Warmup Mock 2

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Warmup Mock 02 (CLAT) 2025
English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.
Passage – 1
He loved winter. The cold, the snow, the silence. They matched his lonely nature, his scorn for the
noisy world. He lived in a cabin in the woods, away from civilization. He had no one but himself and
his books. He did not miss the society he had left. He had seen its cruelty, its hypocrisy, its emptiness.
He was better alone, he thought. But sometimes, at night, when the wind and snow raged, he felt
lonely. He longed for something unknown, something he never had. A warmth, a touch, a smile. A
friend, a lover, a soulmate. He dismissed these thoughts, these feelings. They were foolish, weak,
dangerous. They would bring pain, suffering, disappointment. He had chosen this life, for a reason. He
was happy, free, safe. He needed no one, wanted no one, loved no one. He repeated this to himself,
like a mantra, like a prayer, like a lie.
One day, he saw a figure in the forest. A woman in a red coat, with a basket. She looked lost, scared,
confused. He was curious, annoyed. What was she doing here, in this winter? He approached her, to
see what she wanted, to tell her to go. He walked silently. She did not see him, until he was behind
her. He said coldly, "Who are you?" She turned, gasped. She saw a man, pale and dark, in black. He
looked hostile, stern. She smiled and said softly, "Hello, I'm Alice, a journalist. I'm writing a story about
the forest, the wildlife, the environment. I heard there was a cabin, I thought someone lived there,
maybe they could help me, tell me more." He frowned and said, "There is a cabin, and I live there. And
I don't want to help you, or tell you anything. I don't want you here, or anyone. This is my place, my
home, my refuge. You don't belong here, you should leave."
She felt hurt and said firmly, "I have a job, a story, a purpose. I'm not here to bother you. I'm here to
learn. You have a reason for being here. But maybe you could be more kind. Maybe you could give
me a chance, a word, a moment." He felt surprised. She was different and had a spark. She
challenged and fascinated him. He hesitated, softly and said, "Maybe I could. But why? What do you
want from me, really? What do you hope to find? What do you have to offer?" She smiled and said, "I
don't know. But maybe we could find out. Together."
Q 1. 30473342 As per the passage, why did the author think he was better alone?
a) He loved winter and the cold.

b) He wants to spend time with his books and the cabin.
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c) He believed he is done with the society.
d) He wants to give up the society and explore a different world
Q 2. 30473342 What do you get to know about the protagonist's state of mind during his time in the
woods?
a) He is content with his solitude and does not feel any emotions.
b) He is conflicted between his desire for isolation, his need for connection.
c) He is depressed and suicidal and wants to end his life.

d) He is angry and resentful and wants to take revenge on society.
Q 3. 30473342 What is the woman's motive to come into the woods?
a) To find the man and interview him. b)

To write a story about the forest and its
inhabitants.
c) To escape from the society and its problems. d) To seek a friend, a lover, a soulmate.
Q 4. 30473342 The author's description of the protagonist as "hostile, stern" shows that:
a) He is afraid of the woman and her intentions. b) He is indifferent to the woman and her story.
c) d) He is curious about the woman and her job.

He is rude to the woman and wants her to leave.
Q 5. 30473342 Which of the following statements are true about the protagonist's mantra as he lived
his life in the cabin?
Statement I: He repeated it to justify his choice of living in isolation.
Statement II: He repeated it to suppress his feelings of loneliness and longing.
Statement III: He repeated it to express his gratitude for his life in the cabin.
a) Statement I and II b) Statement II and III c) Only Statement II d) Only Statement I
Q 6. 30473342 In the light of the above passage, which of the following best captures the woman's
role?
a) A guide who shows the way to the man b) A lover who ignites passion in the man
c) A stranger who sparks interest in the man d) A friend who offers companionship to the man
follow.
Passage – 2
One of the distinctive features of contemporary literature is its experimentation with form and
language. Many contemporary writers challenge the conventional norms and expectations of literary
genres, such as realism, fantasy, or science fiction. They employ various techniques to create novel
and complex narratives that blur the boundaries between fiction and reality, author and reader, or past
and present. For example, Salman Rushdie's Midnight's Children is a postcolonial novel that combines
historical events with magical realism, while David Mitchell's Cloud Atlas is a hybrid novel that
interweaves six different stories across time and space.
Another characteristic of contemporary literature is its diversity and inclusivity. Contemporary writers
represent a wide range of voices, perspectives, and identities, often marginalized or silenced in the
mainstream literary canon. They explore issues such as race, gender, sexuality, class, or disability,
and challenge the stereotypes and prejudices that shape the dominant discourse.
Contemporary literature is a rich and dynamic field that offers a multitude of possibilities and
challenges for both writers and readers. It invites us to question our assumptions, expand our
horizons, and engage with the world around us. Contemporary literature is not only a reflection of the
present, but also a projection of the future.
Q 7. 30473342 What is one of the distinctive features of contemporary literature according to the
passage?
a) Its adherence to form and language. b)

Trying out new language modes and expressions.
c) Its simplicity and clarity of expression. d) Its rejection of different forms and languages.
Q 8. 30473342 What does the example of "Salman Rushdie's Midnight's Children" primarily signify in
the context of the passage?
a) It illustrates how contemporary writers experiment with form and language.

b)
It shows how contemporary writers challenge the conventional norms and expectations of literary
genres.
c)
It demonstrates how contemporary writers employ various techniques to create novel and complex
narratives.
d)
It exemplifies how contemporary writers blur the boundaries between fiction and reality, author and
reader, or past and present.
Q 9. 30473342 According to the author, how contemporary literature helps the readers?
a) It reflects the present and projects the future.
b) It questions the assumptions and expands the horizons.
c) It offers possibilities and challenges for both writers and readers.
d) It engages with the world around us.
Q 10. 30473342 Which of the following words best describes "Mitchell's Cloud Atlas" as per the
details from the passage?
a) realistic b) composite c) postcolonial d) magical
Q 11. 30473342 What is the main theme discussed in the passage?
a) b)
The history and evolution of contemporary The features and characteristics of contemporary
literature. literature.
c) d)
The genres and styles of contemporary literature. The influences and inspirations of contemporary
literature.
Q 12. 30473342 Which of the following best captures the essence of the phrase "diversity and
inclusivity", as per the passage?
a) The variety and acceptance of different literary genres and styles.

b) The representation and inclusion of diverse voices and identities in literature.
c) The diversity and integration of different cultures and languages in literature.
d) The diversity and involvement of different readers and audiences in literature.
follow.
Passage – 3
English literature is the study of the written works produced in the English language by writers from
different parts of the world. It encompasses a variety of genres, such as poetry, drama, fiction, and
non-fiction, and spans from the ancient to the contemporary times. English literature is rich and
diverse, reflecting the complex and evolving history, culture, and identity of the English-speaking
people.
One of the main goals of studying English literature is to appreciate the beauty and artistry of the
language and the literary texts. By reading and analysing different works, we can learn how writers
use various techniques, such as imagery, symbolism, metaphor, irony, and humour, to create meaning
and evoke emotions. We can also enjoy the creativity and imagination of the writers, who can
transport us to different worlds, times, and perspectives, and challenge us to think critically and
creatively. Another goal of studying English literature is to understand the historical and cultural
contexts of the works and the writers. By doing so, we can gain insight into the social, political, and
intellectual issues and movements that shaped the literature and the society. We can also explore the
diversity and complexity of the human experience, as expressed by writers from different
backgrounds, regions, and periods. We can also appreciate the influence and interconnection of
English literature with other literatures and cultures, and how it has contributed to the global literary
heritage.
Studying English literature can also help us develop our own skills and abilities as readers, writers,
and thinkers. By engaging with various texts, we can improve our vocabulary, grammar, and
comprehension, and expand our knowledge and curiosity. We can also develop our critical thinking
and analytical skills, as we learn to interpret, evaluate, and compare different texts and arguments. We
can also enhance our communication and expression skills, as we learn to articulate our own opinions,
ideas, and responses, and to appreciate the views and feedback of others. English literature is a
fascinating and rewarding field of study, that offers us a wealth of knowledge, enjoyment, and
inspiration. By studying English literature, we can enrich our minds, hearts, and lives, and become
more informed, aware, and creative members of the global community.
Q 13. 30473342 What does the passage say about the genres of English literature?
a) They are limited to poetry, drama, fiction, and non-fiction.
b) They are varied and cover different types of writing.

c) They are influenced by the history, culture, and identity of the English-speaking people.
d) They are ancient and contemporary, but not modern.
Q 14. 30473342 What are some of the techniques that writers use to create meaning and evoke
emotions, according to the passage?
a) b)
Imagery, symbolism, metaphor, irony, and Grammar, vocabulary, comprehension, and
humour. analysis.
c) History, culture, identity, and diversity. d) Beauty, artistry, creativity, and imagination.
Q 15. 30473342 What can writers do with their creativity and imagination, according to the passage?
a)
They can lead us to different zones, ages, and perspectives, and encourage us to think in unique and
innovative ways.
b)
They can reflect their opinions, ideas, and responses, and appreciate the views and feedback of
others.
c)
They can contribute to the global literary heritage and become more informed of the global community.
d) They can appreciate the beauty, artistry, creativity, and imagination of the language and the texts.
Q 16. 30473342 What can we gain insight into by understanding the historical and cultural contexts of
the works and the writers, according to the passage?
a)
The societal, political, and intellectual topics and developments that impacted the literature and the
society.
b) The beauty, artistry, creativity, and imagination of the language and the texts.
c)
The diversity and complexity of the human experience, as expressed by writers from different
backgrounds, regions, and periods.
d)
The influence and interconnection of English literature with other literatures and cultures, and how it
has contributed to the global literary heritage.
Q 17. 30473342 Which of the following words best describes the benefits of studying English
literature according to the passage?
a) Confining b) Acute c) Enriching d) Eternal
Q 18. 30473342 Which of the following best summarizes the key message the author is trying to
convey in the passage?
a)
English literature is a diverse and complex field that reflects the history and culture of the English-
speaking people.
b) English literature is a beautiful and artistic field that challenges us to think critically and creatively.
c)
English literature is a fascinating and rewarding field that enriches our skills and abilities as readers,
writers, and thinkers.
d)
English literature is a comprehensive and influential field that connects us to the global literary
heritage and community.
follow.
Passage – 4
The judiciary in India is hailed as a shining beacon of freedom, fairness, and honesty. But a closer look
at the courts exposes a dark reality. It is beset by various maladies, such as snail-paced trials,
corruption, inefficiency, and lack of accountability. Among these, the most severe and widespread one
is the mountain of cases. This malady is a grave menace to the rule of law and the dispensation of
justice in the country, and that it necessitates prompt and holistic reforms from all the stakeholders
involved in the judicial process.
The judiciary is a hospital, and the cases are the patients. But this hospital is a sinking ship, with not
enough hands-on deck, not enough tools in the toolbox, and not enough money in the bank. The
patients are plagued by various diseases, some of them fatal. The hospital is drowning in a sea of new
patients, and the old ones are rotting in the corners. The patients are losing their light and their trust in
the hospital, and some of them are slipping away without a cure. The hospital is on the brink of
collapse, and it cries out for help and reform. This is the grim picture of the judiciary in India, with
respect to the cases.
The accumulation of cases is a double-edged sword that cuts both the litigants and the judiciary. The
judges are caught between a rock and a hard place, which compromises their quality and efficiency of
work. The lawyers are at their wit's end, which undermines their professionalism and ethics. The
society is up in arms, which threatens its respect and compliance with the law. This malady is a
snowball effect that grows bigger and worse as it rolls on.
The judiciary in India is drowning in a sea of cases, a sign of a deeper disease that infects the system.
It shows the inability of the system to evolve with the changing times and expectations of the society. It
lays bare the cracks and holes in the framework and operation of the judiciary. It questions the
credibility and power of the judiciary as the custodian of the Constitution and the defender of the rights
of the people. This ailment is a symbol of the rot and downfall of the judiciary in India.
This malady is a ticking time bomb that needs to be defused without delay. It calls for sweeping
reforms that leave no stone unturned. It demands the cooperation and collaboration of all the actors
and agencies involved in the judicial process. It requires the vision and courage of the judiciary to
reinvent itself and reclaim its glory and dignity. This malady can be solved, if there is a will and a way.
The ball is in the court of the judiciary.
Q 19. 30473342 What is the central thesis of the above extract?
a)
Overwhelming backlog of cases is the challenge of the judiciary in India that requires immediate
changes.
b)
Harmful effects on both the parties and the adjudicators are the consequences of the judiciary in India
that result from its system.
c)
Worsening situation with the increase of cases is the phenomenon of the judiciary in India that reflects
its inability to evolve.
d)
Endangered legal order and rights of the citizens are the implications of the judiciary in India that call
for its reform.
Q 20. 30473342 What does the author mean by 'sinking ship' in the second paragraph?
a) A reference for the judiciary that it is failing and unlikely to recover.
b) A literal description of the physical condition of the judiciary that is damaged and decayed.
c)
A comparison of the judiciary to a ship that is carrying too many passengers and not enough
resources.
d) A reference to the historical event of the Titanic that sank in 1912.
Q 21. 30473342 Which of the following statements is the author most likely to disagree with?
a) The judiciary in India is admired as a radiant source of freedom, fairness, and honesty.
b) Lawyers of the judiciary are drained and desperate, which affects their competence and morals.
c) The judiciary in India is a victim of its own success and popularity that attracts too many cases.
d) Indian judiciary demands the insight and boldness to change itself and regain its glory and dignity.
Q 22. 30473342 Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
a) The judiciary in India is a complex system, which adjusts to the changing society's demands.
b) The judiciary in India is a hospital which is under equipped with resources.
c) The accumulation of cases hurts both the litigants and the judiciary.
d) No improvement is needed for the Indian judiciary which is an effective institution.
Q 23. 30473342 Which of the following words best describes the author's perspective towards the
accumulation of cases in the last paragraph?
a) Indifferent b) Optimistic c) Critical d) Pessimistic
Q 24. 30473342 Which of the following words best describes the "drowning in a sea of cases"
metaphor used in the passage?
a) A sign of hopelessness and despair b) A sign of strength and resilience
c) A sign of diversity and complexity d) A sign of stagnation and decay
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1
The traditional Lanjia Saura paintings, the exquisitely embroidered Dongaria Kondh shawl, the
delicious Khajuri Guda from Odisha and the Handmade Carpets and Wancho Wooden Craft from
Arunachal Pradesh were among the 17 products that bagged the Geographical Indications (GI) tag.
The traditional knitted shawls of the hill tribe Dongaria Kondh are both unique and ancient. Their
culture, tradition, faith, and beliefs, as well as the biodiversity of their forests are reflected in the
shawls. Dharanipenu, the much adored goddess of the Dongaria, has a home in every village. The art
and drawings made in the Dharanipenu residence are reflected in their shawls. Although the modern
world has had significant impact on their traditional apparel, the Dongaria shawl continues to be
popular with the tribe.
Apart from this the Geographical Indications Registry in Chennai has also given tags to three products
from West Bengal - the Tangail Saree of Bengal, Garad Saree and Korial saree. Odisha's Dhenkanal
Magji, a milk product and Similipal Kai Chutney also got a GI tag. The 'Kai' is indigenous to
Mayurbhanj and Keonjhar which are found in abundance in the jungles of every block areas of the
districts. The Kai Chutney prepared from these Kai is the main source of protection to the health and
safety measures of the local tribes. The tribes in the Mayurbhanj and Keonjhar District commonly use
the chutney as a delicious food and traditional medicine to treat different aliments in their daily life.
The Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal, a vegetable crop with lots of prickly thorns on the flesh as well as
the whole plant grown in whole of Nayagarh district of Odisha also received a tag. The other products
that were given a GI tag are West Bengal's Kalonunia Rice, West Bengal's Sundarban Honey,
Gujarat's Kachchhi Kharek; Jammu Kashmir's Ramban Anardana; Koraput Kalajeera Rice and the
Arunachal Pradesh Adi Kekir (Ginger).
Q 25. 30473342 Which of the following state's product is Kachchhi Kharek, a date palm product
known for being bold, crisp, and sweet that has received a Geographical Indication tag?
a) Arunachal Pradesh b) West Bengal c) Gujarat d) Jammu & Kashmir
Q 26. 30473342 Which of the following state's product is Wancho Wooden Craft that has received a
Geographical Indication tag?
a) Gujarat b) Arunachal Pradesh c) West Bengal d) Jammu & Kashmir
Q 27. 30473342 What is the rice variety from West Bengal that has received a Geographical
Indication tag?
a) Tangail b) Garad c) Kalo Nunia d) Sundarban
Q 28. 30473342 Which of the following products from Jammu & Kashmir is locally referred to as
Dhruni and is an important fruit tree growing wild in hilly tracts and forests that has received a
Geographical Indication tag?
a) Ramban Anardana b) Adi Kekir c) Tangail d) Sundarban
Q 29. 30473342 Which of the following is/are the products that has/have received a Geographical
Indication tag?
a) Kapdaganda Shawl b) Dhenkanal Magji c) d) All of the above

Nayagarh Kanteimundi
Brinjal
Q 30. 30473342 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Geographical Indication
(GI) tag?
a)
It is a name or sign used on certain products which corresponds to a specific geographical location or
origin (e.g., a town, region, or country).
b)
India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of
Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 has come into force with effect from 15 September
2003.
c) Darjeeling tea became the first GI tagged product in India, in 2004-2005.
d) The registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of 20 years.
Passage – 2
India welcomes the expansion of the BRICS grouping through a consensus-based approach, Prime
Minister Narendra Modi declared in Johannesburg. Addressing the plenary session of the 15th BRICS
summit in the historic South African city, the PM urged member States to take advantage of India's
digital solutions and to work for the welfare of the Global South.
Current BRICS members include Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, whose names make
up the group's acronym. "125 countries participated in the Global South summit that we organised this
January. We have proposed that the African Union should be made a member of the G-20. I am
confident that all BRICS partners will support these ideas. India fully supports the idea of expansion of
the membership of the BRICS and welcomes a consensus-based process," Mr. Modi said.
The plenary session was also attended by Brazilian President Luiz Inacio Lula Da Silva, Chinese
President Xi Jinping, and the host, South African President Cyril Ramaphosa, alongside other
delegates. Russian President Vladimir Putin participated in the summit virtually, with the physical
leadership for the Russian delegation being provided by Foreign Minister Sergey Lavrov. When the
leaders posed together for a "family photograph", Mr. Ramaphosa held hands with Mr. Modi and Mr.
Lavrov on his left and Mr. Xi and Mr. Lula Da Silva to his right.
Continuing with India's priorities in its G-20 presidency year, Mr. Modi kept the focus of his speech on
the prospects of the Global South and the African Union, which is being represented at the BRICS
summit by the east African nation of Comoros.
Q 31. 30473342 The 15th BRICS summit was held in____________.
a) Johannesburg b) New Delhi c) Moscow d) Beijing
Q 32. 30473342 Which of the following is Not a current member of BRICS grouping?
a) Brazil b) Russia c) India d) Pakistan
Q 33. 30473342 Which of the following countries President participated in the 15th BRICS summit
virtually?
a) India b) China c) Russia d) Brazil
Q 34. 30473342 The term "BRIC" is believed to be coined in 2001 by__________.
a) Vladimir Putin b) Jim O'Neill c) Xi Jinping d) Manmohan Singh
Q 35. 30473342 The first BRIC summit was held in
a) Yekaterinburg b) New Delhi c) Beijing d) Rio de Janeiro
Q 36. 30473342 Which of the following countries President has withdrawn the country from its
planned entry into the expanding BRICS club of nations?
a) Argentina b) Egypt c) Iran d) Ethiopia
Passage – 3
On 25 November, 1949, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar introduced a motion that "the Constitution as settled by
the Assembly be passed". "In making comparisons on the basis of time consumed, two things must be
remembered. One is that the Constitutions of America, Canada, South Africa and Australia are much
smaller than ours. Our Constitution as I said contains 395 articles while the American has just seven
articles, the first four of which are divided into sections which total up to 21, the Canadian has 147,
Australian 128 and South African 153 sections. The second thing to be remembered is that the makers
of the Constitutions of America, Canada, Australia and South Africa did not have to face the problem of
amendments. They were passed as moved. On the other hand, this Constituent Assembly had to deal
with as many as 2,473 amendments."
He remarked that the functioning of the Constitution depends on its functionaries i.e., the people who
implement and deal with the Constitution, which includes the people and the political parties which
represents them and carries out their wishes. In his words, it is futile to pass a judgment on the
Constitution without referring to the role played by the people and the political parties.
Thereafter, he rebutted the allegation that the Constitution provides for excessive centralization. It was
argued by some members that there is too much centralization in the Constitution and as a result the
states have been left dependent on the Centre. Ambedkar argued that on legislative and executive
authority, the centre and states are co-equal and have respective fields on which they can function. He
further argued that even though in some cases, the centre has been given the power to override the
states, such situations are confined to emergencies only. He justified these overriding powers on the
ground that in a moment of crisis, needs of the country as a whole must be focused upon and only the
centre can work towards those interests.
He remarked, "There can be no doubt that in the opinion of the vast majority of the people, the
residual loyalty of the citizen in an emergency must be to the Centre and not to the Constituent States.
For it is only the Centre which can work for a common end and for the general interests of the country
as a whole. Herein lies the justification for giving to all Centre certain overriding powers to be used in
an emergency."
Overall, Ambedkar conceded that if certain principles of the Constitution are not agreeable to some,
the future generation may depart from it. He cited Thomas Jefferson (one of the founding fathers of
America) to argue that the present Constitution binds the present generation and not the future
generations who may validly amend or change it.
Q 37. 30473342 According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which Constitutions did not face the problem of
amendments like the Indian Constitution?
a) American, Canadian, Australian b) South African, Pakistan, Canadian
c) Canadian, Nepal, Australian d) Australian, Singapore, American
Q 38. 30473342 What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar emphasize as the crucial factor for the effective
functioning of the Constitution?
a) Judicial System b) Bureaucracy
c) Functionaries - People and Political Parties d) Military Forces
Q 39. 30473342 What was the main rebuttal made by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar against the allegation of
excessive centralization in the Constitution?
a) States have equal powers with the Centre b)

Centre's overriding powers are confined to
emergencies
c) Centre has no powers over states d) States can override the Centre
Passage – 4
Russian President Vladimir Putin on September 30 insisted that the residents of four Ukrainian regions
that Moscow illegally annexed a year ago "made their choice - to be with their Fatherland."
Q 40. 30473342 What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar state about the residual loyalty of citizens in an
emergency situation?
a) It must be to the Constituent States b) It is irrelevant
c) It must be to the Centre d) It depends on the political parties
Q 41. 30473342 According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, what might future generations validly do with the
Constitution?
a) Ignore it b) Change it c) Preserve it d) Criticize it
Q 42. 30473342 What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar consider as the justification for giving overriding powers
to the Centre in emergencies?
a) Ensuring dominance over states b)

Focusing on general interests of the country as a
whole
c) Centralizing powers permanently d) Weakening the political parties
In an address released in the early hours to mark the first anniversary of the annexation, Mr. Putin
insisted that it was carried out "in full accordance with international norms." He also claimed that
residents of the Donetsk, Luhansk, Zaporizhzhia and Kherson regions had again expressed their
desire to be part of Russia in local elections earlier this month, in which Russia's Central Election
Commission said that the country's ruling party won the most votes.
The West has denounced both the referendum votes carried out last year and the recent ballots as a
sham. The votes were held as Russian authorities attempted to tighten their grip on territories Moscow
illegally annexed a year ago and still does not fully control. A concert was held in Red Square on
September 29 to mark the anniversary, but Mr. Putin did not participate.
The address came after Russia's Defense Ministry said September 29 it would enlist 130,000 men for
compulsory military service this fall, beginning Oct. 1 in most regions of the country. It announced it
would for the first time begin enlisting residents of the annexed territories as part of its twice-yearly
military conscription campaign. Russia says conscripts are not deployed to what it calls its "special
military operation" in Ukraine, or to serve in the annexed territories. However, after their service,
conscripts automatically become reservists, and Russia has previously deployed reservists to Ukraine.
Q 43. 30473342 In which regions did Russia claim victory for the United Russia party in local ballots?
a) Kharkiv, Luhansk, Odesa, Donetsk b) Donetsk, Lugansk, Kherson, Zaporizhzhia
c) Kyiv, Lviv, Dnipropetrovsk, Chernihiv d) Zaporizhzhia, Kharkiv, Kyiv, Crimea
Q 44. 30473342 What is the main demand of Russia concerning NATO's relationship with Ukraine?
a) Russia wants Ukraine to join NATO
b) Russia demands NATO abandon military activity in Eastern Europe
c) Russia supports NATO expansion
d) Russia wants NATO to intervene in the conflict
Q 45. 30473342 How did Ukraine and its allies characterize the elections in the occupied territories
conducted by Russia?
a) Free and fair b) Legitimate c) Sham d) Transparent
Q 46. 30473342 What triggered the Euromaidan protests in Ukraine in 2013?
a) Suspension of an association agreement with the European Union
b) Economic recession
c) Political corruption
d) Military aggression from Russia
Q 47. 30473342 What was the reason for Russia's annexation of the Crimean Peninsula in 2014?
a) To protect its port access on the Black Sea b) To establish military bases
c) To counter NATO expansion d) To gain control of natural resources
Q 48. 30473342 What role has India played in the context of the Ukraine conflict?
a) b) Supporting Russia c) d)
Actively supporting Adopting a neutral Leading peace
Ukraine stance negotiations
Passage – 5
India demonstrated the capability of the Akash missile system to engage four aerial targets
simultaneously at a range of 25 kilometres, the Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO) said. It said India became the first country to have such a capability using a single firing unit.
It is learnt that the capability of the home-grown missile system was displayed at the 'Astrashakti'
military exercise on December 12.
The exercise was held by the Indian Air Force. The Akash, with a range of up to 25 km, is a short-
range surface to air missile primarily used for protecting vulnerable areas and points from air attacks.
The missile system is among the key platforms that India is exporting to friendly foreign countries. The
other key platforms that India has been exporting are Dornier-228 aircraft, 155 mm Advanced Towed
Artillery Guns (ATAGs), Brahmos missiles, mine protected vehicles, armoured vehicles, ammunition,
thermal imagers and various components of avionics and small arms.
Q 49. 30473342 India demonstrated the capability of the Akash missile system to engage four aerial
targets simultaneously at a range of 25 kilometres. India became the __________country to have
such a capability using a single firing unit.
a) First b) Second c) Third d) Fourth
Q 50. 30473342 Name one institution that played a major role in bringing India to the forefront.
a) DRDO b) c) ISRO d) HAL

Indian Oil Corporation
Q 51. 30473342 What is the former name of Dr. Abdul Kalam Island?
a) Azad Island b) Independence Island c) Wheeler Island d) Kalamabad Island
Q 52. 30473342 What is the primary function of the Integrated Test Range missile testing facility on
Dr. Abdul Kalam Island?
a) b) Satellite launching c) Missile testing d) Marine research

Nuclear power
generation
Legal Aptitude
Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.
Passage – 1
Sections 96 to 106 of the IPC outline the legal provisions regarding the right of private defense. While
it is the state's duty to safeguard the life and property of its citizens, it is practically impossible for the
state to oversee every citizen's actions. Therefore, the IPC grants the right of private defense to
individuals. The law of private defense is based on two fundamental principles: firstly, individuals have
the right to defend their own body and property, as well as the body and property of others; and
secondly, this right does not apply if the accused is the aggressor.
Section 96 of the IPC states that any act performed in the exercise of the right of private defense is not
considered an offense. Section 97 establishes the right of private defense for both the body and
property. It permits individuals to defend their own body or the body of another person against
offenses that endanger human life. Additionally, it allows for the defense of movable or immovable
property against acts falling under the definitions of theft, robbery, mischief, criminal trespass, or
attempts thereof. Section 98 states that the right of private defense is applicable even when the
person committing an act would not be considered guilty due to factors such as immaturity,
unsoundness of mind, intoxication, or misconception. However, this defense is limited to situations

where the act would be considered an offense. Section 99 lists situations in which the right of private
defense is not applicable. These include acts committed by public servants acting in good faith, acts
carried out under the authority or direction of a public servant, cases where there is sufficient time to
seek recourse from public authority, and instances where the harm caused exceeds what is necessary
for defense. Section 100 specifies the conditions under which the right of private defense of the body
extends to causing death. It requires that the person exercising the right must not be at fault in
initiating the encounter, there must be an impending harm such as rape, kidnapping, or wrongful
confinement, there must be no reasonable mode of escape or retreat, and there must be a necessity
to take the assailant's life. Sections 101 to 106 provide further details on the extent and duration of the
right of private defense for both the body and property. They outline circumstances when this right
extends to causing harm or death, and the commencement and continuance of the right of private
defense in various situations.
(Edited passage from https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/readersblog/indiastatistics/save-

lakshadweep-33051/)
Q 53. 30473342 Sam and Vani were playing hide and seek at Vani's house. Sam was getting caught
again and again so out of frustration of losing he started an argument with Vani saying she is winning
because it is her house and she is aware of all the good places to hide. Such an allegation made Vani
furious. She shouted "I will kill you, Sam liar" and saying so she started running towards him while
raising her fist. Sam in order to protect himself took a knife from dining table and cut Vani's throat.
Decide-
a)
The act done by Sam was in self-defence as Vani shouted at him saying "I will kill you, Sam liar" and
there is an immediate danger.
b)
The act done by Sam was in self-defence as Vani after saying she is going to kill him, started running
towards him with a raised fist. Thus, there was a reasonable apprehension of death.
c) The act done by Sam was not in self-defence as he exceeded his right to self-defence.
d)
Sam shouldn't have in first place made such comments and allegations and being the one the ignite
the fight he cannot take defence of self-defence.
Q 54. 30473342 Deepak was walking on roads of Shor Bazar when he noticed a person with a gun
walking towards a man who had hefty amount of cash in his hand. It was very clear that the gunman
was going to shoot the other person. So, in order to protect him he picked a rock from floor and hit on
gunman's head as a result of which he died. Decide-
a)
Deepak can claim the right of private defense under Section 100 of the IPC due to absence of any
fault on his part, the presence of imminent harm, and no reasonable mode of escape.
b)
Deepak can argue that he acted in the defense of another person's body and property under Section
97 of the IPC.
c) Deepak can potentially claim the right of private defense of property under Section 103 of the IPC.
d)
If Deepak's actions were deemed necessary to protect the life of the person being targeted by the
gunman, he may be able to establish a valid defense under the principles.
Q 55. 30473342 Piku was beating Ziku severely. So in order to protect himself Ziku wakes up and
attacks Piku and kills him to death though he heard the siren of police and knew that police had
reached the location to help him. Just before Ziku was about to kill Piku police entered but he didn't
stop and killed Piku. Decide.
a)
No, the Ziku is not liable because he acted in the exercise of his right of private defense under Section
100 of the IPC.
b)
Yes, the Ziku is liable because he did not exhaust all reasonable means to escape or seek help before
resorting to lethal force, which exceeds the limits of private defense.
c)
No, the Ziku is not liable as he was defending himself against an imminent threat to his life and used
necessary force.
d)
Yes, the Ziku is liable because causing the death of the Piku was not proportionate to the threat faced
and went beyond the scope of reasonable self-defence.
Q 56. 30473342 Raju and Gundabhai have been enemies to each other since a long time. They hate
each other and always argue with each other on petty issues. One day Gundhabhai calls Raju on
phone and says that he was missing his dog and he feels that Raju's face resembles the face of his
dog, therefore he wants to see him. This makes Raju furious and on call threatens Gundabhai saying
that "One day he will kill him." Gundabhai in self-defence goes to Raju's house and shot him. Decide-
a)
Yes, Gundabhai's actions can be considered as private defense as he believed there was an imminent
threat to his life based on Raju's statement.
b)
No, Gundabhai's actions cannot be considered as private defense as Raju's threatening statement
was made over a phone call and did not pose an immediate danger to Gundabhai's life.
c)
Yes, Gundabhai's actions can be considered as private defense as he reasonably believed that Raju
posed a threat to his life based on their long-standing enmity and history of arguments.
d)
No, Gundabhai's actions cannot be considered as private defense as there was no immediate threat
to Gundabhai's life at the time he went to Raju's house to confront him.
Q 57. 30473342 Dev was walking in Peace Park one evening. Usually, the park remained filled with
dozens of people but due to rain there was no one in the park. While walking, Dev saw a dog running
towards him, so to protect himself he took the revolver out, which he used to carry for emergency
situations. But as soon as he pointed revolver towards the dog, it changed its way and ran but Dev
nevertheless still shot him. Decide-
a)
Yes, Dev's actions can be considered as private defense as he reasonably believed that the dog
posed an imminent threat to his life or safety.
b)
No, Dev's actions cannot be considered as private defense as the dog did not pose an immediate
danger to his life or safety at the time, he shot it.
c)
Yes, Dev's actions can be considered as private defense as he acted in response to a perceived threat
and used necessary force to protect himself.
d)
No, Dev's actions cannot be considered as private defense as he had the opportunity to retreat or
seek alternative means to ensure his safety without resorting to shooting the dog.
Q 58. 30473342 Under Section 100 of the IPC, in which of the following situations does the right of
private defense of the body extend to causing death?
a) When there is an act of aggression by the person exercising the right.
b) When there is a threat of petty theft.
c) When there is an assault with the intent to kidnap or wrongfully confine.
d) When there is ample time to seek help from public authorities.
Q 59. 30473342 According to the passage on the right of private defense under the IPC, what are the
limitations to this right as specified in Section 99?
a) When the act is committed by a person of unsound mind or a child.

b)
When the act is committed against a public servant acting in good faith within the limits of their
authority.
c) When there is a necessity to cause any harm to protect one's property from theft during the night.
d) When the person exercising the right has initiated the encounter with the intention to cause harm.
Passage – 2
Consideration is the price paid for a promise. As per Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act 1872, an
agreement without consideration is void, subject to certain exceptions under Section 25, as
consideration is one of the essentials of a valid contract. A contract supported by consideration makes
it legally enforceable and makes the obligations of the parties binding upon them. In the absence of
consideration, such an agreement would be merely a gratuitous one and not legally enforceable.
Consideration can be to the benefit of one party and to the detriment of the other. In the words of
Pollock and Mulla, "Consideration is the act, forbearance, or promise done or given at the request of
the promisor to any other person." The detriment of one party is sufficient even if the promisor is not
benefited from the promise. It is the price for which the promise of the other is bought. Consideration,
in order to be valid, must be real, substantial, and adequate. This article shall try to deal with the
concept of consideration and its types as incorporated under the Indian Contract Act of 1872.
Consideration, as given under Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, defines it as "when at the
desire of the promisor, the promisee or any other person has done or abstained from doing something,
does or abstains from doing or promises to do or to abstain from doing something. Such an act,
abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise". In order to understand the definition
of consideration, one must try to study its essentials which are embedded in the above-mentioned
definition. The nature of consideration can be of two types. They are:
Unilateral consideration- The contracts under which the promisor offers to pay only after the
occurrence of a specified event. In other words, the promisor is willing to pay for the promise. Under
unilateral consideration, it moves only in a single direction. Under such a contract, only the promisor is
legally bound to fulfil his promise within the prescribed time duration.
Bilateral consideration- The contract where both parties are under an obligation to fulfil their
respective promises is known as bilateral consideration. Here, the parties involved must be at least
two, unlike that of a unilateral consideration where only the promisor is bound to fulfil his promise.
Under such contracts, consideration moves in either direction.
https://www.taxmann.com/post/blog/consideration-under-the-indian-contract-act-1872
Q 60. 30473342 B has just shifted to Cars colony. This area is very famous for rich car owners who
usually sell their cars for very nominal price. B meets A here and befriends him. He comes to know
that A is looking for a buyer for his car. A enters into contract with B for sale of car. A is going to provide
B his Mercedes car and B is going to pay Rs. 1000 for it. Decide-
a) b)
There is a valid consideration from side of A but There is a valid consideration from side of B but
not B. not A.
c) d) None of the above.
There is a valid consideration from side of both A
and B.
Q 61. 30473342 Y owns a massage lounge which works for free. It remains open between 9 am to 9
pm. One-day X visit Y at 10 pm and ask for massage which Y refuses. X promises to pay Y rupees 20
if Y gives him a shoulder massage. Y agrees and a contract is formed between both the parties.
Decide
a) There is a valid consideration from side of both X and Y.
b)
There is a valid consideration from side of X but not Y because a consideration should must be
tangible.
c) There is a valid consideration from side of Y but not X because 20 rupees is very less amount.
d) None of the above.
Q 62. 30473342 Mr Raj owns a dog Pappu whom he loves very much and takes it on walks very
often. One day while walking he gets a call; he picks up the call and forgets about Pappu and Pappu is
lost. He then makes an offer to Mr Rahul to find his lost dog for which he would pay him Rs. 100.
Decide-
a) There is a valid consideration from side of both Mr. Raj and Mr. Rahul.
b) There is no consideration from side of Mr Rahul, thus it is not a valid offer.

c) Mr. Raj should have been more careful towards his dog.
d)
It is a unilateral consideration and Mr Rahul is under no obligation to accept the offer and it is up to
him to accept it or not.
Q 63. 30473342 Rao and Tim are long known friends. Rao owns a car which Tim likes a lot. One-day
Rao enters into a sale agreement with Tim to transfer the title of the car to him upon receiving
consideration for the same of Rs. 2 lacks within the prescribed time duration. Decide-
a) It is a valid agreement where consideration is bilateral.

b) It is valid agreement where consideration is unilateral.
c) It is not a valid agreement since consideration is not sufficient.

d) It is not a valid agreement since consideration is illegal.
Q 64. 30473342 Sita is best friend of Geeta. Sita owns an old doll which costed around 20 rupees but
she sells her doll to Geeta for 10,000 rupees. Geeta agrees as she really likes the doll and is really
happy. Decide-
a) It is a valid consideration because as the amount has value in the eyes of law.
b) It is a valid unilateral consideration.
c) It is not a valid consideration since a hug doesn't counts something under consideration.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 65. 30473342 What is the nature of consideration in a unilateral contract as per the Indian Contract
Act of 1872?
a) Consideration is provided by both parties after the fulfilment of the contract.
b) Consideration is paid by the promisor only before a specified event occurs.
c) Consideration moves only in a single direction, from the promisee to the promisor.
d)
Consideration moves only in a single direction, and only the promisor is legally bound to fulfil his
promise.
Q 66. 30473342 According to the provided passage on the Indian Contract Act of 1872, what must
consideration be in order to be considered valid?
a) Real, substantial, and adequate. b) Large, detailed, and written.
c) Speculative, future-oriented, and potential. d) Nominal, symbolic, and formal.
Passage – 3
The term "homicide" originates from Latin, signifying the killing of a human being by another human
being. In the context of Indian law, culpable homicide is defined by Section 299 of the Indian Penal
Code (IPC). According to this section, culpable homicide occurs when an individual causes the death
of another person by engaging in an act with the intention of causing death, or by performing an act
with the intention of causing severe bodily injury likely to lead to death, or by committing an act with
the knowledge that it is likely to cause death.
Culpable homicide is broadly classified into two categories: culpable homicide amounting to murder
and culpable homicide not amounting to murder. It is essential to understand that murder is a specific
type of culpable homicide. Section 300 of the IPC defines murder, which falls within the ambit of
culpable homicide.
Culpable homicide not amounting to murder is not specifically defined as a distinct offense in the IPC;
rather, it is encompassed within the definition of murder provided in Section 300. However, the IPC
outlines several exceptions (Exceptions 1 to 5 of Section 300) where culpable homicide may not
amount to murder. These exceptions include situations involving provocation, the exercise of the right
to private defense, instances where a public servant exceeds their lawful powers, sudden fights, and
cases with the consent of the victim.
It is crucial to note that while all murder falls under the category of culpable homicide, not all culpable
homicide amounts to murder. Murder is a species of culpable homicide, and it requires specific intent
and circumstances as outlined in Section 300 of the IPC.
The legal framework clarifies the elements necessary for culpable homicide, emphasizing intention,
knowledge, and the potential for causing death. The exceptions provide situations where culpable
homicide may be mitigated and not classified as murder.
( Edited from https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/salman-khans-hit-and-run-case-what-is-

culpable-homicide/ articleshow/47173696.cms )
Q 67. 30473342 Radha and Mohan goes to park to play hide and seek. Mohan goes and hides
behind a bush and Radha starts finding him. Meanwhile, Rohan with a gun enters the park and asks
Radha would he like to play with his gun and Radha agrees. Rohan saw Mohan going and hiding
behind bush when he was entering the park but still Rohan persuades Radha to shoot at bush with
intent of causing death of Mohan. Radha shoots and Mohan dies as a result of this act. Decide-
a) Radha is liable for culpable homicide but Rohan is innocent as Radha shot the bullet.
b) Both are liable for death of Mohan as Rohan instructed Radha and she shot the bullet.
c)
Rohan is liable for culpable homicide as he intended to kill Mohan and Radha being totally unaware of
this is innocent.
d)
Rohan is liable for murder as he intended to kill Mohan and Radha being totally unaware of this is
innocent.
Q 68. 30473342 Billie is suffering from diabetes and is on a proper diet in which sugar is completely
excluded. Jade is very much aware for her condition. One day Jade brings a box of sugar free candies
and force Billie to take them saying its safe and very tasty. Jade did this to cause death of Billie by
raising her sugar level and as intended happened. Decide-
a) Jade is liable for murder has he had intention to kill Billie and acted in furtherance.
b) Jade is liable for Culpable homicide has he had intention to kill Billie and acted in furtherance.
c)
Jade is not liable as the candies were sugar free and Jade couldn't have expected the consequences.
d) Jade is not liable as raising sugar level of someone is not a criminally dangerous act.
Q 69. 30473342 Rathi is in labour at YC hospital but is yet to deliver baby. The nurse goes out of the
room to talk to her husband on phone in duty hours. When she's outside head of the child emerges
out of the womb as a result of which he dies. Decide-
a)
The Nurse and Hospital authorities are liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder as child
died due to their lack of care.
b)
The Nurse and Hospital authorities are liable for culpable homicide amounting to murder as child died
due to their lack of care.
c)
The Nurse and Hospital authorities are not liable for culpable homicide as they had no intention to kill
the child.
d)
The Nurse and Hospital authorities are not liable for culpable homicide but are liable to tort of
negligence.
Q 70. 30473342 Chamiya was a local goon gang of the city. The head of the gang Pintu is in love with
Mr. Tiwari's daughter Lila but this relation is not acceptable to Mr. Tiwari. So in order to escape from
Pintu, he made his daughter forcefully marry to a person Raj is America. Few days after the marriage
Pintu out of anguish goes to grocery store of Mr. Tiwari and starts firing at him. A girl who came to buy
some grocery at the store also gets hit by the bullet and both dies. Decide-
a) The whole Chamiya gang is liable for spreading lawlessness in city.

b) Pintu is liable for culpable homicide of both Mr Tiwari and the girl.
c) Pintu is liable for culpable homicide of only the girl.
Passage – 4
The Kerala High Court set aside the order of the Thiruvananthapuram Additional Sessions Court,
which had discharged IAS officer Sriram Venkitaraman from the charge of culpable homicide not
Q 71. 30473342 Sara hated Tara as she was very pretty and even Sara's crush Tam liked Tara. One
day in order to take revenge Sara pushed Tara from stairs so she may die but Tam saw Tara falling
down and immediately called ambulance however, on reaching hospital urgent medical aid could not
be provided to her as a result of which she died. Decide Sara's Liability.
a) Sara is criminally liable for culpable homicide of Tara.
b) Sara is not liable as she was jealous of Tara and the act she done was out of emotions.
c) Hospital authorities are liable for not providing urgent medical aid.
d) Sara is not liable for death of Tara as it was not direct consequence of her actions.
Q 72. 30473342 In the context of Indian law, under what circumstances can culpable homicide not
amount to murder, according to Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code?
a)
When the act causing death is done with the intention to cause bodily injury that is likely to cause
death.
b) When the act is done with the consent of the person who dies.
c) When the act causing death is done with the intention of causing death or severe bodily injury.
d) When the act is committed with premeditation and malice.
amounting to murder in a road accident case that resulted in the death of journalist K. M. Basheer. The
State government had filed a revision petition challenging the discharge.
According to the Indian Penal Code, culpable homicide amounts to murder if the act causing death is
done with the intention of causing death, or if it is done with the intention of causing such bodily injury
that the offender knows is likely to cause death, or if it is done with the aim of inflicting physical
damage on another person resulting in death in the regular course of nature, or if the act is conducted
with the knowledge that it is likely to result in death or bodily harm without any justification for risking
death or injury.
Murder is punishable under Section 302 of the IPC, with a penalty of death or life imprisonment, along
with a fine. Life imprisonment is now the rule, and death sentence the exception, as per the Code of
Criminal Procedure. The court must establish specific reasons for imposing a death sentence.
In this case, the Kerala High Court found that the act causing the death of journalist K. M. Basheer
was not within the scope of culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 304, but rather
it fell under Section 302, making it a case of murder. The High Court's decision implies that Sriram
Venkitaraman will now face trial for the charge of murder.
(Added and edited from https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/hc-sets-aside-discharge-of-

ias-officersriram- venkitaraman-from-the-culpable-homicide-charge/article66732360.ece )
Q 73. 30473342 Tittu is doctor of Bittu. He knows that Bittu is suffering from severe illness in which a
blow is likely to kill him. Tittu hits Bittu knowing the fact that even a 'not so severe blow' can also cause
death to Bittu. Is Tittu liable for murder?
a)
No, Tittu is not liable for murder because the blow was not sufficient to cause death to a normal
person.
b) No, he is not liable for murder because Bittu inflicted some danger upon Tittu.
c) Yes he is liable for culpable homicide and should be punished.
d)
Yes, he is liable for murder because Tittu knew that Bittu is suffering from the illness in which a blow is
likely to cause him death.
Q 74. 30473342 Baazigar and Sholay are enemies and often keep fighting. One day Baazigar was in
market looking for a good sword. He saw Sholay coming to a shop nearby so in order to try whether
the sword he has selected is good or not he gives a club-wound to Sholay. As a result of the wound
inflicted upon him, Sholay dies. Decide whether Baazigar is liable for murder?
a)
Baazigar is liable for murder as he and Sholay were long known enemies and he must have intended
to kill him.
b) Baazigar is liable for murder as he gave a club-wound to Sholay purposefully.
c) Baazigar is not liable for murder as he was just testing the sword and did not intend to kill Sholay.
d) Sholay was a threat to Baazigar's life, thus, deserved to die.
Q 75. 30473342 In a bustling and crowded market, a person identified as A arrived with a gun firmly
grasped in his hands, exuding an aura of danger. With no specific target in mind, A callously
unleashed a barrage of bullets into the chaotic surroundings, oblivious to the potential harm his
reckless actions could cause. Tragically, amidst the chaos, an innocent individual named B fell victim
to the hail of gunfire, succumbing to the fatal injuries inflicted upon them.
a) A is not liable for murder as he had no intention to kill B which is an important element of murder.
b) A is liable for murder as his act caused death of B.
c) A is not liable for murder as he was firing in air and B came in between.
d) A is not liable for murder as it was a mere accident.
Q 76. 30473342 T and S are friends and they keep on pranking each other. One day T decided that
when S will enter room T will through sunflowers on him but little did, he knew S was allergic to
sunflowers. So, due to prank done by T, S faced severe illness and died in the end. Decide-
a)
T is liable for murder has was friend of S from a very long time and he must be aware of allergy and
did this intentionally.
b) T is not liable for murder as pranks between friends are very normal today.
c) T is liable for murder as sunflower contains harmful chemical likely to cause death of anyone.
d) T is not liable for murder as Sunflowers in regular course aren't likely to kill anyone.
Q 77. 30473342 Ansar was riding bike at 120 km/h on Magsa road. Magsa road usually remains
empty as people consider this road to be house of ghost and no one has visited it since past 2 years.
While driving a child comes in between the road and Ansar's bike hits him. As a result, he dies.
Decide-
a) Ansar is liable for murder as driving bike at 120 km/h is dangerous act likely to kill someone.
b) Ansar is liable for murder as driving bike at 120 km/h is dangerous act likely to kill someone.
c) Ansar is liable for murder as he should have been ready for such an instance while driving.
Q 78. 30473342 What was the significant implication of the Kerala High Court's decision in the case
where IAS officer Sriram Venkitaraman was involved in a road accident resulting in the death of
journalist K. M. Basheer?
a) Sriram Venkitaraman was discharged of all charges and the case was closed.
b)
The charge against Sriram Venkitaraman was changed from culpable homicide not amounting to
murder to murder under Section 302 of the IPC.
c)
Sriram Venkitaraman was charged under Section 304 for culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
d) The court imposed a fine on Sriram Venkitaraman without any imprisonment.
Passage – 5
The Pakistan Cricket Board (PCB) has included "wagering deal support" in the bid document for
media rights consulting services, which means they are looking for a consultant with experience in
dealing with media rights, sponsorship, and wagering deals. However, wagering agreements are not
enforceable in any court of law, according to Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, as they have
been expressly declared void.
A wagering agreement is an agreement where two parties agree to pay a fixed sum of money on the
happening or non-happening of an uncertain future event. The parties have no material interest in the
event other than the mutual chances of winning or losing, and both parties have an equal chance of
winning or losing the wager. Wagering agreements are void, and no suit can be filed in court to
recover anything claimed to be won in any wager or non-compliance of any party to abide by the
results of the wager.
However, there are some exceptions to the rule. Insurance contracts, skill competitions, horse racing
competitions authorized by state governments, and share market transactions, except if the only
intention is to settle the price difference, are not considered wagers.
Insurance contracts are contracts of indemnity that safeguard the interest of one party against damage
and have an insurable interest, while wagering contracts have no interest in the happening or non-
happening of an event. Skill competitions require a substantial amount of skill to win, and horse racing
competitions authorized by state governments are not considered unlawful as long as the contribution
for the reward is not more than Rs 500. Purchase and sale of stocks with the intention to give and take
delivery of shares do not amount to a wager, except if the only intention is to settle the price
difference, which would make it a wager.
https://www.outlookindia.com/website/story/sports-news-pakistan-cricket-board-set-to-hire-firm-to-
ensure-mediabroadcasting- rights/352022
Q 79. 30473342 The owner of a truck transferred it in a benami manner i.e illegally to another party.
Later the truck met with a major accident which injured a young army officer who claimed heavy
damages from the owner, the benamidar and the insurance company. A plea was raised that a
benamidar had no insurable interest which is why it was a wager. Decide-
a) The plea should be accepted by the court and benamidar should not be held liable to pay.
b) The plea should be accepted by the court and benamidar should be made liable to pay.
c) Insurance company is liable pay and not the benamidar.
d) It was merely an act of god, thus, no one should be made liable.
Q 80. 30473342 Ram and Sham went to a chess club where all the people come and play chess for
free. It is a government regulated club established for increasing interest in chess of younger
generation. They decided to play Chess and the losing party was liable to pay 100 rupees to winning
party. Ram won and claimed money but Sham denied it saying it is wager. Decide?
a) Sham is not liable to pay as games are based on Chance and not skill.
b) Sham is not liable to pay as it was a mere bet and betting is illegal.
c) Sham is liable to pay as chess is a game of skill and not chance.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 81. 30473342 Sitaramn is a common man who lives near baji colony. One day in baji colony a man
comes for selling lottery ticket. He also bought a lottery ticket along with other neighbours for rupees 1
lac and luckily he won the lottery. But the lottery company refused to pay money. Decide-
a) Lottery company is liable to pay as it is breach of contract.
b) Lottery company is not liable to pay as contract was void ab initio.
c) Lottery company is liable to pay since Sitaramn spent 1 lac rupees in purchasing the lottery ticket.
d) Lottery company is not liable to pay but the person who sold the lottery ticket is liable.
Q 82. 30473342 A horse racing competition was organised in state of Rajgir by Amarchand sports
organisation which is a government organisation. Thousands of participant took part in it. Top 100
people were to be selected out as winner of the competition and rupees 500 was price money for all
the 100 participant. Decide whether it is a lawful competition?
a) It is unlawful since price money is not more than 500.
b) It is unlawful since horse racing is a game of Chance and not skill.
c) It is lawful as 500 rupees price money was for hundreds of people making it a good amount.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 83. 30473342 A horse racing competition was organised in state of Rajgir organised by a private
organisation. Thousands of participants took part in it. Top 100 people were to be selected out as
winner of the competition and rupees 500 was price money for all the 100 participants. Decide
whether it is a lawful competition?
a) It is unlawful since price money is not more than 500.
b) It is unlawful since horse racing is a game of Chance and not skill.
c) It is lawful as 500 rupees price money was for hundreds of people making it a good amount.
d) It is unlawful since nowhere it is stated that state of Rajgir has allowed horse racing.
Q 84. 30473342 Why are wagering agreements considered void under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
a) Because they involve a mutual interest in the occurrence of an event.
b)
Because they are agreements where parties agree to pay money based on the outcome of an
uncertain event, without any other material interest.
c) Because they are always enforceable in a court of law.
d) Because they involve a high degree of skill and are therefore not based on chance.
Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages and answer the questions that follow.
Passage – 1
Imagine you've just been appointed as a consultant for a renowned hospitality business facing a
decline in service quality. The company operates a chain of upscale hotels and resorts, and the
management is worried about negative customer feedback and decreasing customer satisfaction. Your
mission is to unearth the root causes of this decline and propose solutions.
As you embark on your investigation, you collect information and observe the following:
• The company recently implemented a new customer service system aimed at improving efficiency.
However, this system requires staff with specialized training.
• The introduction of the new customer service system highlighted significant gaps in staff training
programs.
• Communication breakdowns between different departments, exacerbated by the new system, have
led to delays in resolving guest issues.
• Customer complaints about service quality have surged in recent months. The diminishing service
quality is directly affecting the overall guest experience.
• The existing feedback mechanisms lack clarity and accessibility for guests. This has resulted in
missed opportunities to collect valuable insights and promptly address customer concerns.
• The hospitality industry is currently facing increased competition for skilled and experienced staff.
The company is finding it challenging to attract and retain top talent, further impacting service quality.
Q 85. 30473342 Based on the information provided, which of the following is a potential root cause of
the decline in service quality?
a) b) The lack of effective feedback mechanisms.

The communication breakdowns between c) The gaps in staff training programs.
departments.
d)
The implementation of a new customer service
system.
Q 86. 30473342 What makes the communication breakdowns between different departments a
potential contributing factor to the decline in service quality?
a) b) They lead to delays in resolving guest issues.

They are caused by the new customer service c) They highlight gaps in staff training programs.
system.
d) They affect the overall guest experience.
Q 87. 30473342 What is the most critical challenge that can be understood in the hospitality
business's situation?
a) b)
Operating in an upscale segment with high Staff and culture not being aligned with the new
expectations. system.
c) d)
Surge in customer complaints damaging Competition for skilled staff reducing talent pool.
reputation.
Q 88. 30473342 What is the key weakness of the company's feedback mechanisms?
a) They are not aligned with the company's goals and values.
b) They are hard to locate and confusing to navigate.
c) They are not integrated with the new customer service system.
d) They are not responsive and proactive to customer concerns.
Q 89. 30473342 What could be the best possible solution to attract and retain top talent?
a) Invest in a comprehensive staff training program.

b) Enhance the existing customer feedback mechanisms.
c) Revert to the previous customer service system.

d) Increase wages, benefits to stay competitive in the job market.
Q 90. 30473342 Based on the information provided, what is a potential cause of the communication
breakdowns between different departments?
a) The new customer service system is incompatible with the existing communication channels.
b) The staff lack the necessary skills and knowledge to use the new customer service system.
c) The new customer service system has increased the workload and stress of the staff.
d) The staff are dissatisfied with the new customer service system and resist using it.
Passage – 2
The concept of beauty has been a subject of philosophical inquiry since ancient times. What makes
something beautiful? Is beauty objective or subjective? How does beauty relate to morality, art, and
culture? These are some of the questions that have fascinated thinkers and artists throughout history.
One of the most influential theories of beauty was proposed by Plato, who argued that beauty is a
form of perfection that transcends the physical world. According to Plato, beauty is an eternal and
unchanging idea that exists in a higher realm of reality, and can only be accessed by the intellect. He
believed that the physical objects and phenomena that we perceive as beautiful are merely imperfect
reflections of the ideal beauty, and that the true appreciation of beauty requires a rational and
philosophical mind. However, Plato's theory of beauty has been challenged by many critics, who argue
that beauty is not a fixed and universal concept, but a relative and subjective one. They claim that
beauty is not a property of things in themselves, but a judgment of the observer, based on their
personal preferences, emotions, and cultural background. They point out that different people and
societies have different standards and criteria for beauty, and that what is considered beautiful in one
context may be regarded as ugly or indifferent in another.
Q 91. 30473342 What is the central theme of the passage?
a) The history of philosophical inquiry on beauty as progressed from Plato's stance on beauty.
b) The comparison between Plato's and other critics' theories of beauty.
c) The definition and explanation of Plato's theory of beauty

d) Critiques of Plato's Theory
Q 92. 30473342 In the context of the passage, what does 'beauty' symbolize, as per Plato?
a) An ephemeral and an unchanging idea that transcends reality.
b) A reflection of the moral, artistic, and cultural values of a society.
c) A dynamic and multifaceted phenomenon that reflects human experience.

d) An excellence that is not limited to the material realm.
Q 93. 30473342 Which of the following best describe the critic's view of beauty in relation to Plato's
view?
a) Critics challenge Plato's idea, arguing that beauty is a fixed and universal concept.
b) Critics claim that the true appreciation of beauty may not require personal preferences.
c) Critics believe that beauty lies in the judgment of the observer.
d) Critics argue that physical objects are not the direct manifestations of the higher realm of reality.
Q 94. 30473342 "What is considered beautiful in one context may be regarded as ugly or indifferent in
another." Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statement?
a) Different contexts have a similar impact on the perception of beauty.
b) Beauty is an objective property inherent in things themselves.

c) The judgment of beauty is influenced by personal preferences and cultural backgrounds.
d) Plato's theory of beauty aligns with the idea that beauty is different in various contexts.
Q 95. 30473342 Which of the following strengthens the author's idea that "The concept of beauty has
been a subject of philosophical inquiry since ancient times"?
a)
The author mentions that different societies have different criteria for beauty, which shows the diversity
of opinions on beauty.
b)
The author states that beauty is a form of perfection that transcends the physical world, which shows
the complexity of this concept.
c)
The author acknowledges that beauty is a subjective concept, which shows the openness of the
author to different perspectives on beauty.
d)
The author poses questions that have fascinated thinkers and artists throughout history, which shows
the enduring interest in this concept.
Q 96. 30473342 In the context of Plato's theory, what is the significance of the "rational and
philosophical mind"?
a) It is the only way to access the higher realm of reality where the ideal beauty exists.
b)
It is the form of perfection that transcends the physical world and reflects the eternal and unchanging
idea of beauty.
c) It is the result of the true appreciation of beauty that requires a critical and analytical approach.
d) It is the standard and criterion for beauty that is fixed and universal for all people and societies.
Passage – 3
In the ever-evolving landscape of education, the assessment systems employed to gauge student
performance have become a focal point of scrutiny. While ostensibly designed to measure intellectual
prowess, these systems often fall prey to inherent flaws that compromise their efficacy and, more
critically, hinder the holistic development of students. A critical examination of contemporary
educational assessment practices reveals a disconcerting reality that demands immediate attention
and reform.
One of the primary issues plaguing these systems is their overreliance on standardized testing. The
allure of quantifiable data has led educational institutions to place disproportionate emphasis on test
scores, inadvertently promoting rote memorization over genuine comprehension. The singular focus
on standardized tests tends to stifle creativity and critical thinking, reducing education to a mere
exercise in regurgitation. This myopic approach not only fails to capture the nuances of a student's
intellectual capabilities but also perpetuates a narrow definition of success that undermines the
diverse talents and aptitudes of learners.
Moreover, the undue pressure exerted by high-stakes testing creates an atmosphere of anxiety and
stress among students. The very essence of education, which should be an enlightening journey of
self-discovery and intellectual exploration, is overshadowed by the relentless pursuit of high scores.
This relentless pursuit often leaves students ill-prepared for the complexities of real-world problem-
solving, as the emphasis on memorization overshadows the cultivation of critical skills essential for
success in an increasingly dynamic and interconnected global landscape.
Additionally, the rigid structure of assessment systems tends to overlook the multifaceted nature of
intelligence. By narrowly defining success through a limited set of criteria, these systems neglect the
development of crucial attributes such as emotional intelligence, creativity, and adaptability-qualities
that are indispensable in navigating the complexities of modern life.
Q 97. 30473342 Which of the following statements is likely to be true as understood from the
passage?
a) The assessment systems are irrelevant and do not reflect student performance.
b) The assessment systems are biased and do not account for student diversity.
c) The assessment systems are flawed and do not foster student growth.
d) The assessment systems are outdated and do not match the educational landscape.
Q 98. 30473342 Which of the following is not true regarding the assessment systems as per the
opinion of the author?
a) Rigorous memorization is prioritised above true comprehension in standardised testing.

b) Students experience anxiety and nervousness when they have extremely competitive exams.
c)
As per present evaluation techniques, achieving high scores takes precedence over the importance of
education.
d) Assessment methods with a fixed structure take into account the complex nature of intelligence.
Passage – 4
Entrepreneurs have been excited over how blockchain solutions can secure their transactions and
investors over how these can increase their returns or disrupt their markets. As much as digitalization
has changed the country in recent years, there is a common perception that at some point in the near
future, blockchain shall revolutionize everything in even more radical, amazing, and alarming ways.
This is why determining how the emerging innovations should be regulated is very crucial. SEBI has
made a strong case for an independent legal body to ensure the ethical development and use of
Q 99. 30473342 Which of the following statements best reflects the author's argument regarding the
narrow definition of success?
a) It is based on objective criteria that can be measured by standardized tests.
b)
It is detrimental to the holistic development of students and hinders their creativity and critical thinking.
c) It is influenced by external factors that may not reflect one's true values or happiness.
d)
It is a result of social and cultural norms that impose unrealistic expectations on students and
teachers.
Q 100. 30473342 Which of the following is correct regarding the "real-world problem-solving"
mentioned by the author?
a) It is a skill that is neglected by the emphasis on memorization.

b) It is a talent that is not necessary for success in the contemporary world.
c) It is a gift that is synonymous with creativity and adaptability.
d) It is the ability that is dependent on emotional intelligence.
Q 101. 30473342 Which of the following statements reflects the very essence of education as per the
author?
a) It should be an insightful path of self-awareness and intellectual inquiry.
b) It should be a quantifiable measure of intellectual prowess and test scores.
c) It should be aiding self-discovery, which comes from a rigid structure of standardized testing.
d) It should be the definition of success, which offers intellectual exploration.
Q 102. 30473342 Which of the following is not one of the aspects that facilitate the 'myopic approach'
as used in the passage?
a) Allure of quantifiable data b) Working hard for test scores
c) Emphasis on genuine comprehension d) Relentless focus on standardized tests
blockchain in the country, a global organization along similar lines shall probably be proposed at the
G20 leaders' summit, and surprisingly even Swiss MNC Novartis has floated a framework for
blockchain governance in India. The huge scale and variety of its "data nodes" make India of great
interest to all developers of blockchain solutions.
But India is only at their consuming end, far behind the US and China's progress. Although recently, it
is becoming evident how much state interference is hindering China's large distributed ledger, the
country is still very much in the game with PhDs in fields related to blockchain, investments in
blockchain network infrastructure, and domestic platforms like Ant Chain. The scientific achievements
of India's Mangalyaan mission have seen it being sought for various international space partnerships.
This promises spinoff technological advantages across Indian industry and is also geo-strategically
beneficial. Similarly, it is only with enough blockchain expertise that India shall really get to play at the
top table of global rulemaking for blockchain.
Knowing how much Indians' future shall be influenced by distributed blockchain requires
corresponding efforts to create indigenous platforms. In this and at this stage, a proactive government
role is essential, rather than just waiting on some big corporation to do the necessary. Missing this
opportunity will after all be even more expensive than missing the chip design one. Plus, GOI alone
can push academia-industry collaborations with the required force and urgency. This does not let other
institutions off the hook. A US judge has denied the patent for a blockchainbased invention. Indian
courts should start engaging with the wider issue of non-human agency rather than wait for
precedence to be set elsewhere. Indian schools need to think beyond the ban-Crypto mindset. Let us
lead instead of only being led.
Q 103. 30473342 With which of the following approaches is the author most likely to advocate
regarding the development and regulation of blockchain technology in India?
a) Advocating for a hands-off approach, leaving it to corporations to drive innovation.

b)
Urging the government to solely regulate blockchain development without involving other institutions.
c)
Aiding the government in taking the initiative to develop domestic blockchain systems by working with
companies and researchers.
d) Emphasizing complete reliance on international partnerships for blockchain advancement.
Q 104. 30473342 Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the main argument of the
passage?
a)
Blockchain technology can provide a secure and transparent way of conducting transactions and
verifying identities across borders.
b)
Blockchain technology can enable new forms of decentralized governance and social movements that
challenge the existing power structures.
c)
Blockchain technology can foster innovation and collaboration among various stakeholders in different
sectors and industries.
d)
Blockchain technology can reduce the costs and risks associated with intermediaries and third parties
in financial services.
Q 105. 30473342 Based on the author's statement regarding Indian courts engaging with the issue of
non-human agency in blockchain technology, what is the author most likely to agree with?
a)
Indian courts should avoid involvement in blockchain-related matters until international precedence is
established.
b)
Indian courts should prioritize setting precedents for non-human agency issues in blockchain
technology without external influence.
c)
Indian courts should wait for global organizations to address non-human agency concerns in
blockchain technology.
d)
Indian courts should collaborate with other international legal bodies to address non-human agency
issues in blockchain technology.
Q 106. 30473342 If the information in the passage above is correct, which of the following must
necessarily be true?
a)
The Indian government's active involvement is deemed crucial for the development of indigenous
blockchain platforms.
b) The Mangalyaan mission's achievements have not impacted India's technological advancements.
c)
SEBI's proposal for an independent legal body received unanimous support at the G20 leaders'
summit
d) The global rulemaking for blockchain primarily relies on Indian institutions and their decisions.
Q 107. 30473342 Based on the author's arguments, which of the following would result in weakening,
rather than strengthening India's position at the forefront of Blockchain?
a) Relying on foreign frameworks and standards for blockchain governance.
b) Developing indigenous blockchain platforms and applications.
c) Increased collaborations between Indian universities and international blockchain firms.

d) Leveraging the spinoff technological advantages from the Mangalyaan mission.
Q 108. 30473342 The author states that, "Missing this opportunity will after all be even more
expensive than missing the chip design one." For this statement to be true, with which of the following
statements about chip research must the author most likely agree?
a) Chip research is a costly and risky venture that requires huge investments and expertise.
b)
Chip research is a mature and saturated field that offers little scope for innovation and differentiation.
c) Chip design opportunities have been missed due to proactive government involvement.
d) Missing opportunities in chip design has resulted in considerable economic consequences.
Mathematics
Directions for questions 109 to 114: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
The information regarding the sales of HP brand laptops by three dealers - Faiz, Jashan and Hero -
during the period 2020 to 2023 has been given below.
The sales of Faiz was highest in 2020 at 4800 laptops and lowest in 2021 at 3200 laptops whereas in
2022 the sales was the average of 2020 and 2021. In 2023 the sales of Faiz was 10% less than the
sales in 2022.
The average laptop sales by the three dealers in 2021 is 3600 such that Faiz, Jashan and Hero
respectively form an increasing Arithmetic Progression. In 2021 dealer Hero saw a 20% drop in sales
from the previous year whereas in 2022 and 2023 its sales saw an increase of 10% and 20%
respectively compared to 2021. The sales of dealer Jashan in 2020 was 10% more than its sales in
2021 whereas in 2022 it was 10% less than 2021. The average sales of dealer Jashan in the 4 years
was 4000.
Q 109. 30473342 Which dealer sold the highest number of laptops during the period 2020 to 2023?
a) Faiz b) Hero c) Jashan d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 110. 30473342 What is the average number of laptops sold by the three dealers during 2022?
a) 4200 b) 3480 c) 3880 d) 2860
Q 111. 30473342 The sales of Jashan in 2020 was approximately what percent of the sales of Hero
during the same year?
a) 79.2% b) 80.8% c) 92.2% d) 73.4%
Q 112. 30473342 During which of the above mentioned years was the total sales of all three dealers
the second highest?
a) 2021 b) 2020 c) 2022 d) 2023
Q 113. 30473342 The total sales of the dealer that sold the lowest number of laptops during 2020 to
2023 is what percent of the total sales of laptops of all the three dealers in the given period?
a) 45.475% b) 43.275% c) 31.325% d) 27.225%
Q 114. 30473342 What is the ratio of the total sales of all dealers in 2021 and 2022 respectively?
a) 90 : 97 b) 91 : 87 c) 97 : 99 d) 11 : 17
Directions for questions 115 to 120 : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
During the year 2023 the number of out-patients visiting Portis Hospital was 7200 and among these
the number of males was 3500. All the patients came to the hospital for consultation regarding one of
the following five ailments - Orthopedic, Cardiac, Digestive, Reproductive and Pulmonary. None of
them had more than one ailment.
The number of males that visited for Pulmonary problems was 10% of the total number of patients and
that was equal to double the number of males visiting regarding Cardiac issues. The number of
females that visited for Reproductive consultation was one-sixth of the total number of patients
whereas the number of males visiting the department was 40% of the females visiting the same. The
ratio of males and females that visited for Digestive disorders was 5 : 4.
A total of 990 people visited the hospital for Orthopedic consultation and the ratio of males to females
was 6 : 5 respectively whereas the total number of persons visiting for Cardiac problems was 300 less
than Orthopedic department.
Q 115. 30473342 How many females visited the hospital for Pulmonary ailments?
a) 840 b) 600 c) 560 d) 480
Q 116. 30473342 What is the ratio of the total number of patients visiting the hospital for Digestive
and Reproductive ailments respectively?
a) 8 : 9 b) 6 : 11 c) 5 : 4 d) 3 : 2
Q 117. 30473342 Among the women that went to the hospital for Reproductive ailments, 25% went
forth and underwent the surgeries as per advice and on an average the cost of a surgery was
Rs.50,000. What was the total revenue earned by the hospital from the surgeries?
a) Rs.1.5 crore b) Rs.1.2 crore c) Rs.2.0 crore d) Rs.2.4 crore
Q 118. 30473342 What is the difference between the number of males and females that visited the
hospital for Cardiac problems?
a) 30 b) 60 c) 45 d) 90
Q 119. 30473342 The number of males visiting the hospital for Orthopedic ailments is what
percentage more or less than the number of females visiting the hospital for Pulmonary ailments?
a) 10% more b) 20% more c) 10% less d) 15% more
Q 120. 30473342 What is the average number of patients visiting the hospital for Digestive,
Reproductive and Pulmonary ailments?
a) 1230 b) 1460 c) 1450 d) 1840

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Warmup Mock 02 (CLAT) 2025

a) He loved winter and the cold.

c) He believed he is done with the society.

d) He wants to give up the society and explore a different world

c) He is depressed and suicidal and wants to end his life.

Q 3. 30473342 What is the woman's motive to come into the woods?

a) To find the man and interview him. b)

c) d) He is curious about the woman and her job.

a) Statement I and II b) Statement II and III c) Only Statement II d) Only Statement I

a) Its adherence to form and language. b)

a) It illustrates how contemporary writers experiment with form and language.

a) It reflects the present and projects the future.

b) It questions the assumptions and expands the horizons.

c) It offers possibilities and challenges for both writers and readers.

d) It engages with the world around us.

a) realistic b) composite c) postcolonial d) magical

Q 11. 30473342 What is the main theme discussed in the passage?

a) The variety and acceptance of different literary genres and styles.

c) The diversity and integration of different cultures and languages in literature.

d) The diversity and involvement of different readers and audiences in literature.

a) They are limited to poetry, drama, fiction, and non-fiction.

b) They are varied and cover different types of writing.

d) They are ancient and contemporary, but not modern.

a) Confining b) Acute c) Enriching d) Eternal

a) A reference for the judiciary that it is failing and unlikely to recover.

d) No improvement is needed for the Indian judiciary which is an effective institution.

a) Indifferent b) Optimistic c) Critical d) Pessimistic

a) A sign of hopelessness and despair b) A sign of strength and resilience

c) A sign of diversity and complexity d) A sign of stagnation and decay

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

a) Arunachal Pradesh b) West Bengal c) Gujarat d) Jammu & Kashmir

a) Gujarat b) Arunachal Pradesh c) West Bengal d) Jammu & Kashmir

a) Tangail b) Garad c) Kalo Nunia d) Sundarban

a) Ramban Anardana b) Adi Kekir c) Tangail d) Sundarban

a) Kapdaganda Shawl b) Dhenkanal Magji c) d) All of the above

d) The registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of 20 years.

a) Johannesburg b) New Delhi c) Moscow d) Beijing

a) Brazil b) Russia c) India d) Pakistan

a) India b) China c) Russia d) Brazil

Q 34. 30473342 The term "BRIC" is believed to be coined in 2001 by__________.

a) Vladimir Putin b) Jim O'Neill c) Xi Jinping d) Manmohan Singh

Q 35. 30473342 The first BRIC summit was held in

a) Yekaterinburg b) New Delhi c) Beijing d) Rio de Janeiro

a) Argentina b) Egypt c) Iran d) Ethiopia

a) American, Canadian, Australian b) South African, Pakistan, Canadian

c) Canadian, Nepal, Australian d) Australian, Singapore, American

a) Judicial System b) Bureaucracy

c) Functionaries - People and Political Parties d) Military Forces

a) States have equal powers with the Centre b)

a) It must be to the Constituent States b) It is irrelevant

c) It must be to the Centre d) It depends on the political parties

a) Ignore it b) Change it c) Preserve it d) Criticize it

a) Ensuring dominance over states b)

a) Kharkiv, Luhansk, Odesa, Donetsk b) Donetsk, Lugansk, Kherson, Zaporizhzhia

c) Kyiv, Lviv, Dnipropetrovsk, Chernihiv d) Zaporizhzhia, Kharkiv, Kyiv, Crimea

a) Russia wants Ukraine to join NATO

b) Russia demands NATO abandon military activity in Eastern Europe

c) Russia supports NATO expansion

d) Russia wants NATO to intervene in the conflict

a) Free and fair b) Legitimate c) Sham d) Transparent

Q 46. 30473342 What triggered the Euromaidan protests in Ukraine in 2013?

a) Suspension of an association agreement with the European Union

d) Military aggression from Russia