Page 1

Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

APPENDIX 2 PRACTICE ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS

Unit 1. Direction: Select the best answer to the following questions.
1 In order to select the correct "T" rating of a new equipment, which of these properties of the
flammable material is considered:

A. The UEL of the material

B. The material sub-division
C. The ignition temperature of the material
D. The flashpoint of the material

2 What does the 'T' rating of an equipment mean:

A. It will never to exceed the temperature as indicated by the T rating, under any
conditions
B. It is designed to reach the temperature as marked
C. The surface temperature will not reach the flash point of the surrounding gas,
during normal operation.
D. The surface temperature will not exceed the marked 'T' rating, at full load and maximum
rated ambient .

3 Which would be a relevant marking for equipment for use in an ambient temperature higher than normal:

A. Ex 'ia' IIC T5
B. Ex 'e' II T5 120°C
C. Ex 'd' IIB T3 Ta +60°C
D. Ex 'e' IIC T4 40°C

4 Combustion will only occur if the flammable mixture is within certain limits. These limits are known as:

A. Upper & Lower Ignition Limits

B. Upper & Lower Temperature Limits
C. Upper & Lower Flash Limits
D. Upper & Lower Explosive Limits

5 The least amount of energy that will cause a flammable gas/air mixture to ignite is known as:

A. Flashpoint
B. Ignition Temperature
C. Minimum Ignition Energy
D. Lower Explosive Limit

6 The minimum temperature at which a flammable material will spontaneously ignite is the:

Page 1 of 37
 Page 2
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

A. Minimum Ignition Energy

B. Flash Point
C. Ignition Temperature
D. Flammable Range

7 If the oxygen content of the atmosphere exceeds the normal limit of 21%, it is said to be oxygen
enriched.
One of the disadvantages of oxygen enrichment is that it will:

A. increase the ignition temperature of the flammable material

B. increase the Upper Explosive Limit
C. increase the electrical energy required for ignition
D. decrease the Lower Explosive Limit

8 A hazardous area in which an explosive gas atmosphere is continuously present, or

present for long periods, is classified as:

A. Zone 0
B. Zone 1
C. Zone 2
D. Zone 3

9 On an area classification drawing, what marking (to IEC60079-10-1) indicates a Zone 1 area:

A. Circles
B. Cross hatching at 45°
C. Diagonal lines at 45°
D. The symbols given on the drawing key

10 What is the equipment group allocation for electrical equipment in surface industries with a gas
hazard:

A. Group I
B. Group II
C. Group III
D. Group G

11 Which one of the following gases falls in gas sub-division IIC:

A. Propane
B. Ethylene

Page 2 of 37
 Page 3
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

C. Hydrogen Sulphide
D. Acetylene

12 An Ex equipment has no ambient temperature marking on it. It may assumed that

the design ambient temperature range of the equipment is:

A. 20°C to 40°C
B. -20°C to +40°C
C. up to +40°C
D. -10°C to +50 °C

13 In which gas group sub-division does propane belong:

A. I
B. IIA
C. IIB
D. IIC

14 Which one of these gases falls in gas sub-division IIB:

A. Hydrogen
B. Ethylene
C. Propane
D. Acetylene

15 Group II ‘Ex’ equipment may be marked IIA, IIB or IIC. With what gases could the equipment be
used
If it is marked only 'II':

A: The equipment can be used with all Group II gases.

B: The equipment can only be used with sub-group IIA.
C: The equipment can be only be used with sub-group IIA and IIB gases.
D: The marking is not valid, so the equipment is not suitable for use in any hazardous
area

Page 3 of 37
 Page 4

UNIT 2 STANDARDS,
CERTIFICATION & MARKING
Document No.:

Revision No.:

Date:

Page 4 of 37
 Page 5
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

APPENDIX 1: PRACTICE ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS.

Unit 2: Directives, Standards, Certification and Marking

Ref: Question: Select the best answer to the following questions:

1 The authority involved in the certification of equipment to the ATEX 95 Directive is known as:

A. the British Standards Institution

B. CENELEC
C. IEC
D. the Notified Body

Unless the risk assessment indicates otherwise, where may equipment with
2
ATEX Category 2 be used:

A. Zone 1 only
B. Zone 2 only
C. Zone 0, Zone 20
D. Zone 1, Zone 21 and less

A letter can appear as the suffix to the Certificate number of Ex certified equipment.
3
Which is the correct letter for 'component certification':

A. 'G'
B. 'X'
C. 'D'
D. 'U'

4 In IEC standards, the equivalent to ATEX Categories is given which of these abbreviations:

A. CSA
B. EPL
C. API
D. NEC

Page 5 of 37
 Page 6
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

If the area classification drawing indicates that EPL 'Ga' (category '1G') equipment must be
5
installed at a location in a Zone 1 area, why is this:

A. The risk assessment has identified 'higher than normal' consequences of an ignition.
B. The risk assessment has identified 'lower than normal' consequences of an ignition.
C. The risk assessment has identified a 'lower than normal' risk of an ignition.
D. The risk assessment has identified a 'higher than normal' risk of an ignition.

International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) and European (EN) standards for

6
explosion protected equipment are now:

A. Similar
B. Technically identical
C. Published in all European languages
D. Non-aligned

7 Which standard is used when classifying hazardous areas into zones:

A. IEC60079 - 10
B. IEC60079 - 14
C. IEC60079 - 17
D. IEC60079 - 20

The EU Directives, including ATEX 95, are developed for use throughout the European Union,
8
with an objective:

A. to remove the technical barriers to free trade within the EU

B. to create more stringent standards to avoid sub-standard products
C. to allow cheaper products inside the EU market
D. to create unity among the European Nations

9 EU Directives defines criteria for various products and equipment. The ATEX 95 directive relates to:

A. Standardisation of supply voltages

B. Protection of the health & safety of workers in the workplace.
C. The design of equipment for use in potentially explosive atmospheres
D. Minimising the emission of Electromagnetic waves

Page 6 of 37
 Page 7
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

10 EU Directives defines criteria for various subjects. The ATEX 137 directive relates to:

A. Standardisation of supply voltages

B. Protection of the health & safety of workers at work
C. The design of equipment for use in potentially explosive atmospheres
D. Minimising the emission of Electromagnetic waves

Inspection & maintenance of electrical equipment used in hazardous area are to be

11
carried out in accordance with relevant standards. Which is the correct standard:

A. IEC/BS EN60079 - 1
B. IEC/BS EN60079 - 10
C. IEC/BS EN60079 - 14
D. IEC/BS EN60079 - 17

The number of an explosion protected equipment certificate appears as

12
Baseefa08ATEX0272X. What is the meaning suffix X on this certificate number:

A. The equipment is certified as a component only:.

B. The equipment is suitable for indoor use only.
C. The equipment is suitable for use in a safe area only.
D. Special conditions of use apply, refer to original certificate.

13 What does EPL stand for:

A. Equipment Protection Level

B. Electrical Protection Level
C. Explosion Protection Level
D. Explosion Proof Level

Which of the following marking indicates that the equipment conforms to the
14
ATEX equipment directive:

A. A hexagon inscribed Ex
B. A circle inscribed PTB
C. The CE mark
D. The CSA mark

Page 7 of 37
 Page 8
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

The symbol or mark used to indicate that equipment complies with all applicable
15
European directives is:

A. The ATEX Marking

B. The C E mark
C. A crown inscribed Ex
D. A hexagon inscribed Ex

Page 8 of 37
 Page 9

UNIT 3 FLAMEPROOF EEX d

/ Ex d
Document No.:

Revision No.:

Date:

Page 9 of 37
 Page 10
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

APPENDIX 1; PRACTICE ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS:

Unit 3: Ex 'd' - Flameproof
Direction: Select the best answer to the following questions:

1 A flameproof equipment is so named because:

A. it contains combustible elements inside

B. it is designed to operate even when under fire
C. it is robust in construction.
it will not ignite the surrounding atmosphere when there is an internal explosion
D.
in the equipment.

2 The Ex d equipment standard has tables that specify the maximum gap for the different types of joint.
What is the importance of these dimensions:

A. To ensure that enclosure will be able to withstand the pressure of an internal explosion
B. To ensure that gases escaping after an internal explosion will not ignite the
surrounding atmosphere
C. To know the right thickness of gasket to be placed on the flange gap
D. To allow more gas inside the enclosure

3 Which of the following could be a cause of pressure piling in an Ex 'd' enclosure:

A. Exceeding the marked 'T' rating

B. Exceeding the rated torque values of bolts
C. Allowing too much gas inside
D. Modification to the interior layout without authorization from the manufacturer

What is the minimum permitted gap between a flange joint flamepath and an external
4
obstruction for an Ex d equipment for use in a Group IIB hazard:

A. 10mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm

5 What do the standards permit for the environmental protection of flanged joints:

A. Use of chemical sealants to prevent entry of moisture.

B. Painting of the joint surfaces
C. Use of general purpose grease on the surfaces
Non-hardening grease bearing textile tapes may be applied around the joint
D.
as per the standard.

Page 10 of 37
 Page 11
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

7 Which is the minimum requirement for the cover bolts of a flameproof equipment, before a
function test after an internal repair:

A. Fit cover, and alternate bolts

B. Spanner tight all cover bolts
C. Tighten all bolts torque setting of 100kgfm
D. Use four corner bolts, spanner tight

8 The only method of Ex protection which permits an explosion to occur inside the enclosure is:

A. Pressurisation
B. Flameproof
C. Increased Safety
D. Intrinsic Safety

9 Where may Ex d certified equipment be used:

A. Location requiring EPL "Ga", "Gb" or "Gc" (Cat 1,2 or 3).

B. Location requiring EPL "Ga" or "Gb" (Cat 1 or 2).
C. Location requiring EPL "Gb" or "Gc" (Cat 2 or 3).
D. Location requiring EPL "Gc" (Cat 3) only.

In an Ex'd' equipment, care should be taken to avoid pressure piling. How can pressure
10
piling be prevented:

A. No unauthorized modification, such as sub-division of the interior, can be done

B. Increase the free internal volume of the enclosure.
C. Reduce the free internal volume of the enclosure.
D. Fit monitoring device.

11 How will you carry out a 'Power ON' test on a Ex'd' equipment, after completing a
maintenance job on it:
A. Put in all cover bolts and display a "Danger Notice" before energising
B. Tighten all bolts spanner tight and check for any gap, before energising the equipment.
Hang a "Danger Live" Notice and ensure no accidental contact with the live parts,
C. before energising
D. Hold the cover with at least one bolt and display a "Danger Notice", before energising

12 What is the minimum number of full threads that a cable gland must be engaged in an Exd enclosure:

Page 11 of 37
 Page 12
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. More than 7

13 Which is a permitted device for plugging an unused entry thread in a flameproof enclosure:

A Certified flameproof metal stopper

B Uncertified flameproof metal stopper
C Certified plastic stopper
D Approved hard-setting compound

Which type of cable glands are required for cables entering a flameproof motor starter
14
in a IIC hazard:

A Certified flameproof Exd metal glands

B Certified Exd barrier glands to suit cable
C Certified Exd/Exe metal glands
D Glands type A2

A SWA cable is terminated in a steel Ex'e' enclosure which has clearance holes for cable
15 entries and is earthed via an external earth terminal. What is the minimum requirement
for glanding:

A: Fit gland, earth tag, external IP washer,serrated washer and internal lock nut.
B: Fit gland, external IP washer, serrated washer and internal locknut.
C: Fit gland, serrated washer and internal locknut.
D: Fit gland and internal lock nut.

Page 12 of 37
 Page 13

UNIT 4 INCREASED SAFETY

EEx e / Ex e
Document No.:

Revision No.:

Date:

Page 13 of 37
 Page 14
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

APPENDIX 1: PRACTICE ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS

Ex'e' - Increased Safety / Ex'n' - Non-sparking
Questions: Select the best answer o the following questions:

1 What are the gland requirements for installation in an Ex 'e' terminal box, after 2007:

A. Ex 'd' barrier glands are required

B. Ex d / Ex e dual certified glands must be used
C. Any gland that meets the Ex 'e' impact and IP requirements may be used.
D. Glands must be certified as meeting the requirements of IEC60079-0

An earthed Ex e steel enclosure has a clearance entry hole in a 5mm gland plate.
2
Which method should be used to meet the required minimum installation standard when
installing armoured cable:

A. Fit gland
B. Fit gland, shroud, external IP washer and internal locknut
C. Fit gland, external IP washer, internal serrated washer and internal lock nut
D. Fit gland, earth tag, external IP washer, internal serrated washer and internal lock nut

What type of gland was NOT permitted for terminating a SWA cable in to Ex'e' junction box
3 installed
in 2005:

A. An uncertified plastic gland

B. An uncertified E1W brass gland meeting the Ex e impact and IP
criteria
C. A certified Ex ‘d, E1WF gland
D. A certified Ex é’

E1W, Ex'e' cable glands are to be fitted into an Ex'e' plastic terminal box without internal earth
4 plate,
via clearance holes. Which of the following is an acceptable installation:

A. Fit gland and internal lock nut

B. Fit gland, earth tag, external IP seal and internal lock nut
C. Fit gland, external IP seal and internal lock nut
D. Fit gland and external IP seal washer

Page 14 of 37
 Page 15
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

5 What is the 'Te' time of an Ex'e' motor:

A. The time allowed to disconnect a stalled motor started from cold.

B. The minimum time between consecutive starts.
C. The maximum tripping time for a stalled motor started from full
load operating temperature.
D. The starting time at full load

6 The minimum IP rating for Ex'e' equipment which contains bare live parts is:

A. IP 22
B. IP 44
C. IP 54
D. IP 56

How many cores of different cross sections may be connected to each terminal of an Ex'e'
7
terminal box:

A. One
B. Two
C. One, unless otherwise indicated in the documentation.
D. It depends on the terminal size and the core cross-sectional areas

8 Where may Increased safety (Ex e) equipment be installed:

A. Only in locations requiring EPL Ga (ATEX Category 1G)

B. Only in locations requiring EPL Gc (Cat. 3G)
C. Only in locations requiring EPL Gb (Cat. 2G) or Gc (Cat. 3G)
D. Only in locations requiring EPL Ga (Cat. 1G) or Gb (Cat. 2G)

9 Which hazardous area requirements would allow the use of Ex'n' equipment:

A. EPL 'Ga' (Cat 1G)

B. EPL 'Gb' (Cat 2G) only
C. EPL 'Gc' (Cat 3G) only.
D. EPL 'Gb' and 'Gc' (Cat 2G and 3G).

Page 15 of 37
 Page 16
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

10 Where can we install Ex 'nL' equipment:

A. It can be installed in 'ia', 'ib' or 'ic' I.S. circuits, provided its parameters meet the circuit
requirements
B. It can be installed in 'ib' or 'ic' I.S. circuits, provided its parameters meet the circuit
requirements
C. It can be installed in an 'ic' I.S. circuit, provided its parameters meet the circuit
requirements
D. It can be installed in any I.S. circuit.

11 Ex 'n' equipment has been sub-divided in to 4 types, what are they:

A. 'nA', 'nB', 'nC' & 'nD'

B. 'nA', 'nC', 'nL' & 'nR'
C. 'Na', 'Nb', 'Nc' & 'Nd'
D. 'Nw', 'Nx', 'Ny' & 'Nz'

Arcing and sparking devices may be used in Ex n equipment provided they have additional
protection.
12
One such method was 'energy limitation'. This was denoted by which marking, and what has
replaced it:

A. ExnA / Exna
B. Ex nR / Exnr
C. Ex nL / Ex ic
D. Ex nC / Ex mc

13 A motor is marked Ex nA II T2. What does 'nA' mean:

A. Restricted breathing
B. Energy-limited
C. Non-sparking

14 After 2007, the requirements for cable glands entering into Ex n enclosure are:

A. Ex d flameproof gland
B. Ex d barrier gland
C. Ex e certified gland
D. Gland certified as meeting IEC 60079-0 requirements

Page 16 of 37
 Page 17
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

15 Which is true for 'Ex ic' and 'Ex nL' equipment:

A. 'Ex ic' and 'Ex nL' can both be used in EPL Ga (Cat.1G) locations
B. 'Ex ic' and 'Ex nL' can both be used in EPL Gb (Cat.2G) and EPL Gc (Cat.3G) locations
C. 'Ex ic' and 'Ex nL' can both be used in EPL Gc (Cat.3G) locations only
D. 'Ex ic' can be used in EPL Gb & Gc (Cat.2G & 3G), 'Ex nL' in EPL Gc (Cat. 3G) locations
only

Page 17 of 37
 Page 18

UNIT 5 TYPE OF
PROTECTION ‘n’
Document No.:

Revision No.:

Date:

Page 18 of 37
 Page 19
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

APPENDIX 1: PRACTICE ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS

Ex'p' - Pressurisation

Direction: Select the best answer to the following questions.

A pressurised enclosure contains an ignition source and is to be installed in an area requiring

1
EPL Gb (Cat. 2G) equipment. Which of these types of protection may be used:

A. Only Ex px

B. Only Ex py

C. Only Ex pz

D. Ex px or pz

Which Ex p enclosure, containing no ignition source, will suit an area requiring EPL Gc (Cat.3G)
2
equipment:

A. Ex px

B. Ex py

C. Ex px or Ex pz

D. No protection required

3 For protection type Ex 'p', which one of the following is a correct statement:

A. Explosive gas and ignition is allowed inside the enclosure

B.The protective gas, which is normally air, should be drawn in from a non-hazardous area

C. Air should be drawn from Zone 0

D. All types of gas can be used as protective gas.

Air is used as the safe gas in an Ex p installation and is taken from a safe area. If the air is
4 exhausted into a hazardous area, assuming normal EPL requirements, when would spark
arrestors not be required:

A. Equipment produces sparks etc, exhausts to Zone 1

B. Equipment produces sparks etc, exhausts to Zone 2

C. Equipment does not produce sparks etc, exhausts to Zone 1

Page 19 of 37
 Page 20
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

D. Equipment does not produce sparks etc, exhausts to Zone 2

5 Equipment with type Ex 'px' protection can be used in which locations:

A. Locations requiring EPL 'Gc' only

B. Locations requiring EPL 'Gb' only

C. Locations requiring EPL 'Ga' or 'Gc' only

D. Locations requiring EPL 'Gb' or 'Gc' only

In which type of protection is a flammable atmosphere prevented from entering the interior of
6
an enclosure:

A: Ex 'n'.

B: Ex 'o'.

C: Ex 'p'.

D: Ex 'q'.

What type of protection is permitted in locations requiring EPL 'Gb' (Cat. '2G'), where the
7
enclosure does not contain ignition capable equipment:

A. Ex 'px'

B. Ex 'px' or Ex'pz'

C. Ex 'py'

D. No protection required

8 Ex'p' equipment must be adequately purged. What is the minimum volume of the safe gas required:

A. 5 x internal volume of enclosure and ductwork

B. 2 x internal volume of the enclosure and ductwork

C. 7 x total volume

D. 3 x total volume

Page 20 of 37
 Page 21
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

A pressurised enclosure with no internal source of release is in a EPL 'Gc' (Cat. '3G') location.
9 What action is to be taken on loss of pressure, if the internal equipment does not meet the
location EPL requirement:
:
A. All equipment must shut down and be isolated automatically

B. Alarm operates - all equipment to be shut down and isolated manually

C. Alarm operates, immediate action to be taken to restore the system

D. No action is required

10 In protection by pressurisation (Ex p), there are 3 types. What are the correct markings:

A. Ex pa, Ex pb, & Ex pc

B. Ex pM, Ex pG, & Ex pD

C. Ex px, Ex py, & Ex pz

D. Px d, Px e, & Px n

Page 21 of 37
 Page 22

UNIT 7 INTRINSIC SAFETY

EEx i/Ex i
Document No.:

Revision No.:

Date:

Page 22 of 37
 Page 23
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

APPENDIX 1: PRACTICE ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS

Ex'i' - Intrinsically Safe

Direction : Select the best answer to the following questions.

1 A pressure transmitter labeled Ex ib IIB T5 may be used where:

A. In any hazardous area with any gas group

In locations requiring EPL Ga, Gb, or Gc (Cat. 1G, 2G, or 3G) in gas sub-groups
B. IIA, IIB or IIC
C. In locations requiring EPL Gb or Gc (2G, or 3G) in gas sub-groups IIA or IIB only
D. In locations requiring EPL Gc (Cat. 3G) in gas sub-groups IIB or IIC only

Which of these can be considered as SIMPLE apparatus, and used without certification in
2
an I.S. system:

A. Induction motor

B. LED

C. Electric heater

D. 25W light bulb

The function of the intrinsically safe interface (barrier or isolator) is to limit which
3
into the hazardous area:

A Limit power
B. Limit current
C. Limit voltage
D. Limit energy

Which one of the following tests is appropriate when a zener barrier unit is suspected to
4
have a faulty fuse:

A Disconnect unit and measure the current

B. Disconnect unit and measure the resistance between the input (supply) and the output terminals
C. Perform check on the value of the voltage Um
D. Disconnect output and measure the supply voltage

Page 23 of 37
 Page 24
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

The resistance of the cables connecting a zener barrier earth bar and the main earth
5
should not exceed:

A. 1 Ohm
B. 10 Ohms
C. 100 Ohms
D. 1M Ohms

Which one of the following may be connected (is in the hazardous area) to the output
6
of a Zener barrier:

A. Simple apparatus
B. Only apparatus specified in the documentation
C. Any IS certified equipment and simple apparatus
D. Any certified equipment

7 The test voltage withstand for IS cables insulation is which of the following:

A. 500Vac and 750Vdc

B. 500Vac or 750Vdc
C. 1000V
D. Double the rated Voltage

The rating Label of an I.S associated apparatus is marked 'Um = 250 V'. What does this
8
mean:

A. The maximum output voltage is 250V

B. The barrier has been designed for a 250V ac supply
C. Barrier must be tested at 250V
D. The interconnection cables have to be tested at 250 V

9 In what locations could equipment marked Ex ic II T4 be installed:

A In any hazardous area with any gas group or T-class

In locations requiring EPL Gc (Cat. 3G) in any gas sub-group
B and T-class T1, T2, T3 or T4 only
In locations requiring EPL Gc (3G) in gas sub-groups IIA or
C IIB and T-class T1, T2, T3 or T4 only
In locations requiring EPL Gb or Gc (2G, or 3G) in gas sub-groups IIA or IIB and T-class T4, T5
D
or T 6

Page 24 of 37
 Page 25
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

10 Which of these methods of protection has the highest level of safety:

A. Ex nA
B. Ex ia
C. Ex ib
D. Ex d

An Ex d(ia) IIB T4 flameproof enclosure has an intrinsically safe output. What type of
11
cable gland must be used for the I.S cable:

A. A standard industrial IP54 gland suitable for the cable.

B. A certified flameproof gland suitable for the cable & enclosure.
C. A certified Ex'i' gland suitable for the cable.
D. An increased safety gland suitable for the cable.

12 When testing intrinsically safe circuits using test instruments, the test instruments must be:

A: Supplied from an ELV source

B: Supplied via an [Ex ia] safety barrier
C: Certified I.S.
D: Approved for use with intrinsically safe circuits.

I.S. apparatus remains safe with specified internal faults, but how many
13
INSTALLATION faults are permissible:

A: 3
B: 2
C: 1
D: None

Where two copper conductors are used between I.S. earth and main earth,
14
what must be the minimum cross sectional area of each:

2
A: 1.0 mm
2
B: 1.5 mm
2
C. 4 mm
2
D: 10 mm

Page 25 of 37
 Page 26
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

A cable with individually screened pairs must be used to connect an I.S. instrument
15
with 3 terminals. If two cores are used from one pair what should be done for the 3rd core:

A: Use any spare core from any other pair

B. Use the spare core from a pair where the other core is already used in
another instrument circuit
C. Use one core from another pair. Do not use the remaining core - treat it as
a 'spare' unused core
D: This cable cannot be used, a separate screened 3 core 'triad' cable must be run

Page 26 of 37
 Page 27
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

APPENDIX 1: PRACTICE ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS

Ex'o', Ex'm', Ex'q', Ex's' and Hybrid Protections

Direction : Select the best answer to the following questions:

Equipment with type of protection Ex 'o' or Ex 'q' is permitted in locations which require
1
ATEX Cat 2. In the International Standards, what is its equivalent to this ATEX Category:

A. EPL 'Gb'
B. EPL 'Gc'
C. EPL 'Ga'
D. None

2 Which of these means 'explosion protection by powder filling':

A. Ex 'i'
B. Ex 'm'
C. Ex 'o'
D. Ex 'q'

3 Method of protection Ex 'm' has three levels of protection. These are:

A mx, my & mz
B mA, mB & mC
C ma, mb & mc
D mG, mD & mGD

4 Which of these means 'explosion protection by encapsulation':

A. Ex 'm'
B. Ex 'n'
C. Ex 'o'
D. Ex 'p'

5 There is now an international standard for Ex 's' ('special') protection. This is:

A. IEC60079 - 18
B. IEC60079 - 22
C. IEC60079 - 28
D. IEC60079 - 33

Page 27 of 37
 Page 28
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

Which of these means 'explosion protection by oil immersion', and which is the
6
applicable standard:

A. Ex 'o', IEC60079-4
B. Ex 'o', IEC60079-6
C. Ex 't', IEC60079-29
D. Ex 't', IEC60079-31

7 Which of the following has the highest integrity of protection?

A. Ex 'ic'
B. Ex 'mc'
C. Ex 'ma'
D. Ex 'mb'

8 What is the minimum IP rating required for an Ex 'o' transformer:

A. IP54
B. IP56
C. IP65
D. IP66

9 A motor marked Ex 'de' would be:

A. A flameproof motor with increased safety terminals

B. A flameproof motor with an increased safety terminal chamber
C. An increased safety motor with a flameproof terminal chamber
D. A flameproof motor with an integral Ex 'e' starter

The nameplate of an Ex fluorescent light fitting gives the protection method as Ex 'edmq'.
10
Which part of the luminaire is most likely to be flameproof (Ex d):

A. The terminals
B. The cover switch
C. The lampholders
D. The
electronic
ballast

Page 28 of 37
 Page 29
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

APPENDIX 1. PRACTICE ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS

Wiring Systems & Installation

Direction: Select the best answer to the following questions:

To achieve the correct selection and installation of equipment in a hazardous area,

1
IEC standards require technicians to possess basic understanding of which one of the following:

A. Classification drawing preparation

B. Process operation
C. Risk assessment procedures
D. The various protection types

2 How must the spare or unused cores of multi-core cables be terminated:

A. Terminate in unearthed terminals

B. Connect both ends to earth
C. Cut back and insulate both ends with tape
D. Connect the ends to earth as normal practice

The use of non-metallic materials, such as plastic cable tray can create a high level of static
3
electricity. Which technique is suitable to apply to control static electricity:

A. By increasing the length of cable tray

B. By limiting the length of cable tray
C. By increasing the surface area of cable tray
D. By limiting the surface area of cable tray

IEC 60079 - 14 specifies the knowledge and skill of various group of people. Which is required by
4
technicians:

A. The ability to prepare engineering drawings

Familiarity with the particular techniques to be employed in the selection & erection of
B. equipment.
C. A detailed knowledge of the applicable International Standards
D. Basic knowledge of quality management systems.

Page 29 of 37
 Page 30
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

IEC 60079 - 14 specifies cable requirements for fixed equipment in zone 1 & 2. Cables sheathed
5
with thermoplastic, thermosetting, or elastomeric may be used provided that:

A. the cable is circular, compact, and has extruded bedding and fillers.
B. the cable is circular, compact, has extruded bedding, and any fillers are non-hygroscopic.
C. the cable is circular, compact, has extruded bedding and fillers, if any, are non-conductive.
D. the cable is flat, compact, has extruded bedding and fillers, if any, are non-conductive.

What is the minimum requirement for terminating a SWA cable with an Ex'e' E1W cable gland into
6
an earthed Ex'e' steel enclosure having a 10mm threaded metal gland plate:

A. Fit gland, earth tag, serrated metal washer and internal lock nut.
B. Fit gland, external IP washer and internal lock nut.
C. Fit gland.
D. Fit gland, external IP washer and internal serrated metal washer.

Cables in Zone 0 are usually screened and are connected to intrinsically Safe (Ex'ia') equipment.
7
The cable insulation must withstand a test voltage. What should be the value of test voltage:

A. 2 x Working Voltage.
B. 1000 Volts.
C. 500 Vac and 750 Vdc.
D. 500 Vac or 750 Vdc.

8 If a cable gland is marked with a suffix 'X', what does it mean:

A. It can only be used with an enclosure that is also marked with a suffix 'X'.
B. It can only be used with portable equipment if additional clamping is provided for the cable.
C. It can only be used with fixed equipment.
D. It can only be used with fixed equipment and may require additional clamping.

Multi-stranded and fine stranded conductors need to be protected against separation of the strands.
9
How can this be achieved:

A. By twisting the strands.

B. By soldering the strands.
C. By fitting cable lugs or soldering.
D. By fitting cable lugs or core end sleeves.

Page 30 of 37
 Page 31
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

Cable glands are to be installed on braid armoured cables terminating in an Ex'e' junction box. After 2007,
10
these are required to be:

A. Certified Ex'd' E1FX glands

B. Certified Ex'd'; or Ex 'd'/Ex'e' glands E1FX
C. Certified BARR glands
D. Brass E1X glands

A flameproof enclosure contains apparatus that has an intrinsically safe output. What type of cable gland
11
must be used for the I.S Cable:

A. A standard industrial IP54 gland suitable for the cable.

B. A certified flameproof gland suitable for the cable & enclosure.
C. A certified Ex'i' gland suitable for the cable.
D. An increased safety gland suitable for the cable.

When cable glands are used with direct entry in an Ex'd' equipment the number of threads engaged is
12
important. Which is the minimum requirement in accordance with standards:

A. Three fully engaged threads.

B. Five fully engaged threads.
C. Eight fully engaged threads.
D. Ten fully engaged threads.

To minimise static electricity generated by plastic cable trays, IEC60079-14 specifies limits for the insulation
13
resistance values. Which of the following is the correct value:

A. Not exceeding 1 MΩ
B. Greater than 1 Mohm
C. Not exceeding 1 Gohm
D. Greater than 1 Gohm

14 When screened cables are used in intrinsically safe systems, where must the screen be connected:

A. to earth at one end only.

B. to earth at both ends.
C. to main earth conductor.
D. as specified in the documentation.

Page 31 of 37
 Page 32
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

IEC 60079-14 gives restrictions for the type of lamp fitted in Ex'e' and Ex'n' luminaires (light fittings).
15
What are they:

A. No lamps of non-conductive material with conductive coating, unless tested with the equipment
B. All fluorescent lamps must be bi-pin type.
C. Lamps with screw connections are prohibited.
D. Lamps using conductive end caps or pins are prohibited.

Page 32 of 37
 Page 33

UNIT 11 INSPECTION AND

MAINTENANCE
Document No.:

Revision No.:

Date:

Page 33 of 37
 Page 34
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

Maintenance work in non-hazardous areas

o Maintenance of associated electrical apparatus and parts of intrinsically-safe circuits located in non-
hazardous areas shall be restricted to disconnection of and removal or replacement of, items of electrical
equipment and cabling;
o Safety barrier earth connections shall not be removed without first disconnecting the hazardous area
circuits.
o Equipment circuit identification
o Equipment is fitted with a permanent label which specifies the source of supply.
o Equipment is fitted with a tag number or the cable is fitted with a cable number adjacent to the equipment.
o Item is clearly and unambiguously shown on drawing on which the source of supply is either identified
directly or indirectly via a schedule.
o Insulation resistance for equipment and associated cabling up to 500 V shall be measured at 500 V ac or
700Vdc. The insulation resistance shall be at least 1.0Mohm unless specifically defined in user
documentation.

END OF UNIT 11
This document is for training purpose only.

APPENDIX 1: PRACTICE ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS

Inspection and Maintenance
Direction: Select the best answer to the following questions:

1 Which one of the following is a grade of inspection:

A. Frequent
B. Periodic
C. Sample
D. Visual

2 What is the required grade of inspection prior to an installation being brought into service:

A. Visual
B. Detailed
C. Close
D. Periodic

Page 34 of 37
 Page 35
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

The dismantling of a flameproof cable gland during an inspection would be done at which
3
grade of inspection:

A. Periodic inspection
B. Visual inspection
C. Close inspection

D. Detailed inspection

4 After completion of an installation, what type of inspection is required before handover:

A. Initial
B. Detailed
C. Visual
D. Sample

Which is an inspection requirement when a close inspection is carried out on an

5
intrinsically safe installation:

A. Electrical connections are tight

B. Installation is clearly labeled
C. Cables are terminated in accordance with the documentation
D. Cables not in use are correctly terminated

Which of the following is an inspection requirement in a visual inspection of Ex 'd', 'e', or 'n'
6
equipment:

A. Equipment circuit identification is correct

B. Type of cable used is appropriate
C. Motor fans have sufficient clearance to enclosure and/or covers
D. Equipment circuit identification is available

A visual inspection is to be carried out on an Ex 'e' lighting fixture. Which one of the following
7
is required:

A. Step ladders
B. Tools and torchlight
C. Details of lighting fixture
D. Area classification drawing for the location

8 A Close Inspection is an inspection which:

Page 35 of 37
 Page 36
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

A. identifies defects apparent to the eye.

B. identifies defects only apparent using access equipment or tools.
C. is carried out before the equipment is put into service.
D. is only carried out when the plant is shut down.

9 A Detailed Inspection is an inspection which:

A. identifies those defects only apparent using access equipment.

identifies, without the use of access equipment or tools, those defects
B. apparent to the eye.
C. is carried out on equipment in service at least once a year
identifies those defects only apparent by opening the enclosure,
D.
using tools and test equipment

10 Which one of the following would not be required in order to undertake a close inspection:

A. Area classification details

B. Power Isolation
C. PTW
D. Access Equipment

11 In a visual Inspection of Ex'e' equipment, which one of the following is a required check point:

A. Inspection of 'O' ring and gasket.

B. Lamp rating, type etc.
C. There are no visible unauthorised modifications.
D. Earth loop resistance is satisfactory.

12 When close inspection is carried out on I.S. equipment, which of the following is checked:

A. Installation is clearly labeled.

B. Electrical connections are intact.
C. There are no unauthorised modifications.
D. Cable screens are properly terminated.

13 Movable equipment are prone to damage. What is the maximum interval between close inspections:

A. 6 months

Page 36 of 37
 Page 37
Document No.:
Revision No.:
Date:

B. 9 months
C. 12 months
D. 2 years

14 When is it permitted to undertake inspection or maintenance of power equipment in a hazardous area:

UnderA.a permit to work and the equipment is Ex'd'

B. Under a permit to work and the equipment is Ex'e'
C. Under a permit to work and you have a "Gas free Certificate"
D. When the work site has a gas detector.

15 Before opening the cover of Ex equipment for inspection, what is the minimum isolation requirement:

Isolate the supply (including neutral) at the supply end - switch isolator OFF
A. or removing fuses/links and apply lock
B. Switch the isolator on the equipment to OFF
C. Switch the isolator on the equipment to OFF and apply lock and tag
Isolate the supply (including neutral) at the motor end, by
D.
switching isolator OFF (or removing fuses/links), and apply lock

Page 37 of 37