NADP reductase.
87. Select the correct pair.
PS I and PS II.
Grana lamellae have both
(1) Loose parenchyma cells (4)
rupturing the epidermis Spongy
i8 Correct?
and forming a lens- parenchyma 142. Which ofthe following statementA
atmospheric
shaped opening in bark (1) Some of the organisms can fix
called sheath
(2 Large colorless empty nitrogen in specialized cells
cells in the Subsidiary cells cells.
epidermis
of grass leaves Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamys
(2)
two motile
(3) Indicot leaves, vascular Conjunctive (3) Fusion of protoplasms between
bundles are surrounded tissue on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
by large thick-walled
Organisms that depend on living plants
are
cells (4)
calledsaprophytes.
(4) Cells of medullary rays -

Interfascicular
that form part of cambium II.
Match Column I with Column
-

143. -

cambial ring
Column-I Column -I
138. Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site
within gene ampt that confers ampicillin (a)Nitro coccus ) Denitrification_
Conversion of
resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a (b)Rhizobium ammonia to nitrite
gene for B-galactoside production and the
recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain Conversion of nitrite
(c)Thiobacilus ii) to nitrate
1) it will be able to produce a novel protein with Conversion of
dual ability.
(a Nitrobacter (iv)atmospheric nitrogen
2) it will not be able to confer ampicillin |to ammonia
resistance to the host cell.
Choose the correct answer from options given
(3) the transformed cells will have the ability
below.
to resist ampicillin as well as produce
B-galactoside. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) it will lead to lysis of host cell. (1) 1v) ii) i)
139. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences
(2) i) iv) (ii)
in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called 3) ) (iv)
as (4) (ii) ) (iv) i)
(1) Polymorphic DNA

(2) Satellite DNA 144. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

3) Repetitive DNA (1) Oxidation-reduction reactions produce
(4) Single nucleotides proton gradient in respiration.
(2) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is
140. In the exponential growth equation
limited to the terminal stage.
N,=N,ert, e represents: (3 In ETC
(1) The base of geometric logarithms (Electron Transport Chain), one
molecule of NADH + H+ gives rise to
(2) The base of number logarithms 2ATP molecules, and one
The base of exponential logarithms to 3 ATP
FADH, gives rise
(3) molecules.
4) The base of natural logarithms ( ATP is synthesized through complex V.
 P3
20
* * n me membera of whieh ofthe following pnirs | 149. Match List -I with List -I1
ot
families, pollen graine retain their vinbility for 153
List. List II
months after rolease?
(1) Proteins are
(2)
Rosacear: leguminosne (a)S phan 8ynthesized
l'oaceae : Rosacene
(3) (b) |CG2 phase i iInactive phase
Poacae ; LeguminOsNe
(4) Interval between
Poaceae: Solanaceae (c) Quiencent stage (iii) mitosiH and initíation
146.
ldentify the correct statement. of DNA replication 151

(1)
Spit gene arrangement is characteristic of (d) CGi phase iv) DNA replication
prokaryotes,
(2 Choose the correct answer from the options given
In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate
18 added to the 3' end of hnRNA. below.
(3) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to (a) (b) (c) (d)
the process of transcription in
terminate (1) i) (iv) 11i) )
bacteria. (2) (i) (i) (iv)
The coding strand in a transcription unit is 3) iv) i) (ii)
copied to an mRNA. 151
(4) (iv) ) i) (1i)
147. Match Column -I with Column-I. 150. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated
Column I Column -II gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe
to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of
(a)%Q KsC1+2+(Ag1+1G ) Brassicaceae cells, followed by its detection using
autoradiography because:
b) #OKCA,G, Y(1i) Liliaceae (1) mutated gene does not appear on
photographic film as the probe has
O)#PaaAs.a ii) Fabaceae complimentarity with it.
156
(2) mutated gene partially appears on
a
photographic film.
d)#OKCA2-G (iv) Solanaceae
3) mutated gene completely and clearly
Select the correct answer from the options given appears on a photographie film.
below.
(4) mutated gene does not appear on a
(a) (b) (c) (d) photographic film as the probe has no
(1) iv) i) ) ii) complimentarity with it.
2) i) iv) i) )
3) ) i) ii) iv) Section A (Biology: Zoology)
4) i) (i) iv) 9 151. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
Match List - I with List - II. formation is produced by :
148.
1) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
List - I List -II
(2 Alpha cells of panereas
(a) Protein C=C double bonds (3) The cells of rostral
Unsaturated i) Phosphodiester bonds adenohypophysis
4) The cells of bone marrow
fatty acid
(c)Nucleic acid ii) Glyeosidic bonds T52. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect 2-
(d Polysaccharide (iv Peptide bonds with respect to cockroach?
Choose the correct answer irom the options given (1) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears
below. a pair of anal
cerci.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) A ring of gastric caeca is present at
(1) (iv) (ii) ) i) junction of midgut and hind gut.
2) iv) 6) i) (l) (3) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity encloseu
(3) iv) ii) i) by the mouth parts.
(iv) (i) (4) In females, 7th.gth sterna
together form a
4) i)
genital pouch.
 21 P3
163. Succus entericus is referred to a8
158. Match List - I with List - II.
1) Chyme
(2) Pancreatic juice List -I List - II
(a) Aspergillus niger () |Acetic Acid
3) Intestinaljuice (b)Acetobacter uceti i ) Lactic Acid
(4) Gastric juice (cClostridium bulylicum ki) |Citric Acid
(d) Lactobacillus v Butyric Acid
154. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows Choose the correct answer from the options given
terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive
feature? below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Pachytene (1) (iv) i) i)
(2) Leptotene (ii) ) iv) i)
3) Zygotene i) ii) (iv)
4) Diakinesis 4) i) (iv)
159. Which of the following statements wrongly
155. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen represents the nature of smooth muscle?
and carbon dioxide (O)
(CO,) at alveoli (the site of These muscles are present in the wall of
diffusion) are: 04 03
blood vessels
,() pO=159 and pCO-0.3 These muscle have no striations
(2)
(2) pO=104 and pCO2=40 (3) They are involuntary muscles
(3) pOg-40 and pC0= 45 (4 Communication among the cells is
performed by intercalated discs
(4) pO95 and pCO,=40
160. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro
156. Match the following muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening
List - I
and paralysis ofskeletal muscle is called as:
List - II
(1) Gout
(aPhysalia Pearl oyster
(2) Arthritis
b)Limulus i|Portuguese Man of War|
(3) Muscular dystrophy
(c)Ancylostoma |Gii)|Living fossil
(dPinctada iv) Hookworm 4 Myasthenia gravis
Choose the correct answer from the options given 161. Persons with 'AB blood group are called as
below. "Universal recipients". This is due to:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in
plasma
1) (iv) i) )
(2) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface
(2) i) (ii) ) iv) of RBCs
8) iv) ) i) (i) (3) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
4) i) 1i) iv) (4) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B,
on RBCs
157. During the process of gene amplification using
162. The fruit
fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each
PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained
in the beginning, then which of the following steps During interphase of Mitosis if the numbercelot
chromosomes at G phase is 8, what would be tne
ofPCR will be affected first? number of
chromosomes after S phase
(1) Ligation (1) 32
2) Annealing (2) 8
(3) Extension 16

Denaturation
(4) 4
(4)
 P3 22
options.
in mammals are I to insulin choose correct
Receptors for sperm binding
1ao
163. With regard mature insulin.
0, present in
present on (n) Cpeptide is not rDNA technology
by
(1) Zona pellucida The insulin produced
(b)
(2) Corona radiata hns C-peptide
has C-peptide.
(3) Vitelline membrane (c) The pro-insulin are
insulin
of
Perivitelline space (d) A-peptide and B-peptide bridges.
interconnected
disulphide
by
164. Which one of the following belongs to the family correct answer from the options given
Choose the
Muscidae?
below.
1) House fly (1) (a) and (d) only
(2 Fire fly (2) (b) and (d) only
(3) Grasshopper (3) (b) and () only
4 Cockroach 4) (a),()and (d) only
identified byy
sequence
165. Identify the incorrect pair 170. A specific recognition positions
endonucleases to make cuts at specific
Drugs Ricin
within the DNA is
(2) Alkaloids Codeine
Toxin Abrin (1) Poly(A) tail sequences
(3)
Concanavalin A (2) Degenerate primer sequence
Lectins Okazaki sequences
3)
Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
(166 Veneral diseases can spread through: 4)
(a) Using sterile needles has "Capability
171. Which is the "Only enzyme" that
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person and Termination
to catalyse Initiation, Elongation
Infected mother to foetus in prokaryotes?
() in the process of transcription

d) Kissing (1) DNase

Inheritance (2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options given DNA dependent RNA polymerase
3)
below. (4) DNA Ligase
1) (a) and (c) only
2(a), (b) and (c) only 172. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow
and pneumatic long bones?
(3) b), () and (d) only
(b) and (c) only (1) Ornithorhynchus
2 Neophron
167. The organelles that are included in the
(8) Hemidactylus
endomembrane system are:
Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, 4 Macropus
(1)
Mitochondria and Lysosomes 173. Read the following statements.
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
Ribosomes and Lysosomes (a)
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
.3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, animals.
Lysosomes and Vacuoles
(C) Round worms have organ-system level of
4) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and body organization.
Lysosomes Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
(d)
168. For effective treatment of the disease, early digestion.
diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology Water vascular system is characteristic of
is very important. Which of the following Echinoderms.
molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for Choose the correct answer from the options
below.
given
earlydetection?
(1) Hybridization Technique (1) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
(2) Western Blotting Technique (2) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
3) Southern Blotting Technique 3) (a), (b) and (¢) are correct
4 ELISA Technique 4) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
 28 P3
14. Match List - I with List- II. for the conversion of
178, Which enzyme 18 responsible
to fihrins ?
inactive fibrinogens
List-I List - II
Thrombokinase
(1)
( (a) Vaults Entry of sperm through Thrombin
(2)
Cervix is blocked Renin
bTUDs (3)
(ii) Removal of Vas deferens
(4) Epinephrine
(c) Vasectomy Gii)Fhagocytosis of sperma
within the Uterus 179, Which of the following
is not an objective of
Biofortification in crops?
(d Tubectomy |(iv) |Removal of fallopian tube
(1) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
Choose the correct answer from the options given Improve protein content
below. (2)
3) Improve resistance to diseases
(a) (b) c) (d) Improve vitamin content
(1) iv) 4)
i)
(2) iv) i) 180. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of
a 3) ) Gii) i) v) Troposphere
(iv) i) (2) CFCs
(3) Stratosphere
175. Sphincter of oddi is present at:
4) Ozone
1) Junction ofjejunum and duodenum
(2) Ileo-caecaljunction 181. Which one of the following is an example of
) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and Hormone releasing IUD?
duodenum (1) Multiload 375
(4) Gastro-oesophagealjunction (2) CuT

. (3) LNG 20
176. IfAdenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what
will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cu7
Cytosine in it? 182. The centriole undergoes duplication during:
(1) T:20;G:25:C: 25
,(1) G2 phase
(2) T: 20;G: 30; C:20 (2) S-phase
3) T:20;G:20; C:30
(3) Prophase
T:30;G: 20; C: 20 4 Metaphase
17. Match List - I with List - II.
183. Which of the following RNAs is not required for
List - II
the synthesis of protein?
List -I
1) siRNA
(a) Metamerism () Coelenterata
(b) Canal system 6i) | Ctenophora (2) mRNA
(3) tRNA
c)Combplates (i) |Annelida
(d) Cnidoblasts iv) Porifera (4) rRNA

Choose the correct answer from the options given 184. In a cross between a male and female, both
below. heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
(a) (b) (c) (d) percentage ofthe progeny will be diseased?
1) (iv) ii) (1) 100%

(2 (v) ii) Gi) (2) 50%

() (i) (iv) (i) 3) 75%

4) i) (iv) i) ) 4) 25%
 P3 24
185. Select the favourable conditions required for the 189. Which one of the following statements about
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli. Histones is wrong?
(1) Low pOg, low pCO2, more H*, higher Histones carry positive charge in the side
temperature
(1)
chain.
(2) High pO2, low pC02, less H*, lower Histones are organized to form a unit of
temperature (2)
8 molecules.
(3) Low pO2 high pCO,g, more H*, higher
3) The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
temperature
Histones are rich in amino acids Lysine
High pOg, high pCO2 less H, higher (4)
and Arginine.
temperature
Section B (Biology : Zoology) 190. During muscular contraction which of the
186. Match List - I with List-II. following eventsoccur?

a) H zone disappears
List - I List - II
b) A band widens
(a) Allen's Rule) Kangaroo rat T band reduces in width
(c)
Physiologicali)
b)
adaptation
Desert lizard (d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP
and Pi
(c) Behavioural g) Marine fish at depth Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
adaptation Choose the correct answer from the options given
Biochemical Polar seal below.
adaptation
Choose the correct answer from the options given 1) b), (a). (e), (a) only
below. (2) (a). (C). (d), (e) only
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) (a). (b), (c), (d) only
(1) (iv) (il) (i) (4) (b). (c), (d), (e) only
2) (iv) (i) (i) 191. Match List -I with List-II
8) (iv) (i) Gi)
v) i) List - I List - II

187. Match List -I with List -II. (a) Scapula ) |Cartilaginous joints
List - I List - II (b) Cranium (i) Flat bone
Selection of resistant (c)Sternum i)|Fibrous joints
Adaptive varieties due to excessive (d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone
radiation use of herbicides and Choose the correct answer from the options given
pesticides below.
aConvergent| Bones of forelimbs in Man (a) (b) (c) (d)
levolution and Whale (1) (iv) i) i)
Divergenf | ii) Bird
Wings of Butterfly and (2) ) (ii) i) (iv)
evolution (3) i) (ii) iv)
Evolution by \ 4) iv) ) ii) )
(d) anthropo- Giv) Darwin Finches
192. Assertion (A):
genic action
Choose the correct answer from the options given A person goes to high altitude and experiences
below. 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like breathing
(a) difficulty and heart palpitations.
(b) (c) (d)
(1) ) (iv) (11) i) Reason (R):
o(2) Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude,
iv) (ii) (i) ) the body does not get sufficient oxygen.
(3) i) (i) ) iv)
(4) (i) ) In the light of the above statements, choose the
iv) ii) correct answer from the options given below.
188 Which of these is not an important component of
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
initiation of parturition in humans?
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
1) Release of Prolactin correct explanation of (A)
(2) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio (3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(3) Synthesis of prostaglandins correct explanation of (A)
(4) Release of Oxytocin (A) is true but (R) is false
 P3
d8. The Adenosine 25
deaminase deficiency results
aenciency into: I
results into: ium
(1) Addison's disease I 197.
197, Following are
Following the statements about prosto
are the
of earthworm.
staue
(2) Dysfunction of Immune systemn It serves as a covering for mouth.
(a)
(3) Parkinson's disease (6)
It helps to open cracks in the soil into which
it can crawl.
Digestive disorder
It is one of the sensory structures.
4Which of the following is not It is the first body segment.
Ovulation Embryo Transferstep in Multiple a
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(MOET)? Technology below.
(1) Fertilized eggs are (b) and (c) are correct
mothers at 8-32 celltransferred to surrogate (1)
stage (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Cow is administered hormone having LH
like (3) (a), b) and (d) are correct
activity for super ovulation
4 (a). (b). (c) and (d) are correct
(3) Cow yields about 6-8
eggs at a time
198. Which of the following secretes the hormone,
(4) Cow is fertilized by artificial
insemination relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
195. Match List - I with List - II. (1) Uterus
(2) Graafian follicle
List I List III Corpus luteum
3)
(a)Filariasis 1) Haemophilus 4) Foetus
influenzae 199. Statement I
b)Amoebiasis i)Trichophyton The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine and
c)Pneumonia ii) |Wuchereria bancrofti phenylalanine.
(d) Ringworm iv) Entanmoeba histolytica Statement II:
AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for the amino
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. acid lysine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(a) (b) (c) (d) correct answer from the options given below.
1) (i) Gii) (iv) 1) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true
(2) iv) ) (ii)
(2 Both Statement I and Statement II are
.3) i) iv) ) (i) true
(4) ) (iv) ii) 3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false
196. Following are the statements with reference to Statement I is correct but Statement II
(4)
lipids. is false

(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called 200. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
unsaturated fatty acids.
the leakage of the substances across a tissue and
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid. facilitation of communication with neighbouring
(c) Trihydroxy propaneis glycerol. cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including (1) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
d)
carboxyl carbon. respectively.
Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms. (2) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
Choose the correct answer firom the options given respectively.
below. (3) Tight junctions and Gap junctions,
(1) (b) and (e) only respectively.
(a) and (b) only (4) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
(2)
(3) (c)and (d) only
respectively.
(4) (b) and (c) only -o 0o-