MATH 605, HW 4 SOLUTIONS

Folland’s Real Analysis; Chapter 2:

19.) Suppose fn 2 L1 (µ) and fn ! f uniformly.R R
(a) Show that if µ(X) < 1, then f 2 L1 (µ) and fn ! f : f is automatically measurable
since fn ! f . Given ✏ > 0, there exists N so that |fn f | < ✏/µ(X) for all n N (since
fn ! f uniformly). It follows that for n N
Z Z Z Z Z
f fn = (f fn )  |f fn |  (✏/µ(X)) = ✏ .
(b) If µ(X) = 1, this can fail; e.g., let X = R and fn = 1/n [ 0, n].

20.) Just follow the proof of the DCV but this time apply Fatou to (gn + fn ) and (gn fn ).
R R R
21.) Suppose fn , f 2 L1 (µ) and fn ! f a.e. Show that |fn f | ! 0 i↵ |fn | ! |f |:
Both directions follow from the version of DCV in the previous exercise since
|fn f |  2|f | + |fn | and |fn |  |f | + |fn f| .
(i.e., we use the dominating sequences gn = 2|f | + |fn | or gn = |f | + |fn f |)
22.) Suppose µ is counting measure on the natural numbers. A function is then just a
sequence a1 , a2 , . . . . The monotone convergence theorem then says that:
If (a11 , a12 , . . . , a1n , . . . ), (a21 , a22 , . . . , a2n , . . . ), etc., are sequences with ajn  aj+1
n for all j, n, then
1
X 1 
X
lim ajn = lim ajn .
j!1 j!1
n=1 n=1
The statements for Fatou and the DCV are similar.
R
26). Suppose that f 2 L1 (m) are set F (x) = x1 f (t) dt. Show that F is continuous:
Fix x 2 R and ✏ > 0. The sequence of functions gn = |f | [x 1/n,x+1/n] converges Rto 0 a.e.
(in fact, everywhere except maybe x) and is dominated by |f | 2 L1 . By the DCV, gn ! 0
so there exists N with Z x+1/N
|f | < ✏ .
x 1/N
In particular, for any y with |x y|  1/N we have
Z x Z x Z x+1/N
|F (y) F (x)| = f  |f |  |f | < ✏ .
y y x 1/N

28). These are all similar so I will just do (a). Set fn = (1 + (x/n)) n sin(x/n) and
gn (x) = (1 + (x/n)) n . Note that gn (x) ! e x and limn!1 f (x) = 0 for every x 0 (since
R n
sin(x/n) ! 0). Since
R
|fn |  gn and it is easy to see that gn ! 1, the DCV (as in exercise
21) implies that fn ! 0. (By the way, I think it is even easier just to do this problem
R R
directly; divide the integral into 0R and R1 — and use that sin(x/n) is small on the first
part while (1 + (x/n)) n decays rapidly on the second.)
Professor Minicozzi, Fall 2002.
1
2 MATH 605, HW 4 SOLUTIONS

34). SupposeR that |fn |R g 2 L1 and fn ! f in measure. R R R

(a) Show that R f = lim fn : This follows from (b) (since | f fn |  |f fn |).
(b) Show that |f fn | ! 0: (If we knew that fn ! f a.e., then we could just use the DCV
since |fn f |  2gR 2 L1 .) Fix ✏ > 0. Since g 2 L1 , we can choose E ⇢ X so µ(E) < 1,
supE |g| < 1, and X\E g < ✏/4. Fix > 0. Define “bad sets” Bn ( ) by
Bn ( ) = {x | |fn f |(x) }.
Since fn ! f in measure, lim µ(Bn ( )) = 0. Therefore,
Z Z Z Z
lim |fn f|  |fn f | + lim |fn f | + lim |fn f|
X\E E\Bn ( ) E\Bn ( )
Z
 2g + sup 2g lim µ(Bn ( )) + µ(E) sup |fn f |  ✏/2 + µ(E) .
X\E E E\Bn ( )
Now we’re done (just choose < ✏/(2µ(E)) and then take ✏ ! 0).
35). Show that fn ! f in measure i↵ for every ✏ > 0 there exists N so that for all n N
we have
µ({x | |fn f |(x) ✏}) < ✏ .
I’ll leave this to you guys since it’s pretty much obvious.