BATCH - CLAT ACHIEVERS 2024

Mock Test [CLAT 2024] #06

[with Hints and Solutions]
DATE:15/07/2023

Duration: 120 Minutes Candidate Name: _______________

Max. Marks: 150 Admit Card No. : _______________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. The question booklet (QB) contains 150 multiple-choice questions.

2. Write your Admit Card No. on the first page of the QB before starting the test.
3. Use the separate carbonized Optical Mark Reader (OMR) Response Sheet to
answer all the questions. Make sure to read the detailed instructions provided
with the OMR Response Sheet before starting the test.
4. If you notice any discrepancy in the QB, request the invigilator to replace both
the QB and OMR Response Sheet. Do not use the previous OMR Response
Sheet with the new QB.
5. During the test, write the QB No., OMR Response Sheet No., and sign in the
designated space/column on the Attendance Sheet provided.
6. Keep your Admit Card signed by the Invigilator, as it will be required during
the admissions process.
7. The QB for the Undergraduate Five-Year Integrated Programme is worth 150
marks. Each correct answer earns 1 mark, and each wrong answer results in a
deduction of 0.25 marks. There are no deductions for unanswered questions.
8. You can keep the QB and the candidate's copy of the OMR Response Sheet
after the test.
The use of any unfair means, including the possession of electronic devices such
as mobile phones, headphones, and digital watches, is strictly prohibited during
the test. Impersonation or any other fraudulent practice may be a criminal
offense and will lead to disqualification and possible legal action.

[1]
 CONTENTS OF QUESTION PAPER

Subject Q. Nos. Page No.

English Language 1 – 25 3–8
Logical Reasoning 1 - 25 9 – 15
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge 1 - 30 16 – 20
Legal Reasoning 1 - 30 21 – 29
Quantitative Techniques 1 - 10 30
Answer Key 1-150 31
Hints & Solution 1-150 32 - 62

[2]
 English Language
PASSAGE I
Artificial Intelligence (AI) stocks should now be part
of most investors’ portfolios as Big Tech prepare for an
AI boom, suggests the CEO and founder of one of the
world’s largest independent financial advisory, asset
management and fintech organisations.
The comments from deVere Group’s Nigel Green
follow last week’s earnings reports from tech titans
including Microsoft, Alphabet (parent company of
Google) Meta (parent company of Facebook,
Instagram and Whatsapp) and Amazon.
It also comes after legendary investors Warren Buffett
and Charlie Munger, the Chairman and CEO and Vice
chairman respectively of Berkshire Hathaway, spent
hours this weekend at a shareholders’ meeting in which
they expressed scepticism about AI.
“I am personally sceptical of some of the hype that is
going into artificial intelligence. I think old-fashioned
intelligence works pretty well,” Munger noted.
However, Nigel Green says: “Despite Buffett and
Munger’s scepticism, Big Tech last week posted robust
financial performance reports for first-quarter earnings.
The pace of growth has picked up noticeably.
But the real story was the tech giants’ seemingly
relentless mania for AI. Most of corporate America
clearly think that this is the future. The importance of
this cannot be overstated considering that just five tech
companies have made up two-thirds of the S&P 500’s
gains so far this year.
Besides guidance, which suggests how companies are
positioned to manage an economic downturn, and data
on how effective cost-cutting measures have been, the
Big Tech earnings season was dominated by AI detail.
The tech titans are fully aware of the enormous returns
that could be secured when AI starts to radically change
the way businesses work and consumers live their lives.
“We fully expect that the volume of chat around AI will
ramp up in future earnings seasons,” says Green.
The AI chatbot ChatGPT became wildly popular in just
a matter of weeks – and took off faster than social
media platforms like TikTok or Instagram. Only two
months after its launch in late November, it had 100
million monthly active users in January, according to
reports.
It is because of the potential way that AI is expected to
impact society and global business that Nigel Green
now says that “AI stocks should have a place in most
investors’ portfolios.”
The deVere CEO concludes: “We expect that
companies that have substantial AI interests are likely
to benefit from the growth of the industry and this could
have potentially significant rewards for early investors.
But, of course, like any investment strategy, including
AI in a portfolio carries risks and requires careful
consideration. Investors should seek professional
advice before making any investment decisions. We
believe that AI is the future, and we know from the past
that early investors in innovative technologies often
reap enormous rewards,” adds Green.
1. What is the viewpoint of Warren Buffett and Charlie
Munger regarding artificial intelligence (AI)?
(A) They believe AI is overhyped and prefer
traditional intelligence.
(B) They expressed optimism about the potential of AI
in the tech industry.
(C) They are skeptical about the financial performance
of tech giants in the AI sector.
(D) They recommend including AI stocks in most
investors' portfolios.
2. What was the focus of the Big Tech earnings reports
mentioned in the passage?
(A) The financial performance of tech giants in the AI
sector.
(B) The impact of AI on society and global business.
(C) The potential returns from investing in AI stocks.
(D) The guidance for managing an economic
downturn.
3. According to the passage, what was the dominant topic
in the Big Tech earnings season?
(A) Corporate guidance
(B) Data on cost-cutting measures
(C) Robust financial performance reports
(D) AI detail
4. What is the potential impact of AI on society and global
business, according to the passage?
(A) It could lead to enormous rewards for early
investors
(B) It could result in substantial losses for investors
(C) It could cause a decline in the tech industry
(D) It could result in a decrease in employment
opportunities
5. What is the purpose of the AI chatbot ChatGPT
mentioned in the passage?
(A) To provide financial advice to investors
(B) To help businesses work more efficiently
(C) To serve as a social media platform
(D) To demonstrate the potential of AI
[3]
PASSAGE II
Two recent moves by the Telecom Regulatory
Authority of India(TRAI) have created some
discomfort for the industry. The first one relates to the
audit of metering and billing of consumer services,
where the regulator is examining whether a long-settled
practice needs to be re-looked. Whether subscribers
have been billed correctly is audited by every telecom
operator, after which the same is examined by the
regulator as part of an external audit process. It is
natural that some anomalies will get flagged and
operators concerned would be directed to take
corrective measures. What is worrying the operators is
a recent consultation paper by the regulator that seeks
to conduct micro-audits at the circle level, against the
current centralised process. Licences are awarded on a
circle basis and all other regulatory obligations are also
computed on this basis.
In this context, it is fair for the Trai to feel that audit of
billing and metering of telcos should also be done
circle-wise. However, the telcos feel that they have
centralised the process of audits and any change the
regulator is mulling would be superfluous and add to
their regulatory burden. The regulator is yet to come
out with a final directive, but indications are that it may
not fully agree with the contention of the operators. If
it agrees, it is sure to demand the deployment of some
new technological mechanisms, which may add to the
telcos’ cost.
The second issue relates to predatory pricing, which
had arisen in 2017 post the launch of services by
Reliance Jio and subsequently faded away. With the
launch of 5G services by Jio and Bharti Airtel rival
Vodafone Idea which is yet to start such services, has
alleged that the two are indulging in predatory
pricing—that they are providing 5G at 4G rates and
offering unlimited data. While the regulator feels that
the charge of predatory pricing is not correct as services
are not being offered below cost, offering unlimited
data is against regulatory principle.
What could have got fixed by a mere change in
promotional language, has got muddied with the two
operators citing past instances of Vodafone Idea
indulging in predatory pricing and offering unlimited
data in some of its 4G packages. As a result, Trai will
now conduct a probe of all past offers by all the
operators to determine when the first violation took
place. It plans to pass a comprehensive order after this
detailed examination is over. Rather than get into a
regulatory overdrive over the issue of audit of billing
and metering and unlimited offers, it would be better if
the Trai instead calls a meeting of all the operators and
resolve such issues across the table. Light touch
regulation has become a hallmark of Trai; it should see
that this is maintained.
6. What is the Telcom Regulatory Authority of India
(Trai) considering in relation to the audit of billing and
metering of telcos?
(A) Conducting micro-audits at the central level
instead of the circle level.
(B) Revising the current centralised audit process to a
circle-wise approach.
(C) Eliminating the audit of billing and metering
practices for telcos.
(D) Increasing the regulatory burden on telecom
operators.
7. What concerns do telecom operators have regarding the
recent moves by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of
India (Trai)?
(A) The potential increase in their regulatory burden
due to micro-audits at the circle level.
(B) The lack of centralization in the audit process of
billing and metering.
(C) The excessive cost of deploying new
technological mechanisms as demanded by the
regulator.
(D) The possibility of facing penalties for past
instances of predatory pricing and unlimited data
offers.
8. How does the concept of "light touch regulation" align
with the suggested approach for resolving issues
between telecom operators and the Telecom
Regulatory Authority of India (Trai)?
(A) Light touch regulation allows for a more
centralized audit process, reducing the burden on
telecom operators.
(B) Light touch regulation promotes the use of new
technological mechanisms to streamline billing
and metering audits.
(C) Light touch regulation favors conducting micro-
audits at the circle level to ensure regulatory
compliance.
(D) Light touch regulation emphasizes open dialogue
and resolving issues through discussions among
all stakeholders.
9. Which word best describes the approach favored by the
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (Trai) in
resolving issues with telecom operators?
(A) Procrastination
(B) Facilitation
(C) Denunciation
(D) Invalidation
10. Which of the following sentences from the passage
contains a grammatical error?
(A) "Whether subscribers have been billed correctly is
audited by every telecom operator."
(B) "In this context, it is fair for the Trai to feel that
audit of billing and metering of telcos should also
be done circle-wise."
(C) "What could have got fixed by a mere change in
promotional language, has got muddied with the
two operators citing past instances."
(D) "The regulator is yet to come out with a final
directive, but indications are that it may not fully
agree with the contention of the operators."
[4]
PASSAGE III
A democratically elected government must be allowed
to serve its constituents. This is the message at the heart
of the significant Supreme Court judgment this week
that confirmed that the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP)
government controlled bureaucrats assigned to
departments that are legally within its purview. The
105-page order by a Constitution bench headed by
Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud breathes life
into the federal balance of power that is critical for
effective management of India’s Capital, and upholds
the supremacy of elected representatives. The verdict
will hopefully put to an end an acrimonious turf battle
for control of power that has paralysed governance in
Delhi for the past year and triggered unseemly political
squabbles.
At the root of the dispute lies Delhi’s unique status as a
Union Territory with an elected assembly and
government, which also serves as the national Capital.
Since the first assembly elections in the city in 1993,
the Capital has had two power centres: One in the chief
minister’s office and the other at that of the lieutenant
governor (LG) , a functionary who reports to the Union
home ministry. For several decades, by serendipity or
arrangement, the two managed to work with each other,
but this working relationship has frayed in recent years.
With mounting confrontation between Raj Bhavan and
the chief minister’s office, the perception that the
elected government in the city was increasingly being
rendered ineffectual took hold as the LG sought to
expand his purview, especially after amendments to the
Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act
were passed in 2021. This stand-off created a vortex of
annulled appointments, notifications issued and then
withheld, policies caught in limbo, dharnas and street
protests and an apparent breakdown in communication
between the two principals. Though the showdown
began as an administrative affair, the political edge to
the battle was unmistakable, especially because, on the
ground, it often translated into a fight between the AAP
and the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). The top court’s
unanimous verdict will hopefully put to rest this
unbecoming political fracas.
The court was clear that in a democratic form of
government, the real power of administration must
reside in the elected arm of the State and underlined
that an unaccountable and a non-responsive civil
service may pose a serious problem of governance.
By stressing on the importance of cooperative
federalism, the verdict cautions against the excesses of
political overreach. Nevertheless, the judgment
showed the way forward – for responsible and sensitive
governance, for politicians to focus on their
constituents rather than each other, and for respecting
the mandate of the people. In a democracy, nothing less
will do.
11. Which of the following weakens the argument for
allowing a democratically elected government to serve
its constituents, as presented in the passage?
(A) The Supreme Court judgment emphasizes the
need for a cooperative federalism, which implies a
balanced power-sharing between elected
representatives and bureaucratic officials.
(B) The working relationship between the chief
minister's office and the lieutenant governor's
office had been effective for several decades,
demonstrating the viability of shared power.
(C) The power struggle between the elected
government and the lieutenant governor resulted
in annulled appointments, policies in limbo, and
breakdowns in communication, leading to
ineffective governance.
(D) The court's judgment highlights the importance of
accountable and responsive civil service, which
suggests that elected representatives alone may
not ensure efficient governance.
12. Based on the information provided in the passage,
which of the following can be inferred about the
relationship between the elected government and the
lieutenant governor's office in Delhi?
(A) The lieutenant governor's office has historically
held more power and authority than the elected
government in Delhi.
(B) The power struggle between the elected
government and the lieutenant governor's office
has negatively affected governance in Delhi.
(C) The recent Supreme Court judgment has resolved
the power struggle between the elected
government and the lieutenant governor's office.
(D) The amendments to the Government of National
Capital Territory of Delhi Act in 2021
significantly expanded the purview of the elected
government in Delhi.
13. Based on the information provided in the passage,
which of the following can be inferred about the
relationship between the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP)
government and the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in
Delhi?
(A) The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) and the Bharatiya
Janata Party (BJP) have collaborated effectively in
resolving the power struggle between the elected
government and the lieutenant governor's office.
(B) The power struggle between the Aam Aadmi Party
(AAP) government and the Bharatiya Janata Party
[5]
 (BJP) has been the primary cause of ineffective
governance in Delhi.
(C) The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) has supported
the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) government in its
efforts to assert control over assigned bureaucrats.
(D) The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) government and the
Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) have reached a
mutual agreement to share power and
responsibilities in governing Delhi.
14. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from
the information provided in the passage?
(A) The power struggle between the Aam Aadmi Party
(AAP) government and the Bharatiya Janata Party
(BJP) in Delhi has been successfully resolved
through the intervention of the Supreme Court.
(B) The power struggle between the Aam Aadmi Party
(AAP) government and the Bharatiya Janata Party
(BJP) has negatively impacted the effectiveness of
governance in Delhi.
(C) The power struggle between the Aam Aadmi Party
(AAP) government and the Bharatiya Janata Party
(BJP) is a common phenomenon observed in
democratic governments worldwide.
(D) The power struggle between the Aam Aadmi Party
(AAP) government and the Bharatiya Janata Party
(BJP) has led to collaborative efforts in improving
governance in Delhi.
15. In the context of the passage, what does the term
"purview" most likely mean?
(A) The legal authority or scope of control over a
specific area or domain.
(B) A state of disagreement or conflict between two
parties.
(C) The act of intervening or mediating in a dispute or
conflict.
(D) The process of reaching a mutual agreement or
understanding.
PASSAGE IV
The Pakistani military’s history of repeatedly meddling
in domestic politics appears to have caught up with it,
if the fallout of the arrest of former prime minister (PM)
Imran Khan is anything to go by. Mr Khan was
detained at a court complex in Islamabad with the help
of a paramilitary force led by Pakistan Army officers,
in connection with a corruption case. The dramatic
operation unleashed protests that convulsed Pakistan as
hundreds of Mr Khan’s supporters broke into the
compound of the General Headquarters in Rawalpindi
and the corps commander’s residence in Lahore. These
unprecedented scenes of anger against the military
underlined that differences between Mr Khan’s
Pakistan Tehreek-e-Insaf (PTI) and the de facto power
arbiter in the country have crossed the point of no
return.
Ironically, this break comes just five years after Mr
Khan was propelled to power by the army’s support
and backroom machinations. While in power, Mr Khan
often spoke of how the civilian government and the
army were on the same page, creating the potential for
tackling Pakistan’s problems. But the army became
wary of Mr Khan as he sought to interfere in the posting
of senior generals and secretly hobnobbed with some
officers to retain his grip on power. Both the
parliamentary vote of confidence that ousted Mr Khan
from power a year ago and the emergence of a rickety
coalition government led by Shehbaz Sharif would not
have happened without the go-ahead from the military.
Relations finally nosedived with Mr Khan’s repeated
public potshots at the military and repeated allegations
that the military wanted him dead.
The army faces a stark choice. Most analysts believe
the days when generals such as Zia-ul-Haq and Pervez
Musharraf removed civilian governments are over, and
the military has shifted to a role where it can manage
the government by remote control. However, the
army’s deepening unpopularity and experience with Mr
Khan indicate that a hybrid regime is unworkable.
Since the days of General Ashfaq Pervez Kayani, who
replaced Musharraf, several Pakistan Army chiefs have
spoken of steering clear in politics. But with its
interests and influence over Pakistan’s destiny at stake,
it will be tough for the current chief, General Asim
Munir to walk the talk on this promise. In a country
wrecked by a floundering economy and escalating
terror strikes from the Tehreek-e-Taliban Pakistan, his
next steps will be key.
16. What is the main point emphasized in the passage?
(A) The arrest of former prime minister Imran Khan
has led to widespread protests against the
Pakistani military's interference in domestic
politics, indicating a significant rift between
Khan's party and the military.
(B) Imran Khan's rise to power with the support of the
Pakistani military has resulted in strained relations
as Khan attempted to assert control over military
appointments and publicly criticized the military.
(C) The Pakistani military, despite its shifting role in
managing the government by remote control,
faces challenges in maintaining a hybrid regime
due to its growing unpopularity and conflicts with
political figures like Imran Khan.
(D) General Asim Munir, the current chief of the
Pakistani military, faces a crucial situation as he
attempts to balance the military's interests and
influence over Pakistan's destiny amidst economic
challenges and escalating terror strikes.
[6]
17. What can be inferred from the passage regarding the
relationship between former prime minister Imran
Khan and the Pakistani military?
(A) Imran Khan had a harmonious relationship with
the Pakistani military throughout his tenure as
prime minister.
(B) Imran Khan's attempts to assert control over
military appointments and criticize the military led
to strained relations with the Pakistani military.
(C) Imran Khan relied on the support of the Pakistani
military to gain power and maintain his position as
prime minister.
(D) Imran Khan's repeated public potshots at the
military and allegations against them created a
strong alliance between him and the Pakistani
military.
18. What can be inferred from the passage about the current
role of the Pakistani military in politics?
(A) The Pakistani military has maintained a neutral
stance in politics since General Ashfaq Pervez
Kayani's tenure.
(B) The Pakistani military continues to actively
intervene in politics, but with a more subtle
approach.
(C) The Pakistani military's influence in politics has
diminished, leading to a more stable government.
(D) The Pakistani military is seeking to establish a
hybrid regime by managing the government
remotely.
19. Which of the following weakens the argument that the
arrest of former prime minister Imran Khan signifies a
significant shift in the relationship between the
Pakistani military and elected representatives?
(A) The protests triggered by the arrest of Imran Khan
were primarily driven by his supporters rather than
being representative of a broader sentiment
against the Pakistani military.
(B) The arrest of Imran Khan was carried out by a
paramilitary force led by Pakistan Army officers,
indicating the military's direct involvement in the
case.
(C) Imran Khan's repeated public potshots at the
military and allegations against them have
previously strained his relationship with the
Pakistani military.
(D) The parliamentary vote of confidence that ousted
Imran Khan from power a year ago was facilitated
by the military's go-ahead, suggesting an ongoing
collaboration between the military and elected
representatives.
20. Which of the following best defines the term "potshots"
as used in the passage?
(A) Direct criticisms or attacks against the military
(B) Casual and playful remarks aimed at diffusing
tension
(C) Secret negotiations and dealings to retain political
power
(D) Intense and confrontational protests against the
government
PASSAGE V
On 10th March 2023, China took the world by surprise
when it announced that Saudi Arabia and Iran have
agreed to resume diplomatic relations, in a peace deal
brokered by it. The peace deal offers hope for peace
and end to conflicts in the region. Among such conflicts
is the eight-year-long ongoing war in Yemen where
Saudi-led coalition is pitched against Iran-backed
Houthi rebels since March 2015. As per the peace deal,
both sides have agreed to end their support to the war
in Yemen. It may be recalled that Saudi Arabia, along
with regional Arab Allies and the US, launched
airstrikes in Yemen on 26th March, 2015 in the air
assault codenamed "Operation Decisive Storm", in
response to the Houthi’s armed conflict against the
government of Yemen.
Already, there are signs of the peace deal taking shape
in Yemen. On 09th April, Saudi and Omani delegations
held talks in Sanaa with Houthi officials as well as the
head of Houthi Supreme Political Council, Mahdi al-
Mashat. The talks focused on an early reopening of
Houthi-controlled ports and the Sanaa airport, nation
rebuilding efforts and a clear timeline for foreign forces
to exit the country. In the past few weeks, both sides
have exchanged number of prisoners too, as a goodwill
gesture. There were concerns that the armed conflict
could resume after Ramzan as the ceasefire in Yemen
had expired in October 2022, but there is hope that the
relative calm over past one year may finally translate
into cessation of hostilities.
The conflict in Yemen however, goes well beyond the
war since March 2015. The seeds of the unrest and
conflict have a long history, mostly internal to Yemen
and a long-lasting peace can only prevail only once
both external and internal conflicts are resolved.
Internal Conflict
The roots to the internal conflict in Yemen go back to
22nd May 1990 when the erstwhile two Yemeni
nations were united and brought under a single flag.
People’s Democratic Republic of Yemen (South
Yemen) merged with Arab Republic of Yemen (North
Yemen) to form a new country, ‘Republic of Yemen’.
It was a forced union as, Yemen, since the 19th century,
[7]
 had been divided in two separate entities along a north-
south divide.
North Yemen was part of the former Ottoman Empire,
while South Yemen fell under British influence in 1839
when the British captured the port of Aden. After the
collapse of the Ottoman Empire in 1918, North Yemen
became an independent republic while South Yemen
continued under the British until Britain withdrew in
1967, after which it was largely under control of
communist forces, till unification in 1990.
21. What historical event triggered the internal conflict in
Yemen?
(A) The invasion of Saudi Arabia.
(B) The unification of North and South Yemen in
1990.
(C) The airstrikes launched by Saudi Arabia and the
US in 2015.
(D) The British withdrawal from South Yemen in
1967.
22. What role does the peace deal between Saudi Arabia
and Iran play in the context of the war in Yemen?
(A) It allows for China's military intervention in
Yemen.
(B) It leads to the end of support for the war in Yemen
from both sides.
(C) It imposes sanctions on the Houthi rebels.
(D) It provides for the deployment of UN
peacekeeping forces in Yemen.
23. What is the primary theme of the above passage?
(A) China's role in international diplomacy.
(B) The political history of Yemen and the peace deal
between Saudi Arabia and Iran.
(C) The internal and external conflicts in Yemen, their
historical roots, and the recent peace deal that
offers hope for resolution.
(D) The operation of the Houthi Supreme Political
Council in Yemen.
24. Based on the passage, what term best describes the
historical relationship between North Yemen and South
Yemen before their unification in 1990?
(A) Cooperation
(B) Division
(C) Symbiosis
(D) Collaboration
25. What undermines the hope for a lasting peace in
Yemen, despite the recent peace deal between Saudi
Arabia and Iran?
(A) The historical conflict between North and South
Yemen.
(B) The lack of involvement of the United States in the
peace process.
(C) The ongoing support of external powers to the
warring factions.
(D) The reluctance of Houthi rebels to participate in
peace talks.
[8]
 Logical Reasoning
PASSAGE I
In the past four decades and more, the structure of
India’s economy has changed quite dramatically.
Compared to 1980-81, using current prices, the share
of “agriculture and allied activities” has dropped
from 38 per cent of GDP to 21 per cent, while that of
services has grown from 37 per cent to 53 per cent.
That of industry (including construction and utilities)
has remained more or less unchanged at 26 per cent.
So agriculture, the slowest-growing segment of the
economy, has shrunk relative to the others, while the
services sector (the fastest-growing) has become the
dominant one. What does this structural change mean
for overall economic growth? Assuming the sector-
wise growth rates remain unchanged, the dominance
acquired by the rapidly growing services sector
means that economic growth as a whole should have
accelerated.
Given the shifts in weighting among the three sectors,
what was 5.5 per cent average growth in the 1980s
should translate into at least 6.3 per cent growth now.
Now factor in other changes, like life expectancy.
This was 54 years in 1980, and is currently estimated
at 70 years. In other words, the average Indian no
longer dies while still in their working age. That
should have improved productivity, as should the
rapid spread of education, including post-school
education, where enrolment levels have grown
sharply — although educational quality is an issue.
Compound these with the increased rate of
investment in fixed capital (up from 19.7 per cent of
GDP in 1980-81 to 28.6 per cent before the
pandemic), and efficiency boosters like the spread of
digitisation.
Some of these would have contributed to the sectoral
shift. Adjusting for that, one could reasonably argue
that the Indian economy’s potential for annual growth
should have become at least 7 per cent — the
threshold beyond which a country is assumed to have
achieved rapid growth. Indeed, in the two decades
prior to the pandemic, India through many ups and
downs averaged annual growth not far short of that
magic number. So it is striking (though perhaps not
surprising) that the International Monetary Fund
(IMF) thinks India’s potential for growth has
suffered, partly on account of the pandemic but also
for other reasons. Indeed, Pierre-Olivier Gourinchas,
the IMF chief economist, while commenting last
month on global growth prospects, contended that
India’s growth in the current year (estimated by the
IMF at 5.9 per cent) was near the limit of its capacity,
and there was no “output gap” between actual and
potential growth. Mr Gourinchas’s word is not
gospel; indeed, the growth assessments of the
government and the Reserve Bank this year are
higher. But domestic commentators need to engage
seriously with the issue of the rate of growth at which
India will have no “output gap”.
1. What is the main idea conveyed by the passage?
(A) India's economic structure has undergone
significant changes over the past four decades,
with the services sector becoming dominant.
(B) India's economic growth has accelerated due to
the dominance of the rapidly growing services
sector.
(C) The shift in weighting among sectors has
resulted in India's potential for annual growth
reaching at least 7 percent.
(D) The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has
expressed concerns about India's growth
potential due to the impact of the pandemic and
other factors.
2. To what degree is the statement about India's
potential for growth supported by the information
provided in the passage?
(A) The statement is highly supported, as the
passage presents various factors that suggest
India's potential growth rate should be at least 7
percent.
(B) The statement is moderately supported, as the
passage mentions some factors that could
contribute to India's potential growth but does
not provide comprehensive evidence.
(C) The statement is minimally supported, as the
passage discusses changes in India's economy
but does not directly address its potential growth
rate.
(D) The statement is unsupported, as the passage
primarily focuses on the shift in India's
economic structure and the IMF's assessment of
its growth rate.
3. What can be inferred from the information provided
in the passage?
(A) The IMF's assessment of India's growth rate is
widely accepted by the government and
domestic commentators.
(B) India's rapid spread of education and digitization
has positively impacted productivity and
economic growth.
(C) The average life expectancy of Indians has
increased significantly, leading to higher
productivity and economic growt
(D) The pandemic has had a significant negative
impact on India's potential for economic growth.
4. Which option would strengthen the argument that
India's potential for annual growth should be at least
7 percent?
(A) The services sector has consistently
outperformed other sectors in terms of growth
rate over the past four decades.
(B) The rate of investment in fixed capital has
remained stable, indicating a favorable
environment for economic growth.
[9]
 (C) India's educational quality has improved
significantly, leading to a highly skilled
workforce and increased productivity.
(D) The government and the Reserve Bank of India
have projected higher growth rates for the
current year compared to the IMF's estimate.
5. Which option would weaken the argument that
India's potential for annual growth should be at least
7 percent?
(A) The IMF's assessment of India's growth rate
aligns with the growth assessments of the
government and the Reserve Bank.
(B) India's economy has faced significant
challenges, such as income inequality and a lack
of inclusive growth.
(C) The services sector, despite its dominance, has
shown signs of slowdown and reduced growth
potential.
(D) The pandemic has had a minimal impact on
India's potential for economic growth, allowing
for a rapid recovery.
PASSAGE II
Technological marvels, such as the smartphone, have
made modern life convenient. But convenience can
come at a price. There is evidence to indicate that the
heavy use of smartphones leads to addiction, which
is causing serious health issues among adults and
children. Some of the manifestations of impaired
health on account of smartphone addiction include
fatigue, poor cognitive function, low self-esteem and
so on. But there is a gendered angle to this
vulnerability. A recent report by Sapien Labs, a
Washington-based non-profit, has suggested that the
deleterious effects of smartphones are more
pronounced on the mental health of women. Age of
First Smartphone/Tablet and Mental Well-being
Outcomes, which gathered data from 27,969
respondents aged between 18-24 years across 41
countries, connected the parameters associated with
mental well-being to the age of first ownership of
smartphones. According to the report, those who got
their first smartphones at the age of six were found to
be experiencing suicidal thoughts and hallucinations;
they also demonstrated aggressive behaviour. But the
number of women affected — 74% — was much
higher than the number of men — 42%. These figures
progressively declined — more among men than
women — as the age of ownership increased.
The difference in impact on the genders could be
viewed through the prism of structural inequities.
Smartphones disseminate content coated with
misogyny and gender discrimination. As consumers,
women users are thus at a greater risk of suffering a
range of debilitating mental conditions, such as
inclination towards self-injury and depression. Cases
of cyberbullying of women, young or old, are on the
rise too. The absence of a support structure that can
help them access timely counselling compounds the
challenge. The fifth National Family Health Survey
revealed that a majority in the 15-49 years age group
had never used a smartphone. However, this may
change soon: the 2022 McAfee study found that
smartphone usage among Indian children is as high
as 83% — 7% more than the global average. A
protective edifice must be in place at the earliest.
There needs to be some form of gatekeeping when it
comes to permitting children to use smartphones.
Parents and teachers can play a constructive role here,
but the thin line separating regulation and
surveillance must be adhered to. Women must also be
sensitised to insulate themselves from harmful
content. Prevention is better than cure.
6. Which of the following weakens the argument that
heavy smartphone use leads to addiction and causes
serious health issues?
(A) Studies have shown that moderate smartphone
use has no negative impact on mental health.
(B) Smartphone addiction is not a widespread issue
and only affects a small percentage of the
population.
(C) The use of smartphones can actually improve
cognitive function and self-esteem in
individuals.
(D) The health issues attributed to smartphone
addiction can be easily mitigated through regular
exercise and healthy lifestyle choices.
7. Which of the following statements must be false
based on the information provided?
(A) The age at which a person gets their first
smartphone has no impact on their mental well-
being.
(B) Men are more likely to experience suicidal
thoughts and hallucinations as a result of
smartphone addiction.
(C) The mental health effects of smartphone
addiction are more pronounced in women
compared to men.
(D) Cyberbullying of women is a rising concern
associated with smartphone use.
8. What can be inferred from the passage?
(A) Women are more susceptible to smartphone
addiction compared to men.
(B) The use of smartphones at an early age is directly
linked to aggressive behavior.
(C) The content on smartphones often perpetuates
misogyny and gender discrimination.
[10]
 (D) The prevalence of smartphone usage among
Indian children is higher than the global average.
9. What is a flaw in the argument presented in the
passage?
(A) The passage fails to provide any evidence or
research studies to support the claim of
smartphones causing addiction and health
issues.
(B) The argument does not consider other factors
that could contribute to mental health issues,
such as underlying mental health conditions or
socioeconomic factors.
(C) The passage relies solely on data from a single
report by Sapien Labs without considering other
studies or perspectives on the topic.
(D) The argument assumes that regulating and
restricting smartphone use among children and
sensitizing women to harmful content will
effectively prevent mental health issues.
10. What is the most appropriate course of action based
on the information provided?
(A) Implement strict regulations and surveillance
measures to monitor smartphone usage among
children.
(B) Conduct further research to determine the exact
impact of smartphone use on mental health in
different demographic groups.
(C) Create a support structure to provide timely
counseling and assistance to individuals
experiencing mental health issues related to
smartphone addiction.
(D) Educate parents and teachers on the importance
of gatekeeping and responsible smartphone use
among children.
PASSAGE III
Powerful reasons alone can cause a change in the
portfolio of a high-profile minister. Kiren Rijiju, the
former Union law minister, has now been given the
task of looking after earth sciences instead. Mr Rijiju
has been best known for his unflagging criticism of
the collegium system of judges’ appointments;
according to him, not senior judges but the
government should be appointing and transferring
judges. That Mr Rijiju was representing the Narendra
Modi-led government’s opinion was seldom in doubt.
The micro-managing propensities of the Bharatiya
Janata Party’s high command also suggested that his
increasingly confrontational rhetoric — calling some
unnamed retired judges part of the ‘anti-India gang’,
for instance — probably had his superiors’ approval.
After all, his remarks ran parallel to the vice-
president’s. The sudden change of portfolio, with
little preparation and no explanation, therefore, has
prompted speculation that the government may be
looking for a less abrasive relationship with the
Supreme Court at the present time. The imminence of
the Lok Sabha elections could be one reason to
smooth matters with the higher judiciary. Mr Rijiju’s
replacement, Arjun Ram Meghwal, made it clear that
there would be no confrontation with the courts, and
the relationship between the executive and the
judiciary would remain cordial, constitutional and
within the laid-down boundaries.
Since it is difficult to believe that either Mr Rijiju or
Mr Meghwal would exceed his brief, the latter’s
statement indicates a desire to change the impression
the government has so far given regarding the
judiciary. Mr Rijiju’s aggression made no dent in the
judiciary’s stand, neither did it ruffle the dignity of its
seniormost members; hence that route is no longer
viable. At least, not for the moment. Removing the
minister tasked with scathing remarks and giving him
a comparatively less important ministry may change
public perception and suggest the government’s shift
in attitude. Mr Modi and his men seem to have an
unshakeable faith in optics. The situation also offered
the scope to bestow on Mr Meghwal, a Dalit from
Rajasthan and minister of state for culture and
parliamentary affairs, independent charge of the law
ministry before elections in Congress-ruled
Rajasthan. It is a rare responsibility for a junior
minister, especially since the government does not
lack suitable candidates. Perhaps the high command
is making the best of a not-too-successful job.
11. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken
the speculation about the government's motive
behind Kiren Rijiju's change in portfolio?
(A) Kiren Rijiju voluntarily requested a transfer to
the earth sciences ministry due to his personal
interest in the subject.
(B) The Supreme Court recently praised Kiren Rijiju
for his efforts in advocating for judicial reforms.
(C) The government has maintained a cordial
relationship with the Supreme Court throughout
Narendra Modi's tenure as Prime Minister.
(D) The Lok Sabha elections have been postponed,
eliminating the need for the government to
establish a smoother relationship with the
judiciary at present.
[11]
12. Which of the following must be true based on the
information provided?
(A) Kiren Rijiju's criticism of the collegium system
of judges' appointments had no impact on the
judiciary's stance.
(B) Arjun Ram Meghwal's appointment as the new
law minister was primarily influenced by his
seniority within the Bharatiya Janata Party.
(C) Kiren Rijiju's confrontational rhetoric towards
retired judges was openly supported by the vice-
president.
(D) Kiren Rijiju's transfer to the earth sciences
ministry was a strategic move by the
government to strengthen its relationship with
the Supreme Court.
13. Based on the passage, which of the following can be
inferred about Kiren Rijiju's aggressive approach
towards the judiciary?
(A) Kiren Rijiju's aggressive remarks were
welcomed by the senior judges of the Supreme
Court.
(B) Kiren Rijiju's confrontational rhetoric did not
align with the government's opinion on judges'
appointments.
(C) The government's high command disapproved
of Kiren Rijiju's increasingly aggressive stance.
(D) Kiren Rijiju's aggressive approach towards the
judiciary negatively affected the government's
image.
14. Which of the following best identifies a flaw in the
author's reasoning in the passage?
(A) The author assumes that Kiren Rijiju's
aggressive remarks were the primary reason for
his transfer to the earth sciences ministry.
(B) The author assumes that the government's
motive behind Kiren Rijiju's change in portfolio
is solely related to its relationship with the
Supreme Court.
(C) The author assumes that the government's
decision to give Arjun Ram Meghwal
independent charge of the law ministry is solely
based on optics.
(D) The author assumes that Kiren Rijiju's transfer
to a less important ministry will significantly
change public perception of the government's
attitude towards the judiciary.
15. What should the government do to address the
situation described in the passage?
(A) Take immediate steps to repair Kiren Rijiju's
relationship with the judiciary and reinstate him
as the Union law minister.
(B) Clearly explain the reasons behind Kiren Rijiju's
change in portfolio to the public and ensure
transparency in the decision-making process.
(C) Appoint a new high-profile minister who can
continue Kiren Rijiju's aggressive approach
towards the collegium system of judges'
appointments.
(D) Postpone the Lok Sabha elections to allow for a
longer period of smooth relations with the
Supreme Court.
PASSAGE IV
In the 1870s, German physician Robert Koch was
trying to curtail an epidemic of anthrax that was
sweeping local farm animals. Other scientists had
seen a bacterium, Bacillus anthracis, in the victims’
tis-sues. Koch injected this microbe into a mouse –
which died. He recovered it from the dead rodent and
injected it into another one – which also died.
Doggedly, he repeated this grim process for over 20
generations and the same thing happened every time.
Koch had unequivocally shown that Bacillus
anthracis caused anthrax. This experiment, and those
of contemporaries like Louis Pasteur, confirmed that
many diseases are caused by microscopic organisms.
Microbes, which had been largely neglected for a
couple of centuries, were quickly cast as avatars of
death. They were germs, pathogens, bringers of
pestilence. Within two decades of Koch’s work on
anthrax, he and many others had discovered that
bacteria were also associated with leprosy,
gonorrhoea, typhoid, tuberculosis, cholera,
diphtheria, tetanus, and plague. Microbes became
synonymous with squalor and sickness. They became
foes for us to annihilate and repel. Today, we know
this view is wrong – as I explain in my new book I
Contain Multitudes. Sure, some bacteria can cause
disease, but they are in the minority. Most are
harmless, and many are even beneficial. We now
know that the trillions of microbes that share our
bodies – the so-called microbiome – are an essential
part of our lives. Far from making us sick, they can
protect us from disease; they also help digest our
food, train our immune system, and perhaps even
influence our behaviour. These discoveries have
shifted the narrative. Many people now see microbes
as allies to be protected. Magazines regularly warn
that antibiotics and sanitisers might be harming our
health by destroying our microscopic support system.
Slowly, the view that ‘all bacteria must be killed’ is
giving ground to ‘bacteria are our friends and want to
help us’.
[12]
 The problem is that the latter view is just as wrong as
the former. We cannot simply assume that a
particular microbe is ‘good’ just because it lives
inside us. There’s really no such thing as a ‘good
microbe’ or a ‘bad microbe’. These broad-brush
terms belong in children’s stories. They are ill-suited
for describing the messy, fractious, contextual
relationships of the natural world. In reality, bacteria
exist along a continuum of lifestyles. If they do us
harm, we describe them as parasites or pathogens. If
they exist neutrally, we call them commensals. If they
benefit us, we bill them as mutualists. But these are
hardly fixed categories. Some microbes can slide
from one end of this parasite-mutualist spectrum to
the other, depending on the strain and on the host they
find themselves in. For example, the Wolbachia
bacteria infect some 40 percent of insects; in some
species, these microbes are sexual parasites that kill
or manipulate males, whereas in others, they behave
as living dietary supplements that provide vitamins
missing from the host’s diet.
16. Which of the following best summarizes the main
idea of the passage?
(A) Microbes were initially viewed as agents of
disease and destruction, but recent discoveries
have revealed their essential role in human
health and well-being.
(B) Robert Koch's experiments in the 1870s
revolutionized the understanding of bacteria and
their relationship to diseases.
(C) The view that all bacteria must be eradicated is
gradually being replaced by the recognition of
their beneficial functions in the human
microbiome.
(D) The categorization of bacteria as "good" or
"bad" is overly simplistic and fails to capture the
complex and variable nature of their interactions
with hosts.
17. Which of the following assumptions is made in the
passage?
(A) The study of bacteria in the 19th century was
largely responsible for the initial negative
perception of microbes as harmful entities.
(B) The discovery of the human microbiome has
completely overturned the understanding of
microbes as disease-causing agents.
(C) The categorization of bacteria as parasites,
commensals, or mutualists is a valid and
accurate representation of their interactions with
hosts.
(D) The recognition of the beneficial role of
microbes in human health has led to a complete
disregard for the potential harm caused by
certain bacteria.
18. Based on the information in the passage, which of the
following can be inferred?
(A) The majority of bacteria found in the human
body are harmful and can cause diseases.
(B) The perception of bacteria as exclusively
harmful has remained unchanged since Robert
Koch's experiments in the 1870s.
(C) The variability in the behavior of bacteria
suggests that their impact on the host is
influenced by factors such as strain and host
species.
(D) The discovery of the human microbiome has led
to the development of effective treatments for
diseases caused by harmful bacteria.
19. Which of the following statements, if true, would
strengthen the argument presented in the passage?
(A) Recent research has demonstrated that the
elimination of certain strains of bacteria from the
human microbiome can lead to an increased risk
of autoimmune diseases.
(B) Scientists have identified a specific strain of
bacteria that is universally beneficial to all
human hosts.
(C) The use of antibiotics has significantly reduced
the prevalence of harmful bacteria in human
populations.
(D) Bacterial infections are responsible for the
majority of deaths worldwide, highlighting the
urgent need for eradication strategies.
20. Which of the following statements can be concluded
based on the information in the passage?
(A) The discovery of the human microbiome has
completely transformed the understanding of
bacteria and their interactions with hosts.
(B) Bacteria that are beneficial in one host species
will always exhibit the same beneficial behavior
in other host species.
(C) The categorization of bacteria as parasites,
commensals, or mutualists is a flawed
oversimplification of their complex nature.
(D) The negative perception of bacteria as harmful
entities has remained unchanged since the 19th
century.
[13]
PASSAGE V
Prejudice is a serious problem in society that can have
detrimental effects on individuals and the broader
community. It often stems from a lack of personal
experience with individuals from a particular social
group, combined with media portrayals and the
beliefs of family and peers. Prejudice can manifest in
negative attitudes towards groups based on race, sex,
gender identity, disability, obesity, and other
dimensions.
Prejudice can appear in various contexts, such as
workplaces, schools, and shops, and can be severely
damaging when it carries over into consequential
situations like employment and healthcare access.
Studies have shown that systemic discrimination
affects Black people, women, and people with
disabilities more than others, leading to poverty and
other negative outcomes. Furthermore, experiencing
prejudice can have serious mental health costs,
including anxiety, depression, and PTSD. This, in
turn, can lead to absenteeism and decreased
productivity.
Fortunately, there are interventions that have been
proven to reduce prejudice, including cognitive
retraining and perspective-taking. Cognitive
retraining involves exposing people to counter-
stereotypical information to challenge their biases,
while perspective-taking fosters empathy by
encouraging people to consider the experiences of
members of other social groups. These interventions
have been tested in various settings, including
primary and secondary schools, as well as doctors'
offices, with positive results.
Contact theory, which involves encouraging and
facilitating contact between people from different
social groups, has been a popular approach to
reducing prejudice, but emerging findings suggest
that it may not be the most effective method. The
quality and nature of the contact matter, and forced or
insincere contact may actually reinforce existing
prejudices. Instead, interventions like cognitive
retraining and perspective-taking may be more
effective in reducing prejudice.
In conclusion, prejudice is a complex issue with far-
reaching implications for individuals and society as a
whole. While prejudice-reduction interventions such
as cognitive retraining and perspective-taking have
shown promising results, more work needs to be done
to fully understand the best ways to combat prejudice
effectively. This includes ongoing research into the
causes and consequences of prejudice, as well as the
development and testing of innovative intervention
strategies.
It is also important to recognize that reducing
prejudice is not a one-time fix, but an ongoing
process that requires sustained effort and
commitment.
Ultimately, reducing prejudice requires a collective
effort from individuals, organizations, and
communities. By working together to challenge bias
and foster empathy, we can create a more equitable
and inclusive society where everyone has the
opportunity to thrive. It is our responsibility to
actively address prejudice and discrimination in all its
forms and to build a better world for ourselves and
future generations.
21. According to the passage, what is the potential harm
of prejudice?
(A) It can lead to anxiety, depression, and other
psychological disorders
(B) It can cause absenteeism and decreased
productivity
(C) It can lead to poverty and lack of access to
healthcare.
(D) It can reinforce existing prejudices in society.
22. The passage suggests that cognitive retraining can be
an effective intervention for reducing prejudice. What
is the assumption underlying this suggestion?
(A) People can be persuaded to change their biases
through exposure to counter-stereotypical
information
(B) The prevalence of prejudice in society is too
great to overcome
(C) Prejudice is primarily caused by a lack of
personal experience with other social groups
(D) The negative effects of prejudice can be reversed
through psychological interventions
23. The passage suggests that contact theory may not be
the most effective way to reduce prejudice. Which of
the following, if true, would strengthen this
suggestion?
(A) Contact that is perceived as forced or insincere
may actually reinforce existing prejudices
(B) The quality and nature of the contact between
people from different social groups matters as
well
(C) Studies have shown that contact between people
from different social groups can reduce
prejudice
(D) Contact theory has been a popular approach to
tackling prejudice in society
[14]
24. Which of the following can be inferred from the
passage about the mental health costs of prejudice?
(A) Prejudice can lead to absenteeism, which in turn
can lead to decreased productivity
(B) Prejudice can lead to anxiety, depression, and
other psychological disorders
(C) Prejudice primarily affects people who
experience poverty and lack of access to
healthcare
(D) Prejudice can be severely detrimental to
individuals and broader society
25. Based on the passage, which of the following is a
potential limitation of perspective-taking as an
intervention for reducing prejudice?
(A) Perspective-taking can foster empathy and
reduce prejudice
(B) Perspective-taking involves encouraging people
to consider the experiences and perspectives of
members of other social groups
(C) Perspective-taking may not be effective for
people who already hold deeply ingrained biases
(D) Perspective-taking has been proven to work in
the real world, including and beyond contact
[15]
 Current Affairs, including General Knowledge
PASSAGE I Cherpulassery mural remains a class apart in both
The Wall of Peace, a great work of modern mural art magnitude and subject.
on the 700-feet long compound wall of the
Government Vocational Higher Secondary School at 1. Which of the following is not true about Mural
Cherpulassery, was inaugurated on Monday. Paintings?
Minister for Local Administration M.B. Rajesh (A) It is made on the walls of caves and palaces.
dedicated the wall to the nation more than three and
(B) True fresco paintings are created when the
a half years after it was completed by Banaras Hindu
surface of the wall is dry, allowing the colors to
University’s assistant professor (X) and his students.
The mural, in dimmed golden shade done with penetrate deeply.
cement and sand on the 10-ft-high wall, has already (C) The earliest evidence of murals can be found on
won many an accolade, including the Eurasia World the walls of Ajanta and the Bagh caves.
Record for the largest public art project. No one can (D) It captures a moment in time by showcasing the
pass this century-old school wall without noticing activities of a particular civilization's
his work of art. He converted the idea of the Wall of inhabitants.
Peace that had dawned upon him over a decade ago
2. Which of the following will replace (X) in the
when the school authorities approached him for his
following passage?
creative contribution. The word ‘peace’ has been
embossed on the wall in 250 world languages. Art (A) Antim Pareta
lovers from countries like Austria, Israel, Hungary, (B) Srinivasa Babu Angara
and the U.S. who visited Cherpulassery and (C) Suresh K. Nair
neighbouring villages stood in awe in front of the (D) Geetika Singh
wall as they read ‘peace’ in their respective
languages. Apart from the word ‘peace’, He used the 3. Only two examples of cave paintings from the Gupta
struggle for freedom as the key motif of his biggest
era in ancient India are now known. Ajanta cave
mural done under the banner of the school
paintings are one of these. Where is the other
development committee named School Project
Aiming Centre of Excellence (SPACE). “It is meant surviving example of Gupta paintings?
to promote freedom and peace among the peace,” he (A) Nasik caves
said, sitting beneath one of the 29 giant banyan trees (B) Ellora caves
that formed a majestic canopy over the wall. He (C) Bagh caves
portrayed the moon at the start and the sun at the end (D) Lomas Rishi caves
symbolically showing humanity’s transition from
darkness to light, and from bondage to freedom and
4. The “Bhimbetka rock shelters” in Madhya Pradesh
peace. The wall has also been a tribute to
Cherpulassery’s local heroes of freedom struggle. are renowned for their prehistoric rock paintings.
“As a student, I was influenced by the book Khilafat Which period do these paintings primarily belong
Smaranakal penned by freedom fighter to?
Moozhikkunnathu Brahmadathan Namboodiripad. It (A) Palaeolithic period
describes the cruel treatment meted out to him by the (B) Neolithic period
British, who tied him to a horse and dragged him to (C) Mesolithic period
prison. I could give life to those disturbing images
(D) Chalcolithic period
on the wall along with several others,” said Mr
Suresh. Cherpulassery’s traditional cultural
activities like Kaalavela, and Karalmanna’s famous 5. Who is the current Minister of Tourism & Culture?
Pandibhojanam too have found a place on the wall. (A) Parshottam Rupala
Mahatma Gandhi’s visit to the region is also on the (B) Piyush Goyal
Wall of Peace. The Wall of Peace dwarfed another (C) G. Kishan Reddy
spectacular mural Mr Suresh did at India-Pakistan (A) Meenakshi Lekhi
Wagah Border back in 2014. The 200-feet long
cement mural at Wagah is about Partition. But the

[16]
PASSAGE II 6. Which of the following statements is/are correct as
Cricketer Rishabh Pant’s accident near Roorkee, per the report?
resulting in some injuries, has once again drawn 1. Driving under the influence of drugs/alcohol
attention to the problem of road safety in India. Nitin contributed to 1.9% of deaths from accidents.
Gadkari, Minister of Road Transport and Highways,
2. Nearly 90% of deaths on the road were due to
Government of India, recently said that the Indian
speeding, overtaking, and dangerous driving.
road accident scenario, with 415 deaths and many
injured every day, is more serious than Covid-19. (A) Only 1
This is a frank admission that even with (B) Only 2
comprehensive road safety programmes, India’s (C) Both 1 and 2
record shows little signs of improvement. Why is (D) Neither 1 and 2
this so? Before examining this and looking at some
possible solutions, here’s an anecdote. An Indian 7. A three-member panel was set up in April 2014 on
family travelling in Switzerland asked the driver of
road safety. Who headed the panel?
their minibus to stop by the road so that their young
(A) TV Raveendran
daughter could relieve herself. Although they were
on a local highway in a suburban area with negligible (B) KS Radhakrishnan
traffic, the driver refused to stop, saying: “I can’t (C) K Kasturiranagan
stop here. A traffic judge would ask, what’s more (D) Ranjana Desai
important, someone wetting the seat or the safety of
those on the road? We need to wait till we reach a 8. Which of the following measures plays a crucial role
public convenience.” The family continued pestering in significantly reducing road accidents in India?
him, “It will not take more than a minute…” In India,
(A) Raising awareness through public campaigns
we seem to be hundreds of years away from the
and advertisements
mindset of that minibus driver, as seen in the rising
number of road crashes. Looking at the gross (B) Increasing penalties for traffic violations
violations of the traffic norms and values in (C) Implementing automated speed detection
important cities and upcoming towns in the country systems
one can infer that road safety is nobody’s baby: It is (D) Developing a robust emergency response
an orphan, desperately waiting for adoption. Deadly system
violations of lane driving, speed limits, and traffic
signals, instances of at-will parking on the fast-
9. “Hit and Run motor accident” is defined under which
developing modern, smooth highways — all these go
mostly unchecked and unquestioned. The causes of section of Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?
road crashes, such as the ones above, are well (A) Section 160
known. Human error on the roads is admittedly the (B) Section 161(1)(b)
single largest factor responsible. How are we so (C) Section 164
helpless against this man-made menace, while a (D) Section 159
pandemic caused by a virus is being speedily tamed?
The enforcement of traffic norms is the key to road
safety. This is not to simplify the complex nature of
10. Which of the following statements is/are true about
the problem at hand. All ongoing programmes
towards enhancing safe road conditions and vehicles NCRB?
have to go on. However, the priority goal and the 1. It was set up in 1995 to function as a repository
global mandate is to significantly reduce the rising of information on crime and criminals.
number of road crashes. The central and state 2. Ramphal Pawar is the current Director of the
governments run complex road safety programmes National Crime Record Bureau.
with their scarce resources, with little success. The 3. It works under the Ministry of Law and Justice.
World Bank has chipped in with a $250 million loan
(A) 1 and 2
to India to tackle the high rate of road crashes
(B) 1 and 3
through road-safety institutional reforms and results-
based interventions. (C) 2 and 3
(D) None of the above

[17]
PASSAGE III
For the second time in a decade, the U.N.-recognised
Global Alliance of National Human Rights
Institutions (GANHRI) deferred the accreditation of
National Human Rights Commission, India (NHRC-
India) citing objections like political interference in
appointments, involving the police in probes into
human rights violations, and poor cooperation with
civil society. As reported, the GANHRI’s letter to
the NHRC also cited lack of diversity in staff and
leadership, and insufficient action to protect
marginalised groups, as reasons for the deferment of
the accreditation. This came two months after seven
human rights watchers/institutions wrote to
GANHRI objecting to NHRC India’s ‘A’ rank. They
also raised concerns regarding the commission’s
lack of independence, pluralism, diversity and
accountability that are contrary to the U.N.’s
principles on the status of national institutions . “The
NHRC has repeatedly failed to deliver its mandate,
in particular to protect the rights of people from
marginalized communities, religious minorities, and
human rights defenders,” the letter said. The United
Nations’ Paris Principles, adopted by the U.N.
General Assembly, provide the international
benchmarks against which National Human Rights
Institutions (NHRI) can be accredited.
The Paris Principles set out six main criteria that
NHRIs are required to meet. The letter, written by
Amnesty International, CSW, Front Line Defenders,
Human Rights Watch International Commission of
Jurists, International Federation for Human Rights
(FIDH), and the World Organisation Against Torture
(OMCT) to GANHRI, maintained that since 2017,
instead of following through on the assurances that
the NHRC has given to the GANHRI, the
functioning of the commission has further regressed,
undermining its independence and adherence to the
Paris Principles. Responding to The Hindu, the
NHRC-India said that the GANHRI, through the
Sub-Committee on Accreditation (SCA) is
responsible for reviewing and accrediting NHRIs in
compliance with the Paris Principles every five
years. As part of this process, the review of the
NHRC-India was due in March 2023 for its
reaccreditation, which has been deferred for a year,
meaning thereby no final decision has been taken as
yet. The NHRC said that the deferment is an action
of the SCA and not a recommendation on the
accreditation status of the NHRC-India. It added that
throughout the deferred period, India’s top human
right’s body added that the process of reaccreditation
has not concluded and the SCA has recommended
advocating with the government and
Parliamentarians for certain legislative amendments
to improve compliance with the Paris Principles.
11. What are the Paris Principles?
(A) International benchmarks against which NHRIs
can be accredited
(B) A set of guidelines for conducting
investigations into human rights violations
(C) A UN resolution on the protection of human
rights defenders
(D) A list of criteria for selecting members of
national human rights commissions
12. Why did the GANHRI defer the accreditation of the
NHRC?
(A) Lack of diversity in staff and leadership
(B) Insufficient action to protect marginalized
groups
(C) Involving the police in probes into human rights
violations
(D) All of the above
13. What are the six main criteria that NHRIs are
required to meet under the Paris Principles?
(A) Mandate and competence
(B) Autonomy from government
(C) Independence guaranteed by a statute or
Constitution
(D) All of the above
14. What is ‘A’ status?
(A) The highest rating given by the GANHRI to
NHRIs that follow the Paris Principles
(B) A category of human rights violations
recognized by the UN
(C) A level of accreditation for international NGOs
working on human rights issues
(D) A classification for countries that have achieved
significant progress in protecting human rights
15. What are the Paris Principles?
(A) International benchmarks against which NHRIs
can be accredited
(B) A set of guidelines for conducting
investigations into human rights violations
(C) A UN resolution on the protection of human
rights defenders
(D) A list of criteria for selecting members of
national human rights commissions
[18]
PASSAGE IV
The need for additional capacity of 16,900 MW has
been cited in the report of the Central Electricity
Authority (CEA) called Optimal Generation
Capacity Mix, which was released recently. In fact,
there are two versions of this report. The first was
published in January 2020 and the second in April
2023. So what’s the catch? How are we to meet our
demand in 2029-30 if no new coal-based plants are
allowed? This writer’s surmise is that the
government probably feels that the additional
capacity of about 16,000 MW of coal-based capacity
may ultimately not be required, primarily for two
reasons. The first reason is the demand for power in
2029-30 in the second report is based on the 20th
Electric Power Survey (EPS) whereas the first report
looked at the estimates of the 19th EPS. The demand
for power in 2029-30 in the 20th EPS is somewhat
more conservative. This is understandable since the
estimates get closer to reality once we approach the
terminal date.
In the second version of the CEA report, the required
capacity for coal-based stations in 2029-30 has come
down from 267 GW to 251 GW. This decrease is on
account of the reasons mentioned above and also
because of a major change in policy relating to the
retirement of units after they complete 25 years. This
version mentions that about 2,121 MW of coal-based
capacity would be retired by 2030 whereas the
earlier version of this report stated that about 25,000
MW of coal-based capacity would be retired by
2030. The government probably feels it would be a
good idea to carry on with old plants even after they
have completed 25 years of operation. Carrying on
with generating units that are more than 25 years old
is not a bad idea since the station heat rate of well-
maintained plants does not get adversely affected
with age. The advantages of carrying on with old
plants are that the transmission links are already
there and that the coal linkages are maintained.
However, such plants should sell their power in
exchange instead of signing fresh PPAs.
16. What is the main reason for India's decision to stop
building new coal-fired power plants?
(A) To improve air quality and public health
(B) To reduce India's dependence on coal imports
(C) To align with global trend of phasing out coal
(D) To increase the cost of electricity generation
17. What is India's proposed renewable energy capacity
target by 2030?
(A) 500 MW (B) 500 GW
(C) 500 KW (D) 500 TW
18. What percentage of total electricity generated in
India comes from coal?
(A) 40% (B) 50%
(C) 60% (D) 70%
19. What is the main disadvantage of continuing to
operate generating units that are more than 25 years
old?
(A) They are more expensive than renewable
energy options
(B) They adversely affect the station heat rate of
plants
(C) They require large quantities of water for
cooling and other processes
(D) They do not have existing transmission links or
coal linkages
20. What is the main advantage of diversifying India's
energy sources?
(A) Reducing pollution from coal combustion
(B) Increasing the cost of electricity generation
(C) Reducing India's dependence on coal imports
(D) Enhancing grid reliability and resilience
PASSAGE V
NTPC signed a supplementary joint venture
agreement with the Nuclear Power Corporation of
India on Monday to develop nuclear electricity
generation projects.
The joint venture will initially develop two
pressurized heavy-water reactor projects - 1,400
MW Chutka in Madhya Pradesh and 2,800 MW
Mahi Banswara in Rajasthan. The largest power
generator in India aspires to become a 130-GW
company by 2032 of which 2,000 MW will be from
nuclear sources. However, the entire capacity of the
two projects may come online by 2035, the company
had earlier said. "We are confident that out of the
Chutka and Mahi Banswara, we will be definitely
completing 2,000 MW," it had said. Currently,
NTPC has a total installed power generation capacity
of 71.644 GW, of which 3.01 GW is renewable
energy.
21. Which of the following is a joint venture project with
Russia?
(A) Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant
(B) Farakka Super Thermal Power Plant
(C) Bongaigaon Thermal Power Station
(D) Meja Thermal Power Project
[19]
22. Which government body is responsible for the safety
regulation of NPCIL's nuclear power plants?
(A) NPCIL Safety Committee
(B) Indian Nuclear Regulatory Commission
(C) Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB)
(D) Nuclear Power Plant Safety Authority
23. National thermal power corporation comes under
which ministry?
(A) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
(B) Department of Atomic Energy
(C) Ministry of Coal
(D) Ministry of Power
24. Which of the following is not a Central Public Sector
Undertaking (PSU) in India?
(A) NTPC Limited
(B) Air India
(C) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited
(D) Hindustan Copper Ltd.
25. Who is The Union Minister of State for Atomic
Energy and Space in India?
(A) Ajay Kumar Mishra
(B) Jintendra Singh
(C) V. Muraleedharan
(D) Arjun Ram Meghwal
PASSAGE VI
The Supreme Court in a historic judgement
effectively put on hold the colonial-era penal
provision, until the Union government reviews it.
The legislative process of reviewing the 153-year-
old colonial law on sedition in India is in the “final
stages”, the Union government on Monday informed
the Supreme Court, adding “the government is keen
on pushing reforms” and that something may be in
works as early as the coming monsoon session of
Parliament.
Appearing before a bench headed by Chief Justice of
India (CJI) Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, attorney
general R Venkataramani submitted that the
government has set up a committee to review Section
124A of the Indian Penal Code and that the
deliberation with the stakeholders was on.
“After the order of this court on May 11, 2022, the
process of re-examination has been set in motion.
The consultation among all the stakeholders is in the
final stages. After that, it will go to Parliament. But
before it goes to Parliament, it will be shown to me.
The government is keen on pushing reforms,”
Venkataramani told the bench, which also comprised
justice JB Pardiwala.
The operation of Section 124A in the IPC — a non-
bailable offence punishable with jail term ranging
from three years to life, and one that activists and
jurists have alleged is often misused to muzzle
dissent, is currently on hold due to a continuing
interim order of the top court passed on May 11,
2022.
On Monday, the AG’s submissions came as the court
mulled whether it should consider a larger bench for
determination of the validity of the sedition law since
a five-judge bench had in 1962 upheld the legality of
Section 124A.
Venkataramani, on his part, suggested that the court
should defer its decision on the strength of an
appropriate bench to hear the bundle of petitions that
have challenged the validity of the sedition law in the
wake of the ongoing exercise by the government.
(WITH EDITS and revisions the telegraph)
26. Which of the following is the section is related to
sedition?
(A) 124 A (B) 127 A
(C) 129 A (D) 144 A
27. The sedition law in the IPC has originally been
drafted by whom?
(A) Lord Canning
(B) Lord Curzon
(C) Thomas Macaulay
(D) Vincent Chase Sedict
28. What was the first case to be tried under the law of
sedition in India?
(A) Queen-Empress v Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Queen-Empress v Jogendra Chunder Bose
(C) Queen-Empress v Mahatma Gandhi
(D) None of the above
29. What was the first country to implement sedition
law?
(A) Britain
(B) United states of america
(C) India
(D) France
30. In which case the supreme court held that “criticism
of the government exciting disaffection or bad
feelings towards it, is not to be regarded as a
justifying ground for restricting the freedom of
expression and of the press, unless it is such as to
undermine the security of or tend to overthrow the
state.”?
(A) Tara Singh Gopi Chand v. The State (1951)
(B) Kedarnath Singh v State of Bihar
(C) Romesh Thapar v State of Madras
(D) Ram Nandan v. State of Uttar Pradesh
[20]
 Legal Reasoning
PASSAGE I
In Ancient times, the concept of divorce was not
known to anyone. They considered marriage as a
sacred concept. According to Manu, the husband and
wife cannot be separated from each other, their
martial tie cannot be broken. Later the concept of
divorce came in the picture and established as a
custom to put the marriage to an end.
According to the Arthashastra, marriage can end if
dissolved by mutual consent and should be
unapproved marriage. But Manu does not believe in
the concept of the dissolution. According to Manu
the only way to end the marriage is the death of one
of the spouses.
The provision related to the concept of divorce was
introduced by the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. The
Hindu Marriage Act defines divorce as a dissolution
of the marriage. For the interest of the society, the
marriage or the marital relationship needs to be
surrounded by every safeguard for the cause
specified by law. Divorce is permitted only for a
grave reason otherwise given other alternative.
The Hindu Marriage Act is based on the fault theory
in which any one of the aggrieved spouses (Section
13(1)) can approach the court of law and seek the
remedy of divorce. Section 13(2) provides the
grounds on which only the wife can approach the
court of law and seek the remedy of divorce Grounds
for divorce-
Adultery
The concept of Adultery may not be considered as
an offence in many countries. But as per the Hindu
Marriage Act, in the matrimonial offence, the
adultery is considered as one of the most important
ground for seeking divorce. Adultery means the
consensual and voluntary intercourse between a
married person with another person, married or
unmarried, of the opposite sex. Even the intercourse
between the husband and his second wife i.e. if their
marriage is considered under bigamy, the person is
liable for the Adultery.
The concept of Adultery was inserted under the
Hindu Marriage Act by the Marriage Laws
Amendment Act, 1976.
Essentials of Adultery
One of the spouses involved in the intercourse with
another person, married or unmarried, of the
opposite sex.
Intercourse should be voluntary and consensual.
At the time of the act, the marriage was subsisting.
There must be sufficient circumstantial evidence to
prove the liability of another spouse.
Cruelty
The concept of cruelty includes mental as well as
physical cruelty. The physical cruelty means when
one spouse beats or causes any bodily injury to the
other spouse. But the concept of mental cruelty was
added as the spouse can also be mentally tortured by
the other spouse. Mental Cruelty is lack of kindness
which adversely affects the health of the person.
Well it is easy to determine the nature of physical
cruelty but difficult to say about mental cruelty
Desertion
Desertion means the permanent abandonment of one
spouse by the other spouse without any reasonable
justification and without his consent. In General, the
rejection of the obligations of marriage by one party.
1. Dhinchan and Paro met at a Moot court competition
at NALSAR and fell in love and decided to get
married against the wishes of their family. after 5
years their marriage turned sour, paro suspects the
Dhinchan has an extra maritial affair with his male
coworker suresh. one day she finds them in
objectional position . she decides to file for divorce
on the ground of adultery. Is she likely to succeed?
(A) Yes, since Dinchan is cheating on her with
suresh while marriage was subsisting and
adultery is considered as one of the most
important ground for seeking divorce
(B) Yes, since adultery is considered as one of the
most important ground for seeking divorce.
Adultery means the consensual and voluntary
intercourse between a married person with
another person
(C) No, since there is no proof that the intercourse
for consensual and Adultery means the
consensual and voluntary intercourse between a
married person with another person
(D) No, since suresh is a Man and the intercoure
should be between person of opposite sex
[21]
2. Paul and Meagan have been married for four and a
half year. one day a plumber comes to their house to
fix a leaking pipe While working, the plumber and
Meagan strike up a friendly conversation and
mutually decide to engage in sexual activities. paul
discovers about this and files for divorce of the
grounds of adutery and he has a substantial proof. Is
he likely to succeed?
(A) No, since there is no proof that the intercourse
for consensual and Adultery means the
consensual and voluntary intercourse between a
married person with another person. plumber
might have forced her
(B) Yes, since adultery is considered as one of the
most important ground for seeking divorce.
Adultery means the consensual and voluntary
intercourse between a married person with
another person
(C) Yes, since at that time marriage was subsisting,
Maegan had intercourse with the opposite sex
and adultery is considered as one of the most
important grounds for seeking divorce
(D) No, since Paul is a Man and a Man can't file for
divore under Hindu marriage act,1955
3. Pramanita and lafik married each other 10 years ago.
after 7 years lafik realized that he can't live with
pramanita because he believed that she is unlucky for
him and decided to live separately without taking her
permission. can pramanita get divorce on grounds of
desertion?
(A) Yes, since lafik left her without any reasonable
justification and without her consen
(B) No, since lafik left her with reasonable
justification and without her consent
(C) No, since lafik left her with reasonable
justification and with her consent
(D) Yes, since lafik just went for a vacation and had
not abandoned her
4. Reshma and Suresh have been married for 15 years.
Recently, Suresh lost his job due to pora-19
pandemic and stopped giving her luxury gifts. She
feels neglected by Suresh so she starts having
intercourse with Rohit who gives her many luxury
gifts. Meanwhile Suresh also starts having Extra
Marital affairs with Priya, Sister of Rohit. Hamina,
wife of Rohit files for divorce on grounds of
adultery. Which among the following arguments can
make her case strong?
(A) Intercourse between Rohit and Reshma are
consensual
(B) At the time of the act, the marriage was
subsisting
(C) Suresh has Extra marital affairs with Priya
(D) both A and B
5. Pranil is owner of a multibillion dollar company in
India. he is a workoholic person he works day and
night his only goal is to become the richest person in
India but he also enjoys beating his assistant in free
time. one day he beats her with an iron rod and
sexually abuses her. his wife founds out about this
and decides to file for divorce on grounds of cruelty
as he might do same things with her. Is she likely to
succeed?
(A) No, since abusive behavior towards the assistant
does not directly prove that he will do same with
his wife
(B) Yes, since physical and sexual abuse towards
the assistant demonstrates a pattern of cruelty,
he might do same kind of abuse with her
(C) It depends on the available evidence and the
discretion of the court to determine if the wife's
concerns about potential abuse are justified and
if they warrant granting a divorce on grounds of
cruelty
(D) No, since abusive behavior towards the assistant
does not directly prove that he will do same with
his wife and cruelty means when one spouse
beats or causes any bodily injury to the other
spouse which is not the case here
PASSAGE II
Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution grants
every citizen the right to free speech and expression.
This right encompasses both the dissemination and
receipt of information, as being adequately informed
is essential for forming informed opinions.
Therefore, the right to seek and acquire information
is an integral aspect of the fundamental right
protected by Article 19(1)(a). The Right to
Information (RTI) Act of 2005 aims to achieve
several objectives:
Establishing a practical framework: The RTI Act
provides a framework that enables citizens to access
information held by public authorities.
Promoting transparency and accountability: The Act
aims to enhance transparency and accountability in
the functioning of government bodies and related
entities.
Establishing Information Commissions: The Act
provides for the creation of Information
Commissions at both the state and national levels.
These commissions are responsible for executing the
functions and exercising the powers outlined in the
Act.
Developing an informed citizenry: By granting
access to information, the Act seeks to foster an
[22]
 informed citizenry capable of participating in
democratic processes.
Combating corruption: The Act aims to curb
corruption by facilitating access to information and
promoting accountability within public authorities.
Balancing conflicting interests: The Act delineates
exemptions to the disclosure of information in cases
where such disclosure may conflict with other public
interests. It seeks to harmonize these conflicting
interests while upholding the paramountcy of
democratic ideals.
Section 4(1) of the Act imposes specific obligations
on public authorities, including the maintenance of
records. Public authorities are required to organize
and index their records and, where feasible,
computerize them for ease of access. They must also
publish certain particulars within 120 days of the
Act's enactment.
Section 4(2) mandates that public authorities
proactively provide information to the public
through various means of communication at regular
intervals.
Sections 4(3) and 4(4) focus on the dissemination of
information. Section 4(3) emphasizes the wide
dissemination of information in an easily accessible
manner for the public. Section 4(4) outlines factors
to consider during information dissemination, such
as cost-effectiveness, using the local language, and
selecting the most effective communication method
for a particular area.
Section 5 of the Act pertains to the designation of
Public Information Officers (PIOs). Public
authorities must appoint Central and State PIOs
within 100 days of the Act's enactment. These
officers have the responsibility to provide
information requested under the Act. Additionally,
Section 5(2) calls for the designation of Assistant
PIOs at lower administrative levels to receive
applications and appeals and forward them to the
appropriate authorities.
In summary, the RTI Act of 2005 was enacted to
ensure access to information, promote transparency
and accountability, combat corruption, and foster an
informed citizenry.
6. A citizen filed an application seeking information
about the utilization of public funds by a government
department. The Public Information Officer (PIO)
denied the request, stating that it would adversely
affect the economic interests of the country. Was the
PIO's decision justified under the RTI Act?
(A) Yes, because disclosure of such information
could harm the economic interests of the
country.
(B) Yes, because economic interests take
precedence over the right to information.
(C) No, because the citizen has the right to access
information about the utilization of public
funds.
(D) No, because the PIO is obligated to disclose
information unless it falls within the specified
exemptions.
7. A public authority receives an application seeking
information about an ongoing investigation. The
authority denies the request, claiming that it could
impede the investigation process. Is the denial
justified under the RTI Act?
(A) Yes, because the disclosure of information
about ongoing investigations can hinder the
investigative process.
(B) Yes, because protecting the integrity of ongoing
investigations is of higher importance than the
right to information.
(C) No, because citizens have the right to access
information unless it falls within the specified
exemptions.
(D) No, because the RTI Act does not provide
exemptions for ongoing investigations.
8. A public authority failed to publish certain
particulars within the prescribed timeframe of 120
days. Can a citizen file a complaint against the
authority under the RTI Act?
(A) Yes, because the public authority has a legal
obligation to publish the particulars within the
specified timeframe.
(B) Yes, because the citizen has the right to hold the
public authority accountable for non-
compliance with the RTI Act.
(C) No, because the RTI Act does not provide for
complaints against public authorities.
(D) No, because the prescribed timeframe of 120
days is not mandatory but only a suggested
guideline.
9. A citizen submits an application seeking information
from a public authority but does not receive a
response within the specified timeframe. Can the
citizen file an appeal under the RTI Act?
(A) Yes, because the citizen has the right to appeal
if the public authority fails to respond within the
specified timeframe.
(B) Yes, because the citizen has the right to access
information and seek remedies for non-
compliance with the Act.
(C) No, because the RTI Act does not provide for
the right to appeal in case of non-response from
public authorities.
[23]
 (D) No, because the specified timeframe for
response is not legally binding and only serves
as a guideline.
10. A public authority receives a request for information
but refuses to provide it, citing the lack of resources
to disseminate the information effectively. Is the
public authority's refusal justified under the RTI
Act?
(A) Yes, because the public authority is not obliged
to disseminate information if it lacks the
necessary resources.
(B) es, because the cost-effectiveness and
effectiveness of information dissemination
methods are important considerations.
(C) No, because the RTI Act mandates public
authorities to disseminate information in an
easily accessible manner.
(D) No, because the public authority must allocate
resources to ensure effective information
dissemination.
PASSAGE III
Sexual offences as we all know are basically the
offences related to physically harm the private or the
sexual parts of a woman. These offences include
offences like rape, child abuse, gang rape, sexual
harassment etc.
the definition of the term “Rape” under Section 375
of IPC is defined as “A man is said to commit a rape
if he penetrates his anus into any extent into the
vagina, mouth, urethra or anus of a woman or inserts
any object, to any extent, or any part of a body other
than the anus into the vagina, urethra and anus of a
woman or applies his mouth into the vagina, urethra
or anus of a woman or makes her to do so with him
or any other person”.
definition is further subjected to the several
circumstances like if the act is done against her will
or without her consent or if the consent is taken by
coercion or if the consent is obtained by fraud or if
the consent is obtained when the girl was in
intoxication or was unsound at that time or obtaining
the consent of a girl which is not able to
communicate and the most important when the act is
done with or without the consent of a girl below 18
years of age
Essential ingredients
As stated above, there are basically seven essential
ingredients to constitute a rape-
 Against her will;
 Without her consent;
 With consent obtained by putting her or any other
person in whom she is interested under fear of
death or of hurt;
 With consent given under a misconception of fact
that the man was her husband.
 Consent is given by the reason of unsoundness of
mind, or under the intoxication of any stupefying
or unwholesome substance;
 Women under the age of eighteen with or without
consent;
 When a woman is unable to communicate
consent.
Gang Rape
Section 376D of the IPC defines gang rape as the
rape committed by one person or more than one
constituting a group or acting in furtherance with the
common intention and each of those persons shall be
liable for the imprisonment for not less than twenty
years which can be extended to imprisonment for life
and they would also be liable for fine and the fine
will be reasonable to the medical expenses of the
victim and the rehabilitation of the victim. As stated
above, earlier the punishment was for imprisonment
for not less than ten years was there but was later
changed after The Criminal Law Amendment, 2013
to imprisonment not less than twenty years
11. Uttam, first year student of NALSAR is attracted to
Raji, professor of law of torts. He proposed her one
day but she refused so he decided to take revenge and
decide to rape her. At 12:10 am he enters her room
and puts himself on her and applies his mouth on her
vagina but he is stopped by vice chancellor just
before he was about to penetrate her vagina. Raji
files a case against him Under section 375 You’re the
district judge decide the case
(A) Uttam is not liable under section 375 because he
loves her and had no intention to hurt her
(B) Uttam is liable under section 375 as he applied
his mouth on her vagina which comes under
rape
(C) Uttam is not liable under section 375 as he was
not able to penetrate her vagina and penetration
is essential for rape
(D) Uttam is liable under section 376 as he applied
his mouth on her vagina which comes under
rape
12. Raja, a Professor at National law university
dholakpur is famous for his habit of excessive
drinking one day he drinks too much and goes to
Rohan’s room. Rohan is a biological male but due to
a lack of testosterone he behaves like a woman. He
was so intoxicated that he thought Raman is his wife
and puts his finger inside his anus. Raman files a case
of rape under section 375 against Raja. decide the
case
[24]
 (A) Raja is not liable under section 375 as he was
not able to penetrate his vagina and penetration
is essential for rape
(B) Raja is liable under section 375 because he
penetrated his anus which comes under rape and
Rohan behaves like a Woman
(C) Raja is not liable as he was intoxicated and
thought Rohan is his wife
(D) Raja is not liable because Rohan is not a woman
and rape can only be committed against a
women
13. Vladimir, a Russian student who is 18 years old
came to NLIU with his girlfriend Natalia who was
17 years and 11 months old on 2nd December 2022.
They both orally decided to have sex on 3rd January
2024. Vice chancellor files a case of rape against
Vladimir. You are CJM jony pins decide the case
(A) Vladimir is liable Under section 375 because He
had sex with Natalia who is 17 years old
(B) Vladimir is liable Under section 375 because He
had sex with Natalia without her written consent
(C) Vladimir is not liable as she is above the age of
18
(D) Vladimir is not liable as she is above the age of
18 and her consent is valid
14. Roman, Pinku, Dinku, third year student of PNLSIU
Hate Susmita and one day decide to rape her with
common intention. They enter her room at 5 pm and
show her their gun and ask her if they can have sex
with her, she agrees. Susmita files a case against
them under section 376. She comes to you to ask for
legal advice and asks what is the maximum
punishment they can get. What is your advice to her?
(A) Susmita should file case under section 375 and
maximum punishment is 10 years
(B) Susmita should file case Under section 376 also
her consent was not vaild as she gave her
consent under threat and maximum punishment
is 20 years
(C) Susmita should file case Under section 376 also
her consent was not vaild as she gave her
consent under threat and maximum punishment
is life Imprisonment
(D) Susmita should not file any case against them as
it was consensual case and there was no
apprehension of threat
15. Roman, Pinku, Dinku, third year student of PNLSIU
Hate Susmita and one day decide to have sex with
her. They enter her room at 5 pm and give her
precious stones and ask her if they can have sex with
her, she agrees. Susmita files a case against them
under section 376. She comes to you to ask for legal
advice and asks what is the maximum punishment
they can get. What is your advice to her?
(A) Susmita should file case under section 375 and
maximum punishmentnt they can get is 10 years
(B) Susmita should not file any case against them as
it was consensual and there was no
apprehension of threat
(C) Susmita should file case Under section 376 also
her consent was not valid as she gave her
consent under threat and maximum punishment
is life Imprisonment
(D) Susmita should file case Under section 376 also
her consent was not valid as she gave her
consent under threat and maximum punishment
is 20 years
PASSAGE IV
The Right to Freedom of Religion is guaranteed to
all Indians by the Constitution under Articles 25 to
28. This topic, which is intertwined with the concept
of secularism is very important.
Right to Freedom of Religion
The Constitution of India guarantees the right to
freedom of religion to not only individuals but also
religious groups in India. This is enshrined in
Articles 25 to 30.
Article 25 (Freedom of conscience and free
profession, practice, and propagation of religion)
Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience, the
freedom to profess, practice, and propagate religion
to all citizens.
 The above-mentioned freedoms are subject to
public order, health, and morality.
 This article also gives a provision that the State
can make laws:
 That regulates and restricts any financial,
economic, political, or other secular activity
associated with any religious practice.
 That provides for the social welfare and reform
or opening up of Hindu religious institutions of a
public character to all sections and classes of
Hindus. Under this provision, Hindus are
construed as including the people professing the
Sikh, Jain, or Buddhist religions, and Hindu
institutions shall also be construed accordingly.
 People of the Sikh faith wearing & carrying the
kirpan shall be considered as included in the
profession of the Sikh religion.
Article 26 (Freedom to manage religious affairs)
This Article provides that every religious
denomination has the following rights, subject to
morality, health, and public order.
The right to form and maintain institutions for
religious and charitable intents.
The right to manage its own affairs in the matter of
religion.
The right to acquire the immovable and movable
property.
The right to administer such property according to
the law.
[25]
 Article 27 (Freedom as to payment of taxes for
promotion of any particular religion)
According to Article 27 of the Constitution, there
can be no taxes, the proceeds of which are directly
used for the promotion and/or maintenance of any
particular religion/religious denomination.
Article 28 (Freedom as to attendance at religious
instruction or religious worship in certain
educational institutions)
This article permits educational institutions that are
maintained by religious groups to disseminate
religious instruction.
 This provides that no religious instruction shall
be provided in State-run educational institutions.
 Educational institutions administered by the State
but that were established under any endowment
or trust which requires that religious instruction
shall be imparted in such institutions are exempt
from the above clause (that no religious
instruction shall be provided).
 Any person who attends any educational
institution recognized by the State or receiving
State aid shall not be required to participate in any
religious instruction that may be imparted in such
institution, or also attend any religious worship in
such institutions unless he/she has given consent
for the same. In the case of minors, the guardians
should have given consent for the same
16. INIM is a religious organization in Madhya Pradesh
state in a country called Ifia which practices a
practice of throwing Childrens in open fire as a part
of their religious ceremony. Chief minister of
Madhya Pradesh Abhijeet Singh Passes a law
prohibiting this practice citing children rights. Many
communist organizations protest and challenge these
laws in supreme court. You’re the chief justice of
Supreme court decide the case
(A) The law is invalid as it unjustifiably infringes
upon the right to freedom of religion protected
under article 25 state should stay away from
religious matters
(B) This law is Valid as sacrificing children is an
immoral act and article 25 is subject to morality
(C) Abhijeet Singh is a fascist because he
unjustifiably infringes upon the right to freedom
of religion of INIM organization
(D) both A and C
17. INIM is a religious organization in Madhya Pradesh
state in a country called Ifia which they consume
Drugs as a part of their religious ceremony. Chief
minister of Madhya Pradesh Abhijeet Singh Passes a
law prohibiting this citing health concerns. Some 5-
year law students of Palsar University challenge this
law. You’re the counsel for the state of Madhya
Pradesh. Which among the following is the reason
you can give in court defending the decision of state
of Madhya Pradesh
(A) This law is Valid as sacrificing children is an
immoral act and article 25 is subject to
Abhijeet's morality
(B) This law is Valid as sacrificing children is an
immoral act and article 25 is subject to Public
Health
(C) This law is Valid as sacrificing children is an
immoral act and article 25 is subject to
community health
(D) All the above
18. PCN community is a minority community in cest
pengal state. Chief minister of the state hates them
and stops them from dissipating religious knowledge
in educational institutions managed by the
community. Member of the PCN community want to
file a case for violation of their constitutional rights.
You are their lawyer tell which right is violated here?
(A) religious rights under article 25 are violated
here as it permits educational institutions that
are maintained by religious groups to
disseminate religious instruction
(B) religious rights under article 26 are violated
here as it permits educational institutions that
are maintained by religious groups to
disseminate religious instruction
(C) religious rights under article 27 are violated
here as it permits educational institutions that
are maintained by religious groups to
disseminate religious instruction
(D) religious rights under article 28 are violated
here as it permits educational institutions that
are maintained by religious groups to
disseminate religious instruction
19. Pota is a minority religious community in Punjab
province of British Raj which practices drinking
blood of humans. Governer of Punjab Lord Promod
prohibits this citing Human rights. Members of the
religious community challenge the law, arguing that
it infringes upon their right to freedom of religion
under Article 25. decide the case
(A) This law is valid as religious freedoms under
article 25 are subject to some restrictions
(B) This law is valid as religious freedoms under
article 25 are subject to morality and this
practice is Immoral
[26]
 (C) This law is Invalid as religious freedoms under
article 25 are not subject to any restrictions
(D) none of the above
20. Pontie community of Madhya Pradesh wants to
purchase an immovable property but they were
stopped by a local MLA as he uses this property for
urinating. Pontie community files a case for violation
of rights. You are CJM ria Khalifa decide the case
(A) There is violation of Article 26 (Freedom to
manage religious affairs) which includes
purchase of immovable property
(B) There is violation of Article 25 (Freedom to
manage religious affairs) which includes
purchase of immovable property
(C) There is violation of Article 28 (Freedom to
manage religious affairs) which includes
purchase of immovable property
(D) Article 26 (Freedom to manage religious
affairs) which includes purchase of immovable
property is subject to reasonable restriction and
this restriction is reasonable
PASSAGE V
Marriage is a social practice through which two
people and their families unite which gives rise to
conjugal rights. The word conjugal means rights
which arise between husband and wife after
marriage. Marriage is one of the oldest sacraments in
the society.
Marriage is a universal social institution. It brings
men and women into family life. In this institution
man and woman are socially permitted to have
children. Thereby society grants. Them the rights to
sexual relation. Marriage is a socially approved way
of establishing a family of procreation
Essential element of marriage.
Monogamy
Monogamy is the marriage between one woman and
one man at a time. Monogamy is the most sacred
type of marriage in Hindu. Sec. 5(i) of Hindu
Marriage Act says that only monogamy is accepted
in Hindu religion and if spouse of any one is not dead
at the time of marriage, then that would be
considered as the offence of bigamy under Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955.
The offence of bigamy is also punishable under
section 494 of Indian Penal Code, 1860
Age to the parties:
According to Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the legal
age for male is 21 years and for the female is 18
years. If the given age is not performed by any of the
party, then it is an offence under Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955. Age is one of the most important essential
for performance of valid marriage. If anyone of the
bride or groom is below the legal age, the marriage
solemnized is void
Prohibited Degrees of Relationship:
Sec. 5(iv) of Hindu Marriage Act,1955 says that no
marriage can be solemnized falling within prohibited
degree of relationship. Those marriage which are
solemnized under this they all are void under section
11 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Prohibition of Sapinda Relationship:
Sec. 5(v) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 says that no
one can marry with their Sapinda relationship person
it is an offence under the section 11 of the act. In the
sapinda relationship third generation in the line of
ascent through the mother and fifth in the line of
ascent through the father
21. Which offense is punishable under the Indian Penal
Code in case of more than 2 marriages without
divorce?
(A) Polyandry
(B) sologamy
(C) Tologamy
(D) Bigamy
22. Jungkook, 18-year-old first year student of NLIU
wants to marry love of his life Rashi who is also 18
years old. Is their marriage valid under Hindu
marriage Act?
(A) No, they have not reached the legal age of
marriage as legal age for marriage for boys is 21
(B) Yes, they have reached the legal age of marriage
as legal age for marriage as legal age for
marriage is 18 years
(C) No, they have not reached the legal age of
marriage as legal age for marriage for girls is 21
(D) Yes, they have reached the legal age of marriage
as they love each other
23. Which among the following marriage is prohibited
under Sec. 5(v) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) a marriage with third generation in the line of
ascent through the mother
(B) a marriage with fifth in the line of ascent
through the father
(C) a marriage with third in the line of ascent
through the father
(D) both A and B
24. Depesh is in love with Suman. They want to marry
each other but don’t know what is the purpose. They
come to you to for advice. What is the purpose of
marriage according to you?
[27]
 (A) Marriage is a social practice through which two
people and their families unite which gives rise
to conjugal rights
(B) society grants Them the rights to sexual relation
(C) Marriage is a socially approved way of
establishing a family of procreation
(D) all the above
25. Nobita married Shizuka 10 years ago their marriage
turned sour and Nobita filed for divorce. While
divorce proceedings were going on he married Tia
Khalifa. Shizuka claims that it is bigamy. You are
her lawyer tell the reason to the court
(A) Sec. 5(i) of Hindu Marriage Act says that only
monogamy is accepted in Hindu religion and if
spouse of any one is not dead at the time of
marriage, then that would be considered as the
offence of bigamy
(B) Sec. 4(i) of Hindu Marriage Act says that only
Bigamy is accepted
(C) Sec. 5(i) of Hindu Marriage Act says that you
cannot divorce your wife
(D) none of the above
PASSAGE VI
The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 came into
force on the midnight between 12th and 13th
October. he RTI Act is also referred to as a Central
Legislation “to provide for setting out the particular
regime of right to information for citizens”, it
enables Indians to exercise their Fundamental Right
of Speech and Expression. Section 1(2) – It is clearly
stated here that the RTI Act extends to the whole
nation, except for the State of Jammu and Kashmir,
as it has its state-level governance.
Section 2 (f) – This section exhaustively defines the
meaning of information. It includes the fact that
information may include anything related to or
including Records, Documents, Memos, E-Mails,
Opinions, Advice, Press releases, Circulars, Orders,
Logbooks, Contracts, Reports, Papers, Samples, etc.
Section 2 (h) – Defines the meaning of public
authority as any authority or bodies under the
Constitution of India, which include all state and
central government monitored institutions as well.
The civil societies that are indirectly, or directly,
funded by the public funds are also included in.
Section 2 (j) – ‘Right to Information’, as given in this
Act, means the Right to access any information that
is under the control of any public authority. The
Section further defines what else the public has
access to through this Act.
Section 4 – Deals with the maintainability and
proactive disclosure of information. It states that the
Act requires “suo moto disclosure of information”
by every public authority. However, what this
section deals with has some-what not become
satisfactory.
Section 6 – It simply prescribes an easy procedure
for securing information through the Act.
Section 7 – This section has prescribed a time for the
PIO’s to give out the information requested by the
public. It gives a time frame of 30 days in most cases.
Section 8 – This section and all subsections that are
contained in it describe how only minimum
information may be exempted from disclosure to the
public. It described what all may be exempted in a
few cases, etc.
Section 19 – Completely described the two-tier
mechanism that exists for appeal.
Section 20 – Provides penalty fees, etc. in case there
is a delay in giving out information or the
information is distorted or wrong in any situation.
Section 23 – This states that the lower courts are
barred from entertaining any suits or applications in
this regard. However, the writ jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court and High Courts are not affected in
any way. They remain the same, under article 32 and
225 of the Constitution.
26. A private company receives funding from the central
government for a specific project. Is the private
company considered a public authority under the
RTI Act, 2005?
(A) Yes, because the RTI Act includes civil
societies indirectly funded by public funds as
public authorities.
(B) Yes, because the private company is carrying
out a project under the monitoring of the central
government.
(C) No, because the RTI Act only applies to state
and central government monitored institutions.
(D) No, because private companies are exempt from
disclosing information under Section 4 of the
RTI Act.
27. A citizen of Jammu and Kashmir files a request for
information under the RTI Act, 2005.Is the citizen of
Jammu and Kashmir entitled to exercise their right
to information under the RTI Act?
(A) Yes, because the RTI Act extends to the whole
nation, including Jammu and Kashmir.
(B) Yes, because the right to information is a
fundamental right of speech and expression.
(C) No, because Jammu and Kashmir has its state-
level governance and is exempt from the RTI
Act.
(D) No, because the RTI Act does not apply to civil
societies indirectly funded by public funds.
[28]
28. A citizen submits an RTI application seeking
information regarding an ongoing investigation by a
public authority. Is the public authority obligated to
disclose information related to an ongoing
investigation under the RTI Act?
(A) Yes, because Section 2(j) of the RTI Act grants
access to any information under the control of a
public authority.
(B) Yes, because the citizen has a right to know
about the actions of public authorities.
(C) No, because ongoing investigations fall under
the exemption clause mentioned in Section 8 of
the RTI Act.
(D) No, because public authorities are not required
to disclose information under Section 6 of the
RTI Act.
30. A citizen approaches a lower court to seek redressal
regarding the denial of information by a public
authority under the RTI Act. Can the lower court
entertain the citizen's suit or application in this
regard?
(A) Yes, because the lower courts have jurisdiction
over matters related to the RTI Act.
(B) Yes, because the citizen has a right to seek
justice for the denial of information.
(C) No, because Section 23 of the RTI Act bars the
lower courts from entertaining such suits or
applications.
(D) No, because the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court and High Courts is not affected by
Section 23 of the RTI Act.

29. A citizen files an RTI application and receives no

response from the Public Information Officer (PIO)
within the prescribed time frame. Can penalty fees
be imposed on the PIO for the delay in providing
information?
(A) Yes, because Section 7 of the RTI Act
prescribes a time frame of 30 days for providing
information.
(B) Yes, because Section 20 of the RTI Act
provides penalty fees for delayed or distorted
information.
(C) No, because the RTI Act does not impose any
penalties for delayed responses by the PIO.
(D) No, because penalty fees can only be imposed
if the information provided is wrong or
distorted.

[29]
 Quantitative Techniques
1. Simple interest received on ₹x at 10% rate after 2 final quantity of the water is what per cent of the final
years is ₹240 less than that received on ₹(x + 200) at quantity of the milk?
12% rate after 2 years. Find the simple interest (A) 10% (B) 15%
received on ₹(x – 600) at 15% rate after 3 years? (C) 20% (D) 25%
(A) ₹1620 (B) ₹1890 (E) None of these
(C) ₹2025 (D) 1440
(E) ₹1710 7. Anil got 24% and failed by 2x marks. While Ragu
got 36% and secured x marks more than the passing
2. A 5-digit number 13P7Q is divisible by 11 and P is marks. If Kumar scored 40% marks and got 100
1 more than Q. What is the smallest number to be marks, find the pass mark.
subtracted from the number to make it divisible by (A) 120 (B) 75
9? (C) 80 (D) 100
(A) 7 (B) 4 (E) 90
(C) 5 (D) 2
(E) 3 8. A dishonest seller marked up the price by 20% and
allows 25% discount on the item. While selling, he
3. B is 5 years older than A. The ratio of A’s age after uses a faulty weight of 750 grams instead of 1 kg,
4 years and B’s age five years ago is 6:5. If present then what is the overall profit percent earned by
age of C is 4/5th of the age of A, then find the seller?
average age of A & C. (A) 20% (B) 25%
(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 10% (D) 15%
(C) 16 (D) 18 (D) None of these
(D) 15
9. P and Q together can complete half of the work in 32
4. If the ratio of income of Geeta and Sita is 5:4 and the days, while Q and R can do 60% of work in 36 days.
ratio of expenditure of Geeta and Sita is 7:3 P started the work alone and worked for 16 days,
respectively. If the savings of Geeta is Rs 800 more then Q alone worked for 52 days and R alone
than that of Sita and Expenditure of Geeta is Rs complete the remaining work in 52 days. Find the
1400. Find the total income of Geeta and Sita? time taken by P and R together to complete the work,
(A) 10800 (B) 14000 if P worked with 12.5% less efficiency?
(C) 14400 (D) 11200 (A) 60 days (B) 64 days
(D) None of these (C) 48 days (D) 54 days
(E) None of these
5. A person covers a distance from A to B and From B
to C and the ratio of the distance from A to B and 10. The swimmer's speed downstream is such that they
From B to C is 7:6. The average speed in this whole cover a distance of 84 km in 6 hours, while their
journey is 60 kmph and the total time taken in this speed upstream allows them to cover a distance of 36
journey is 2 hours 10 min, then find the distance from km in the same 6 hours. Determine the speed of the
A to B. stream.
(A) 50 (B) 80 (A) 4 km/hr (B) 3 km/hr
(C) 70 (D) 40 (C) 5 km/hr (D) 8 km/hr
(E) None of these (D) None of these

6. A milkman would have a 40 litres mixture of water

and milk in a ratio of 3:5. If he sold 16 litres of the
mixture and then 12 litres of milk added to the
mixture. Again he sold 20 litres of the mixture, and
then he added 8 litres of milk to the mixture. The

[30]
 Answer Key
Section I 6. (A) 12. (D) 13. (D)
1. (A) 7. (B) 13. (D) 14. (C)
2. (B) 8. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B)
3. (D) 9. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B)
4. (A) 10. (C) 16. (C) 17. (B)
5. (D) 11. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D)
6. (B) 12. (A) 18. (C) 19. (B)
7. (A) 13. (C) 19 (B) 20. (A)
8. (D) 14. (A) 20 (D) 21. (D)
9. (B) 15. (B) 21. (A) 22. (A)
10. (B) 16. (A) 22. (C) 23. (D)
11. (B) 17. (C) 23. (D) 24. (D)
12. (B) 18. (C) 24. (B) 25. (A)
13. (B) 19. (A) 25. (B) 26. (A)
14. (B) 20. (C) 26. (A) 27. (C)
15. (A) 21. (C) 27. (C) 28. (C)
16. (A) 22. (A) 28. (B) 29. (B)
17. (B) 23. (A) 29. (A) 30. (C)
18. (B) 24. (B) 30. (C)
19. (A) 25. (C) Section V
20. (A) Section IV 1. (B)
21. (B) Section III 1. (D) 2. (D)
22. (B) 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (D)
23. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C)
24. (B) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C)
25. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (C)
5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (C)
Section II 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (A)
1. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (A)
2. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (A)
3. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
4. (C) 10. (D) 11. (B)
5. (B) 11. (A) 12. (D)

[31]
 Hints & Solutions
Section I
PASSAGE I
1. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Option A is the correct answer. The passage states
that Warren Buffett and Charlie Munger expressed
skepticism about AI and mentioned that they believe
traditional intelligence works well. This aligns with
their viewpoint that AI is overhyped.
Option B is incorrect. The passage does not mention
any expression of optimism from Buffett and
Munger regarding the potential of AI in the tech
industry.
Option C is incorrect. The passage does not discuss
the financial performance of tech giants in the AI
sector in relation to Buffett and Munger's skepticism.
It only mentions that tech giants posted robust
financial performance reports, but their skepticism is
separate from that.
Option D is incorrect. While the passage suggests
including AI stocks in most investors' portfolios, this
viewpoint is attributed to Nigel Green, the CEO of
deVere Group, and not Warren Buffett and Charlie
Munger. They express skepticism about AI, as
mentioned in option A.
2. Correct Option D
(H & S)
The passage states that the Big Tech earnings season
was dominated by AI detail. While the passage does
mention the robust financial performance of tech
giants during the first-quarter earnings, it does not
specifically highlight that this was the focus of the
reports. Similarly, while the passage discusses the
potential returns from investing in AI stocks, it does
not state that this was the primary focus of the
earnings reports. The passage also does not provide
information to support option B) "The impact of AI
on society and global business" as the focus of the
earnings reports.
However, the passage mentions that besides guidance
and data on cost-cutting measures, the Big Tech
earnings season was dominated by AI detail. This
suggests that the focus of the earnings reports was
primarily on AI-related information, updates, and
strategies. Therefore, the most accurate option is D)
"The guidance for managing an economic downturn."
This aligns with the passage's emphasis on the
importance of guidance and the tech giants' awareness
of the potential returns when AI starts to change the
way businesses work.
3. Correct Option D
(H & S)
The passage mentions that the Big Tech earnings
season was dominated by AI detail. This means that
AI-related discussions, information, and updates were
the main focus during the earnings season. The
passage highlights that tech giants are highly
interested in AI and believe it to be the future.
Therefore, it is reasonable to conclude that AI was the
central topic of discussion and analysis during the Big
Tech earnings season. This aligns with the statement
made by Nigel Green, the CEO and founder of deVere
Group, who emphasized the tech giants' relentless
focus on AI. Thus, option d) "AI detail" is the correct
answer.
The passage does not provide information to support
options a) "Corporate guidance," b) "Data on cost-
cutting measures," or c) "Robust financial
performance reports" as the dominant topic during the
Big Tech earnings season. While these aspects might
have been covered during the earnings season, the
passage specifically highlights the significance of AI-
related discussions.
4. Correct Option A
(H & S)
According to the passage, the tech giants mentioned
in the article have shown a strong interest in AI and
[32]
 believe it to be the future. The passage also mentions
that companies with substantial AI interests are likely
to benefit from the growth of the industry, which
could result in significant rewards for early investors.
This suggests that AI has the potential to create
lucrative opportunities for investors. Therefore,
option a) "It could lead to enormous rewards for early
investors" is the correct answer.
The passage does not provide information to support
options b) "It could result in substantial losses for
investors," c) "It could cause a decline in the tech
industry," or d) "It could result in a decrease in
employment opportunities." These options are not
directly addressed in the passage and do not align with
the positive outlook on AI expressed in the passage.
5. Correct Option D
(H & S)
In the passage, it is mentioned that the AI chatbot
ChatGPT became wildly popular in just a matter of
weeks and had 100 million monthly active users
within two months of its launch. The passage also
compares its rapid growth to social media platforms
like TikTok or Instagram. Based on this information,
we can infer that the purpose of ChatGPT was not to
provide financial advice to investors (option a), help
businesses work more efficiently (option b), or serve
as a social media platform (option c). Instead, the
passage suggests that the primary purpose of
ChatGPT was to demonstrate the potential of AI. Its
popularity and adoption by a large user base highlight
the success and effectiveness of AI technology in the
form of a chatbot. Therefore, option d) "To
demonstrate the potential of AI" is the correct answer.
PASSAGE II
6. Correct Option B
(H & S)
1. The passage does not mention the Telcom
Regulatory Authority of India (Trai) considering
conducting micro-audits at the central level
instead of the circle level. Therefore, this option is
not the correct answer.
2. As stated in the passage, the Telcom Regulatory
Authority of India (Trai) is considering revising
the current centralised audit process to a circle-
wise approach for the audit of billing and metering
practices of telcos. This aligns with the
information provided, making option B the correct
answer.
3. The passage does not mention the Telcom
Regulatory Authority of India (Trai) considering
eliminating the audit of billing and metering
practices for telcos. Therefore, this option is not
the correct answer.
4. While the passage mentions that telecom operators
are concerned about the potential change in the
audit process and its impact on their regulatory
burden, it does not directly state that the Telcom
Regulatory Authority of India (Trai) is considering
increasing the regulatory burden on telecom
operators. Therefore, this option is not the correct
answer.
7. Correct Option A
(H & S)
1. As mentioned in the passage, telecom operators
are concerned about the potential increase in their
regulatory burden due to the Trai's proposal of
conducting micro-audits at the circle level. This
option correctly identifies the concern raised by
telecom operators, making it the correct answer.
2. The passage mentions that the regulator is
considering a shift from the centralized audit
process to conducting audits of billing and
metering at the circle level. However, this option
does not capture the specific concerns expressed
by telecom operators, making it an incorrect
choice.
3. While the passage mentions that the regulator may
demand the deployment of new technological
mechanisms, it does not explicitly state that
telecom operators are concerned about the
excessive cost associated with it. Therefore, this
option does not reflect the concerns expressed by
the operators.
4. The passage mentions that the Trai plans to
conduct a probe of past offers by all operators to
determine any violations. However, the passage
does not indicate that telecom operators are
specifically concerned about facing penalties for
past instances of predatory pricing and unlimited
data offers. Thus, this option does not reflect the
concerns raised by the operators.
8. Correct Option D
(H & S)
[33]
 1. The passage does not explicitly mention that light
touch regulation supports a more centralized audit
process, reducing the burden on telecom operators.
Therefore, this option does not strengthen the
suggested approach for resolving issues, and it is
not the correct answer.
2. While the passage mentions that the regulator may
demand the deployment of new technological
mechanisms, it does not explicitly state that light
touch regulation promotes their use to streamline
billing and metering audits. Hence, this option
does not provide a strengthening argument and is
not the correct answer.
3. The passage does not indicate that light touch
regulation favors conducting micro-audits at the
circle level. Instead, it mentions that telecom
operators view the proposed micro-audits as
superfluous and burdensome. Therefore, this
option does not strengthen the suggested approach
and is not the correct answer.
4. The passage suggests that light touch regulation
has become a hallmark of Trai. It also suggests that
calling a meeting of all the operators to resolve
issues across the table would be a better approach.
This aligns with the concept of open dialogue and
resolving issues through discussions among
stakeholders. Thus, option D strengthens the
suggested approach for resolving issues and is the
correct answer.
9. Correct Option B
(H & S)
1. The word "procrastination" refers to the act of
delaying or postponing something. However, the
passage does not suggest that Trai favors a
procrastinating approach in resolving issues with
telecom operators. Therefore, this option is not the
correct answer.
2. The word "facilitation" refers to the act of making
a process easier or smoother. The passage suggests
that Trai should call a meeting of all operators to
resolve issues, which aligns with the idea of
facilitating discussions. Thus, option B represents
the correct answer.
3. The word "denunciation" means publicly
condemning or criticizing someone or something.
The passage does not indicate that Trai favors a
denunciatory approach in resolving issues with
telecom operators. Hence, this option is not the
correct answer.
4. The word "invalidation" means declaring
something as invalid or nullifying it. The passage
does not mention Trai invalidating any decisions
or actions of telecom operators in resolving issues.
Therefore, this option is not the correct answer.
10. Correct Option B
(H & S)
1. Option A does not contain any grammatical errors.
It is a grammatically correct sentence.
2. Option B contains a grammatical error. The phrase
"audit of billing and metering of telcos" should be
"audit of billing and metering by telcos" for correct
syntax. Therefore, this option is the correct
answer.
3. Option C does not contain any grammatical errors.
It is a grammatically correct sentence.
4. Option D does not contain any grammatical errors.
It is a grammatically correct sentence.
PASSAGE III
11. Correct Option B
(H & S)
1. Option A does not weaken the argument for
allowing a democratically elected government to
serve its constituents. It actually aligns with the
argument by emphasizing the importance of
cooperative federalism and balanced power-
sharing. Therefore, this option is not the correct
answer.
2. Option B weakens the argument by suggesting that
the working relationship between the chief
minister's office and the lieutenant governor's
office had been effective for several decades,
indicating that shared power can work well. This
weakens the argument for allowing exclusive
control by the elected government. Thus, this
option is the correct answer.
3. Option C strengthens the argument by highlighting
the negative consequences of the power struggle
between the elected government and the lieutenant
governor, such as annulled appointments, policy
delays, and communication breakdowns. This
supports the need for allowing a democratically
elected government to serve its constituents
effectively. Therefore, this option is not the correct
answer.
[34]
 4. Option D strengthens the argument by
emphasizing the importance of accountable and
responsive civil service, which suggests that
elected representatives alone may not ensure
efficient governance. This aligns with the
argument for allowing a democratically elected
government. Thus, this option is not the correct
answer.
12. Correct Option B
(H & S)
1. The passage does not explicitly state that the
lieutenant governor's office has historically held
more power and authority than the elected
government in Delhi. It mentions a power struggle
between the two, but does not provide information
about the comparative power dynamics.
Therefore, this option cannot be inferred from the
passage and is not the correct answer.
2. The passage mentions that the power struggle
between the elected government and the lieutenant
governor's office has led to ineffective
governance, with annulled appointments, policy
delays, and communication breakdowns. This
supports the inference that the power struggle has
negatively affected governance in Delhi. Thus,
this option is the correct answer.
3. The passage does not state that the recent Supreme
Court judgment has resolved the power struggle
between the elected government and the lieutenant
governor's office. It mentions that the judgment
confirmed the government's control over assigned
bureaucrats, but does not indicate a resolution of
the power struggle. Therefore, this option goes
beyond the information provided and is not the
correct answer.
4. The passage mentions that amendments to the
Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi
Act in 2021 led to the expansion of the lieutenant
governor's purview, rather than the elected
government's purview. Therefore, this option does
not align with the information provided and is not
the correct answer.
13. Correct Option B
(H & S)
1. The passage does not mention any collaboration or
effective resolution of the power struggle between
the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) government and the
Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). It focuses on the
negative consequences of the power struggle and
the Supreme Court's role in resolving the issue.
Therefore, this option cannot be inferred from the
passage and is not the correct answer.
2. The passage states that the power struggle between
the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) government and the
Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) has led to ineffective
governance in Delhi, with annulled appointments,
policy delays, and communication breakdowns.
This supports the inference that the power struggle
has been the primary cause of ineffective
governance. Thus, this option is the correct
answer.
3. The passage does not provide any information
about the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) supporting
the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) government in
asserting control over assigned bureaucrats. This
option goes beyond the information provided and
cannot be inferred, so it is not the correct answer.
4. The passage does not mention any mutual
agreement or power-sharing arrangement between
the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) government and the
Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). It focuses on the
power struggle and the Supreme Court's
intervention. Therefore, this option goes beyond
the information provided and is not the correct
answer.
14. Correct Option B
(H & S)
1. The passage does not mention the resolution of the
power struggle between the Aam Aadmi Party
[35]
 (AAP) government and the Bharatiya Janata Party
(BJP) through the intervention of the Supreme
Court. It discusses the Supreme Court's judgment,
but it does not provide information about the
resolution of the power struggle. Therefore, this
option goes beyond the information provided and
is not the correct answer.
2. The passage explicitly states that the power
struggle between the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP)
government and the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
has resulted in ineffective governance, with
annulled appointments, policy delays, and
communication breakdowns. This supports the
conclusion that the power struggle has negatively
impacted the effectiveness of governance in Delhi.
Thus, this option is the correct answer.
3. The passage does not provide information to
support the conclusion that the power struggle
between the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) government
and the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) is a common
phenomenon observed in democratic governments
worldwide. It focuses on the specific power
struggle in Delhi. Therefore, this option goes
beyond the information provided and is not the
correct answer.
4. The passage does not mention collaborative efforts
between the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) government
and the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in improving
governance in Delhi. It emphasizes the negative
consequences of the power struggle. Therefore,
this option goes beyond the information provided
and is not the correct answer.
15. Correct Option A
(H & S)
1. The term "purview" refers to the range or scope of
one's authority or control over a specific area or
domain. In the passage, it is mentioned that the
Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) government controlled
bureaucrats assigned to departments that are
legally within its purview. This indicates that the
government has the legal authority over those
departments. Therefore, option A accurately
represents the meaning of "purview" in the
passage and is the correct answer.
2. The term "purview" does not relate to a state of
disagreement or conflict between two parties. It is
focused on the authority or control over a specific
area. Therefore, this option does not accurately
represent the meaning of "purview" in the passage
and is not the correct answer.
3. The term "purview" does not refer to the act of
intervening or mediating in a dispute or conflict. It
is more about the extent of authority or control.
Therefore, this option does not accurately
represent the meaning of "purview" in the passage
and is not the correct answer.
4. The term "purview" does not pertain to the process
of reaching a mutual agreement or understanding.
It is more about the scope of authority or control.
Therefore, this option does not accurately
represent the meaning of "purview" in the passage
and is not the correct answer.
PASSAGE IV
16. Correct Option A
(H & S)
1. The passage highlights the arrest of former prime
minister Imran Khan, the subsequent protests
against the Pakistani military's interference, and
the growing rift between Khan's party and the
military. These events indicate a significant point
of contention between Khan's Pakistan Tehreek-e-
Insaf (PTI) and the military. This aligns with the
main point of the passage, making option A the
correct answer.
2. While option B mentions Imran Khan's rise to
power with the support of the military and strained
relations due to his attempts to assert control over
military appointments and criticize the military, it
does not encompass the wider context of the arrest,
protests, and the current state of affairs. Therefore,
[36]
 this option does not accurately represent the main
point of the passage and is not the correct answer.
3. Option C focuses on the challenges faced by the
Pakistani military in maintaining a hybrid regime
and conflicts with political figures like Imran
Khan, but it does not address the specific events of
the arrest, protests, and the growing rift between
Khan's party and the military. Therefore, this
option does not accurately represent the main point
of the passage and is not the correct answer.
4. Option D mentions General Asim Munir's role and
challenges in balancing the military's interests and
influence amidst economic challenges and
escalating terror strikes. While this is part of the
broader context, it does not capture the specific
events of the arrest, protests, and the growing rift
between Khan's party and the military. Therefore,
this option does not accurately represent the main
point of the passage and is not the correct answer.
17. Correct Option B
(H & S)
1. The passage does not provide any evidence or
information indicating that Imran Khan had a
harmonious relationship with the Pakistani
military throughout his tenure as prime
minister. In fact, it states that relations
between Khan and the military strained as he
sought to interfere in military appointments
and publicly criticized the military.
Therefore, this option does not accurately
represent an inference from the passage and
is not the correct answer.
2. The passage mentions that Imran Khan's
attempts to assert control over military
appointments and criticize the military
resulted in strained relations with the
Pakistani military. This is supported by the
passage's statement that the military became
wary of Khan as he sought to interfere in the
posting of senior generals and publicly
criticized them. Therefore, option B
accurately represents an inference from the
passage and is the correct answer.
3. While the passage mentions that Imran Khan
was propelled to power with the support of
the Pakistani military, it does not provide
information on whether he relied on their
support to maintain his position as prime
minister. Therefore, this option does not
accurately represent an inference from the
passage and is not the correct answer.
4. The passage states that relations between
Imran Khan and the Pakistani military
nosedived with his repeated public potshots at
the military and allegations against them.
This indicates a strained relationship rather
than a strong alliance. Therefore, this option
does not accurately represent an inference
from the passage and is not the correct
answer.
Correct Answer: B. Imran Khan's attempts to assert
control over military appointments and criticize the
military led to strained relations with the Pakistani
military.
18. Correct Option B
(H & S)
1. The passage mentions that several Pakistan Army
chiefs, including General Ashfaq Pervez Kayani,
have spoken of steering clear of politics. However,
there is no direct evidence in the passage to
support the inference that the Pakistani military
has maintained a neutral stance in politics since
Kayani's tenure. Therefore, this option does not
accurately represent an inference from the passage
and is not the correct answer.
2. The passage suggests that the Pakistani military
has shifted to a role where it can manage the
government by remote control, indicating that it
continues to intervene in politics but with a more
subtle approach. This is supported by the
[37]
 statement that the military has interests and
influence over Pakistan's destiny at stake.
Therefore, option B accurately represents an
inference from the passage and is the correct
answer.
3. The passage does not provide evidence or
information indicating that the Pakistani military's
influence in politics has diminished or that it has
led to a more stable government. Therefore, this
option does not accurately represent an inference
from the passage and is not the correct answer.
4. The passage mentions that a hybrid regime is
unworkable and that the military's deepening
unpopularity and experience with Imran Khan
indicate this. However, there is no evidence in the
passage to suggest that the Pakistani military is
actively seeking to establish a hybrid regime by
managing the government remotely. Therefore,
this option does not accurately represent an
inference from the passage and is not the correct
answer.
Correct Answer: B. The Pakistani military continues
to actively intervene in politics, but with a more subtle
approach.
20. Correct Option A
19. Correct Option A
(H & S)
1. Option A weakens the argument by suggesting that
the protests triggered by Imran Khan's arrest were
driven by his supporters rather than being
indicative of a broader sentiment against the
Pakistani military. This implies that the arrest may
not necessarily signify a significant shift in the
relationship between the military and elected
representatives. Therefore, option A is the correct
answer.
2. Option B strengthens the argument by indicating
the military's direct involvement in the arrest of
Imran Khan through a paramilitary force led by
Pakistan Army officers. This supports the idea that
the arrest signifies a significant shift in the
relationship between the military and elected
representatives. Therefore, option B does not
weaken the argument and is not the correct answer.
3. Option C neither weakens nor strengthens the
argument. It simply restates a previously
mentioned factor without providing any new
information or perspective. Therefore, option C
does not weaken the argument and is not the
correct answer.
4. Option D strengthens the argument by suggesting
an ongoing collaboration between the military and
elected representatives, as evidenced by the
military's go-ahead for the parliamentary vote of
confidence that ousted Imran Khan from power.
This supports the idea that the arrest of Imran
Khan signifies a significant shift in the relationship
between the military and elected representatives.
Therefore, option D does not weaken the argument
and is not the correct answer.
Correct Answer: A. The protests triggered by the
arrest of Imran Khan were primarily driven by his
supporters rather than being representative of a
broader sentiment against the Pakistani military.
(H & S)
1. Option A correctly defines the term "potshots" as
used in the passage. "Potshots" refers to direct
criticisms or attacks against the military. This is
supported by the context in the passage, where it
is mentioned that Imran Khan repeatedly made
public potshots at the military. Therefore, option
A is the correct answer.
2. Option B incorrectly defines the term "potshots"
as casual and playful remarks aimed at diffusing
tension. This definition does not align with the
context of the passage, where the term is used to
describe Imran Khan's criticisms against the
military. Therefore, option B is not the correct
answer.
[38]
 3. Option C incorrectly defines the term "potshots"
as secret negotiations and dealings to retain
political power. This definition is unrelated to the
context of the passage, which focuses on the
strained relationship between Imran Khan and the
military. Therefore, option C is not the correct
answer.
4. Option D incorrectly defines the term "potshots"
as intense and confrontational protests against the
government. This definition is not applicable to
the context of the passage, where the term is used
to describe Imran Khan's criticisms against the
military. Therefore, option D is not the correct
answer.
Correct Answer: A. Direct criticisms or attacks
against the military
PASSAGE V
21. Correct Option B
(H & S)
1. The passage does not mention an invasion of Saudi
Arabia triggering the internal conflict in Yemen.
2. As the passage states, the roots of the internal
conflict in Yemen go back to the unification of
North and South Yemen in 1990, making this the
correct answer.
3. The airstrikes launched by Saudi Arabia and the
US in 2015 were a response to the armed conflict
in Yemen, not a trigger for the internal conflict.
4. The British withdrawal from South Yemen
occurred in 1967, but it wasn't the trigger for the
internal conflict in Yemen as per the details in the
passage.
22. Correct Option B
(H & S)
1. There's no mention in the passage of the peace deal
allowing for China's military intervention in
Yemen.
2. As per the peace deal mentioned in the passage,
both Saudi Arabia and Iran have agreed to end
their support for the war in Yemen, which is why
this is the correct answer.
3. The passage does not mention the peace deal
imposing sanctions on the Houthi rebels.
4. The peace deal does not provide for the
deployment of UN peacekeeping forces in Yemen
as per the passage.
23. Correct Option C
(H & S)
1. Although China's role in brokering the peace deal
between Saudi Arabia and Iran is mentioned, it is
not the main theme of the passage.
2. While the political history of Yemen and the peace
deal are discussed, this option does not
encapsulate the entire scope of the passage, which
also delves into the internal and external conflicts
in Yemen.
3. This option correctly summarizes the main idea of
the passage, as it encompasses all the significant
points: the internal and external conflicts in
Yemen, their historical roots, and the recent peace
deal that offers hope for their resolution.
Therefore, this is the correct answer.
4. Although the operation of the Houthi Supreme
Political Council in Yemen is mentioned, it is not
the main theme of the passage. This option is too
narrow to represent the main idea of the entire
passage.
Hence Option C is the correct answer.
24. Correct Option B
(H & S)
1. The passage does not suggest a cooperative
relationship between North Yemen and South
Yemen before their unification, making this option
incorrect.
2. As mentioned in the passage, North Yemen and
South Yemen were divided along a north-south
divide, indicating a history of division, which is
the correct answer.
[39]
 3. The passage does not mention a symbiotic
relationship between North Yemen and South
Yemen.
4. The passage does not indicate a collaborative
relationship between North Yemen and South
Yemen.
25. Correct Option A
(H & S)
1. The historical conflict between North and South
Yemen, mentioned in the passage, provides
important context to the internal conflict in
Yemen. However, it does not directly undermine
the hope for a lasting peace in Yemen as per the
details provided in the passage. Therefore, this
option is not the correct answer.
2. The passage does not mention the lack of
involvement of the United States in the peace
process. While the passage mentions the US's past
involvement in launching airstrikes in Yemen, it
does not provide information about the current
peace process or the role of the United States.
Thus, this option cannot be considered as the
correct answer.
3. According to the passage, the ongoing support of
external powers to the warring factions can
undermine the hope for a lasting peace in Yemen.
The peace deal between Saudi Arabia and Iran
may offer hope, but if external powers continue to
provide support to the warring factions, it can
prolong the conflict and hinder the peace process.
This aligns with the information given in the
passage, making option C the correct answer.
4. The passage does not mention the reluctance of
Houthi rebels to participate in peace talks. While
it states that there have been talks between Saudi
and Omani delegations with Houthi officials, it
does not provide information on the willingness or
reluctance of the Houthi rebels to engage in peace
talks. Therefore, this option cannot be considered
as the correct answer.
Section II
PASSAGE I
1. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Correct Option: A) India's economic structure has
undergone significant changes over the past four
decades, with the services sector becoming dominant.
Reasoning: This option accurately captures the main
idea of the passage, which discusses the shift in India's
economic structure over time, highlighting the decline
in the agriculture sector's share and the rise of the
services sector as the dominant contributor to GDP.
Incorrect Options:
B) India's economic growth has accelerated due to the
dominance of the rapidly growing services sector.
This option misinterprets the main idea by stating that
economic growth has accelerated solely due to the
dominance of the services sector. The passage
discusses the structural changes in India's economy
but does not directly mention the impact on economic
growth.
C) The shift in weighting among sectors has resulted
in India's potential for annual growth reaching at least
7 percent.
This option goes beyond the scope of the passage.
While the passage mentions factors that could
contribute to India's potential growth rate, it does not
explicitly state that the shift in sector weighting has
led to a specific growth rate of 7 percent.
D) The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has
expressed concerns about India's growth potential due
to the impact of the pandemic and other factors.
This option does not accurately represent the main
idea of the passage. Although the passage mentions
the IMF's assessment of India's growth rate, it is not
the central focus or main idea of the passage.
2. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Correct Option: B) The statement is moderately
supported, as the passage mentions some factors that
[40]
 could contribute to India's potential growth but does
not provide comprehensive evidence.
Reasoning: The passage discusses various factors
such as changes in economic structure, increased life
expectancy, education, investment in fixed capital,
and digitization that could contribute to India's
potential growth. However, it does not provide
comprehensive evidence or a definitive conclusion
regarding the exact degree of India's potential growth.
Incorrect Options:
A) The statement is highly supported, as the passage
presents various factors that suggest India's potential
growth rate should be at least 7 percent.
This option goes beyond the information provided in
the passage. While the passage mentions factors that
could contribute to India's potential growth rate, it
does not specifically state that the growth rate should
be at least 7 percent.
C) The statement is minimally supported, as the
passage discusses changes in India's economy but
does not directly address its potential growth rate.
This option underestimates the level of support
provided in the passage. The passage discusses
several factors that could contribute to India's
potential growth rate, although it does not provide a
specific growth rate.
D) The statement is unsupported, as the passage
primarily focuses on the shift in India's economic
structure and the IMF's assessment of its growth rate.
This option misrepresents the information in the
passage. The passage does mention factors
contributing to India's potential growth rate but does
not solely focus on the IMF's assessment or lack
thereof.
3. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Correct Option: B) India's rapid spread of education
and digitization has positively impacted productivity
and economic growth.
Reasoning: The passage mentions the rapid spread of
education and digitization as factors that could
improve productivity. Therefore, it can be inferred
that these factors have positively impacted
productivity and economic growth in India.
Incorrect Options:
A) The IMF's assessment of India's growth rate is
widely accepted by the government and domestic
commentators.
This option introduces information that is not
mentioned in the passage. The passage does not
indicate whether the government or domestic
commentators accept the IMF's assessment.
C) The average life expectancy of Indians has
increased significantly, leading to higher productivity
and economic growth.
This option correctly states one of the factors
mentioned in the passage. However, the passage does
not explicitly state that the increase in life expectancy
has directly led to higher productivity and economic
growth.
D) The pandemic has had a significant negative
impact on India's potential for economic growth.
This option goes beyond the information provided in
the passage. While the passage mentions the impact
of the pandemic on India's growth, it does not specify
the magnitude of the impact or whether it has
significantly affected India's potential for economic
growth.
4. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Correct Option: C) India's educational quality has
improved significantly, leading to a highly skilled
workforce and increased productivity.
Reasoning: This option strengthens the argument by
highlighting the positive impact of improved
educational quality on productivity and economic
growth. The passage mentions the rapid spread of
education, but it also acknowledges that educational
quality is an issue.
[41]
 Incorrect Options:
A) The services sector has consistently outperformed
other sectors in terms of growth rate over the past four
decades.
This option introduces information that is not directly
relevant to the argument. While the passage discusses
the dominance of the services sector, it does not
specifically mention its growth rate relative to other
sectors.
B) The rate of investment in fixed capital has
remained stable, indicating a favorable environment
for economic growth.
This option introduces information that is not directly
related to the argument. The passage mentions an
increase in the rate of investment in fixed capital, but
it does not explicitly discuss the stability of this rate
or its direct impact on economic growth.
D) The government and the Reserve Bank of India
have projected higher growth rates for the current year
compared to the IMF's estimate.
This option introduces information that is not
mentioned in the passage. The passage does not
provide information about the projections of the
government or the Reserve Bank of India regarding
growth rates.
5. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Correct Option: B) India's economy has faced
significant challenges, such as income inequality and
a lack of inclusive growth.
Reasoning: This option weakens the argument by
introducing the idea that India's economy has faced
challenges that could hinder its potential for growth.
The mention of income inequality and a lack of
inclusive growth suggests that there are obstacles to
achieving high and inclusive economic growth in
India.
Incorrect Options:
A) The IMF's assessment of India's growth rate aligns
with the growth assessments of the government and
the Reserve Bank.
This option is unrelated to weakening the argument. It
introduces information about the alignment of growth
assessments without addressing the potential
hindrances to India's growth.
C) The services sector, despite its dominance, has
shown signs of slowdown and reduced growth
potential.
This option introduces information that is not
mentioned in the passage. The passage does not
discuss any signs of slowdown or reduced growth
potential in the services sector.
D) The pandemic has had a minimal impact on India's
potential for economic growth, allowing for a rapid
recovery.
This option strengthens rather than weakens the
argument by suggesting that the pandemic had a
minimal impact on India's potential for economic
growth. However, the passage does not provide
information about the extent of the pandemic's impact
or the speed of recovery.
PASSAGE II
6. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Correct Option: A) Studies have shown that moderate
smartphone use has no negative impact on mental
health.
Reasoning: This option weakens the argument by
suggesting that moderate smartphone use does not
have a negative impact on mental health. It implies
that the negative effects mentioned in the passage may
be the result of excessive or addictive smartphone use
rather than smartphone use in general.
Incorrect Options:
B) Smartphone addiction is not a widespread issue
and only affects a small percentage of the population.
This option introduces new information that is not
mentioned in the passage. The passage discusses the
[42]
 deleterious effects of smartphone addiction without
providing information about the prevalence of the
issue.
C) The use of smartphones can actually improve
cognitive function and self-esteem in individuals.
This option introduces new information that
contradicts the argument presented in the passage.
The passage suggests that heavy smartphone use leads
to impaired cognitive function and low self-esteem,
not improvement.
D) The health issues attributed to smartphone
addiction can be easily mitigated through regular
exercise and healthy lifestyle choices.
This option introduces a potential solution to mitigate
the health issues associated with smartphone
addiction but does not directly weaken the argument.
It does not challenge the claim that heavy smartphone
use leads to addiction and health issues.
7. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Correct Option: B) Men are more likely to experience
suicidal thoughts and hallucinations as a result of
smartphone addiction.
Reasoning: This statement contradicts the information
provided in the passage. The passage explicitly states
that the number of women affected by mental health
issues related to smartphone addiction was higher
than the number of men.
Incorrect Options:
A) The age at which a person gets their first
smartphone has no impact on their mental well-being.
The passage provides evidence from the report by
Sapien Labs that connects the age of first smartphone
ownership to mental well-being outcomes. Therefore,
this statement is not false based on the information
provided.
C) The mental health effects of smartphone addiction
are more pronounced in women compared to men.
This statement aligns with the information provided
in the passage. The report by Sapien Labs mentioned
in the passage states that the deleterious effects of
smartphones are more pronounced on the mental
health of women.
D) Cyberbullying of women is a rising concern
associated with smartphone use.
The passage mentions that cases of cyberbullying of
women are on the rise, supporting this statement.
Therefore, it is not false based on the information
provided.
8. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Correct Option: C) The content on smartphones often
perpetuates misogyny and gender discrimination.
Reasoning: This inference is supported by the
passage, which mentions that smartphones
disseminate content coated with misogyny and gender
discrimination. The passage suggests that women are
at a greater risk of suffering from mental health issues
due to exposure to such content.
Incorrect Options:
A) Women are more susceptible to smartphone
addiction compared to men.
The passage does not provide information about the
susceptibility of women and men to smartphone
addiction. Therefore, this inference goes beyond the
information provided.
B) The use of smartphones at an early age is directly
linked to aggressive behavior.
While the passage mentions that those who got their
first smartphones at the age of six demonstrated
aggressive behavior, it does not establish a direct link
between the use of smartphones at an early age and
aggressive behavior. Therefore, this inference is not
supported by the passage.
D) The prevalence of smartphone usage among Indian
children is higher than the global average.
The passage mentions that smartphone usage among
Indian children is as high as 83%, but it does not
provide information about the global average.
[43]
 Therefore, this inference goes beyond the information
provided.
9. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Correct Option: B) The argument does not consider
other factors that could contribute to mental health
issues, such as underlying mental health conditions or
socioeconomic factors.
Reasoning: This option highlights a flaw in the
argument by pointing out that the argument does not
consider other factors that could contribute to mental
health issues. The passage solely focuses on the
negative effects of smartphone use without
acknowledging the potential influence of underlying
mental health conditions or socioeconomic factors.
Incorrect Options:
A) The passage fails to provide any evidence or
research studies to support the claim of smartphones
causing addiction and health issues.
The passage mentions a report by Sapien Labs that
connects the age of first smartphone ownership to
mental well-being outcomes. Therefore, the passage
does provide evidence to support the claim.
C) The passage relies solely on data from a single
report by Sapien Labs without considering other
studies or perspectives on the topic.
The passage does mention a report by Sapien Labs,
but it does not claim to rely solely on this report.
Therefore, this option exaggerates the flaw in the
argument.
D) The argument assumes that regulating and
restricting smartphone use among children and
sensitizing women to harmful content will effectively
prevent mental health issues.
The passage suggests the need for a protective edifice
and gatekeeping when it comes to permitting children
to use smartphones and sensitizing women to harmful
content. The argument does not assume that these
actions will effectively prevent mental health issues
but presents them as potential measures. Therefore,
this option misrepresents the argument's assumption.
10. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Correct Option: C) Create a support structure to
provide timely counseling and assistance to
individuals experiencing mental health issues related
to smartphone addiction.
Reasoning: This option proposes a course of action
that addresses the concern of mental health issues
related to smartphone addiction. It suggests the
creation of a support structure to offer counseling and
assistance to individuals experiencing such issues.
Incorrect Options:
A) Implement strict regulations and surveillance
measures to monitor smartphone usage among
children.
This option suggests a course of action focused on
strict regulations and surveillance measures without
addressing the need for support and counseling. It
goes beyond the scope of the passage.
B) Conduct further research to determine the exact
impact of smartphone use on mental health in
different demographic groups.
While further research may be beneficial, it does not
directly address the immediate need for support and
counseling for individuals experiencing mental health
issues related to smartphone addiction. Therefore, this
option is not the most appropriate course of action
based on the information provided.
D) Educate parents and teachers on the importance of
gatekeeping and responsible smartphone use among
children.
While education of parents and teachers is mentioned
in the passage, it does not address the need for a
support structure to provide counseling and assistance
to individuals experiencing mental health issues
related to smartphone addiction. Therefore, this
option does not fully capture the most appropriate
course of action.
[44]
PASSAGE III
11. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Correct option: a) Kiren Rijiju voluntarily requested a
transfer to the earth sciences ministry due to his
personal interest in the subject.
Reasoning:
If it is true that Kiren Rijiju requested the transfer
himself due to his personal interest in earth sciences,
it would indicate that the government's motive behind
the change in portfolio was not related to the judiciary
or a desire for a smoother relationship with the
Supreme Court. This would weaken the speculation
about the government's intention.
Other options:
b) The Supreme Court recently praised Kiren Rijiju
for his efforts in advocating for judicial reforms.
This option does not necessarily weaken the
speculation as it could be argued that the praise from
the Supreme Court was part of the government's
strategy to improve its relationship with the judiciary.
c) The government has maintained a cordial
relationship with the Supreme Court throughout
Narendra Modi's tenure as Prime Minister.
This option does not weaken the speculation because
it does not provide any specific information about
Kiren Rijiju's change in portfolio or the government's
motive behind it.
d) The Lok Sabha elections have been postponed,
eliminating the need for the government to establish a
smoother relationship with the judiciary at present.
This option does not weaken the speculation as the
postponement of elections does not necessarily
eliminate the government's motive to improve its
relationship with the judiciary. There could be other
reasons for the change in portfolio.
12. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Correct option: a) Kiren Rijiju's criticism of the
collegium system of judges' appointments had no
impact on the judiciary's stance.
Reasoning:
Based on the passage, it is mentioned that Kiren
Rijiju's aggression and confrontational rhetoric did
not dent the judiciary's stand or ruffle the dignity of
its senior members. Therefore, it can be inferred that
his criticism had no impact on the judiciary's stance.
Other options:
b) Arjun Ram Meghwal's appointment as the new law
minister was primarily influenced by his seniority
within the Bharatiya Janata Party.
This option is not necessarily true based on the
information provided in the passage. The passage
does not provide any specific information about the
criteria for Arjun Ram Meghwal's appointment.
c) Kiren Rijiju's confrontational rhetoric towards
retired judges was openly supported by the vice-
president.
This option is not mentioned in the passage. The
passage only mentions that Kiren Rijiju's remarks ran
parallel to the vice-president's, but it does not
explicitly state that the vice-president openly
supported his confrontational rhetoric.
d) Kiren Rijiju's transfer to the earth sciences ministry
was a strategic move by the government to strengthen
its relationship with the Supreme Court.
This option is not necessarily true based on the
information provided in the passage. While the
passage speculates about the government's motive
behind the transfer, it does not provide definitive
evidence that the transfer was a strategic move to
strengthen the relationship with the Supreme Court.
13. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Correct option: c) The government's high command
disapproved of Kiren Rijiju's increasingly aggressive
stance.
Reasoning:
[45]
 The passage mentions that Kiren Rijiju's
confrontational rhetoric probably had his superiors'
(government's) approval. However, it also states that
the sudden change of portfolio without explanation
suggests that the government may be looking for a
less abrasive relationship with the Supreme Court.
This implies that the government's high command
disapproved of Kiren Rijiju's aggressive approach
towards the judiciary.
Other options:
a) Kiren Rijiju's aggressive remarks were welcomed
by the senior judges of the Supreme Court.
This option is not necessarily true based on the
information provided in the passage. The passage
does not mention the reaction of senior judges to
Kiren Rijiju's remarks.
b) Kiren Rijiju's confrontational rhetoric did not align
with the government's opinion on judges'
appointments.
This option is not supported by the information
provided in the passage. The passage suggests that
Kiren Rijiju was representing the government's
opinion on judges' appointments.
d) Kiren Rijiju's aggressive approach towards the
judiciary negatively affected the government's image.
The passage does not provide evidence to support this
inference. It only speculates about the government's
motive for the change in portfolio, but it does not
explicitly state that Kiren Rijiju's approach negatively
affected the government's image.
14. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Correct option: a) The author assumes that Kiren
Rijiju's aggressive remarks were the primary reason
for his transfer to the earth sciences ministry.
Reasoning:
The passage presents speculation about the
government's motive for Kiren Rijiju's change in
portfolio, suggesting that the transfer may be a
strategic move to establish a smoother relationship
with the Supreme Court. However, this is presented
as speculation and not confirmed information. The
author assumes that Kiren Rijiju's aggressive remarks
were the primary reason for his transfer, which may
not necessarily be the case.
Other options:
b) The author assumes that the government's motive
behind Kiren Rijiju's change in portfolio is solely
related to its relationship with the Supreme Court.
This assumption is based on the speculation presented
in the passage, but it is not explicitly stated as the only
motive. Other factors could also be involved in the
decision.
c) The author assumes that the government's decision
to give Arjun Ram Meghwal independent charge of
the law ministry is solely based on optics.
This assumption is not explicitly made in the passage.
While the passage mentions the government's faith in
optics, it does not provide conclusive evidence that
optics was the sole reason behind the decision.
d) The author assumes that Kiren Rijiju's transfer to a
less important ministry will significantly change
public perception of the government's attitude
towards the judiciary.
This assumption is based on the speculation presented
in the passage, but it is not explicitly stated as a
guaranteed outcome. The author assumes a cause-
and-effect relationship between the transfer and
public perception without providing conclusive
evidence.
15. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Correct option: b) Clearly explain the reasons behind
Kiren Rijiju's change in portfolio to the public and
ensure transparency in the decision-making process.
Reasoning:
The passage highlights the speculation and lack of
explanation surrounding Kiren Rijiju's change in
portfolio. To address the situation and change public
perception, the government should provide clear and
[46]
 transparent reasons for the decision. This would help
dispel speculation and demonstrate accountability.
Other options:
a) Take immediate steps to repair Kiren Rijiju's
relationship with the judiciary and reinstate him as the
Union law minister.
This option assumes that the relationship between
Kiren Rijiju and the judiciary needs to be repaired,
which is not explicitly mentioned in the passage.
Additionally, reinstating him as the Union law
minister may not address the speculated motive
behind his transfer.
c) Appoint a new high-profile minister who can
continue Kiren Rijiju's aggressive approach towards
the collegium system of judges' appointments.
This option does not address the desire for a smoother
relationship with the Supreme Court mentioned in the
passage.
d) Postpone the Lok Sabha elections to allow for a
longer period of smooth relations with the Supreme
Court.
This option will not to its full extent address the
situation in the passage. This will only 'postpone' and
not 'address'.
PASSAGE IV
16. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Correct option: A) Microbes were initially viewed as
agents of disease and destruction, but recent
discoveries have revealed their essential role in
human health and well-being.
Explanation: This option accurately captures the main
idea of the passage. It highlights the shift in
perspective regarding microbes from being seen as
harmful agents to being recognized as essential for
human health. The passage discusses the historical
perception of microbes, the discovery of the human
microbiome, and the understanding that not all
microbes are harmful.
Option B) refers specifically to Robert Koch's
experiments and does not encompass the broader
theme discussed in the passage. Option C) focuses on
the changing view regarding bacteria eradication,
which is only a part of the overall main idea. Option
D) touches upon the oversimplification of
categorizing bacteria but does not encompass the full
scope of the passage.
17. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Correct option: C) The categorization of bacteria as
parasites, commensals, or mutualists is a valid and
accurate representation of their interactions with
hosts.
Explanation: This option correctly assumes that the
categorization of bacteria as parasites, commensals,
or mutualists is a valid representation of their
interactions with hosts. The passage discusses these
categories and acknowledges their existence,
implying that they are valid descriptors.
Option A) makes an incorrect assumption about the
historical perception of microbes being solely
responsible for the negative view. Option B) assumes
that the discovery of the human microbiome has
completely overturned the understanding of microbes,
which is not stated in the passage. Option D) assumes
that the recognition of the beneficial role of microbes
has led to a disregard for the potential harm caused by
certain bacteria, which is not supported by the
passage.
18. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Correct option: C) The variability in the behavior of
bacteria suggests that their impact on the host is
influenced by factors such as strain and host species.
Explanation: This option can be inferred from the
passage, which discusses the variability of bacteria's
behavior and their ability to slide along a spectrum of
interactions with hosts. The passage also mentions the
[47]
 influence of factors such as strain and host species on
the behavior of bacteria.
Option A) contradicts the passage, which states that
most bacteria found in the human body are harmless.
Option B) makes a generalization that is not supported
by the passage. Option D) goes beyond the
information provided in the passage, as the
development of effective treatments is not discussed.
19. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Correct option: A) Recent research has demonstrated
that the elimination of certain strains of bacteria from
the human microbiome can lead to an increased risk
of autoimmune diseases.
Explanation: This option strengthens the argument by
providing evidence of the potential harm caused by
the elimination of certain bacteria from the human
microbiome. It aligns with the passage's argument
against the view that all bacteria must be eradicated
and supports the idea that bacteria play a beneficial
role in human health.
Option B) assumes the existence of a universally
beneficial strain of bacteria, which is not discussed in
the passage. Option C) mentions the reduction of
harmful bacteria through antibiotic use, but it does not
directly support the argument presented. Option D)
presents a general statement about bacterial infections
but does not specifically address the argument in the
passage.
20. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Correct option: C) The categorization of bacteria as
parasites, commensals, or mutualists is a flawed
oversimplification of their complex nature.
Explanation: This statement can be concluded based
on the passage's argument against the categorization
of bacteria as solely "good" or "bad." The passage
emphasizes the continuum of lifestyles that bacteria
exist along and the variable nature of their interactions
with hosts, suggesting that the categorization is an
oversimplification.
Option A) goes beyond the information provided in
the passage, as it states a complete transformation of
understanding that is not explicitly mentioned. Option
B) makes a generalization that is not supported by the
passage. Option D) assumes that the negative
perception of bacteria has remained unchanged since
the 19th century, which is not stated in the passage.
PASSAGE V
21. Correct Option C
(H & S)
The correct answer is C. The passage states that
prejudice can lead to systemic discrimination, which
disproportionately affects certain groups, including
those who experience poverty and lack of access to
healthcare. The other options are either not mentioned
in the passage or are not the potential harm of
prejudice.
Option A is partially correct as the passage also
mentions that experiencing prejudice can have serious
mental health costs, including anxiety, depression,
and PTSD. However, this is not the potential harm of
prejudice that is explicitly stated in the question.
Option B is also partially correct as the passage states
that experiencing prejudice can lead to absenteeism
and decreased productivity. However, this is not the
potential harm of prejudice that is explicitly stated in
the question.
Option D is incorrect as it discusses contact theory
rather than the potential harm of prejudice.
22. Correct Option A
(H & S)
The correct answer is A. The passage suggests that
cognitive retraining involves exposing people to
counter-stereotypical information to challenge their
biases. The assumption underlying this suggestion is
that people can be persuaded to change their biases
through exposure to such information.
[48]
 The passage does not suggest that the prevalence of
prejudice in society is too great to overcome. Instead,
it offers several interventions that have been proven
to reduce prejudice, including cognitive retraining
and perspective-taking. Therefore, option B is
incorrect.
C) While the passage does suggest that a lack of
personal experience with other social groups can
contribute to prejudice, it does not suggest that this is
the primary cause of prejudice. Instead, it suggests
that prejudice can stem from a variety of factors,
including media portrayals and the beliefs of family
and peers. Therefore, option C is incorrect.
D) While the passage does suggest that a lack of
personal experience with other social groups can
contribute to prejudice, it does not suggest that this is
the primary cause of prejudice. Instead, it suggests
that prejudice can stem from a variety of factors,
including media portrayals and the beliefs of family
and peers. Therefore, option D is incorrect.
23. Correct Option A
(H & S)
The correct answer is A. The passage suggests that
contact theory may not be the most effective way to
reduce prejudice because contact alone does not
necessarily lead to reduced prejudice, and the quality
and nature of the contact matters as well. Option A
strengthens this suggestion by pointing out that
contact that is perceived as forced or insincere may
actually reinforce existing prejudices.
Option B is incorrect because it is already mentioned
in the passage that the quality and nature of the
contact matter. Option C is incorrect because it
contradicts the suggestion made in the passage.
Option D is also incorrect because it is already
mentioned in the passage and doesn't provide any
additional information that would strengthen the
suggestion made in the passage.
24. Correct Option B
(H & S)
The correct answer is B. The passage states that being
subjected to racism increases the risks of anxiety,
depression, post-traumatic stress disorder, and other
psychological disorders. This can have adverse
effects on productivity because poor mental health
leads to absenteeism. Therefore, option B can be
inferred from the passage.
Option A is incorrect because it only suggests a
potential consequence of prejudice on work
attendance, but it doesn't address the mental health
costs of prejudice.
Option C is incorrect because it suggests that
prejudice only affects those who experience poverty
and lack of access to healthcare, which is not
necessarily true. Prejudice can affect individuals from
all socioeconomic backgrounds.
Option D is partially correct, as prejudice can have
severe detrimental effects on individuals and broader
society. However, it doesn't specifically address the
mental health costs of prejudice.
25. Correct Option C
(H & S)
The correct answer is C. While the passage suggests
that perspective-taking can be an effective
intervention for reducing prejudice, it also mentions
that it may not be effective for people who already
hold deeply ingrained biases. Therefore, option C is a
potential limitation of perspective-taking as an
intervention for reducing prejudice.
Option A is incorrect because it is actually the
suggested benefit of perspective-taking in the
passage, rather than a potential limitation. The
passage does not provide evidence to support option
D, which suggests that perspective-taking has been
proven to work in the real world. Option D may be too
broad and not specific enough to the context of the
passage. Option B may be a potential limitation of
perspective-taking, but the passage does not provide
information to support this claim.
[49]
Section III primarily belong to the Mesolithic period, providing
PASSAGE I valuable insights into the ancient human civilization.
1. Correct Option B Hence, the correct option is C.
(H & S)
Answer: B) True fresco paintings are created when the 5. Correct Option C
surface of the wall is dry, allowing the colors to (H & S)
penetrate deeply. Answer: C) G. Kishan Reddy
The surface of the walls should be wet to create a true Solution: G. Kishan Reddy is currently serving as
fresco painting so that the colors will be able to Minister of Tourism & Culture. He belongs to the
penetrate deeply. Madhya Pradesh constituency.
Hence, the correct option is B. Hence, the correct answer is C.

2. Correct Option C PASSAGE II

(H & S) 6. Correct Option C
C) Suresh K. Nair (H & S)
Suresh K. Nair is currently working as an assistant Answer: C) Both 1 and 2
professor of painting at the Department of Painting, Solution: Both the given statements are true.
Faculty of Visual Arts. He and his students initiated Hence, the correct option is C.
the Wall of Peace project in January 2019 in
Cherpulassery, Kerala. 7. Correct Option B
Hence, the correct option is C. (H & S)
Answer: B) KS Radhakrishnan
3. Correct Option B Solution: Supreme Court had set up the three-member
(H & S) LS Radhakrishnan panel on road safety in April 2014.
Answer: B) Ellora caves Hence, the correct option is B.
The Gupta period is considered as the golden age of
art and architecture in India. The Gupta rulers were 8. Correct Option C
great patrons of arts, literature, and scholars. The (H & S)
Ajanta and Ellora caves were carved during the reign Answer: C) Implementing automated speed detection
of the Gupta Empire. They contain paintings of both systems
Hindu and Buddhist themes. Solution: While all the options listed can contribute to
Hence, the correct answer is B. reducing road accidents in India, option C has proven
to be an effective measure. These systems use
4. Correct Option C technology to monitor vehicle speeds and
(H & S) automatically detect and penalize speeding offenders.
Answer: C) Mesolithic period Hence, the correct option is C.
The Bhimbetka rock shelters are a UNESCO World
Heritage Site located in the state of Madhya Pradesh, 9. Correct Option B
India. These rock shelters contain one of the oldest (H & S)
known prehistoric art sites in South Asia, which Answer: B) Section 161(1)(b)

[50]
 Solution:161(1)(b) - “hit and run motor accident”
means an accident arising out of the use of a motor
vehicle or motor vehicles the identity whereof cannot
be ascertained in spite of reasonable efforts for the
purpose.
Hence, the correct option is B.
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: The GANHRI cited reasons such as lack
of diversity in staff and leadership, insufficient action
to protect marginalized groups, involving the police
in probes into human rights violations, and poor
cooperation with civil society.

10. Correct Option D 13. Correct Option D

(H & S) (H & S)
Answer: D) None of the above Answer: D. Mandate and competence, Autonomy
Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. It was set up in from government, Independence guaranteed by a
1986 and not in 1995. statute or Constitution, Pluralism, Adequate
Statement 2 is incorrect. Vivek Gogia is the current resources, Adequate powers of investigation
Director of the NCRB. Explanation: The Paris Principles set out six main
Statement 3 is incorrect. It works under the Ministry criteria that NHRIs are required to meet: mandate and
of Home Affairs. competence, autonomy from government,
Hence, the correct option is D. independence guaranteed by a statute or Constitution,
pluralism, adequate resources, and adequate powers
PASSAGE III of investigation.
11. Correct Option A
(H & S) 14. Correct Option A
Answer: a. International benchmarks against which (H & S)
NHRIs can be accredited Answer: a. The highest rating given by the GANHRI
Explanation: The Paris Principles are a set of to NHRIs that follow the Paris Principles
international benchmarks against which National Explanation: ‘A’ status is the highest rating given by
Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs) can be the GANHRI to National Human Rights Institutions
accredited. They provide guidelines for the (NHRIs) that follow the Paris Principles. It allows
establishment, independence, and effectiveness of them to join the work of the GANHRI and the UN on
NHRIs. human rights issues. The NHRC got its ‘A’ rating in
Option b is incorrect because there is no mention of 1999 and kept it in 2006, 2011, and 2017 after a delay
guidelines for conducting investigations into human
rights violations in the text. Option c is incorrect 15. Correct Option A
because the Paris Principles are not a UN resolution (H & S)
on the protection of human rights defenders. Option d Answer: a. International benchmarks against which
is incorrect because the Paris Principles do not NHRIs can be accredited
provide criteria for selecting members of national Explanation: The Paris Principles are a set of
human rights commissions. Hence the correct option international benchmarks against which National
is A Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs) can be
accredited. They provide guidelines for the
12. Correct Option D establishment, independence, and effectiveness of
(H & S) NHRIs.

[51]
 Option b is incorrect because there is no mention of
guidelines for conducting investigations into human
rights violations in the text. Option c is incorrect
because the Paris Principles are not a UN resolution
on the protection of human rights defenders. Option d
is incorrect because the Paris Principles do not
provide criteria for selecting members of national
human rights commissions.
PASSAGE IV
16. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Answer: C) To align with the global trend of phasing
out coal
Explanation: The move to stop building new coal-
fired power plants aligns with the global trend of
phasing out coal and shifting to cleaner sources of
energy. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they do
not accurately reflect the main reason for India's
decision. Hence the correct option is C
17. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Answer: B) 500 GW
Explanation: India plans to achieve an installed
renewable energy capacity of 500 GW by 2030.
Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not
accurately reflect India's proposed renewable energy
capacity target. Hence the correct option is B
18. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Answer: C) 60%
Explanation: Nearly 60% of total electricity generated
in India is from coal. Options A, B, and D are
incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the
percentage of total electricity generated in India that
comes from coal. Hence the correct option is C
19. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Answer: B) They adversely affect the station heat rate
of plants
Explanation: Continuing to operate generating units
that are more than 25 years old is not a bad idea since
the station heat rate of well-maintained plants does
not get adversely affected with age. Option A is
incorrect as it does not accurately reflect the main
disadvantage of continuing to operate generating units
that are more than 25 years old. Option C is incorrect
as it is not relevant to the question. Option D is
incorrect as it contradicts the statement in the text that
transmission links and coal linkages are already there.
Hence the correct option is B
20. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer: D) Enhancing grid reliability and resilience
Explanation: Diversifying India's energy sources can
reduce its reliance on coal and enhance grid reliability
and resilience. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as
they do not accurately reflect the main advantage of
diversifying India's energy sources. Hence the correct
option is D
PASSAGE V
21. Correct Option A
(H & S)
The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant in Tamil Nadu
is a joint venture project.Russia has offered a more
advanced fuel option for the Kudankulam Nuclear
Power Plant (KKNPP) in Tamil Nadu.
Hence, Option A is the correct answer.
22. Correct Option C
(H & S)
The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) is the
regulatory body responsible for overseeing the safety
aspects of nuclear power plants in India, including
those operated by NPCIL. The mission of the Board
is to ensure that the use of radiation and Nuclear
[52]
 energyn India does not cause undue risk to health and
the environment
Hence, Option C is the correct answer.
23. Correct Option D
(H & S)
NTPC Limited, formerly known as National Thermal
Power Corporation, is an Indian central Public Sector
Undertaking under the ownership of the Ministry of
Power, Government of India which is engaged in the
generation of electricity and allied activities.
Hence, Option D is the correct answer.
24. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Air India is not a Central Public Sector Undertaking
(PSU). It is currently owned by the Tata Group after
the Government of India disinvested it completed in
2021.
Hence, Option B is the correct answer.
25. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Jitendra Singh is the Minister of State for Atomic
Energy and Space. The ministry is headed by the
Prime Minister.
Hence, Option B is the correct answer.
PASSAGE VI
26. Correct Option A
(H & S)
According to IPC Section 124 A, “Whoever brings or
attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites
or attempts to excite disaffection towards the
Government established by law in India shall be
punished.
27. Correct Option C
(H & S)
C- Sedition laws were enacted in 17th century
England when lawmakers believed that only good
opinions of the government should survive, as bad
opinions were detrimental to the government and
monarchy. The law was originally drafted in 1837 by
Thomas Macaulay, the British historian-politician,
but was inexplicably omitted when the IPC was
enacted in 1860.
28. Correct Option B
(H & S)
B-The first case to be tried under the law of sedition
in India was 20 years after its introduction in Queen-
Empress v Jogendra Chunder Bose, 1891.
29. Correct Option A
(H & S)
A- Sedition was devised as a tool in 13th century
Britain to suppress the freedom of the printing press
and its ability to criticise the King. The Sedition Act,
1661 imposed punishment on anyone who wrote,
printed or preached any words against the King
30. Correct Option C
(H & S)
C- As early as 1950, the SC in Romesh Thapar v State
of Madras held that “criticism of the government
exciting disaffection or bad feelings towards it, is not
to be regarded as a justifying ground for restricting the
freedom of expression and of the press, unless it is
such as to undermine the security of or tend to
overthrow the state.”
Section IV
PASSAGE I
1. Correct Option D
(H & S)
answer- d) No, since suresh is a Man and the
intercoure should be between person of opposite sex
Adultery, as defined in the scenario, involves
consensual and voluntary intercourse between a
married person and another person of the opposite
sex. In this case, as Suresh is also a man, Paro would
[53]
 not be able to file for divorce on the ground of
adultery based on the scenario provided. Adultery, as
legally recognized, requires a sexual relationship
between a married person and a person of the opposite
sex
Hence, the correct option is (D)
2. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Answer- c) Yes, since at that time marriage was
subsisting, Maegan had intercousre with the opposite
sex and adultery is considered as one of the most
important ground for seeking divorce
according to the passage,
One of the spouses involved in the intercourse with
another person, married or unmarried, of the opposite
sex.
Intercourse should be voluntary and consensual.
At the time of the act, the marriage was subsisting.
There must be sufficient circumstantial evidence to
prove the liability of another spouse.
all criteria of adultery are fulfilled here so Paul is
likely to succeed
Hence, the correct option is (C)
3. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer- a) Yes, since lafik left her without any
reasonable justification and without her consent
Desertion refers to the permanent abandonment of one
spouse by the other without any reasonable
justification and without their consent and according
to the question he left her because he considers her
unlucky which is not a resonable justification to
abandon his wife without her consent.
Hence, the correct option is (A)
4. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer- d) both a and b
To strengthen Hamina's case, she needs to establish
two key elements: (A) that intercourse between Rohit
and Reshma was consensual, and (B) at the time of
the act, the marriage between Reshma and Suresh was
subsisting. Both these elements are essential to prove
adultery under the Hindu Marriage Act and strengthen
the grounds for divorce
Hence, the correct option is (D)
5. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer- d) No, since abusive behavior towards the
assistant does not directly prove that he will do same
with his wife and cruelty means when one spouse
beats or causes any bodily injury to the other
The grounds for filing divorce on the basis of cruelty
require abusive behavior towards the spouse. While
Pranil's behavior towards his assistant is undoubtedly
abusive, it does not directly prove that he will exhibit
the same behavior towards his wife. Furthermore, the
definition of cruelty in this context refers to physical
harm or injury inflicted by one spouse upon the other,
which does not match the scenario described
Hence, the correct option is (D)
PASSAGE II
6. Correct Option D
(H & S)
The RTI Act mandates that public authorities provide
access to information held by them, unless it falls
within the specified exemptions. The economic
interests of the country are not explicitly mentioned
as an exemption, and therefore, the PIO's decision to
deny the request based on economic interests is not
justified. Therefore the correct answer is d a) and b)
are incorrect because the economic interests of the
country do not automatically override the right to
access information. The PIO must disclose
information unless it falls within the specified
exemptions.
[54]
 c) is incorrect because it falsely implies that the
citizen's right to access information can be denied
based on economic interests, which is not supported
by the RTI Act.Hence the correct answer is d
7. Correct Option A
(H & S)
The correct answer is a) Yes, because the disclosure
of information about ongoing investigations can
hinder the investigative process.
The RTI Act includes exemptions to the disclosure of
information, and one of the exemptions is for ongoing
investigations. Disclosing information about ongoing
investigations can potentially interfere with the
investigative process, and therefore, the denial of the
request based on this ground is justified.
b) is incorrect because it suggests that protecting the
integrity of ongoing investigations takes precedence
over the right to information, which is not explicitly
stated in the RTI Act.
c) is incorrect because it disregards the exemption for
ongoing investigations mentioned in the RTI Act.
d) is incorrect because the RTI Act provides
exemptions for ongoing investigations.
8. Correct Option B
(H & S)
The correct answer is b) Yes, because the citizen has
the right to hold the public authority accountable for
non-compliance with the RTI Act.
Section 4(1) of the RTI Act mandates that public
authorities publish certain particulars within 120 days
of the Act's enactment. If a public authority fails to
comply with this obligation, a citizen can file a
complaint to ensure accountability.
a) is incorrect because it only mentions the legal
obligation of the public authority without considering
the citizen's right to hold them accountable.
c) and d) are incorrect because they downplay the
significance of holding public authorities accountable
for non-compliance with the RTI Act.
9. Correct Option A
(H & S)
The correct answer is a) Yes, because the citizen has
the right to appeal if the public authority fails to
respond within the specified timeframe.
Section 5(2) of the RTI Act provides for the
designation of Assistant PIOs who receive
applications and appeals. If a citizen does not receive
a response from the PIO within the specified
timeframe, they have the right to file an appeal.
b) is incorrect because it incorrectly suggests that the
citizen can seek remedies for non-compliance with
the Act, but the primary remedy in this case is the
right to appeal.
c) is incorrect because it falsely states that the RTI Act
does not provide for the right to appeal in case of non-
response.
d) is incorrect because it wrongly assumes that the
specified timeframe is not legally binding.
10. Correct Option C
(H & S)
The correct answer is c) No, because the RTI Act
mandates public authorities to disseminate
information in an easily accessible manner.
Section 4(3) of the RTI Act emphasizes the wide
dissemination of information in an easily accessible
manner. While cost-effectiveness and effectiveness
are important considerations, the public authority
cannot refuse to provide information solely based on
the lack of resources for dissemination. a) and b) are
incorrect because they wrongly suggest that the lack
of resources can justify the refusal to disseminate
information, which is not supported by the RTI Act.
d) is incorrect because it assumes that the public
authority's lack of resources should
PASSAGE III
11. Correct Option B
(H & S)
[55]
 Answer- b) Uttam is liable under section 375 as he
applied his mouth on her vagina, which comes under
rape.
Reason: According to the given scenario, Uttam
entered Raji's room and applied his mouth on her
vagina. This act falls within the definition of rape
under Section 375 of IPC, which includes the
application of mouth into the vagina, urethra, or anus
of a woman. It is not necessary for penetration to
occur for an act to be considered rape. In this case,
Uttam's action of applying his mouth on Raji's vagina
constitutes rape, irrespective of whether penetration
took place or not. Therefore, Uttam is liable under
section 375
Hence, the correct option is (B)
12. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer- d) Raja is not liable because Rohan is not a
woman, and rape can only be committed against a
woman.
Reason: In this scenario, it is mentioned that Raja,
who is intoxicated, mistakenly enters Rohan's room
and puts his finger inside Rohan's anus, believing
Rohan to be his wife. However, it is important to note
that rape, as defined under Section 375 of IPC, can
only be committed against a woman. Since Rohan is
a biological male, even if he behaves like a woman,
the act cannot be classified as rape under the given
circumstances. Therefore, Raja would not be held
liable under section 375 for rape in this case
Hence, the correct option is (D)
13. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer- d) Vladimir is not liable as she is above the
age of 18 and her consent is valid
Reason- In this case Vladimir and Natalia had sex on
3rd january 2024 and on that day she was more than
18 so her consent is vaild. consent can be written,oral
or can be shown with action
Hence, the correct option is (D)
14. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Answer- c) Susmita should file case Under section
376 also her consent was not vaild as she gave her
consent under threat and maximum punishment is life
Imprisonment
Reason- The reason Susmita should file a case under
section 376 is because the scenario described involves
the use of threat and coercion, as Roman, Pinku, and
Dinku showed Susmita a gun and asked her for sexual
activity. In such a situation, even if Susmita initially
agrees due to fear or coercion, her consent is not
considered valid under the law. Section 376 typically
deals with cases of rape where consent is obtained
under duress or threat. The maximum punishment
under section 376 is life Imprisonment
Hence, the correct option is (C)
15. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Answer- b) Susmita should not file any case against
them as it was consensual, and there was no
apprehension of threat.
Reason- The reason for this choice is that as described
in the scenario tis was consensual act without any
indication of threat or coercion. Consent plays a
crucial role in determining the legality of a sexual act,
and in this situation, Susmita willingly agreed without
any apparent coercion. Therefore, filing a case under
section 376, which involves non-consensual acts or
acts involving coercion, would not be appropriate
Hence, the correct option is (B)
PASSAGE IV
16. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Answer: b) This law is valid as sacrificing children is
an immoral act and Article 25 is subject to morality.
Reason: The law prohibiting the practice of throwing
[56]
 children into an open fire as a religious ceremony is
valid because it aims to protect the fundamental rights
and well-being of children. Article 25 guarantees the
freedom of religion but is subject to public order,
health, and morality. In this case, the act of sacrificing
children is considered an immoral act and goes
against the principles of public morality and the rights
of the child, outweighing the right to freedom of
religion
Hence, the correct option is (B)
17. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Answer: b) This law is valid as consuming drugs is a
health concern and Article 25 is subject to public
health.
Reason: The law prohibiting the consumption of
drugs as part of a religious ceremony is valid because
it addresses health concerns. Article 25 guarantees the
freedom of religion but is subject to public order,
health, and morality. In this case, the consumption of
drugs poses health risks, and the state has a legitimate
interest in protecting public health and preventing
potential harm associated with drug use, which
outweighs the right to freedom of religion
Hence, the correct option is (B)
18. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer: d) religious rights under Article 28 are
violated here as it permits educational institutions that
are maintained by religious groups to disseminate
religious instruction.
Reason: The right violated in this case is the religious
rights under Article 28. Article 28 guarantees freedom
as to attendance at religious instruction or religious
worship in certain educational institutions. It permits
educational institutions maintained by religious
groups to disseminate religious instruction. By
prohibiting the PCN community from disseminating
religious knowledge in educational institutions
managed by the community, their right to religious
instruction, as protected under Article 28, is violated
Hence, the correct option is (D)
19. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Answer: b) This law is valid as religious freedoms
under Article 25 are subject to morality, and this
practice is immoral.
Reason: The law prohibiting the drinking of human
blood as a religious practice is valid as religious
freedoms under Article 25 are subject to morality.
While Article 25 guarantees the freedom of
conscience, profession, practice, and propagation of
religion, it is also subject to public order, health, and
morality. In this case, the act of drinking human blood
is considered immoral, and restrictions can be
imposed on such practices in the interest of public
morality
Hence, the correct option is (B)
20. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer: a) There is a violation of Article 26 (Freedom
to manage religious affairs), which includes the
purchase of immovable property.
Reason: There is a violation of Article 26 in this case.
Article 26 guarantees the freedom to manage religious
affairs, including the right to form and maintain
institutions for religious and charitable purposes. The
Pontie community's right to purchase immovable
property is an aspect of managing their religious
affairs. By preventing them from purchasing the
property, their right under Article 26 is violated
Hence, the correct option is (A)
PASSAGE V
21. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer: d) Bigamy
[57]
 Reason: Under Section 494 of the Indian Penal Code,
the offense of bigamy is punishable. Bigamy refers to
the act of marrying someone while already being
legally married to another person
Hence, the correct option is (D)
22. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer: a) No, they have not reached the legal age of
marriage as the legal age for marriage for boys is 21.
Reason: According to the Hindu Marriage Act, the
legal age for marriage is 21 years for males. As both
Jungkook and Rashi are 18 years old, they have not
reached the legal age of marriage under the Act
Hence, the correct option is (A)
23. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer: d) both a and b
Reason: Section 5(v) of the Hindu Marriage Act
prohibits marriages with individuals who are within
the prohibited degrees of relationship, including
marriages with the third generation in the line of
ascent through the mother and the fifth generation in
the line of ascent through the father
Hence, the correct option is (D)
24. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer: d) all the above
Reason: Marriage serves multiple purposes, including
the social practice of uniting two individuals and their
families, granting them the rights to conjugal
relations, and providing a socially approved way of
establishing a family of procreation
Hence, the correct option is (D)
25. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer: a) Sec. 5(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act says
that only monogamy is accepted in Hindu religion and
if the spouse of anyone is not dead at the time of
marriage, then that would be considered as the offense
of bigamy.
Reason: According to Section 5(i) of the Hindu
Marriage Act, only monogamy is accepted in the
Hindu religion. If one's spouse is still alive at the time
of marriage to another person, it would be considered
as the offense of bigamy. Shizuka's claim of bigamy
is based on this provision of the Hindu Marriage Act
Hence, the correct option is (A)
PASSAGE VI
26. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Correct answer: a) Yes, because the RTI Act includes
civil societies indirectly funded by public funds as
public authorities.
Explanation: Section 2(h) of the RTI Act defines
public authority as any authority or body under the
Constitution of India, including civil societies
indirectly or directly funded by public funds.
Therefore, a private company receiving funding from
the central government for a specific project is
considered a public authority under the RTI Act.
b) Yes, because the private company is carrying out a
project under the monitoring of the central
government: This option is incorrect because the
monitoring of the central government does not solely
determine the classification of a private company as a
public authority under the RTI Act. The key criterion
is the indirect or direct funding from public funds.
c) No, because the RTI Act only applies to state and
central government monitored institutions: This
option is incorrect because Section 2(h) of the RTI
Act explicitly includes civil societies indirectly or
directly funded by public funds as public authorities,
irrespective of whether they are state or central
government monitored institutions.
d) No, because private companies are exempt from
disclosing information under Section 4 of the RTI
Act: This option is incorrect because Section 4 of the
[58]
 RTI Act pertains to the proactive disclosure of
information by public authorities. It does not imply an
exemption for private companies funded by public
funds.
27. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Section 1(2) of the RTI Act clearly states that the Act
extends to the whole nation except for the State of
Jammu and Kashmir. Therefore, citizens of Jammu
and Kashmir are not entitled to exercise their right to
information under the RTI Act.a) Yes, because the
RTI Act extends to the whole nation, including
Jammu and Kashmir: This option is incorrect because
it contradicts the information provided in Section 1(2)
of the RTI Act, which specifically excludes Jammu
and Kashmir.b) Yes, because the right to information
is a fundamental right of speech and expression: This
option is incorrect because although the RTI Act
enables citizens to exercise their fundamental right to
speech and expression, it does not apply to Jammu
and Kashmir as per Section 1(2).d) No, because the
RTI Act does not apply to civil societies indirectly
funded by public funds: This option is incorrect
because it is unrelated to the question at hand. The
exemption of Jammu and Kashmir from the RTI Act
is not based on civil societies indirectly funded by
public funds.
Hence, option C is correct
28. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Correct answer: c) No, because ongoing
investigations fall under the exemption clause
mentioned in Section 8 of the RTI Act.
Explanation: Section 8 of the RTI Act provides for
exemptions from disclosing certain categories of
information, including information that would impede
the process of an ongoing investigation. Therefore,
public authorities are not obligated to disclose
information related to ongoing investigations under
the RTI Act.
a) Yes, because Section 2(j) of the RTI Act grants
access to any information under the control of a public
authority: This option is incorrect because although
Section 2(j) provides the definition of "Right to
Information," it does not override the exemptions
mentioned in Section 8, which include ongoing
investigations.
b) Yes, because the citizen has a right to know about
the actions of public authorities: This option is
incorrect because while citizens have the right to
information, the exemptions specified in Section 8 of
the RTI Act limit the scope of information that can be
disclosed.
d) No, because public authorities are not required to
disclose information under Section 6 of the RTI Act:
This option is incorrect because Section 6 of the RTI
Act outlines the procedure for securing information,
but it does not pertain to exemptions from disclosure.
29. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Correct answer: b) Yes, because Section 20 of the RTI
Act provides penalty fees for delayed or distorted
information.
Explanation: Section 20 of the RTI Act provides for
the imposition of penalties if there is a delay in
providing information or if the information provided
is distorted or wrong. Therefore, penalty fees can be
imposed on the PIO for the delay in providing
information.
a) Yes, because Section 7 of the RTI Act prescribes a
time frame of 30 days for providing information: This
option is incorrect because Section 7 of the RTI Act
does prescribe a time frame for providing information
but does not directly address the imposition of penalty
fees.
c) No, because the RTI Act does not impose any
penalties for delayed responses by the PIO: This
option is incorrect because Section 20 of the RTI Act
[59]
 explicitly provides for the imposition of penalty fees 1. Correct Option B
for delays and other specific situations. (H & S)
d) No, because penalty fees can only be imposed if the From the question:
information provided is wrong or distorted: This (𝑥 + 200) × 12 × 2 𝑥 × 10 × 2
100
− 100
= 240
option is incorrect because penalty fees can be 24𝑥 + 4800 20𝑥
100
− 100
= 240
imposed for both delayed information and for
4𝑥 + 4800
distorted or wrong information, as mentioned in 100
= 240
Section 20 of the RTI Act. x = 4800
Now, the SI received on 4800 - 600 = ₹4200 at 15%
30. Correct Option C rate after 3 years:
(H & S) 4200 × 15 × 3
100
= ₹1890
Correct answer: c) No, because Section 23 of the RTI
Act bars the lower courts from entertaining such suits
2. Correct Option D
or applications.
(H & S)
Explanation: Section 23 of the RTI Act states that the
If the number 13P7Q is divisible by 11.
lower courts are barred from entertaining any suits or
So,
applications regarding the Act. However, the writ
(1 + P + Q) - (3 + 7) = 0 or 11
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts
P + Q = 9 or P + Q = 20
remains intact under Article 32 and 225 of the
Case I: If, P + Q = 9
Constitution. Therefore, lower courts cannot entertain
And, P - Q = 1
suits or applications related to the RTI Act.
So, P = 5 and Q = 4
a) Yes, because the lower courts have jurisdiction
Case II: If, P + Q = 20
over matters related to the RTI Act: This option is
And P - Q = 1
incorrect because Section 23 explicitly bars the lower
So, P = 10.5 and Q = 9.5
courts from entertaining suits or applications
Case II can be neglected.
regarding the RTI Act.
So, the number is 13574.
b) Yes, because the citizen has a right to seek justice
After dividing the number by 9, it gives the remainder
for the denial of information: This option is incorrect
2.
because while citizens have the right to seek justice,
So, we should subtract 2 from the number to make it
Section 23 restricts the jurisdiction of lower courts
divisible by 9.
specifically for matters related to the RTI Act.
d) No, because the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme
3. Correct Option D
Court and High Courts is not affected by Section 23
(H & S)
of the RTI Act: This option is incorrect because
Let age of A be ‘x’ years
Section 23 does not affect the writ jurisdiction of the
And age of B = x+5 years
Supreme Court and High Courts. It only pertains to
According to the question,
the jurisdiction of the lower courts in RTI Act-related 𝑥+4 6
𝑥+5−5
=5
matters.
5x+ 20 = 6x
x= 20
Section V
4
PASSAGE I So, the age of C = 5 × 20 = 16 years

[60]
 20+16 3
So, required average = 2
= 18 years Water in 16 liters = 16× 8 = 6 liters

After adding 12 liters of milk

4. Correct Option C Milk quantity = 25 – 10 + 12 = 27 liters
(H & S)
Quantity of Water = 15 – 6 = 9 liters
Let the incomes of Geeta and Sita be 5x and 4x
Ratio of milk and water = 27:9 = 3:1
respectively
3
And the expenditures of Geeta and Sita be 7y and 3y Milk in 20 liters = 20 × 4 = 15 liters
respectively. 1
Water in 20 liters = 20× 4 = 5 liters
ATQ,
Final milk quantity = 27 – 15 + 8 = 20 liters
(5x-7y) = 800 + (4x-3y)
i.e. x = 800 + 4y. …….(1) Water quantity = 9 – 5 = 4 liters
4
Also, 7y = Rs 1400 Required percentage = 20 ×100 = 20%
y = Rs 200.
From (1), x = 800 + 4(200) = 1600. 7. Correct Option C
So, the total income of Geeta and Sita = (5x+4x)= (H & S)
9×1600=14400. (36 - 24)% of total marks = 2x + x
12% of total marks = 3x
5. Correct Option C Total marks = 300x/12 = 25x
(H & S) Kumar's marks = 40% of 25x
Let the distance between A and B is 7x and the 100 = 10x
distance between B and C is 6x. x = 10
Total distance between A and C = 7x + 6x = 13x km Total marks = 250
Total Distance travelled between Pass mark = 24% of 250 + 20 = 60 + 20 = 80 marks
Speed 
Time taken
(7x  6x)
 60  8. Correct Option A
  10  
 2   60   (H & S)
  
Let cost price of 1 kg = 100
130
 13x  60  Marked price of 1 kg = 120% of 100 = 120
60
Selling price of 1 kg when uses true weight
⇒ x = 10
= 75% of 120 = 90
Therefore, the distance from A to
Selling price of 1 kg when uses false weight
B = 7x = 7 × 10 = 70km.
1000
= 90 × ( 750 ) = 120
So, the answer is that the distance from A to B is
70 km Profit amount = 120 – 100 = 20
20
Profit percent = (100) × 100 = 20%
6. Correct Option C
(H & S)
5
Milk in 40 liters = 8 × 40= 25 liters
3
Water in 40 liters = 8 × 40 = 15 liters
5
Milk in 16 liters = 16 × = 10 liters
8

[61]
9. Correct Option A 10. Correct Option A
(H & S) (H & S)
P and Q together complete the work in = 32 × 2 = 64 Let the speed of the swimmer = x km/h
36 And the speed of the stream = y km/h
days Q and R together can complete the work in = 60
Now,
× 100 = 60 days
84
Let the total work = 960 units 𝑥+𝑦
=6
960
Efficiency of (P + Q) = = 15 units/day x + y = 14………(i)
64
36
960
𝑥−𝑦
=6
Efficiency of (Q + R) = = 16 units/day
60
x – y = 6…………(ii)
Now,
Adding eq(i) and eq(ii) we get,
16 × P + 52 × Q + 52 × R = 960
2x = 20
16P = 960 – 52 × 16 ⇒ x = 10
Efficiency of P = 8 units/day From (i)
Efficiency of Q = 15 – 8 = 7 units/day 10 + y = 14
Efficiency of R = 16 – 7 = 9 units/day ⇒ y = 4 km/h
960
Required time = 7 = 60 days
9+8×
8

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