PLAN A VOYAGE AND CONDUCT NAVIGATION

1. Publications containing information on Naval Control of Shipping (NCS) in times of

emergency or war are ? Pub. 117, Radio Navigational Aids
2. In determining the characteristics of the lamp which is the main light or an offshore buoy
when passing at night, what is? Any of the above can be used to identify the light
3. While preparing to take a crane from Balikpapan to China. The rules require that you have
on board, available for reference and use, all of the following except ?
Sailing Directions (Enroute)
4. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage if the ship is
in open waters ? At least every 30 minutes
5. Which one of the following land marks on the coast line must be depicted on hydrographic
maps ? Shore line
6. A guide for the Master when entering narrow channel in the form of 2 parallel poles on sore
is called : Leading lines
7. In which publication can information on VTS be found? ALRS
8. You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication provides information about
channel depths, danger, obstruction, anchorages and marine facilities available in that port
Guide to port entry
9. Which of these factors does bearing resolution depend on ? - PRF
10. What are such areas known as target detection ranges are considerably reduce due to
shipboard structures like the Samson posts etc ? - Blind sectors
11. Region B in the IALA-A Buoy System includes the following countries except? Australia
12. Where should notices be posted when work is being carried out on aerials/sound signaling
apparatus : Cargo Office
13. Operational checks on navigational equipment should be carried out when ?
When preparing for sea and prior port entry
14. The most critical aspects to consider when deciding which path to drive. When planning a
voyage crossing large oceans is ?
The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances gained by
sailing by great circle. The ship’s draught and the loadline limits
15. According to rule 13 of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at sea, what
is the definition of “an overtaking vessel”? When coming up with another vessel from a
direction more than 22.5 degrees abaft her beam

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16. When the barometric reading shows little or no change over a twelve hour period, indicate
that ? That present weather conditions will continue
17. In the watchkeeping, doubts arise about the operation of the radar, what needs to be done
to check is ? A radar range compared to the actual range of a known object can be used
to check the operation of the radar
18. What would be the most probable cause of the error, when using the echo sounder in a
river the soundings indicated may be incorrect ? The density of the water
19. Which of the following factors may not be taken into consideration when planning a
passage in coastal waters? Choice of ocean route
20. The stages in the voyage design where the 2nd officer makes the course and calculates
the distance to go at the stage : Planning
21. You underway along the narrow channel in front of another ship, the two of them headed
for the harbor. You hear 2 long blast following 2 short blast form ship behind you. What
does it mean? - I intend to overtake you on your port side
22. Factors that determine the size of the squat is……. Except
Sailing on channel or at sea
23. Approaching a bend in the narrow shipping lane, you can’t see the other side because
there’s a big hill. What sound signal will you make to the blocking hill? One prolonged blast
24. Take a fixed position during sea voyage if the ship is in open water must be done every ?
At least every 30 minutes
25. When the range of a ship in decreasing and its bearing remains constant. The ships are
on : Collision courses
26. Data HW and LW from ATT as follows
November

10 02.40 3.4 F
07.58 0.8

14.03 4.0

20.15 0.7
Water level approaching 12.00 0’clock is : 2.92 M

27. Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical letters.
This indicates the : Rock is dry at high water
28. Factors that must be considered in determining the size of the Margin of Safety, except
Water depth

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29. A route intended for the separation of opposite flows or traffic by forming a traffic lane is
called? Traffic separation scheme
30. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT approximately the
same as the great circle distance?
The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere
31. Determination of the closest approach point (CPA) of contact on a relative motion radar
after ? after the contact has been marked at least twice
32. Responsible to ensure that bridge watch manning levels are at all times safe for the
prevailing circumstances and conditions are ? -OOW
33. Conduct of vessels in sight of one another is regulated in COLREG in part?
Section II of part B P2TL
34. You are enroute to assist vessel. Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course 233°T and
bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to intercept
vessel A? - 256°
36. The distance covered by a ship on five successive days were 325, 315, 305 and 325
nautical miles respectively. Find the average daily run speed if each day is 24 hours long
315 naut. Miles
37. Warnings about serious defects or important changes to navigation aids are broadcast
via ? - Marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
38. To warn the observer if any distinguishable target closes to a range or transits a zone
chosen by the observer, it is used? - Cpa warnings
39. You expect to sight land at 2100 where an alteration of course is marked on the chart. By
2120 no land has been sighted. The visibility is very goo. What action would you take?
Call Master
40. If possible, when choosing objects for position fixing by radar ranges you should, to avoid
Small isolated features
41. You are asked to find if a particular port you are expected to visit has an Indian Embassy.
Which of these publications would you consult? - Guide to Port Entry
42. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic area?
Catalog of Charts
43. The period at high or low tide during which there is no change in the height of the water
called the - Stand of the tide
45. The person on board the ship who is asked to consult when making a passage plan is ?
Master
46. A white buoy with an orange cross within a diamond marked on it indicates - Danger

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47. The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to the
speed and direction toward which the current flows
48. What is the main purpose of VTS?
Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the vicinity
49. Section I part B COLREG discusses ? – Action of the ship in every condition of sight
50. Is anchoring permitted in a narrow channel?
It should be avoided if the circumstances of the case admit.
51. You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by All of the above
52. Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?
The topics for warnings included in HYDROLANTS, HYDROPACS, and NAVAREA
warnings are the same
53. Which statement about Radio Navigational Warning Broadcasts is TRUE?
HYDROLANTS and HYDROPACS cover the same geographical areas as NAVAREA
warnings, but are for the use of military vessels only
54. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply?
Those adopted by the International Maritime Organization
55. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others?
A vessel on pilotage duty
56. Your ship received a HYDROLANT advising of a special warning to mariners from the
Department of State for ships in the Persian Gulf. You are 400 miles south of, and
bound for, the Persian Gulf. What action should you take?
Send an AMVER report and acknowledge receipt of the warning
57. A vessel shall so far is practicable, avoid crossing traffic separation lanes. But if
obliged to do so shall cross the general direction of traffic flow
On a h eading as nearly as practicable at right angles
58. What publication contains information about the port facilities and passage entry to
port? -The world port index
59. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or
river, when under pilot? A passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length
of the voyage, or if the ship is under pilot
60. All temporary and preliminary notices which are currently in force are published
in the Annual Summary of Notices to the mariners
61. When must a passage plan be prepared : Before the voyage commences

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62. If the radar scanner of one ship is at the same height as the cargo deck of the other
during transfer operations, which type of radar would pose a greater danger of the
induced ignition ? - Both a 10 cm and 3 cm radar
63. When making landfall at night, you can determine if a light is a major light or an
offshore buoy by : checking the period and characteristics against the Light List
64. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs
and shoals ? - General charts
65. In a traffic separation scheme, when joining a traffic lane from the side, a vessel shall
do so : - at as small an angle as possible
66. What does not contribute to the commercial GPS receiver position error? Ship’s Speed
67. Which statement concerning GPS is TRUE? It may be suspended without warning
68. You are in charge of a 250-meter freight vessel constrained by her draft proceeding
down a narrow channel. There is a vessel engaged in fishing on your starboard bow
half a mile away. According to Rule 9, which statement is TRUE?
If you are in doubt as to the fishing vessel's intentions you may sound at least five
short and rapid blasts on the whistle
69. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT approximately
the same as the great circle distance?
The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere
70. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important changes to aids to
navigation by means of - marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
71. You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR. Good seamanship
would require that you have on board, available for reference and use, all of the
following EXCEPT the - Sailing Directions (Enroute)
72. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has
a right-handed propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as illustrated).
What would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little space as
possible? Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway, rudder hard to
starboard and full ahead
73. The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is: predicted in Tidal Current Tables
74. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn
from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the - track line
75. When using the ARPA in heavy rain, which action should you take?.
Navigate as though the effective range of the radar has been reduced
76. If there is any doubt as to the proper operation of a radar, which statement is TRUE?

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 A radar range compared to the actual range of a known object can be used to check
the operation of the radar
77. Chart correction information is NOT disseminated through the : Chart Correction Card
78. Which would you consult for information about the general current circulation in the
North Atlantic Ocean? - Pilot Chart
79. On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing white with a
red sector. The red sector - Indicates a danger area
80. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel ""A"" and are passing through the
Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking
several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects
would you consider when establishing a ""safe speed"" for your vessel?
Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of
vessel; effectiveness of navigational equipment (ARPA etc); state of sea and currents
and navigational hazards
81. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on - Coastal anchorage
82. While underway, automatic identification systems (AIS) broadcast all of the following
information every 1 to 10 seconds EXCEPT the - ship's scantlings
83. reading over a twelve hour period indicates
That present weather conditions will continue
84. A list of the latest editions of hydrographic publications with the latest supplement is
published : - in the Admiralty notices to mariners every quarter
85. In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the IALA-B Buoyage
System? Peru
86. What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists?
New editions are corrected through the date shown on the title page.
87. The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of important marine information.
Which NAVAREAS include the Indonesian? – XI
88. The latest edition of a chart can be found from - The chart catalogue
89. A cumulative list of notices to mariners are published - Twice
90. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in 1912, the
ratio of length to width at the entrance for cargo vessels is to - 7.4 and 7.8 to 1
93. How should a vessel cross a traffic lane when obliged to do so?
On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles to the direction of traffic flow

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94. A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses the International Date
Line on an eastbound course at 0900 zone time. What is the date and time at Greenwich
when the vessel crosses the line? - 2100, 24 January
95. Spring tides are tides that : have lows lower than normal and highs higher than normal
96. Mean high water is the reference plane used for
heights above water of land features such as lights
97. The range of tide is the : difference between the heights of high and low tide
98. The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most charts is
Mean sea level
99. Charted depth is the : Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom
100. The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables is
the same as that used for the charts of the locality
101. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate : two depth readings
102. When the moon is at first quarter or third quarter phase, what type of tides will occur?
Neap
103. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall
Avoid anchoring in areas near the termination of the scheme
104. How often is the performance check of a Voyage Data Recorder by a competent person
required under SOLAS? - Annually
105. Which statement is TRUE concerning the Inland Navigation Rules?
They list requirements for Traffic Separation Schemes.
106. During the survey of Long Range Identification and Tracking (LRIT) equipment, which
document must be available to the surveyor to demonstrate compliance with SOLAS?
A report giving the result of the Conformance Test issued by an Approved Service Provider
on behalf of the flag
107. When using a Lambert conformal chart in high latitudes, angles such as bearings are
measured in reference to : the meridian through the ship's position
108. Where will you find information about the duration of slack water? Tidal Current Tables
109. Your dead reckoning position should be plotted
at least every hour on the hour in the open waters of the sea
110. Which statement about a simple conic chart projection is TRUE?
The scale is correct along any meridian.
111. As your vessel is heading southward along the east coast of the United States, you
encounter a buoy showing a red flashing light. How should you pass this buoy?
Leave it to your starboard

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112. Which chart projection would be most suitable for marine surveying : Mercator
113. The depth of water on a chart is indicated as 23 meters. This is equal to: 12.6 fathoms
114. To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable current, you should reach an
entrance or strait at what time in relation to the predicted time of the favorable current?
30 minutes before the predicted time
114. The class of tide that prevails in the greatest number of important harbors on the Atlantic
Coast is ? - Semidiurnal
115. An important lunar cycle affecting the tidal cycle is called the nodal period. How long is this
cycle? - 19 years
116. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?
They have a decreased range from normal.
117. Priming of the tides occurs
when the Moon is between new and first quarter and between full and third quarter
118. Region grooves traffic for ships does range TSS Traffic in shore's lines, traffic corresponds
to that region is - Traffic Areas
119. All bridge member shall attended if there is available changing to passage plan:
All the above
120. Route with prescribed bounds where ships shall get navigations with extra caution is
Precautionary area
121. Which stages following Apraisal stage of passage: Planning, execution and monitoring
122. Area which may not navigate to get bearing with depth and danger of navigation is
No Go area
123. Area which shall be avoided by all ships or for ship by clasification indeed is
Area To Be Avoid
124. Under the IALA - A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port hand mark would not show
which light characteristic? Group Flashing (2 + 1)
125. When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where? A Known Position
126. The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. This means that
1 inch is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the Earth's surface
127. A ship is in longitude 54°00'W on a true course of 270°. The ship's clocks are on the proper
time zone. At what longitude should the clocks be changed to maintain the proper zone
time? - 67°30'W
128. Safe water buoys may show ONLY : white lights
129. The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart would mean :
radar transponder beacon

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130. You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet available.
You are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the range lights
as shown on your starboard beam. You should
ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the range while at anchor
131. On March 17, at 0500 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming eastward to west
longitude. What is your local time? It is 0500, March 16.
132. The shoreline on charts generally represents the mean : High water line
133. A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and advanced to
a common time is a(n) : Running Fix
134. A buoy marking a wreck will show a(n) : white light FL (2) and a topmark of 2 black spheres
135. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of determining
positions and include which of the following? All of these suggested answers
136. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the
passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the
navigation of the ship?
A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when under pilotage
in the same way as discussed with the bridge team when deep sea
137. What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?
An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a competent bridge
team.
138. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS? - Yes
139. Define the required interval between position fixes
Such that the vessel cannot be set appreciable off course, or into danger by the effects of
wind, tide or current
140. When we will prepare the voyage planning. What next after appraisal stage ? Planning
141. Publishes the chart catalogue by? - Hydrographer to the navy
142. A safe water mark may be - All answers are correct
143. If forced to abort the voyage then the actions taken are - All anserws are correct
144. What is the signal from a racon : Enables the beacon to be identified
145. On a hydrographic map, the following feature is shown: All answers are correct
146. How often should anchor bearings be taken, while as vessel is at anchorage ?
At least every hour
147. chart should be used when navigating is ?
the largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly corrected
148. Things that are categorized as critical navigation are – All answers are correct

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149. When deciding upon the route, the following factors are amongst those that should be
taken into account, except :
Available of navigation equipment and the navigator ‘s ability to navigate
150. What is the function of a corner reflector : detects the target below the radar horizon
151. The semi-circle that is dangerous for trapped ship and difficult to escape from tropical storm
is : Cyclone area
152. In radiotelephone communication, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that
A calling station has an urgent message about the safety of a person
153. Distance along a track line is measured on a mercator chart by using the
Latitude scale near the middle of the track line
154. What should a passage plan include ?
The plan should include the entire voyage from berth to berth
155. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed byother means,
when possible. Which of the following suggested methods would be the most accurate?
Compass bearings of three shore objects
156. What is important to check when transfering a position from the GPS output to a paper
chart? Any necessary corrections are applied to convert between the GPS datum and the
chart datum
157. A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of Fix known object on shore
158. Which publication would describe the explosive anchorages in the ports on the east coast
of the United States? Coast pilot
159. Supplements to Sailing Directions are issued at intervals of approximately : 12 Month
160. Controls testing of bridge equipment shoul be carried ou : One or Two hour before sailing.
161. Safe water buoys may show ONLY : White light
162. The closest point of approach (CPA) of a contact on a relative motion radar may be
determined : after the contact has been marked at least twice

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 COORDINATE SEARCH AND RESCUE OPERATION

1. Rescue boat must be able to be lowered at a speed of ship?

Up to 5 kn
2. Mention the causes of oil spill in the sea that can cause marine pollution by oil tanker ship

All answer are correct

3. In what format will an On scene Coordinator report such information as o-scene weather
and operation progress other parties ? - SITREP

4. Which of the following describes how this appointment will be made several rescue units
are engaged in a search and rescue operation, one of will be designated as the One-
Scene Commander (OSC)?

The first rescue unit to arrive at the scene will normally assume the role of OSC, until the
unit appointed as OSC by the SAR Mission Co-ordinator at the applicable RCC is in a
position to take control

5. “If someone does not report to their mustering station during a fire what should be done?”
Conduct a search
6. What measures should be taken immediately on every ship when receiving a danger
message from other ship - All answers are correct
7. What would the recommended uncorrected track spacing be if the recommended distance
between parallel tracks (track spacing) in a search for a casualty by a surface vessel varies
(amongst other factor) according to visibility and the nature of the target in the IAMSAR
Manual. These distance are then normally adjusted for prevailing weather conditions and if
visibility was 5 nautical miles and you were looking for a six-person liferaft.?
3.6 nautical miles
8. What would fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection if the galley on your cargo
vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet ? - One B-II extinguisher
9. What type of line is passed by rescue vessel to a vessel in distress? - Throwing line
10. Which the “Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act” applies when the required
location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel ?
On the bridge or in the wheel house
12. Until when, records of cargo ship fire fighting system testing and inspections must be kept
on board ? - Until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires

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13. Each rescue boat shall be lowered and maneuvered into the water ?
Not less than once in three months

14. Which of the following information shall be specified by the muster list ?
The muster list has been prepared and approval by the administration before the ship
proceed to the sea
15. The meaning of transverse metacenter is?
The point to which G may rise and still permit the vessel to possess positive stability

16. Which of the statement is TRUE, when you are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade
to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78?
The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5 years
17. How will communication be carried out between a ship and a SAR helicopter. According
most circumstances ?
On VHF ch 16.
18. From where, ships can know hazardous messages and calls from other ships in dangerous
- All answers are correct
19. What would you indicate that it’s a submarine if a yellow signal floating in the air form a small
parachute, about 300 feet above the water ?
Is about to rise to periscope depth

20. You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry, “Man overboard starboard side”.
You should instinctively
Give full right rudder

21. According the Rules of the Road. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in
compliance? - All of the above
22. What is an OSC (on-scene commander) In SAR operation at sea
Is the commander of a rescue unit designed for SAR operation in special areas

23. What is the world-wide system operated by the US Coast Guard exclusively in support of
search and rescue operation ?
The Automated Mutual-Assistance Rescue (AMVER) System
24. The three volumes of the IAMSAR Manual are ?
I organization and Management II Mission CO-ordination III mobile Facilities
25. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by
pinching the victim’s nostrils and ?
Applying his mouth tightly over the victim’s mouth

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26. The true statement of a gasoline spill ?
It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill
27. Is there a difference between Rescue boat and Fast rescue boat?
The difference is only that of ro-ro passenger ships Rescue boat is called Fast rescue boat
28. Mention the advantages it does emergency management organization in the ship
All answers are correct

29. Mention and explain 4 (four) main parts that must be in a management organization
emergency on the ship - All answers are correct
30. What must he then do, if a master initially responds to a distress but then in special
circumstances decides not to proceed?
Inform the appropriate search and rescue authorities of his decision and enter the reason
in the ship’s logbook

31. Make sure your air is going into the victim’s lungs when giving rescue breaths by
Watching the victim’s chest rise and fall

32. Call and explain types of procedure of circumstances Emergency procedures applied in the
ship - All answers are correct
33. As per chapter III SOLAS and resolution A.760 (18) the rescue crafts labels on board a
cargo ship should be: - Fluorescent
34. What does the AMVER system stands for?
Automated mutual assistance vessel rescue

35. You are enroute to assist vessel. Vessel A is underway at 5.5 knots on course 033? T, and
bearing 284? T at 43 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 16 knots to intercept
vessel A ? - 303?
36. What is not a Coast Guard regulation requires that all of the following emergencies be
covered at the regular training on fishing boats ? - Emergency towing
37. To reduce the risk of a victim vomiting during CPR, you should
keep the victim’s head turned slightly to one side
38. A “Standard Format for Search and Rescue Situation Report” (SITREPs) should be used by
vessel in distress The SITREP can be compiled as a short form (urgent essential details).
Which of the following information shall be included when using the “short form”? Weather
on-scene
39. The working mechanism of emergency response on the ship are include
All answers are correct

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40. Launching device of the lifeboats and rescue boats of the dry cargo vessels must provide
Safe launch, with 150 people and trim up to 15 degrees and heel on each side up to 25
degrees

41. At what frequency/band work search and rescue transponder? - 9 Ghz

42. You are Senior Officer on board a merchant vessel. During the night you have been in
collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What would you do ?
Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors
43. Mention the internal and external resources that can be used in overcoming the event of
emergency conditions that are no longer resolable - All answers correct
44. Which of the following prevention actions offers the guarantee of an efficient intervention in
an emergency - All the listed answers
45. Which the correct statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone,
except ?
It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 KHZ by two dashes of 10 to 15
seconds duration
46. An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to
Lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible
47. The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to
Prevent outside air from entering the tank
48. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?
Arms above their head
49. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the navigation
bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be identified in the emergency
plans?
Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the ship and the
security of its passenger and crew, Pesonnel accidents, Cargo-related accidents,
Emergency assistance to other ship
50. It has been shown that the controlled release of oil is effective in reducing the effects of the
sea, making it possible for a rescue craft to approach survivors in the water. How many
square metres does the IAMSAR Manual suggest may be calmed by releasing 200 litres of
lubricating oil slowly through a rubber hose with the outlet maintained just above the
surface while the ship proceeds at slow speed?
Approx 5,000 square metres

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51. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the
surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?
Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container.
52. When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of
how many breaths per minute? - 12
53. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft?
- Use them only when you are aware of a ship or plane in the area.
54. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins.
Which information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency instructions?
The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
55. Where several rescue units are engaged in a search and rescue operation, one of will be
designated as the On-Scene Commander (OSC). Which of the following descibes how this
appointment will be made?
The OSC will always be designated by the nearest Rescue Coordination Centre. No other
vessel may assume the role at any time
56. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should
FIRST - Boat the sea anchor
57. You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with air. If your
instructions say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15% of the
LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentage of vapors for men to enter? 15%

58. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is

incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL
(Lower flammable limit)
59. What type of search pattern is recommended in the IAMSAR Manual as most effective
when the location of the search object is known within relatively close limits?
Expanding Square Search
60. What is the name of the reference manual, jointly produced by the International Maritime
Organization and the International Civil Aviation Authority, which currently outlines the
organization and management of search and rescue activities at sea?
The International Aeronautical and Maritime Search and Rescue (IAMSAR) Manual.
61. According to the IAMSAR Manual, what is the expected survival time for a person in water
of 4-10 degrees Celsius, without special protective clothing?
Less then 3 hour
62. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must
hold at least a

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 Restricted radiotelephone operator permit
63. What is a passenger ship according to SOLAS regulations?
A ship which carries more than 12 passengers
64. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their
All of the above
65. How many separate means of escape from passengers and crew spaces should it be in
each zone? Two
66. Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped
with an inert gas system if the tonnage is more than
100,000 DWT (metric tons)
67. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned?
The master and the shipowner are responsible for the adequate manning of the ship.
68. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when
Final topping off is occurring
69. Transverse stability calculations require the use of
Hydrostatic curves
70. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator
Remove the locking pin
71. The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for
Signals that must be sounded when being towed in restricted visibility
72. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions
and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?
15 compressions then 2 inflations
73. if an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by
Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft
74. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done
Without losing the rhythm of respiration
75. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflate You hear a
continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?
Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.
76. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the
safety pin and
Pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
77. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water

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 Should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps,
and leaning backwards
78. If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when should you
remove the safety pin and pull the hook release?
Immediately upon launching
79. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should
Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
80. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 6 knots on course 133°T, and
bears 042°T, 105 miles from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 10 knots? -
12h 58m
81. The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected "Man Overboard"
situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is one seaman missing?
The vessel turns round and retraces the course back, calling for assistance from other
vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal point for any search pattern to be
established?
Determine when the seaman was last sighted and concentrate the search round the
course line between the last sighting and present position, taking into account any
prevailing current.
82. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your
vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to
Search for survivors
83. What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?
Pick up other survivors
84. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look
for - Survivors in the water
85. The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's largest
loaded liferaft at a speed of at least - 2 knots
86. Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been established, the
drinking routine should include
One-third the daily ration three times during the day
87. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning an OSV and no rescue
craft are in sight, they should
Group to form a small circle of survivors to create a warmer pocket of water in the center
of the circle

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88. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning an OSV, when no rescue
craft is in sight, they should
Be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water
89. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, you should
Remain in the immediate vicinity
90. When abandoning an OSV, following the launching of the survival craft you should
Stay in the immediate area
91. If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action should be to
- Remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel
92. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having abandoned an OSV in a survival craft,
you should - Shutdown the engines and put out the sea anchor
93. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by
avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities
of water? - 8 to 14 days
94. All OSV personnel should be familiar with survival craft
Boarding and operating procedures
95. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is
Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling
96. In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and
For traumatic shock
97. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that
the crew members should
Remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last
known position
98. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible,
you should
Put the vessel's stern into the wind
99. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is
called the - lower explosive limit (LEL)
100. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by - Human error
101. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by - standing on the CO2
bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards
108. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit?
Combustible gas indicator
109. Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank vessels?

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 Flue gases from the ship's boilers are used in some systems
110. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure
the power, then - use a portable CO2 extinguisher
111. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflate You should
Not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape
112. Regardless of local requirements/regulations, when in a U.S. port, all oil spills must be
reported to - National Response Center (USCG)
113. The advantages of using an inert gas system on a tank vessel is that it provides
tank atmosphere with low oxygen content
114. The spread of fire is prevented by - removing combustibles from the endangered area
115. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?
They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a life jacket
116. Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?
They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be cumulative
117. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should
the pressure be applied? - Lower half of the
118. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on cargo
vessels is - None required
119. You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. The barge is NOT gas free.
Regulations say that the cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the
barge may remain open without flame screens
when under the supervision of a senior crew member on duty
120. The deck water seal of the inert gas system
prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas
121. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", your radiotelephone log
must contain - A summary of all distress calls and messages
122. Fire hose coupling - are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
123. Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from the
coastline of the Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 mhz EPIRB that
Will float free and clear of a sinking vessel and automatically activate
124. The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is - 1% to 10%
125. The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" is for
the exclusive use of - All of the above
126. Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is
TRUE?

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 There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system
127. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?
They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to.
128. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with
an identification number
129. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What
can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?
Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing
130. Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum products, the tank must be certified by
a certified marine chemist
131. A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY
when all other means have failed
132. An unconscious person should NOT be - Given something to drink
133. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Security" spoken three times. This indicates that
A message about the safety of navigation will follow
134. The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is
156.8 mhz (channel 16)
137. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate
assistance. You would preface a message advising other vessels of your situation with
Pan-Pan (3 times)
135. In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that
A calling station has an urgent message about the safety of a person
136. The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is
Longer than the rowing oars
137. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of
24 hours
138. Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to a ship on
the horizon? - A red parachute flare
139. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?
Mayday
140. On every vessel, distress signals must be stowed
On or near the navigating bridge
141. A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it
Will float if any two adjacent compartments are flooded

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142. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoiste What
should you do?
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disable
143. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?
Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are require
144. An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that has a
doctor and hospital on boar You want to rendezvous in a certain position so the oiler can
be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message contain?
MAB
145. The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is
More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
146. You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent medical
advice. Your message should contain which code? MAA
147. On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline powered
machinery must be - All of the above
148. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally,
this is the signal for - Fire and emergency
149. Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is
Continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds
150. You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. This means
Place patient in hot bath
151. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short rings
on the general alarm bells" is the signal for
Dismissal from fire and emergency stations
152. After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you receive a
message containing the code MRL. This means
Commence artificial respiration immediately
153. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is
Hypothermia caused by cold temperature
154. The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by
applying the - Any or a combination of the above criteria
155. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is
Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
156. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?
MPR

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157. An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed
So as to float free
158. When a cargo ship is equipped whit a free fall lifeboat, she shall has ?
Additional fast rescue boat
159. How are the provisions must be observed in making the emergency certificate on the ship
according to SOLAS - All answers are correct
160. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS - reduce reserve buoyancy
161. Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher?
20 pound dry chemical
162. A negative metacentric height - should always be immediately corrected
163. Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529 feet long and has a beam of 71
feet. You have timed your full charge rolling period to be 25.0 seconds. What is your
vessel's approximate GM? - 1.56 Feet
164. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has just fallen overboard. Which of
the following manoeuvres is the most appropriate action when the person is still close to
the vessel? - Williamson Turn
165. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is
incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the
atmosphere above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)
166. If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various
angles of inclination will - decrease
167. The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity
of the paint locker exit is - one B-II
168. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a
cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?
an explosimeter.
169. A flame screen - permits the passage of vapor but not of flame
170. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must
All of the above
171. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be carried in the
vicinity of the radio room exit for a tank vessel on an international voyage is one - C-II
172. What is used to test a tank for oxygen content? None of the above
173. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker? - Initial stability
174. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel: poor stability

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175. The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of
The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in
the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard. - 263 tons
176. The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that
it - accelerates erosion
177. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill the
requirements for fire protection? One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
178. Fire hose couplings . - are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
179. What represents the center of gravity? - G
180. Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are - prohibited
181. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required for a galley
having an area of 3,500 square feet is - two B-II's or C-II's
182. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is - 21%
183. Before CPR is started, you should - establish an open airway
184. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially
discharged. It should be - labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
185. What represents the metacentric height? GM
186. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel
below its ignition temperature? CO2
187. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge
should be directed - at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
188. After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be - Recharged
189. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should
close all openings to the area
190. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers
in the pumproom. To comply with regulations, you
should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the lower pumproom
191. Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge which
is NOT gas-free?
An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp
192. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is
apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?
Re-tip the head and try again.
193. To determine what navigation lights and day-shapes must be displayed on mobile offshore
drilling units under tow, you should check the

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 International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea
194. Refer to the illustration below. Which represents the righting arm? GZ
195. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by
removing the fuel
196. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? 80 foot
197. If you desired to communicate with another station that your navigation lights were not
functioning, you would send - PD1
198. A spark arrestor: prevents sparks from getting out of an engine's exhaust system
199. A B-III foam extinguisher contains - 12 gallons of foam
200. The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is
a lamp that is - All of the above
201. Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge into the
marine environment of - garbage
202. On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due
to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 40 feet long and 50
feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is - 1.2 feet
203. In the International Code of Signals, the code signal meaning "I require immediate
assistance" is - CB
204. A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of - 10 pounds of dry chemical
205. What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?
For the instant that it is made DPKP
206. Antiseptics are used principally to - prevent infection
207. A vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity will
decrease the righting moments
208. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility
of capsizing by - rigging a sea anchor
209. What is classified as a B-II fire extinguisher? A 2-1/2 gallon foam
210. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument
over an electrically heated platinum filament.
211. What would be considered a vessel under the International Rules of the Road?
All of the above
212. What causes inflatable lifeboats to be less maneuverable than other lifeboats ?
All of the above
213. The on-scene coordinator will report information such as on-site weather and progress of
operations to other parties, in what format ? SITREP

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214. How are the provisions regarding the implementation of emergency exercises according to
solas 1974 - All ansers are correct
215. Marine operators , when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel
? 16
216. Explain special methods in emergency procedures for collecting collision
All answers are correct
217. A distress alert from an inmarsatEPIRB, is receiuve in the coverage area of a satellite by
ground station within ? Two minutes
218. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to a vessel in
distress than a non participant. AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give
24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from
offshore :
There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system.

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 USE OF LEADERSHIP AND MANAGERIAL

1. It is the Master's responsibility to ensure that:

All information reagrding the onboard training is given to the ship manager
2. Master of every ship must provide:
A link between the shipboard training officer and the company training officer ashore
3. Onboard training should be organised in such a way that:
It is an integral part of the overall training plan
4. The majority of convensions adopted under the auspices of IMO fall into which of the
three main categories:
Maritime Safety, Prevention of Marine pollution, Liability and compensation
5. To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel, one must be:
Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides
6. Why is it important to have good relationship on-board a vessel?
It leads to better work performance and positive atmosphere among the crew
7. Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in the accomodation areas?
To ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in a clean, safe and hygienic
condition
8. All necessary information for the next port of call should be:
Procured before departure from a port
9. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the company by:
The fastest means available
10. Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port, as per present regulation, the USCG
requires: - 96 hours notice of arrival
11. Prior to ordering stores for any department;
Ask the departmental head for a list of store to be ordered
12. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained inorder to:
Control the ship's budget
13. Representative of the port authorities should always receive the best possible treatment:
For ship's clearance to take place quickly and without complications
14. The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours telephone numbers can be found in:
The Ship's emergency contingency manual
15. The responsible person for maintaining budget on board normally is: - Master
16. Where will you normally find the ship's documents including Crew Passports and CDC on
board a vessel? - Master's cabin

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17. Which of the following will be reported to a company on the emergency phone?
All accidents where crew are injured or killed
18. Which of these is not a principle of great man theory?
A great leader is only great in certain situations.
19. In leadership trait theory what is a trait?
A list of key characteristics that makes a leader great.
20. What is Skinner's A-B-C of behaviourism?
Antecedents-behaviour-consequences
21. Contingency theory is based on the assumption that the ideal leader:
Shapes their leadership style depending on the situation.
22. A transactional leader is one who:
Does deals with people in order to get them to do things the leader wants
23. What is a transformational leader?
A leader who inspires the workers to new levels by offering them a vision of a better
future.
24. What is post-heroic leadership theory?
A theory which states that there is too much emphasis on leaders and more attention
should be placed on followers.
25. What is the social construction of leadership?
What counts as good leadership is a construction of the perceptions of the followers.
27. Which of the following statements concerning the rational and emotional aspects of
leadership is false?
Leadership includes actions and influences based only on reason and logic
28. To many, the word management suggests - Efficiency
29. According to the text, leadership is often more associated with - Chan
30. This is a conventional distinction made between managers and leaders.
Managers maintain while leaders develop
31. Which of the following statements about leaders versus managers is false?
Leaders are thought to do things right, managers do the right things
32. According to the text, which of the following statements is true?
Leadership and management have some unique functions with an area of overlap
33. What best describes the leader-follower relationship?
Leadership and followership merge and are linked concepts
34. Ideal leaders according to a survey were commonly characterized as all of the following
except - Cooperative

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35. According to a survey research by Judith Rosener, in terms of their leadership
experiences,
Women helped subordinates develop commitment for broader goals than their own self-
interest
36. What term did Rosener coin to describe how some women leaders encouraged
participation and shared power and information, but went far beyond what is commonly
thought of as participative management?
Interactive leadership
37. Women leaders’ interactive leadership style developed
Due to their socialization experiences and career paths
38. According to female executives, what is the major factor that prevents senior female
executives from advancing to corporate leadership?
Male stereotyping and preconceptions
39. According to female executives. Which of the following factors least prevents women
from advancing to corporate leadership?
Women not being in the pipeline long enough
40. Most male ceos attribute the paucity of women in corporate leadership roles to which of
the following?
Male stereotyping and preconceptions
41. According to a recent study, one of the general factors that explains the shift toward more
women leaders is that women themselves have change It is evident in all except:
A trend toward less stereotypically masculine characterizations of leadership
42. The symbolic message often intended by appointment of women to important leadership
positions is evidence of the fact that - Culture has changed
43. Which of the following statements concerning the reflection component of the AOR model
is false?
Leaders are always aware of the value of reflection in leadership development
44. What describes a kind of learning between the individual and the environment in which
learners seek relatively little feedback that may significantly confront their fundamental
ideas or actions?
Single-loop learning
45. Confronting one’s beliefs, inviting others to challenge you and working on personal blind
spots are aspects of the process of
Double-loop learning
46. Mastering _____ can be thought of as learning how to learn.

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 Double-loop learning
47. People who become leaders in any field tend to first stand out by virtue of their
Interpersonal skills
48. In an organization, one can gain valuable perspectives and insights through close
association with an experienced person willing to take one under his/her wing. Such an
individual is often called a - Mentor
49. The process by which an older and more experienced person helps to socialize and
encourage younger organizational colleagues is called - Consulting
50. How are mentorees benefited in a mentoring relationship?
By gaining an influential ally and by learning about the subtler aspects of organizational
ethics
51. What is seen as an investment that can help change counterproductive behavior, often
interpersonal, that threatens to derail an otherwise valued manager?
Mentoring
52. The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook is to __________.
Draw one line through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
53. Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crew members has been
incarcerated for drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the seaman doesn't have
funds to cover the costs of the fine. Which action should the Master take?
Pay the seaman's fine.
54. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a foreign port and fails to
return. The first report you make should be to the __________ Immigration Service
55. Your vessel is on an extended foreign voyage. Several vacancies have occurred in your
unlicensed crew through sickness and repatriation. Which statement is correct?
Qualified aliens may be employed to fill the vacancies.
56. While a vessel is in a foreign port where there is no American Consul, a seaman
becomes violent prior to sailing. The Master should __________.
Put the seaman in irons and sail to the next port where there is an American Consul
57. A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when __________
The vessel is overloaded
58. A vessel arrives in a foreign port and the Master is informed that the vessel is being sold
to foreign interests. The new owners request that the crew remain on board to complete
the voyage. Under these circumstances, the crew __________.
Has the right to an immediate discharge and transportation to original port of
engagement

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59. Who is responsible for providing urine specimen collection kits to be used following a
serious marine incident? - The marine employer
60. If there are any changes in the crew in a foreign port, the changes will be made by
The Master on the Shipping Articles
61. The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must notify the nearest Coast Guard
Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible?
The Master of the vessel
62. A seaman lost his continuous discharge book during the voyage. Upon discharge from
Articles, he should be issued a __________.
Certificate of Discharge with the white copy forwarded to the Commandant
63. A seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book. Which statement is
TRUE?
The record of entry in the book must be submitted to the Coast Guar
64. Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the seamen is that of the
Master of the vessel
65. Which action will take place if a crew member is replaced in a U.S. port after foreign
articles have been signed, and the ship proceeds foreign?
The name of the new man is added to the articles but not to the Certified Crew List.
66. The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a "T-Boat" involved in a marine casualty
causing injury that requires professional medical treatment must
All of the above
67. What requires a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death?
All of the abov
68. Operators of Uninspected Passenger Vessels are required to keep their Coast Guard
License aboard __________.
Only when carrying passengers for hire
69. You have completed a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for dangerous cargoes loaded on boar
It should be kept in a conspicuous location - On or near the bridge
70. You are steaming in a heavy gale and find it necessary to heave to. Under most
circumstances, this is best done by
Taking the sea fine on the bow and reducing the speed to the minimum to hold that
position
71. The document which shows a vessel's nationality, ownership, and tonnage is the
Certificate of Documentation
72. The official identification of a vessel is found in the

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 Certificate of Documentation
73. The term bullwhip effect is most closely related to: - Demand variations
74. Cross docking results in cost savings associated with - Ordering goods
75. Which one is not a requirement of effective supply chain management? Low cost
76. The term "3PL" is most closely associated with - Outsourcing
77. The letters RFID are most closely associated with - Tracking items
78. Which one of these would have a negative impact on inventory costs?
Bullwhip effect
79. Which one is not a reason for increased emphasis on supply chain management?
The need to improve internal operations
80. Which of the following statements concerning manufacturing and service organizations is
generally true?
In many service organizations customers themselves are inputs to the transformation
processes.
81. Operations typically differ in terms of volume of output, variety of output, variation in
demand or the degree of ‘visibility’ (ie, customer contact) that they give to customers of
the delivery process. Please match the following element with the most appropriate of
the above dimensions. Low unit costs are most closely matched to:- Volume
82. Which of the following is an implication of low variety? - Low unit cost
83. In a service organisation faced with variable demand the Operations Manager can help
smooth demand by:
Scheduling work shifts to vary workforce needs according to demand
84. When developing the operations strategy one of the most important considerations is that
it: - Supports the overall competitive strategy of the company
85. A order qualifying characteristic could be described as :
A factor which significantly contributes to winning business
86. Expansion by acquisition of suppliers and customers, illustrates which of the following
strategies - Vertical integration strategy
87. Process design or redesign is most important when
Competitive priorities have changed
88. Service shops are characterised as which of the following?
Some customer contact, a degree of customisation and some staff discretion
89. A big advantage of a process layout is - Its flexibility
90. As production systems move from projects to batch production to mass production to
continuous production - Products become more standardised

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91. Which one of the following reactive alternatives would typically be best to implement a
chase strategy for a manufacturing firm?
Increase overtime to satisfy peaks in demand
92. Buffer inventory is required as :
Compensation for the uncertainties inherent in supply and demand
93. At a strategic level, the essential role of inventory is to support :
Quality, dependability, flexibility, cost and speed
94. Where demand is uncertain, a key purchasing objective will be : - Fast delivery
95. In lean systems, if a defective product if found, which of the following is generally NOT
done? - The defective unit is passed on to the next workstation
96. Which of the following illustrates an activity that does not add value?
Accumulating parts in front of the next work centre
97. Job design does not involve which one of the following considerations :
Ignoring where the job is located
98. Within a typical behavioural model of job design, which of the following would be
considered as representing core job characteristics?
Task identity / task significance / autonomy
99. When a worker has a say in the work methods that he/she wishes to utilise in his/her job
is characterised by : - Autonomy
100. Which of the following is NOT considered effective in achieving and maintaining service
quality? - Increasing supervision of service providers
101. A quality variable - May be measured on a continuous scale
102. Which of the following is an indirect benefit of improved quality?
Improved image
103. A ‘moment of truth’ is NOT
When the customer is forming an opinion about the efficiency of the service
104. Proactive quality management includes the concept of
Highlighting problems to help solve them
105. Zero defects in manufacturing - Is the goal of TQM
106. Which of the following represent reasons for globalising operations?
All of the above
107. Which of the following is not a key activity of an operations manager?
Managing cash flows
108. Which of the following is not true regarding the differences between goods and services?
- Patents do not protect services

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109. Service organizations generally
Locate in close proximity to the customer
110. The following terms - interchangeability of parts, division of labour, highly repetitive tasks
- best focus on ____. Cost and efficiency
111. Which of the following is generally related to service operations?
Need for flexible capacity
112. Which function typically employs more people than any other functional area?
Marketing
113. The ____ of a firm defines its reason for existence. - Strategic mission
114. The ____ describes where the organization is headed and what it intends to be.
Strategy development
115. A company’s mission statement
Describes in specific terms what the company expects to accomplish
116. Which of the following statements is false?
There are two possible operations objectives (cost and speed).
117. Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the ship's documents? - Master
118. In the decision-making process, a manager should
Develope as many alternatives as possible
119. The doctrine of captain of the ship is exibited in
Operating rooms
120. Quantitative approaches for decision-making are most often associated with
Complex decisions with controlled environmentrs
121. The best describes for “management” is?
The process of coordinating resources to achieve certain results
122. Which of the following is Not a major management dimension ?
Being a public spokesperson for the organization
123. All of the following describes planning Except :
A process perform by senior managers only
124. The examination of characteristics relating to leadership, such as enthusiasm, verbal
skills, creativity,critical thinking ability, and self-confidence, is referred to as a -
Traits approach
125. The two dimensions of leaderships which emerged from the Leader Behavior
Description Questionnaire were ‘consideration’ and ‘ a. - Initiating structure
126. An efficient manager will : - Not be attuned to the grapevine

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127. The________ leadership style is an expression of the leader’s trust in the abilities of
his subordinates - Delegative
128. In a problematic situation, a leader shall make a decision to solve the problem. The
steps to solve the problem consist of the following, except
to make decisions based on sub ordinates’ inputs
129. Prior to ordering stores for any department;
The store inventory should be checked so that you order only the items required
130. It is the Master’s responsibility to verify that the specific requirements (procedures and
instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed. Who will actually
verifythis on board ?
The Designated Person
131. In every decision making process there are a number of actions which are calculated,
except
To react spontaneously
132. In the search for competent seafarers, every Administration shall ensure the quality of
seafarer’s education and training system. Certificates of Competency (CoC) issued by the
Administrations are listed as follows, except
Commercial shipping management
133. Problem solving using scientific approach and creative, innovative and intuitive thoughts
should meet certain requirements as follows, except
Information which is obtained from the 3 rd party resource
134. In order to control the ships’s budget, What should we do:
Proper and accurate inventory of stores
135. To discover/to develop the alternatives is one of the solutions may be taken. The
importance to do the above matters is as follows, except
to evaluate all alternatives which are linked with the defined criteria
136. What is “an examination of leadership-related characteristics, such as enthusiasm, verbal
skills, creativity, critical thinking skills, and self-confidence” called?:
Traits approach
137. What should manager do, in the decision-making process :
develop as many alternatives as possible
138. Seafarers who intend to serve at foreign ships shall be equipped with the following
documents, except
National identification Card

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139. The best possible treatment for representative of the port authorities should always receive
For ship’s clearance to take place quickly and without complications
140. What is the best describe for “negligence”?
Doing what a reasonable person would not do, and not doing what you should do
141. Captain from every vessel must be provide ?
A link between the shipboard training officer and the company training officer ashore
142. The SMS ( Safety Management System) should ensure, amongst other things, that
applicable codes, guidelines and standards recommended by………..are taken into
account. - All of these
143. What is the following below that not a major management dimension?
Being the public spokesperson for the organization
144. The social construction of leadership is ?
What counts as good leadership is a construction of the perceptions of the followers
145. The decision making is always encountered with the probability situation. In order to
increase the execution linkages, it is needed to use the following methods as follows,
except - To utilize the leader’s instinct
146. As a source of power in leadership, which of the following has been identified refer to?
All of the above
147. Organization is a forum to execute the activities, which consists of a number of activities
as follows, except
Who pays the salary of the employees
148. Why the vertical coordination is comparable to horizontal coordination ?
both involve other departments
149. What attention master should do, if Master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is
giving the vessel’s interest full and proper?
Investigate the matter carefully and report the findings to the company
150. The referent power in leadership is ?
Power that stems from a person’s leadership skills
151. Seafarers intend to serve at foreign ships shall be equipped with the following documents,
except - Assignment letter
152. Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides is the reason to ?, -
To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel
153. Problem solving relates closely with the decision making. In management there are a
number of characteristic of the process in problem solving, except

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 To allow the problematic situation growing
154. What task is more difficult for a manager when he or she coordinates activities is
securing cooperation
155. The decision making is a complex process, which can be more effective if it is approached
through the following methods, except
Repeating the previous decisions which have been taken
156. In the process to review various good alternatives, it needs various skills as follows, except
Skill to determine alternatives based on sub ordinates’ spontaneous inputs
157. The conduct of maritime education is based on a number of pillars as follows, except
Learning to get high salary
158. In defining the problem there are a number of questions to be answered as follows, except
What has been decided?
159. Why do crew members on board give up their safety roles?
Lack of leadership
160. Level of leadership/management is categorized as follows, except
Basic management
161. Most likely to influence changes to emergency plans and procedures??
The design and layout of the ship
162. Seafarers level of responsibility which are specified in the STCW are as follows, except
Organization level
163. The implementation of the policy depends on the commitment of the decision maker.
Without a commitment, the efforts made will be in vain. The way to do this through easy-
to accept communication, including: - Subordinates work by letter
164. Which of the following options is characteristic of a contingency approach to leadership?
All of the above
165. The functional requirements for a Safety Management System is to develop, implement
and maintain a system which includes the following
a safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions and procedures to ensure
safe operations and protection of the environment.
166. Bellow is the list of the international conventions which are dealing with marine pollution
prevention, except - ISPS Code
167. The contemporary management theories discussed in the text have which of the
following in common? - Recognition of the complexity of the environment

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168. To solve the problem effectively can be done by combining appropriately between
scientific and the power of thought, which consist of the following, except :
Conventional thought
169. Below is the list of the international conventions which are dealing with marine pollutan
prevention, except : ISPS Code
170. It is the Master's responsibility to ensure that
Concerned personnel carry out the on-board traing progamme effectively
183. What is the ISM Code?
The ISM Code is an international standard for the safe management and operation of
ships and for pollution prevention
184. Which of the following is not considered to be an effective communicative competency for
discussion leaders?
Effective group leaders express individual-centered concern
185. Below is hierarchy of the IMO legal instruments, except
Committe
186. A leader shall prossess certain skills which are expected to provide shelter to their sub
ordinates in any misfortunate situations. Such skills consist of the followings, except
As the dynamist
187. To achieve the organization’s goal, human relations element is needed. Human relations
element is defined as follows, except
Unlimited standar of wage
188. According to ISM, if the company has subcontracting arrangements for manning,
technical support or maintenance, how many documents of compliance are to be issued?
Only one DOC can be issued to the company
189. What group of individual behaviours might lead to an effective team?
Able to listen to feedback
190. We must orgainsed onboard training because : Each crew member is trained individually
191. Leadership types nowadays are categorized in the list as follows, except: Humorist types
192. Under ISM, during assessment for issue and compliance with a DOC the auditor must be
satisfied that the company is in control of
All activities concerning the safety management system which have been subcontracted

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ORGANIZE AND MANAGE THE PROVISION OF MEDICAL CARE ON BOARD

01. what is the maximum recommended effective temperature for a full workload is an
enclosed space taking into account the effects of exposure to heat exhaustion,
heatstroke and dehydration? - 30,50C ET?
02. A small amount of carbon dioxide will quickly result in: - Unconsciousness and death
03. A burn may occur when electricity of high current and voltage passes through the body.
Most damage occurs at the points of entry and exit of electricity. What is the treatment of
electrical burns? - Place sterile dressing over the burn and secure with a bandage
04. Which organs absorb oxygen and part with carbon dioxide? - The respiratory organs.
05. A strain occurs when a muscle or group of muscles is over- stretched and possibly torn,
by violent or sudden movement. Strain can be caused by lifting heavy weights incorrectly.
The treatment of strain may be remembered as the word RICE. What is RICE an
abbreviation for? - Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
06. What is the rate of inflations given until natural breathing is restored, after checked for
open airway, given the first two inflations and checked the pulse to make sure that the
heart is beating.? - 12 – 16 times per minute
07. There are three levels of burning, namely:*Superficial *Intermediate*Deep burns (also
called full-thickness burns) A large burn will almost certainly contain areas of all three
grades. How many per cent of the body may be burned before the danger of shock
occurs? - 15 percent.
08. Asthma is a distressing condition in which the muscles of the air passage go into spasm.
How can the asthma attacks be triggered off ? - Nervous tension, allergy, or none
obvious cause.
09. Which of the following statements concerning the reflection component of the AOR model
is false? - Leaders are always aware of the value of reflection in leadership development
10. Use a barrier device when giving rescue breaths to: - prevent transmission of infections
11. What is the muscle which the most persevering one in the body? - the heart
12. What is the first sign and symptom of a Cardiac Infarction? - Sudden crushing, vice-like
pain in the centre of the chest
13. If a person is unconscious from electric shock, you should first remove him from the
electrical source and then - Determine if he is breathing
14. Women leader’s interactive leadership style developed - Due to their socialization
experiences and career paths

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15. A diabetic has eaten too little food and the person may feel dizzy and lightheaded. The
skin becomes pale, with profuse sweating. Limbs may begin to tremble and pulse
becomes rapid. The urine glucose reaction is negative. What kind of medicine will the
person need as possible? - Sugar lump, sugar drink or something sweet
16. Sun rays and light reflected from a bright surface (e.g sea), can use cause damage to the
skin and eyes. What is this type of burn called? - Radiation burns.
17. According to the text, which of the following statements is true? - Leadership and
management have some unique functions with an area of overlap.
18. A severe blow to or a heavy fall on the upper part of the abdomen (solar plexus) can
upset the regularity of breathing. What is the symptoms and signs?
Difficulty in breathing in and the casually may be unable to speak
19. According to female executives. Which of the following factors least prevents women
from advancing to corporate leadership? - Women not being in the pipeline long enough
20. In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and
For traumatic shock
21. What is Hypothermia and how is it cured? - Body temperature below 35C / Heat the body
22. How long should you flush a victim’s eye with water if a chemical splashes in it?
20 minutes
23. This type of medicine is needed if people with symptoms gradually feel more sleepy and
thirsty, the skin and slimhinner become very dry and there is a sweet taste of breath and
the glucose reaction shows positive. - Insulin
24. Severe pains in the chest occur when the coronary arteries, which supply blood to the
heart, become too narrow for sufficient oxygenated blood to reach the muscles of the
heart. Normally these attacks only last a few minutes, and the pain stops if the casualty
rests. What kind of medicine to be taken when an Angina Pectoris attack occurs? - Nitro
glycerine tablets.
25. Medico massages work for ? - Call an hospital for professional medical assistance by
radio when needed
26. You are part of a team of two First Aiders in a resuscitation situation. What is the rhythm
of resuscitation with two First Aiders? - 5 compressions within every 1 inflations.
27. A person slowly feels more sleepy and thirsty. The skin and slimhinner become very dry
and there is a sweet taste of the breath. The glucose reaction shows positive. What kind
of medicine will the person need as - Insulin
28. Before CPR is started, you should - Established an open airway
29. After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, he should be

N2G 07 2022
 Kept lying down and warm
30. In which way may intake of poisoning material occur? - By inhaling, skin penetrating, skin
absorbing and swallowing
31. To protect yourself against all bloodborne diseases: - wear a face mask whenever giving
first aid
32. Chemical burns in eyes or on the skin can cause severe damage. Some chemicals may
be absorbed through the skin and cause widespread and sometimes fatal damage within
the body. What is the first main treatment if someone is a victim of chemical burns? -
Remove any contaminated clothing and flood the effected area with slowly running water.
Make sure that the contaminated water drains away freely and safety.
33. What is the appropriate treatment for a victim who has a second degree burn on a small
area of the forearm? - Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply burn
ointment, and bandage.
34. Unfortunately an insect has become lodged in the ear. How to remove the insect? -
gently flood the casualty’s ear with terpid water so that the insect will float out
35. What is an indication that someone may be a drug smuggler? - The individual wears
bulky or out of season clothing
36. Water jel is a unique product regarding protection and first aid of burns. Water jel is
delivered in different sizes. Biggest is a carpet with the size 182cm X 152 cm. what is the
highest temperature the water Jel carpet is resistant against? - 1530 C
37. What describes a kind of learning between the individual and the environment in which
learners seek relatively little feedback that may significantly confront fundamental ideas
or actions? - Single-loop learning
38. A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the
proper treatment for this injury? - Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply
burn oinment, and bandage
39. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite /hypothermia may be either superficial or
deep, and the affected tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid should be given a
person with frostbite ? Hand or body heat the affected parts skin-to-skin (e.g. frozen
hand in persons opposite armpit...)
40. Due to exposure to heat fatigue, heat stroke and dehydration, what is the maximum
recommended effective temperature (ET) for full work load in enclosed spaces?
30.5°C ET?
41. How do the human body absorb toxicants? - The human body absorb toxicants through
respiration, skin and the aliment channel

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42. How will you treat a seasick person?
Leave him in bed or request him to have some fresh air.
43. The FIRST treatment for a surface burn is to
flood, bathe, or immerse the burned area in cold water
44. When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should:
begin mouth-to mouth ventilations as soon as possible
45. Which statement about the hospital space on a cargo ship is TRUE? If a ship has a crew
of forty-five who do not have their own room, the hospital must have four berths.
46. If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST
turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume mouthto-mouth
ventilation
47. After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you receive a
message containing the code MRL. This means
Commence artificial respiration immediately
48. Burns to the skin and eyes caused by sunlight and reflected light are? Radiation burns.
49. What is the muscle which the most persevering one in the body? None of the mentioned
50. What is a thermal protective aid ?
Special clothes that prevent a survivor from loosing heat
51. According to a recent study, one of the general factors that explains the shift toward more
women leader is that woman themselves have change it is evident in all, except :
A trend toward less stereotypically masculine characterizations of leadership
52. The symbolic message often intended by appointment of women to important leadership
positions is evidence of the fact that - Culture has changed
53. What do you call the method used for bone-soft part injuries ? - ICE-Methode
54. Alternative actions that are prepared when the main planned action fails is the meaning
of - Contingency plan
55. One of the rules for implementing emergency drills according to SOLAS is
On board passenger ships lifeboat and fire drill must be carried out once a week or
immediately after leaving the last port
56. What of the following is the correct thing of you to do, if a person is in a state of shock?
Treat and reassure the casualty and stay with the person at all times
57. How does the human body absorb toxins ?
The human body absorb toxicants through respiration, skin and the aliment channel
58. Which of the following statements about leaders versus managers is false? Leaders are
thought to do things right, managers do the right things

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59. Precautions to be taken during testing and/or maintenance work on the CO2 system
affecting the exhaust system and precautions to ensure that gas is not released into the
engine compartment due to faults must be ensured are
The main supply line to be blanked off prior to the work
60. Most male ceos attribute the paucity of women in corporate leadership roles to which of
the following? Male stereotyping and preconceptions
61. To check a victim for life-treatening bleeding in the initial assessment:
Check for blood-saturated clothing or blood pooled under the body
62. What term did Rosener coin to describe how some women leaders encouraged
participation and shared power and information, but went far beyond what is commonly
thought of as participative management? Interactive Leadership

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 English Language
1. What is “cargo plan”. When applied to a ships
The plan indicating where cargo is to be loaded and in what quantities
2. Notices to marine _________ carefully and regularly to avoid grounding

Should be studied
3. Wreck sand rock are not easily _________ by the signal
Detected
4. To help the preparations to leave the berth and go to sea, what could the wheelman be
asked to do?
Test the steering by putting the wheel hard over both ways
5. In the diagram, the depth of water under the keel is indicated by letter “C”. Which bridge
instrument would indicate this depth?
Echo sounder
6. If the hot work is to be _______ at the bottom of the tank, the entire bottom _____ be
throughly cleaned and all sediments removed
Carried out – shall
7. in the diagram, which arrow is pointing at the position known as the “bridge”
The bridge is indicated by “A” in the figure
8. For ______ shall time sheets concerning working hours on board ships be kept after their
completion?
How long
9. In the figure, which letter indicated what is known as “mooring bits”?
The mooring bits are indicated by D in the figure
10. Someone _____ the door now. We are not in the living room
Is knocking
11. Able seaman : what do you think of the book?
Oiler : ________ i really love it
It’s terrific
12. It’s still raining now outside. Therefore, the AB’s ____ their rain coat
Are wearing
13. What is a ship’s gangway?
A gangway is a portable means of access between the ship and the shore
14. How should the tug be secured to the ship, when the bridge tells the poop that “ it is the
tug wire”?
The tug will send a wire to the ship for making fast
15. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the position “ MIDSHIPS”?
Midships is indicated by B, in the figure
16. To whom does the requirement as to knowledge of english apply?

N2G 07 2022
 Seafarer employed or engaged on board ship on the business of that ship as part of the
ship’s complement with designated safety or pollution duties
17. What is name of the machine shown, used to heave on the ropes during mooring and
unmooring?
Whinch
18. Whose overall duty is it, to ensure that the plan for entry into an enclosed or confined
space is followed?
The responsible officer
19. Seaman A : _____ i would stay away from drugs
Seaman B : yes, i know. I’ll stay away from it
If i were you
20. In which direction would the “FOWARD HEAD LINE” normally run?
The foward head line would normally lead foward from the bow
21. A cargo that has a stowage factor over 40 is known as a ________
Measurement cargo
22. What is a mooring line?
A mooring line is a thick rope used to moor the ship
23. In the figure is shown the direction of possible mooring lines from the stern of a vessel
when moored port side alongside a jetty. Which letter shows the direction which would be
used by a “STERN LINE”?
The Stern line is indicated by A . In the figure
24. Seaman A : how was your trip to nias?
Seaman B : _______ with it. I want to go there again next year
I’m very pleased
25. in the figure, which letter indicated the “BREADTH” of the vessel?
Breadth is indicated by B , in the figure
27. How can you best protect yourself against the most common injury, sprains or cut in
hands, arm or fingers?
By using gloves when practical, and being observant of the risk
28. What does the helm command “shift the rudder” mean?
Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it is now.
29. Chief engineer : what do you think is the effective way to reduce too black smoke?
Second engineer : _____ clean the filter is one of the effective ways to reduce it
In my opinion
30. Seaman A : _____ get persuaded by drugs peddlers
Seaman B : OK. Don’t worry i won’t
Make sure you don’t
31. The following is one of the writter’s suggestion in forcing people to use public
transportations
Make people buy transit passes as part of their property taxes

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32. On the diagram, what is the area at the forward end of the vessel shown by letter “A”? It
is normally raised by one deck above the main deck
Forecastle
33. The total weight of cargo, fuel, water, stores, passengers and crew, and their effects that
a ship can carry, is the_____
Deadweight
34. What do you understand by the term “let go” when applied to mooring and unmooring?
Let go means to cast off the mooring ropes and wires
35. They secure derricks and batten hatches. What is the meaning of the word batten?
Fasten down
36. Choose the correct word to complete the sentence:
I had a ___ cold last month
bad
37. Which of the following describes the "Responsible Officer"?
A person appointed by the employer or to whom the Master of the ship has delegated
responsibility, empowered to take charge of a specific task
38. By the term "deratization" means the operation for?
destruction of rodents on boards.
39. In calm weather, putting the engines ahead with the rudder hard left should bring port
side to a pier with a spring line led aft from the bow.
the bow in and the stern out
40. What is a "cargo plan", when applied to a ship?
The plan indicating where cargo is to be loaded and in what quantities
41. What is the synonym of the word determine?
Decide
42. What is the meaning of the term 'roll' in ship's motions?
Side to side rotation
43. Which approved publication should be used by a seafarer to help overcome any
misunderstanding in communications?
The (IMO) Standard Marine Communication Phrases (SMCP) booklet
44. What is a "Fairlead" mean?
A Fairlead is a special device through which is passed ropes or wires to stop them
moving sideward's and reduces friction and chafing
45. Man……. I've booked the table but you give it to other costumers
Woman : I'm sorry, Sir. We're going to fix it
This is really a nuisance
46. Don't be in …… of a hurry
too much
47. Although he felt very …. he smiled ….
angry, friendly

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48. Cross bearings ____ an intersection of two bearing lines that have been taken of 2
conspicuous objects
Form
49. A lookout can leave his station
only when properly relieved
50. What is the meaning of the term 'veer' in ship's motions?
Turn from a straight course
51. When acting as helmsman, what should be the method of responding to an order?
When receiving an order, the order should be repeated back to the person who gave it
before carrying out the order.
52. During the anchoring procedure, what would the 2nd Officer understand by the following
request from the bridge, "How is the chain"?
The bridge would like to know the direction of the anchor cable from the hawse pipe.
53. Read the text in the diagram and answer the following question: When should training in
personal survival techniques be given
Before being employed
54. Why did he study the contract in detail before signing it? Why did he study the contract in
detail before signing it?
He studied the contract in detail before signing it because he wanted to know his duties
55. X: Why didn't you answer my phone last night?
Y: Sorry, I ........... out to meet my lecturer, and I left my mobile phone at home
went
56. What are the duties of the bridge lookout during the night, when the vessel is in the
middle of the ocean?
The lookout must keep a lookout all-round the ship and report anything sighted, or heard,
to the Officer of the Watch
57. The Local Notice to Mariners is usually published
weekly
58. Your vessel ----- loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather
and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you
____ the vessel pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel.
have been - should

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59. What is 'd'?

d = Check line
Noted : tambahan

60. I can't stand ___ compositions for English class every week
to have to write
61. The distance between the surface of the liquid and the bottom in a cargo tank is called
Innage
Note :
Innage adalah Jarak tegak lurus yang diukur dari dasar tanki sampai kepermukaan
cairan.
Ullage adalah Jarak tegak lurus yang diukur dari permukaan cairan sampai ke
permukaan tanki.

62. Which of the options represents the best action to take when an item of machinery, which
normally operates in automatic mode, is operated in 'manual' mode?
Keep the Chief Engineer informed of machines performance on an hourly basis

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63. What does the term "Dead Ship" mean?
"Dead Ship" means that the machinery and boilers are in operational due to lack of
electrical power
64. Read the text in the picture before answering the question. What is the fundamental
requirement relating to the older ships, which are still in service?
The older ships must be in good condition
65. What is the meaning of the term 'single up'?
Release all but one
66. The storm passed _____ us last night
Over
67. The pilot station
requires
68. When navigating a vessel, you ..... to maintain its exact position
should never rely on a floating aid
69. The tugs lines ........... and the vessel is then under her own propulsion
Are let go
70. Man : Do you think that free education for poor people will be an effective policy?
Woman : because this is what they really need
I think this will help them a lot
71. Pertanyaan hilang

Before port beam

72. Complete the following sentence. THE WEATHER IS _____ all the time

getting worser

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73. What is the first step in any potentially hazardous work task on board

Risk assessment

74. What time does your cook get up for preparing breakfast ?

He always gets up at 5 am

75. Wreck sand rocks are not easily ____ by the signal

Detected

76. In the diagram which line would be the "AFT SPRING", if the vessel was port side
alongside a jetty?
The Aft Spring is indicated by A, in the figure
77. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the "bits" which would probably be used by the
"FORWARD SPRING" when mooring the ship?

The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by D, in the figure.

78. In the diagram, which letter is pointing at the area known as the "BOW" of the ship?
The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure
79. In the diagram, which letter is pointing to the area of the ship known as the "STERN"?
The Stern area is indicated by C, in the
80. In the figure, which arrow indicates the direction "ASTERN"?

Astern is indicated by D, in the figure

81. In the figure, which letter indicates which item is the "WINDLASS"?

The Windlass is indicated by B, in the figure.

82. In which direction would the "FORWARD HEAD LINE" normally run?

The forward head line would normally lead forward from the bow

83. On the diagram, what is the area at the forward end of the vessel shown by the letter
"A"? It is normally raised by one deck above the main deck

Fo'c's'le or Forecastle

84. On the diagram, which letter indicates what is meant by the word "DRAUGHT" of the
ship?

Draught is indicated by D, in the figure

85. On the diagram, which letter is indicating the "BOW"?

The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure

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86. Read the text in the diagram and answer this question: What should be given to
prospective seafarers? - Approved training in survival techniques
87. What is meant by the term "Single up" when a vessel is preparing to leave the jetty to
which it was moored?
Single up is the term used to describe the process of letting go most of the moorings
lines and just leaving sufficient lines to stay safely alongside.
88. What is the daytime signal to be shown when the vessel is at anchor?
A black ball forward where it can best be seen
89. What is the meaning of the term "Make Fast", when mooring the ship?
Make Fast means secure the ropes to the bits
90. What is the name of the portable walkway or access between ship and shore?
Gangway
91. What is the normal name given to the fuel oil used for the ship's main engines?
Bunkers
92. What is the normal name of the special wire/rope on board the ship used to make a tug
fast? - Towing spring
93. What is the normal name of the waterproof suit shown in the picture? - Survival suit
94. What is the output shown on the "Rate of Turn" display fitted on the bridge?
The Rate of Turn indicator displays the rate the ship is swinging in degrees per minute
95. What is the role of a tug in a port?
A tug assists the ships to moor and unmoor
96. What is understood by the term "Boat Drill"?
"Boat Drill" means the practical training in the various aspects of getting all the people
onboard safely off the ship, in the event of abandoning ship
97. What is understood by the term, "The Lee Side"?
Lee Side is the side that faces away from the wind
98. What is understood by the word "Bollard", when mooring a ship?
A Bollard is a thick steel post to which mooring lines are secured
99. What letter indicates the direction "AHEAD", in the figure?
Ahead is indicated by A, in the figure
100. When keeping a lookout, what would be the correct understanding of the question "What
is the aspect of the other ship"?
The question is requesting some indication of the direction the other ship is heading.
101. When should the lookout report another vessel?
As soon as it is sighted or heard.

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102. Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure?
The Forecastle is indicated by B, in the figure
103. Where on a ship is the deck known as the "Boat Deck"?
The Boat Deck is the deck from which persons embark into the lifeboats
104. Which is the "CAPSTAN", in the figure?
The Capstan is indicated by A, in the figure
105. Which is the "MOORING BUOY", in the figure?
The Mooring Buoy is indicated by B, in the figure
106. Which is the "PANAMA LEAD", in the figure?
The Panama Lead is indicated by C, in the figure
107. Which is the "QUAY", in the figure?
The Quay is indicated by A, in the
108. Which is the "STARBOARD BOW", in the figure?
The Starboard bow is indicated by A, in the figure.
109. Which of the mooring lines shown in the figure is known as the "AFT BREAST LINE"?
The Aft Breast Line is B, in the figure
110. Why could dirty and oily areas of the deck be dangerous?
They may cause people to slip over and hurt themselves
111. With reference to the text in the frame: what is stated as a threat to lives at sea and the
marine environment? - Bad management and poorly maintained older ships.
112. Would there ever be the need for two lookouts on the Bridge watch?
Yes, possibly when there is dense fog and heavy traffic.
113. In the figure, which letter gives the correct understanding of the term "LENGTH
OVERALL"?
Length Overall is indicated by B, in the figure
114. The IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases are recommended to be used when
the ship's Officer is verbally talking to whom?
When talking on the VHF between ships
115. The Second Officer, when on watch on the bridge, is often referred to as the OOW. What
does OOW actually stand for? - Officer of the Watch
116. What is "AIR DRAUGHT", in the figure?
Air draught is indicated by C, in the figure
117. What is "FREEBOARD", in the figure?
Freeboard is indicated by B,
118. What is "LENGHT OVERALL", in the figure?

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 Length overall is indicated by B, in the figure
119. What is the correct understanding of the term "Block Coefficient" as applied to a ship?
Thecomparison of the underwater shape of the ship, to a rectangular block of the same
extreme dimensions.
120. Which is the "CENTRE LINE", in the figure?
The Fore and aft Centreline is indicated by A, in the figure
121. How would you alert others onboard if you saw a person falling overboard?
If I saw a person falling overboard I would shout repeatedly, "Man overboard"
122. Is it always possible to use the word "ship" instead of the word "boat"?
Normally a small vessel is called a "boat" rather than a "ship", otherwise it is not
important.
123. What are the lists called that give the position and task during a lifeboat drill for all
persons on board the ship? - The Muster List
124. What do you call the wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents the ladder from twisting?
The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a 'Spreader'
125. What do you understand by the order: "Move the pilot ladder to the other side"?
Move the pilot ladder to the other side, means: to shift the pilot ladder to the opposite
side of the ship
126. What do you understand by the term: "Let go the tug"?
Let go the tug means: to cast off the lines that secure the tug to the ship
127. What do you understand by: Bitter end?
Bitter end means: the end link of an anchor cable that is secured within the chain locker
128. What do you understand by: Let go the port anchor?
Let go the port anchor means: open the portwindlass brake
129. What do you understand by: Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot
ladder?
Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the
accommodation ladder and rig the pilot ladder right next to it
130. What do you understand by: Secure the tug?
Secure the tug means: to make fast the tug
131. What does the word "pirates" mean?
Pirates are persons who attempt to board and take over a ship at sea
132. What is the meaning of "make fast"
To secure a rope
133. What is the normal term used for the regular training of how to launch the lifeboat?

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 Lifeboat drill
134. What is the objective of the merchant navy?
To safely transport goods by sea
135. What is the room often called where the crew eat their meals?
The crew mess
136. What is understood by the term "take the helm"?
Aake over the steering of the ship.
137. Where is "AFT", in the figure?
Aft is A, in the figure
138. Where is the "BRIDGE", in the figure?
The Bridge is A, in the figure
139. Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure?
The Forecastle is B, in the figure
140. Where is the "PORT QUARTER", in the figure?
The Port quarter is D, in the figure
141. Which is the "STARBOARD QUARTER", in the figure?
The Starboard quarter is C, in the figure
142. Which of these statements is NOT correct ?
Kerosene is good for cleaning the skin.
143. As you still feel very ill, you ......... go and see the doctor - Should
144. Select the correct sentence
I have always worked on oil tanker
145. Visibility was very poor and i .............. on the port side
Keep look out
146. The up and down motion af a ship is called as - Pitch
147. What is dead reckoning ? - Finding ship’s position by deduction
148. A large vessel ................... steerage at slow speed - Does not has
149. The term “angle of flooding” in the code for the carriage of grain in bulk (int. Grain code)
means - Angle of heel at which openings in the hull, superstuctures, which do not
closed weathertight, are immersed in the water.
150. The tugs lines ............ and the vessel is then under her own propulsion
Are letting go
151. Select the correct sentence
I am careful on tankers because they are dangerous
152. What is the meaning of the term ‘slack away’? - To let out but not release

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153. When she ......... on shoals i immediately informed the coastguard ? - Grounded
154. The evening watch is often devided into 2 watches of 2 hour each ............. everyone to
ejnyoy the evening meal. - to Allow
155. What is the synonym of the wold negligence ? - Carelessness
156. Hurry! The ship ........... alongside for long - Does not stay
157. Select the correct sentence
Did you pay for the house in cash?
158. Why did the new cadet want to go to the messroom?
The new cadet want to go to the messroom to become acquainted with the officers
159. By course is ............... the intended sailing direction of the vessel
Understands
160. Seaman A: ------ Get persuaded by drug peddlers ; Seaman B: OK. Don't worry I won't
Make sure you don't
161. The following is one of the writer's suggestions in forcing people to use public
transportations: Make people buy transit passes as part of their property taxes
162. Seaman A : ------- i would stay away from drugs ; Seaman B : Yes, I know. I'll stay away
from it : If I were you
163. A lookout can leave his station : Only when properly relieved
164. You should keep clear of : Any line under a strain
165. If the hot work is to be ----- at the bottom of the tank, the entire bottom ----- be thoroughly
cleaned and all sediments removed : Carried out shall
166. The distance between the surface of the liquid and the tank top in a cargo tank is called:
ullage
167. What is the meaning of the term 'veer' in ship's motions? Turn form a straight course

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 DETERMINE POSITION AND ACCURACY OF RESULTANT POSITION FIX BY ANY MEANS

1. Great Circles passing through the observers zenith and nadir are called
Vertical circle
2. The term when the angle at the pole between the observer’s meridian and the clock circle
passing through a celestial body is - Local hour angle
3. PSV. Surf Perdana departs from Balikpapan to Batam with a total distance of 2500 nm.
Planned to arrive 10 days later. What is the average hourly speed to arrive on time?

10.41 nautical miles / Hours

3. The effect when the planets move closer to the sun compared to when they are farther
from the sun are ? - Faster
5. The internal time between two successively called meridian lines is - A day
6. To find “Mil Simpang” in the calculation of the direction and distance, we can used the
formula - ∆ Bu = Simpang X sec Lm
7. What chart are used for coasting, Pilotage water and plotting Waypoint - Large scale
8. On 29 February 2021 at 20.00 vsl departure from 60? – 00’ N / 178? – 20’ W. true course
= west. Distance = 210 nm Speed 10 knots. Total sailing time is - 21 Hrs
9. The ratio of the chart size to the actual size is - Chart scale
10. Great Circles passing through the observer’s zenith and nadir are called - Vertical circle
11. One of the two coordination of the globe on the equatorial coordinate system is
Declination

12. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears 185°T.
You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line dead ahead. This
indicates that your - Compass has some easterly error
13. It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54°E longitude. Which statement is TRUE?
The observer is in time zone -4
14. In plotting position, the method commonly used is running fix. This method is used when?
Only one bearing line is available

15. What is zone time if your position 06523’E + 5 GMT

16. When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is below the
horizon, it is called: Twilight
17. How often is a chart catalogue published? - Annually

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18. ?A ship sailing with True Course = 90?. An object bearing of 025? We know the variation
=2?E and Deviation = 1? what is the Magnit Bearing ? 26?
19. Which of the following should be considered when using a buoy as a navigation aid?
The buoy may not be in the charted position

20. How many time zone are there in the world? 24

21. The change from an upward movement to a downward movement of sea water is called
Slack water

22. When taking an amplitude, the sun’s center should be observed on the visible horizon
when - In high latitudes
23. The imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a constant rate equal to
the average rate of motion of the true sun on the ecliptic called? - Mean sun
24. When the sun is between 6 degrees and 12 degrees below the horizon is called :
Civil twilight

25. Observations of celestial bodies made to ascertain the latitude just before and after
crossing the meridian are - Ex-meridian altitude
26. An object is said to be circumpolar when?
Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90
28. The meaning of the latter “P’’ symbol in finding of the direction of the altitude is
Local Hour Angle

29. Savings when using great circle sailing, when?

The course is E-W, nearer to the poles
30. A chart with a large scale used for navigation in coastal areas with a scale of 1: 500.000
until 1: 1000.000 is - Coastal Chart

31. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error?
Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame

32. What instrument is used for taking bearings of calculated bodies / object?
Azimuth circle

33. The small circle on the earth’s surface bounding the observer’s view at sea is called:
None of the other options
34. The water depth on the chart measured at the lowest low tide is - Chart Datum
35. The projection of the earth of part of the earth’s surface onto a flat plane is called
Navigation Chart

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36. Where can you find the symbols and abbreviation used on the admiralty chart?
Chart 5011

37. The intensity of refraction on the horizon is - Is maximum

38. Longitudinal zones of the earth’s surface, each 15deg in extent, measured eastward and
westward from longitude 0 deg are called - Zone time
39. In determining the ship’s position with cross bearing it is very good if you choose objects
with intersection 90?
40. A ship’s position determined by the course and distance traveled, including known sets
and currents, regardless of celestial observations or terrestrial bearings is called - Fix
41. You bearings another ship that is on the starboard side of your ship at 19.00. At 19.10
the bearing is the same and at 19.20 the bearing remains the same. What action will you
take? - Keep on your course
42. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of index error?
Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel

43. On the chart the following information is written on the beacon : Gp FI (3) 20 sec 25 m 10
M. 25 m is - Height of the light house
44. As the altitude increase, what happens to Parallax in altitude ? - Increase
45. There are many methods by which we can get a fix of the ship’s position. Some which
are, except - Navtex
46. An horizon produced by bubble gyro of mercury through to allow measurement of altitude
of celestial bodies is called : - Artificial Horizon
47. All Loran-C transmitting stations are equipped with cesium frequency standards which
permit - each station to transmit without reference to another station
48. Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads 60degree
on the limb, the actual arc of the limb from 0degree to the 60degree reading is 30
49. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed by other
means, when possible. Which of the following suggested methods would be the most
accurate? Compass bearings of three shore objects
50. The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315degree and the GHA of a planet is 150degree.
What is the right ascension of the planet? 11 hours
51. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic
compass. How should an error of 5degree WEST be applied to the compass bearings?
Subtract 5 to the bearings
52. The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for - the moon

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53. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a two-dimensional
fix? 3
54. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the accuracy
of the displayed position is reduced?
A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen
55. A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken at
nearly the same time, is a(n) - fix
56. A position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at different times and
advancing them to a common time is a(n) - Running fix
57. A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel’s course
and speed is a(n) - Dead reckoning position

58. Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December 1981. Your DR position at that
time is LAT 15Degree 02'N, LONG 46degree 02'W. Which statement concerning the
planets available for morning sights is TRUE?

At 0558, Mars can be used for an ex-meridian observation

59. When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites that
your receiver is locked onto? - Horizontal Dilution of Precision
60. The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year for - Polaris
61. On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westward.
What is your local time? - It is 1000, 7 July
62. The equation of time is 8m 00s. The mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If you are
2Degree W of the central meridian of your time zone, when will the apparent Sun cross
your meridian? - 12:16
63. When using a radar in a unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from
Ranges
64. Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate
the - speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
65. When navigating a vessel, you should
never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position
66. A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a - negative correction
67. The difference in local time between an observer on 114Degree W and one on
119Degree W is - 20 minutes
68. A position obtained by applying only your vessel's course and speed to a known position
is a dead - reckoning position

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69. Your longitude is 179Degree 59'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m of the 4th day
of the month. Six minutes later your position is 179Degree 59'E longitude. Your LMT and
date is now 00h 02m on the 6th
70. Your vessel is making way through the water at a speed of 12 knots. Your vessel
traveled 30 nautical miles in 2 hours 20 minutes. What current are you experiencing? a.
A following current at 2.0 knots - following current of 0.9 knot
71. While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe the Sun for a speed check. What
would the azimuth have to be? - 150°T
72. A great circle crosses the equator at 173°E. It will also cross the equator at what other
longitude? - 7°W
73. You are taking bearings on two known objects ashore. The BEST fix is obtained when
the angle between the lines of position is - 90°
74. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the following
situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude 30°00'W, Time 1200 GMT. Course steered: 090°
True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200°, Intercept correction: 00°02' Towards
(observed altitude - computed altitude) - Figure 2 is correct
75. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for an
observer in position Latitude 30°00' North; Longitude 15°00' West, when observing the
sun on the meridian, if the sun's Declination is 15°00' South?
Figure 4 is correct
76. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
Only when fixed aids are not available
77. From the following data: Sextant altitude (LL): 38°12.4'; Index error : 3.0' on the arc;
Corr'n for HE : 6.6'; Total corr'n for sun : for UL -17.0' , for LL + 14.8. What is the true
altitude of the Sun's Lower limb? - 38° 17.6'
78. What will be the d?long for departure of 66.5° when the ship is on m?lat of 29 degrees N
- 76°
79. In Mercator sailing - DMP = D'long x Secant Course
80. The DMP between latitude 20? 30' N and latitude 10? 15' S is - 1863.07
81. In latitude 42.36° N, a ship sails due east from Longitude 26.30° W to longitude 21.12° W
. What departure has she made? - 234.08 miles
82. A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of
fixed known objects on shore
83. If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned because
signals begin to blink

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84. For navigational purposes, each great circle on the Earth has a length of
21,600 miles
85. The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70°30'E. Which time would you use to enter
the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN? - 0728
86. The zone time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73°15'E. What time would you use to
enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN? - 0659
87. The time interval between the transmission of signals from a pair of Loran-C stations is
very closely controlled and operates with - an atomic time standard
88. If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than the minimum skywave
distance, there is an area in which no signal isreceived. This is called the
skip zone
89. What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position? - Fix
90. How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix? - One
91. The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the
Index Mirror
92. The horizon glass of a sextant is - silvered on its half nearer the frame
93. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is indicated
by the - equation of time
94. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle? - Aero light
95. The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of which may be
corrected by the navigator. An error NOT correctable by the navigator is
prismatic error
96. What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant? - prismatic error
97. The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the body and the longitude of
the observer is the - Meridian angle
98. In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should adjust the
horizon glass to make it parallel to the index mirror with the index set at zero
99. The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasing distance from the transmitting
stations as - a result of variation in propagation conditions
100. The index error is determined by adjusting the - micrometer drum
101. What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 232°27'? - 127°33'E
102. A polyconic projection is based on a - series of cones tangent atselected parallels
103. A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the reflected image of the horizon
forms a continuous line with the actual image. When the sextant is rotated about the line
of sight the images separate. The sextant has - Side error

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104. During the month of October the Sun's declination is - south and increasing
105. In Loran C - the master station transmits 9 pulses and the secondary stations transmit
8 pulses each
106. Coastal radio navigational warnings are issued
by port and harbour authorities within their respective limits
107. The azimuth of a body whose LHA is 195? will be - Easterly
108. Which of the following methods do you think will give the most accurate ship?s position?
- Two distances off two objects subtending an angle of about 90 degrees
109. When calibrating a sextant for Index Error using the Sun the micrometer reading 'off the
arc' was 32.8' and on the arc was 32.0'. What is the index error of the sextant?
0.4' off the arc
110. Your DR latitude is 10?S. A body whose declination in 20?S when setting makes an
angle of 30? at the observer's zenith. What is its azimuth? - 330?
111. The chronometer which was losing 8 seconds every day was 4m 48s fast on GMT on
20th March. What will be the error on 4th April? - 2m 48s
112. A fixed quantity of Mercury will weigh more at - 80?N Latitude
113. The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination, tabulated in all almanacs, are
for the - centers of the various celestial bodies
114. A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.When using horizontal
sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an indeterminate position will result in
which situation? - A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.
115. When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on a Lambert conformal
projection - a straight line drawn on the chart approximates a great circle
116. The height of eye correction is smaller than geometrical dip because of
terrestrial refraction
117. For what purpose would using a Lambert conformal chart be more convenient than using
a Mercator? - Plotting radio bearings over a long distance
118. When applying a dip correction to the sighted sextant angle (hs), you always subtract the
dip because you are correcting - hs to the sensible horizon
119. A correction for augmentation is included in the Nautical Almanac corrections for
The moon
120. A semidiameter correction is applied to observations of - The moon
121. A gnomonic projection is based on a(n) - plane tangent at one point
122. You are approaching a light fitted with a RACON. The light may be identified on the radar
by - a coded signal appearing on the same bearing at a greater range than the light

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123. The error in the measurement of the altitude of a celestial body, caused by refraction,
increases as the - altitude of the body decreases
124. To determine the ship’s position by bearing an object on land is - Double angle bearing
125. The UTC 10.25. Your ZT is +7. Sunset at your place at? 17.25
126. Navigation chart for difficult channel on a scale 1:100.000 to 1:25.000 is
Explanatory Chart
127. Chart that depict large areas on a small scale especially to provide variations, current,
wind, etc with scale of 1 : 3.000.000 - Overview chart
128. to fix the ship’s position by horizontal sextant angle you need at least 3 Object
129. A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n)
Estimated position.

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 DETERMINE AND ALLOW FOR COMPASS ERROR
1. What will happen when the compass card in a magnetic compass if a vessel changes
course to starboard? remains aligned with compass north
2. What is The difference between magnetic heading and compass heading is? Deviation
3. What is the principal purpose of magnetic compass adjustment ?
reduce the deviation as much as possible
4. In the horizontal soft iron of a vessel, Which compensates for induced magnetism?
Iron spheres mounted on the binnacle
5. If the compass heading and the magnetic heading are the same then
There is no deviation on that heading
6. Magnetic force is GREATEST when the magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the
horizontal component of the Earth’s total magnetic force, at the ? magnetic equator
7. When a high pressure system is centered north of your vessel in the Northern
Hemisphere the wind direction is generally easterly
8. What are the only magnetic compass correctors that correct for both permanent and
induced effects of magnetism? Heeling magnets
9. Your vessel’s movement In OTHER than an east-west direction when the gyrocompass
error resulting, is called – speed error
10. If you use the chart in 1991 how much variation should you apply when the chart
indicates the variation was 3°45’ W in 1988, and the annual change is decreasing 6’ ?
3° 27’W
11. There is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron, at the magnetic equator because
? there is no vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field
12. what happens when it crosses the magnetic equator
The heeling magnet should be inverted
13. The principal purpose of magnetic compass adjustment is to
Reduce the deviation as much as possible
14. The horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the north-south line of the
magnetic compass is - Deviation
15. Which beaufort force indicates a wind speed of 65 knots - beaufort force 12
16. Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a heel of
1° While the vessel is on a compass heading of 000°
17. Which compensates for errors introduced when the vessel heel over?
A single vertical magnet beneath the compass

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18. If a ship is proceeding towards the magnetic equator, the uncorrected deviation due to
permanent magnetism - Decrease
19. What is indicates when you are proceeding up a channel at night. it is marked by a range
which bears 185°T You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line
dead ahead ? compass has some easterly error
20. The total magnetic effect which cause deviation of a vessel’s compass can be broken
down into a series of components which are referred to as ? - Coefficients
21. Deviation is the angle between the Magnetic meridian and the axis of the compass card
22. What corrects for this coefficient of the deviation when the vertical component of the
Earth’s magnetic field causes induced magnetism in vertical soft iron. and this changes
with latitude? - The Flinders bar
23. In variation for an area, the annual change can be found in
the handbook for Magnetic Compass Adjustment, Pub 226
24. If a single vertical magnet is placed under the compass in the binnacle it is used to
compensate ? deviation caused by the vessel’s inclination from the vertical
25. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in Geographical location
26. What should be made a deviation table, when adjusting a magnetic compass for error ?
after adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent magnets
27. The magnets are placed in horizontal trays in the compass binnacle to compensate for
the permanent magnetism of the vessel
28. There is no induced magnetism in vertical malleable iron at the magnetic equator due to
there is no vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field
29. According the nautical chart, ring in the inner of compass rose is magnetic directions
30. The uncorrected deviation due to permanent magnetism, if a ship is proceeding towards
the magnetic equator is ? - decreases
31. The vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field causes induced magnetism in
vertical soft iron. This changes with latitude. What corrects for this coefficient of the
deviation? The Flinders bar
32. When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation table should be made
After adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent magnets
33. A vessel may change in strength of the permanent magnetism due to All of the above
34. What is the horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the north-south line of
the magnetic compass ? - deviation
35. When the vessel heels over, which compensates for errors introduced?
A single vertical magnet beneath the compass

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36. The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a vessel’s compass can be broken
down into a series of components which are referred to as - Coefficients
37. You should have the ship on an even keel, heading north or south, and adjust the screws
if the center a compass bowl in its binnacle, until
no change of heading by compass is observed if you raise and lower the heeling magnet
38. A single vertical magnet placed underneath the compass in the binnacle is used to
compensate for Deviation caused by the vessel’s inclination from the vertical
39. On a polyconic projection chart, where will you find the variation on the compass rose
40. When adjusting a magnetic compass using the fore-and-aft permanent magnets, you
should
Use the magnets in pairs, starting at the top, with trays at the highest point of travel
41. You wish to observe the sun for a speed check , While steering a course of 150°T. What
would the azimuth have to be ? - 150°T
42. Which information does the outer ring of a compass rose on a nautical chart provide ?
True directions
43. You are about to go to sea and adjust the magnetic compass. To expedite the
adjustment at sea, in what order should the following dockside adjustments be made?
Flinders bar first, then the spheres and heeling magnet
44. Deviation which is maximum on intercardinal compass headings may be removed by the
Soft iron spheres on the sides of the compass
45. The intensity of refraction on the horizon is - Is maximum
46. In plotting position, the method commonly used is running fix. This method is used when
? Only one bearing line is available
47. The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms on the binnacle is to compensate
For induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron
48. The quadrantal spheres are used to remove deviation on the intercardinal headings
49. How many degrees are there on a compass card ? - 360°
50. Which error is NOT included in the term "current" when used in relation to a fix?
Known compass error
51. When changing from a compass course to a true course you should apply
Variation and deviation
52. Compass error is equal to the combined variation and deviation
53. The compass heading of a vessel differs from the true heading by Compass error
54. The standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true heading by
Compass error

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55. The greatest directive force is exerted on the magnetic compass when the
vessel is near the magnetic equator
56. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and
annual rate of variation change
57. A relative bearing is always measured from - the vessel's head
58. Variation is the angular measurement between
magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian
59. Magnetism which is present only when the material is under the influence of an external
field is called - induced magnetism
60. Deviation in a compass is caused by the influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel
61. Magnetic variation changes with a change in - the vessel's position
62. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?
Magnetic materials of the same polarity repel each other and those of opposite polarity
attract
63. Gyrocompass repeaters reproduce the indications of the master gyrocompass. They are
Accurate electronic servomechanisms
64. Lines on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic variation are called
Isogonic lines
65. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the heading
flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash, what type of
bearings are produced? Relative
66. Magnetic compass deviation :
Is the angular difference between magnetic north and compass north
67. How is variation indicated on a small-scale nautical chart? Isogonic lines
68. Deviation changes with a change in - Heading
69. If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field other than the Earth's, which
statement is TRUE? Compass error and variation are equal
70. How is the annual rate of change for magnetic variation shown on a pilot chart?
Gray lines on the uppermost inset chart
71. Variation is a compass error that you - Cannot correct
72. The directive force of a gyrocompass
Decreases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic equator
73. Which statement about the gyrocompass is FALSE?
Its accuracy remains the same at all latitudes.
74. A system of reservoirs and connecting tubes in a gyro compass is called a

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 Mercury ballistic
75. At the master gyrocompass, the compass card is attached to the Sensitive element
76. Indications of the master gyrocompass are sent to remote repeaters by the Transmitter
77. If the gyrocompass error is east, what describes the error and the correction to be made
to gyrocompass headings to obtain true headings? The readings are too low (small
numerically) and the amount of the error must be added to the compass to obtain true
78. Which statement about gyrocompass error is TRUE?
The amount of the error and the sign will generally be the same on all headings
79. The most accurate method of determining gyrocompass error while underway is by
Comparing the gyro azimuth of a celestial body with the computed azimuth of the body
80. Horizon earth rate causes a free spinning gyro to appear to __________ to an observer
on the earth - Slow down
81. If your gyro compass reads 20 degrees lower than your magnetic compass
The gyro is experiencing a large amount of deviation
82. Gyroscopic inertia is that force which causes a gyroscope to Spin very rapidly
83. Vertical earth rate is - Maximum at the poles
84. A torque applied carefully to one of the rings housing a gyro will cause the gyro to
Swing wildly about
85. The earth‘s magnetic field is The only force effecting a magnetic compass
86. Provisions that are mandatory for ships to be equipped with a compass that is ?
SOLAS 1974 as amended
87. Each operation of the equipment on board the ship must have The systems and
procedures set out in ? ISM Code
88. Government regulation of the Republic of Indonesia No. 51 of 2002 concerning shipping
which was signed on 23 September 2002 for navigational equipment is regulated in the
eighth section on ship navigation equipment in Article 72 regulates about ?
the ship must be equipped with ship navigation and electronic navigation equipment that
meets the requirements
89. According to SOLAS 1974 as amendments for ships measuring 150 GT or more and
passenger ships, regardless of size, are obligatory a spare magnetic compass
90. According to SOLAS 1974 AS the amendment that all ships of 500 gt or more, in addition
to the previous provisions must be equipped with - Gyro Compass
91. according to solas 1974 as amendment that all ships measuring 500 GT or more
equipped with a Gyro compass and repeater, must be equipped with
a gyro compass bow repeater, to show direction

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92. according to solas 1974 as amendment that all ships measuring 500 GT or more
equipped with
a Gyro compass and repeater, must be equipped with a gyro compass bearing repeater,
for reclining with a 360 horizon arc using a gyro compass
93. According to SOLAS 1974 as amended that all ships measuring 500 GT or more, must
be equipped with A Ship's telephone to communicate the ship's steering direction
readings in the emergency steering gear
94. In an integrated bridge system (Integrated bridge systems), to monitor if one of the
equipment does not work, then the ship must be installed
Audible alarm or visual alert that does not interfere with other sub-systems
95. IMO through the 1974 SOLAS Convention requires that all commercial vessels sailing in
international waters must be equipped with magnetic guidelines by specifying the
construction requirements and the number that must be on board. According to its
construction the magnetic guide consists of
Dry magnetic guide and Wet magnetic guide (liquid)
96. Coulomb's law states that : The like poles of two bar magnets repel each other, and the
unlike poles attract each other.
97. The magnetic field is The area around a magnet in which the magnetic effect is applied
98. The direction of the field is The direction of the lines of force in a magnetic field
99. The field strength is Magnetic attraction or repulsion at a unit pole
100. Permanent magnetism occurs in the hull Since the ship was built in the shipyard
101. The North ship's building bow caused the formation of permanent poles on the hull so
that The bow will be the north and the stern will be the south
102. The best shipbuilding course is North/South development direction
103. When a ship is built in a shipyard and after being launched into the water, it is usually
turned in the opposite direction and that is so that
Minimizes the effect of permanent magnetism on the hull
104. The annual change in variation for an area can be found in : the center of the compass
rose on a chart of the area
105. What is an advantage of the magnetic compass aboard vessels? It is reliable due to it's
essential simplicity
106. On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates : magnetic directions
107. The Flinders bar on a magnetic compass compensates for the : induced magnetism in
vertical soft iron
108. The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates : the direction of the vessel's head

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 ESTABLISH WATCHKEEPING ARRANGEMENT AND PROCEDURES

01. When navigating along coastal waters, what chart scale must be used Coastal charts
02. Who among the following, should the OW seek clarification when he is in any doubt as to
pilot's actions or intentions when there is a pilot onboard Master
03. To ensure that the ship passes through danger, the thing to pay attention to is ?
Isolated danger
04. Power-driven vessel 'MV.Intan Daya 8' and 'MV. Surf Lestari' are in sight of one another.
Which of the following statementsis correct?
Both vessels should alter course to starboard. No whistles signals need be sounded
05. Which of the following task of the OOW should be done frequently while the pilot is on
board Checking ship’s position
06. You sight a vessel bearing 3 points abaft the starboard beam. Sometime later, it is
bearing 3 points forward of the starboard beam. Which of the following circumstances
apply? A vessel overtaking another
07. Who among the following shall be followed by the helmsman when in doubt while the
pilot is on board Master
08. The Light List shows that a navigatonal light has a nominal range of 6 miles and a height
above water 18 feet (5.5 meters ). Your height of eye is 47 feet (14,3 meters) and
visibility is 1.5 miles. At what approximate range will you first sight the light? 2.0 miles
09. If you are the master of the vessel and arranging for look out on duty, what will be your
primary concern should you have given due regards during hours of darkness
Bridge equipment and navigational aids available for use
10. What action do you do at night, you're on a ship powered 'MV. Surf Perdana' approaches
the powered ship 'MV. Surf Allamanda'. You sometimes see white mast lights and green
starboardside 'MV.Surf Allamanda'. Which of the following is correct?
Vessel 'MV.Surf Allamanda' must keep clear of you "MV.Surf Perdana"
11. when escorting the pilot to the pilot ladder, should the OOW be equipped with a
walkietalkie to communicate with the bridge? - Always
12. When the ship starts turning, how much lift is left if the rudder angle is lowered to 20
degrees from the hard over position (35 degrees) with the conventional rudder firmly
positioned and creating lift and drag? About 80 %
13. Frequent accurate compass bearing of approaching ships in clear weather will determine
the OOW of Early detection of risk of collision

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14. The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected "Man
Overboard" situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is one
seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course back, calling for
assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal point for any
search pattern to be established? Determine when the seaman was last sighted and
concentrate the search round the course line between the last sighting and present
position, taking into account any prevailing current.
15. Which of the following important information do the master and pilot should be shared
between them for the safety of the vessel
Navigation procedures, local conditions, ship's characteristics
16. When in shallow water Steering hard when fully steamed forward . How much "lift" is left
when the engine is turned off? About 10 %
17. When ship at anchor which one is not to be considered
Fire fighting equipment be made available
18. At night you notice two white lights lined up vertically that flash alternately every second.
what does the lamp mean? A fishing vessel hampered by her purse seine gear
19. How the inspection be done by the officer in charge of navigational watch while the
vessel is at anchor At frequent interval
20. Publications to search information relating to the public interest of Seafarers?
Mariner's handbook
21. Which of the following is true about carrying radar practice in clear weather
Radar practice can be carried out whenever is possible
22. Apart from watchkeeping on the bridge, OOW duties also include one for the following:
None of the other options
23. If the rudder is steered hard when the ship is fully ahead in deep water, and then the
engine is stopped. How much lift is left considering the effectiveness of the rudder
depends on the flow of water through the rudder ? About 20 %
24. The aspects that must be considered when deciding the appropriate speed when the ship
is approaching shallow water where the Under Keel Clearance will be reduced to about
0.25 of the ship's draft are ? All of the suggested answers
25. Which of the following chart should be used when navigating in coastal and congested
water Large scale
26. Which of the following should be done by officer in charge of the navigational watch while
at anchor Determine and plot ship's position at frequent interval

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27. A ship is being overtaken by another ship while proceeding along a river. What should be
the required procedure?
• The overtaking vessel should request permission from the other ship by sounding two
prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts on the whistle or by direct VHF contact
28. You expect to see land at 18.00 where the change of course is marked on the chart. In
18.10 there is no land in sight, visibility is very good. What action will you take?
Call Master
29. Which of the following will be you possible answer if you asked why you are taking
compass bearing of an approaching vessel frequently? As early detection of risk of
collision
30. What is the change in the force exerted on the ship pushing it off the dock when the ship
is anchored in a strong offshore wind with a speed of 30 knots which suddenly increases
to 60 knots? The force will be Quadrupled
31. At what stage of a passage plan should light for making landfall and primary/secondary
position fixing methods be identified? At the planning stage
32. A large ship in a narrow channel, using its own engine and assisted by a tugboat. Where
should the tugboats be connected to assist the ship in maintaining its course in the
middle of the channel? Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern
33. Which of the following should be done by officer in charge of the navigational watch while
at anchor Determine and plot ship's position at frequent interval
34. Which of the following usually provides the greatest accuracy in determining whether
there is a risk of collision when you have another vessel at the bow of your port in clear
weather, but with moderate seas and large waves?
Observation of the compass bearing over a period of time
35. The following vessels are all required to make the same sound signal when in or near an
area of restricted visibility: a vessel not under command; a vessel restricted in her ability
to manoeuvre; a vessel constrained by her draught / a sailing vessel; a vessel engaged
in fishing; a vessel engaged in towing or pushing another vessel. What is that signal?
One prolonged blast, followed by two short blasts, at intervals of not more than two
minutes.
36. When restricted visibility encountered which one is not the OOW will comply with
Take a compass error
37. Rule 12 of the International Collision Regulations prescribes the action to be taken by a
sailing vessel when meeting another sailing vessel. This depends on the direction of the

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 wind relative to each vessel. In the situation shown here, which sailing vessel (A or B)
must keep out of the way of the other?
Sailing vessel A must keep out of the way of sailing vessel B
38. The correct order to follow while planning a passage would be
appraise, plan, monitor, execute
39. The best speed for your boat to maintain When connecting tugboats is
The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots
40. Who is the responsibility for passage planning? Second officer
41. Which of the following maneuvers is the most appropriate action when the
man overboard is still close to the ship? Williamson Turn
42. When the master leaves the bridge he will tell the OOW, "You now have the watch". How
shall the OOW respond ? He should say loud and clear "I have the watch"
43. According to rule 13 of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea,
what is the definition of "an overtaking vessel"? When coming up with another vessel
from a direction more than 22.5 degrees abaft her beam
44. A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1 knot beam current. At
the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draught and at the
second the underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times the draught. If the current exerted a
force of 50 tonnes on the ship at the first jetty, what would be the approximate force
exerted at the second if the draught is the same? 150 tonnes
45. information about VTS can be found on publication ? ALRS
46. when is shallow water steering hard when fully steamed forward. How
much “lift” is left when the engine is turned off ? about 10%
47. When deciding the composition of the watch on the bridge, which may include
appropriately qualified ratings, the following factors, inter alia, shall be taken into account
according to section A-VIII/2 of the STCW watchkeeping arrangements and principles too
be observed, please determine as follows :
Weather conditions, visibility and weather there is daylight or darkness
48. The shipowner, in all circumstances and at all time, owns the VDR and its information,
determine as follows according to ANNEX 21 RESOLUTION MSC 333 (90) (adopted on
22 may 2012)? Information describing the location of the long-term recording medium
interface and instruction describing the means of interfacing with it as reffered to in 9
should be provided in at least the english language
49. Early, substantial and positive action which is appropriate to the situation and that is
seaman-like and reading apparent to other vessels should always be taken to avoid a

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 collision. Monitoring the effectiveness of an action to avoid collision should continue until
the other vessel is finally past and clear, this situation accoring to ? Rule 5, 6, 8, 18
50. When a ship reaches a point, beyond which it will not be possible to do other than
procced ahead, then, it is called Abort point
51. Under regulation 20 of SOLAS chapter V on voyage data recorders (VDR), the following
ships are required to can VDRs? Ships, other than passanger ships, of 3000 gross
tonnage and upward constructed on or after 1 july 2022
52. Responsibilities between vessels except where rules 9, 10 and 13 otherwise require. A
sailing vessel underway shall keep out of the way of ?
Every vessel which is directed to keep out of the way of another vessel shall, so far as
possible, take early and substantial to keep well clear
53. A useful methods of monitoring cross-track trends in both poor and good visibility is ?
Parallel indexing
54. Who among the following shall be followed by the helmsman when in doubt while the
pilot is on board ? Master
55. When a vessel is to experience a long tow across an ocean, what would be the best
system of connecting the tow?
Wire from a deep sea tug connected to the ship's anchor chain
56. The vessel is on a steady bearing and range is 2 miles and reducing
slowly. What action would you take? A substantial reduction of speed.
57. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will experience an effect known as "Squat".
Which of the following statements most accurately specify the results of squat on the
vessel? There will be a reduction of the vessel's underkeel clearance and a possible
change of trim
58. What is understood by the term ""Balanced Rudder""?
A rudder with part of the rudder area forward of the turning axis, therefore reducing the
load on the steering motor
59. Your vessel is involved in a collision with another vessel. What should you as Master
tell the Master on the other vessel?
Name; Port of registry; Port of destination of your vessel
60. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an other vessel. As Master
responsible for the ship and persons on board, what is the first step to take?
Organise someone to assess the extent of damage and the residual stability of the
vessel.

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61. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic Separation Scheme and receives a
navigational warning of another vessel progressing the wrong way within the scheme.
What actions should be taken on the bridge, if any?
Use the Arpa for early identification of all other ship movements within the traffic lane
and give rogue vessel a wide berth
62. You are witness to a collision between two other ships close to your vessel. What
immediate action should you take?
Nothing, just standby and wait to see if any assistance is required.
63. Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the vessel has the
required residual stability to remain afloat. After sounding the general alarm on board
and informing the nearest Coast Radio Station of your situation, what other immediate
steps should be taken?
Complete soundings of all compartments to determine the number of compartments
flooded. Check the vessels stability limitations within its statutory loadline requirements
to determine if still adequate.
64. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been in a
collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What would you do?
Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors
65. The vessel is passing through the English Channel when the ARPA radars fail
completely and navigation must continue without any operational radars. Should there
be any changes to your passage plan or bridge procedures. Your vessel is equipped
with an operational ECDIS
increase the officers on the bridge to allow greater use of visual navigation
66. The engines have failed and will require at least 24 hours to be available as a reliable
means of propulsion. Your vessel is about 20 miles off the coast in a tidal area. What
are the initial steps that should be taken to ensure the safety of the ship?
Determine when the seaman was last sighted and concentrate the search round the
course line between the last sighting and present position, taking into account any
prevailing current
67. Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal region when it is in
collision with ship B, causing ship A to take in water in several holds. What is the best
course of action by ship A to save the vessel and the cargo?
Put the ship aground on a soft sandy bottom as soon as possible
68. As a probable result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel involved is
on fire? What are your responsibilities to the other vessel?

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 After checking the extent of the damage and welfare of your crew, if possible your
vessel should standby and offer assistance, until being relieved of that obligation by
the other vessel.
69. Your ship is approaching the berth as illustrated and has a right handed propeller and
no thrusters. What could be a method to retain full control of the vessel as it comes
alongside? Let go starboard anchor to about 1 shackle on deck
70. Would the indicated speed, as shown on a Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be suitable
for berthing the vessel? The approach speed is too fast
71. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward drift) when turning
Because the pivot point is not at the centre of the ship
72. You observed the above vessel, Range 9 miles. What action would action would you
take? - Take a series of compass bearings and radar plot
73. When should you assume that you are an overtaking vessel?
If by night, you are unable to see either of the other vessel's sidelights
74. You have another vessel on your port bow in clear weather, but with a moderate sea
and swell. Which of the following would normally give greatest accuracy in determining
if risk of collision exist? Observation of the compass bearing over a period of time
75. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply?
Those adopted by the International Maritime Organization
76. You expect to sight land at 2100 where an alteration of course is marked on the chart.
By 2120 no land has been sighted, the visibility is very good. What action would you
take? - Call Master
77. How should a vessel cross a traffic lane when obliged to do so?
On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles to the direction of traffic flow
78. Over what length of time should a large diesel engine vessel be slowed down from full
sea speed to maneuvering speed? - 1 Hour
79. Power-driven vessel 'A' and 'B' are in sight of one another. Which of the following
statements is correct? 'A' and 'B' should alter course to starboard, each sounding one
short blast on the whistle
80. You are under way on a tanker and observe the lights illustrated on a steady bearing
and at decreasing range on the PORT bow. What do you do?
Stand on to see if the other vessel take away action
81. if two vessels approach each other on a collision course, what is meant by "the early
period" ? When the other vessel is detected but when action to avoid the collision
can be deferred

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82. If two vessels approach each other on a collision course, what is meant by "the critical
period" ? The period when action to prevent a collision has to be taken
83. If two vessels approach each other on a collision course, what is meant by "the
terminal period" ? The period when a collision cannot be avoided anymore
84. At night, you are power-driven vessel 'A' approaching power-driven vessel 'B' as
illustrated. Occasionally, you see both white masthead lights and the green side light of
vessel 'B'. Which of the following is true?
I ( vessel 'A' ) must keep clear of vessel 'B' 18.
85. What chart should be used when navigating ?
The largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly corrected
86. The pilot gives the helmsman an order which the OOW believes to be incorrect. What
should he do ? Ask the pilot to clarify the reason for the order
87. The master of a ship has 2 years of experience as captain and the pilot directing the
navigation has 20 years of experience. Who is in charge ? - The Master
88. You are overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel and wish to leave her
on your starboard side. You may __________. whistle signals
attempt to contact her on the radiotelephone to arrange for the passage
89. Two vessels are meeting on a clear day and will pass less than half a mile apart. In
this situation whistle signals
must be exchanged if passing agreements have not been made by radio
90. At night, a light signal consisting of two flashes by a vessel indicates
an intention to leave another vessel to starboard
91. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving through the water,
having been steaming through a shallow water channel for several miles. The sheer
may be strong and unexpected and is due to what reason?
The large volume of water dragged behind the vessel continues to move forward and
cause a strong turning moment on the stern of the vessel
92. A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs assisting and there is little wind
or current affecting the vessel. What would be considered the best use of the tugs and
at which position? Pushing on the ship's side and made fast in case the vessel's
movement towards the berth requires reducing by the tug pulling off
93. A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat" when moving in shallow
water. The amount of Squat is affected by the speed of the vessel through the water. If
the speed through the water is HALVED what will be the change in the affect of
"Squat"

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 The squat effect will be reduced to a quarter of its original value b. The squat effect will
also be halved.
94. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel, using its own engines and
assisted by the use of one tug. Where should the tug be connected to assist the ship in
maintaining its course in the centre of the channel?
Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern..
95. A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in deep water at full ahead
throughout the turn. The same ship, in the same conditions, is now to make a complete
turn (360 degrees) at half ahead throughout the turn. Would there be any difference in
the size (diameter) of the turning circle?
No, the diameter of the turning circle would be almost the same.
96. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the bollard pull exerted by the tug
be the same at any speed? No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5 knots it will
be expected that there will be a reduced pull exerted by the tug
97. In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the centre of the channel and
approaching a bend in a river. What helm would probably be required to safely round
the bend and what other effects could be expected in this situation?
The heading should be carefully monitored, some port rudder may be required to start
the swing, though starboard rudder may be required to balance any bank rejection.
98. In the situation illustrated, what should be the distribution of the power requirements
from the tugs, if the ship is to be moved sideways without changing the heading? Both
tugs have similar bollard pull and are of conventional propulsion
Much greater power on the forward tug than on the after tug while monitoring the gyro
heading
99. In the situation illustrated, what should be the power distribution of the tugs to maintain
the ship sideways motion with only minor changes in the ship's heading?
Considerably more power on the aft tug than the forward tug, while monitoring the
ship's gyro
100. It has been established by experience that the most successful method of double
banking two vessels, when no tugs are available, is one of the following methods.
Select which answer is considered the most successful method.
When both vessels are underway, fig. 1
101. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel to manoeuvre, can be
decreased by hydrodynamic interaction with the ship it is assisting. Where is the most
dangerous position of the tug relative to the ship, for this adverse affect to be found?

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 The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the bow rounding the
forward shoulder of the larger vessel.
102. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has just fallen overboard. Which
of the following manoeuvres is the most appropriate action when the person is still
close to the vessel? - Williamson turn
103. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of water past the rudder. If the
rudder is put hard over when the ship is at full ahead in deep water, and then the
engines are stopped, how much lift force remains? - About 20
104. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log shows a sideways motion to
port at both forward and aft positions. Where would the "pivot point" be considered to
be located? At a position outside the hull of the ship itself
105. What will have a major effect on the performance of a tug when used to assist in the
manoeuvring of a large vessel? The position of the tug relative to the ship's pivot
106. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a ship is directionally unstable"?
The ship requires continual application of the rudder to maintain a steady course.
107. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of a vessel when going astern?
Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the stern and the rudder post
108. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of the vessel when going ahead?
1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow.
109. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting a ship through narrow
waters would be considered the most effective in the event of loosing steering power?
The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead astern. (figure 4).
110. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots which suddenly
increases to 60 knots. What will be the change of force exerted on the ship driving it off
the jetty? The force will be Quadrupled
111. When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is above the
lower light you should Continue on the present course
112. When displayed under a single-span fixed bridge, red lights indicate
The channel boundaries
113. You have replaced the chart paper in the course recorder. What is NOT required to
ensure that a correct trace is recorded?
Test the electrical gain to the thermograph pens
114. You are approaching a swing bridge at night. You will know that the bridge is open for
river traffic when The red light changes to green

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115. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of
a hurricane bears 120°T, 110 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving
towards 285°T at 25 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what
could be the maximum CPA? - 77 Miles
116. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be
considered? The buoy may not be in the charted position
117. You are approaching a multiple-span bridge at night. The main navigational channel
span will be indicated by 3 white lights in a vertical line in the center of the span
118. When approaching a preferred-channel buoy, the best channel is NOT indicated by the
Light characteristic
119. When navigating a vessel, you
Should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position
120. A buoy with a composite group-flashing light indicates a(n) - Bifurcation
121. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
Only when fixed aids are not available
122. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate Two depth readings
123. When using an echo sounder in deep water, it is NOT unusual to
Receive a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) during the day, and one
nearer the surface at night
124. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of
a hurricane bears 080°T, 100 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving
towards 265°T at 22 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what
could be the maximum CPA? - 63 Miles
125. Two navigational hazards are located near to each other, but each is marked by an
individual cardinal buoyage system. The buoys of one cardinal system may be
identified from the other system by The difference in the periods of the light
126. Buoys are marked with reflective material to assist in their detection by searchlight.
Which statement is TRUE?
A preferred-channel buoy displays either red or green reflective material to agree with
the top band of color.
127. In a narrow channel, you are underway on vessel "A" and desire to overtake vessel
"B". After you sound two short blasts on your whistle, vessel "B" sounds five short and
rapid blasts on the whistle. You should
Hold your relative position, and then sound another signal after the situation has
stabilized

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128. A vessel proceeding downstream in a narrow channel on the Western Rivers sights
another vessel moving upstream. Which vessel has the right of way?
The vessel moving downstream with a following current
129. A vessel displaying a flashing blue light is - A law enforcement vessel
130. Which term is NOT defined in the Inland Navigation Rules?
Vessel constrained by her draft
131. You have made your vessel up to a tow and are moving from a pier out into the main
channel. Your engines are turning ahead What whistle signal should you sound
One prolonged blast
132. Under the Inland Navigation Rules, what is the meaning of the two short blasts signal
used when meeting another vessel "I intend to leave you on my starboard side.
133. A power-driven vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers has the right of way over
None of the above
134. Which lights are required for a barge, not part of a composite unit, being pushed ahead
Sidelights and a special flashing light
135. A power-driven vessel operating in a narrow channel with a following current on the
Great Lakes or Western Rivers is meeting an upbound vessel. Which statement is
TRUE? -All of the above
136. Your vessel is proceeding down a channel, and can safely navigate only within the
channel. Another vessel is crossing your bow from port to starboard, and you are in
doubt as to her intentions. Which statement is TRUE?
The sounding of the danger signal is mandatory.
137. The stand-on vessel in a crossing situation sounds one short blast of the whistle. This
means that the vessel Intends to leave the other on her port side
138. Passing signals shall be sounded on inland waters by
A power-driven vessel when crossing less than half a mile ahead of another power-
driven vessel
139. Your vessel is meeting another vessel head-on. To comply with the rules, you should
exchange One short blast, alter course to starboard, and pass port to port
140. A fleet of moored barges extends into a navigable channel. What is the color of the
lights on the barges? -White
141. A barge more than 50 meters long is required to show how many white anchor lights
when anchored in a Secretary approved "special anchorage area"? - 2
142. You are on vessel "B" and vessel "A" desires to overtake you on your starboard side
as shown. After the vessels have exchanged one blast signals, you should

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 Hold course and speed
143. You are operating a vessel through a narrow channel and your vessel must stay within
the channel to be navigated safely. Another vessel is crossing your course from
starboard to port, and you are in doubt as to her intentions. You
Must sound the danger signal
144. Which indicates the presence of a partly submerged object being towed?
All of the above
145. The light used to signal passing intentions is a(n) All-round white or yellow light
146. Two vessels in a crossing situation have reached agreement by radiotelephone as to
the intentions of the other. In this situation, whistle signals are
Not required, but may be sounded
147. Which statement is TRUE concerning the fog signal of a vessel 15 meters in length,
anchored in a "special anchorage area" approved by the Secretary?
The vessel is not required to sound a fog signal.
148. Power-driven vessel, when leaving a dock or berth, is required to sound
One prolonged blast
149. If several navigational lights are visible at the same time, each one may be positively
identified by checking all of the following EXCEPT what against the Light List?
Intensity
150. You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a determinable current. How
should this current be treated in determining the position?
The course and speed made good should be determined and used to advance the
LOP.
151. When may the automatic identification system (AIS) be switched off?
At the Master's professional judgment.
152. What information is NOT found in the chart title? - Date of first edition
153. INLAND ONLY You are aboard the stand-on vessel in a crossing situation. You sound
a one blast whistle signal. The give-way vessel answers with a two blast whistle signal.
You should sound the danger signal and
Take precautionary action until a safe passing agreement is made
154. Which statement is TRUE concerning a passing agreement made by radiotelephone?
If agreement is reached by radiotelephone, whistle signals are optional.
155. Whistle signals shall be exchanged by vessels in sight of one another when
They are passing within half a mile of each other

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156. You are on vessel "A" and vessel "B" desires to overtake you on the starboard side as
shown. After the vessels have exchanged one blast signals you should
Hold course and speed
157. You are approaching a sharp bend in a river. You have sounded a prolonged blast and
it has been answered by a vessel on the other side of the ben Which statement is
TRUE? Both vessels must exchange passing signals when in sight and passing
within one-half mile of each other.
158. When restricted visibility is encountered or expected, the first responsibility of the
officer in charge of the navigation watch is to comply with the relevant rules of the
international regulations preventing collisions at sea 1972 with particular regard to the
sounding of fog signs, procceding at a safe speed and having the engines ready to
immediate manoeuvre. In additional, the officer in charge of the navigational watch
shall : All are correct
159. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow water. How much ""lift
force"" remains when the engine is stopped? 10%

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 FORECAST WEATHER AND OCEANOGRAPHIC CONDITIONS
1. Which Beaufort force indicates a wind speed of 65 knots - Beaufort force 12
2. Which course should you steer at 10 knots to have the maximum CPA when you are
underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 10 knot. The eye of hurricane
bears 100°T, 90 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285°T at 19
knot 226°
3. When a hurricane passes over colder water or land and loses its tropical characteristic,
the storm becomes a(n) - Extra tropical low – pressure system
4. Maritime Tropical Cold air mass moving over a warm surface may give rise to
Unstable cumuliform clouds
5. If you were sailing at the time of the sailing happen a local/heating thunderstorm about
5 minutes, so probably that thunderstorm will stop (average) - 22,5 minutes
6. That half of the hurricane to the left hand side of is track (as you face the same
direction that the storm is moving) in the Southern Hemisphere is called the
Dangerous semicircle
7. What caused that makes lenticular and stratiform clouds in stable air Orographic lifting
8. Which of the following would not be true concerning temperature change taking place
in a parcel of air at the dry adiabatic lapse rate The temperature rises as the parcel
9. Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the frictional
level? - The frictional of the air with the earth deflect the air perpendicular to the
pressure gradient
10. What level of development of a tropical cyclone has a hundred mile radius circulation,
gale force winds, less than 990 millibars of pressure and vertically formed
cumulonimbus clouds - A tropical storm
11. During which seasons are tropical cyclone/hurricane most likely to appear in the
northern hemisphere - All season
12. While you are shipping at 07.00 UTC, you will sea lighting, 35 seconds later you will
hear thunderheard. How far that thunderheard of source - 12,110 meters
13. Which wind results from a land mass cooling mare quickly at night than an adjacent
water area - Land breeze
14. A low Pressure system at D has a pressure arroud - 1012

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15. If the sky was clear, with the exception of a few cumulus clouds, it would indicate
Fair weather
16. When a high pressure area is approaching, the weather generally - Worsens
17. A low, uniform layer of cloud resembling fog, but no resting on the ground, is called
Stratus
18. In the band of latitude from approximately 5º N to 30ºN, the prevailing winds are
northeast trade winds
19. What will happen if you read a weather map, pressure gradient lines are closely
spaced - high winds
20. From highest to lowest in the sky, which list of clouds is in sequence
Cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus
21. As you cross the gulf stream axis, on your way to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan,
PR there’s a fresh N’ly breeze blowing. You will definitely meet
steeper waves, closer together
22. The appearance of nimbostratus clouds in the immediate vicinity of a ship at sea would
be accompanied by which of the following conditions - Rain and poor visibility
23. If you shipping from Cilacap to Kupang at February, you will get the weather is
Haze, stable air, and strong head wind
24. Severe tropical cyclones (hurricane, typhoons) occur in all warm-water oceans except the
South Atlantic Ocean
25. What is called a strong westerly wind that occurs between latitudes 40° South Latitude to
60° South Latitude - roaring forties
26. What are the winds along this gradient called by the eastward rotation of the earth on the
polar side of the high pressure belt in each hemisphere, the pressure decreasing?
Doldrums
27. If the maritime Tropical cold air mass move to warm surface, the stability the air and the
weather will become - Unstable and showers and or thunderstorm
28. Tropical cyclones move in the Southern Hemisphere in the usual order of direction:

southwest, south, and southeast

29. Tropical cyclones are classified by form and intensity. Which system does not have
closed isobar ? - Tropical disturbance

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30. Surface winds at the tropical area, which gives wet season weather in the Indonesia,
generally flows in which direction - East to west
31. While you are shipping at 07.00 UTC, you will see lightning, 25 seconds later you will
hear thunderheard. Source of thunderheard - 8,650 meters
32. If you are shipping from Cilacap to Kupang at August, you will get the weather is
Hazy, and strong head wind
33. Which wind has the greatest influence on the set, drift, and depth of equatorial
currents - trade winds
34. .Which of the following cloud types, Large-scale circulation systems, fronts, and
thunderstorm are the primary source of - middle and high clouds
35. Which reverses the direction of the wind seasonally is - Monsoon winds
36. That half of the hurricane to the right hand side of its track ( as you face the same
direction that the storm is moving ) in the Northern Hemisphere is called the
Dangerous semicircle
37. While you are shipping at 07.00 UTC, you will see lightning, 25 seconds later you will
hear thunderheard. Source of thunderheard which course - 8,650 meters
38. High clouds, composed of small white flakes or scaly globular masses, and often banded
together to form a “mackerel sky” would be classified as - Cirrocumulus
39. If your weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure area to be 100 miles due east
of your position, what winds can you expect in the Northern Hemisphere
North to northwest
40. The usual sequence of direction in which a tropical cyclone moves in the Southern
Hemisphere is : - West, South-West, South, and South-East
41. The flow of air around a TropicalCyclone/Hurricane/Typhoon in the Southern
Hemisphere is - Clockwise and outward
42. Tanjung-priok in the afternoon if the temperature and dew point in some place is exactly
the same, so the possibility of the weather in the aerodrome is - Smoke and fog
43. A local wind which occurs during the daytime and is caused by the different rates f
warming or land and water is ? - Sea breeze

44. Continental polar, maritime polar, continent tropical and maritime tropical are types of ?
Air masses
45. This the correct statement for pressure and weather relationship
Low pressure is stormy, high pressure is stable
46. Severe tropical cyclones (hurricane, typhoon) occur in all warm-water oceans except the

N2G 07 2022
 South atlantic ocean
47. If your weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure area to be 100 miles due east
of your position. What wind can you expect in the northern hemisphere ?
East to northeast
48. Wind velocity variess - Directly with the pressure gradient
49. Which kind of conditions would you observe as the eye of a storm passes over your
vessel's position?
Huge waves approaching from all directions, clearing skies, light winds, and an
extremely low barometer
50. Which of the following fog types is composed of unstable clouds - Evaporation fog
51. The belt of light and variable winds between the westerly wind belt and the northeast
trade winds is called the - Subtropical high pressure belt
52. You are attempting to locate your position relative to a hurricane in the Northern
Hemisphere. If the wind direction remains steady, but with diminishing velocity, you are
most likely - On the storm track behind the center
53. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence veering. In the Northern
Hemisphere this indicates that the wind will - Shift in a clockwise manner
54. The direction of the southeast trade winds is a result of the - Rotation of the earth
55. A katabatic wind blows - Down an incline due to cooling of the air
56. What will a veering wind do? - Change direction in a clockwise manner in the Northern
57. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence backing. In the Northern
Hemisphere, this would indicate that it will - Shift in a counterclockwise manner
58. Which condition exists in the eye of a hurricane?
An extremely low barometric pressure
59. The rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to a distant storm is known as - Swell
60. The steady current circling the globe at about 60Degree is the
West Wind Drift
61. In the Northern Hemisphere, what type of cloud formations would you expect to see to
the west of an approaching tropical wave?
Cumulus clouds lined up in rows extending in a northeast to southwest direction
62. The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of a tropical cyclone
because of the - Wind circulation and forward motion of the storm
63. The winds you would expect to encounter in the North Atlantic between latitudes
5Degree and 30Degree are known as the - Trades
64. When facing into the wind in the Northern Hemisphere the center of low pressure lies

N2G 07 2022
 To your right and behind you
65. Which wind pattern has the most influence over the movement of frontal weather
systems over the North American continent? - Prevailing westerlies
66. The flow of air around an anticyclone in the Southern Hemisphere is
Counterclockwise and outward
67. During the winter months, the southeast trade winds are
Stronger than during the summer months
68. On the pole side of the high pressure belt in each hemisphere, the pressure diminishes.
The winds along these gradients are diverted by the Earth's rotation toward the east
and are known as the - Prevailing Westerlies
69. Large-scale circulation systems, fronts, and thunderstorms are the primary source of
which of the following cloud types - Middle and high clouds
70. High-cloud tops generally are limited by the height of the - Tropopause
71. What kind of weather would you expect to accompany the passage of a tropical wave?
- Heavy rain and cloudiness
72. In the doldrums you will NOT have - Steep pressure gradients
73. Which wind results from a land mass cooling more quickly at night than an adjacent
water area? -Land Breeze
74. The rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to a distant storm is known as - Sweel
75. Fog and stratus clouds are most common during which of the following times of day
Early Morning
76. The West Wind Drift is located - Near 60 S
77. Monsoons are characterized by - Steady winds that reverse direction semiannually
78. A strong, often violent, northerly wind occurring on the Pacific coast of Mexico,
particularly during the colder months, is called - Tehuantepecer
79. The least common of the 10 cloud general is - Altostratus

80. You are enroute to Savannah, GA, from Recife, Brazil. There is a strong N'ly wind
blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter
Steeper waves, closer together
81. What is anabatic wind
anabatic wind, also called upslope wind, local air current that blows up a hill
or mountain slope facing the Sun. During the day, the Sun heats such a slope.
82. A cloud whose name has the prefix nimbo- or the suffix –nimbus is - Rain producing
83. What air masses generally move eastward, toward Europe? - Maritime Polar Atlantic

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84. Storms along a cold front are usually short-lived and sometimes violent, while storms
along a warm front produce precipitation over a large area, and are sometimes violent.
85. Which of the following statements describes what happens when the sun heats water
and land? - Water heats more slowly than land does
86. Fog differs from clouds in that fog - Forms closer to the ground
87. Which of the following is true of a parcel of air but not true of the environment
Changes temperature with altitude at either the dry or moist adiabatic rates
88. In the Northern Hemisphere you are caught in the dangerous semicircle with plenty of
sea room available. The best course of action is to bring the wind on the
Starboard bow and make as much headway as possible
89. Current refers to the - Horizontal movement of the water
90. In the Northern Hemisphere, your vessel is believed to be in the direct path of a
hurricane, and plenty of sea room is available. The best course of action is to bring the
wind on the - Starboard quarter, note the course, and head in that direction
91. The precession of the equinoxes occurs in a(n) - Westerly direction
92. A steep barometric gradient indicates - Strong winds
93. A sea breeze is a wind - That blows towards an island during the day
94. Temperature and moisture characteristics are modified in a warm or cold air mass due
to - Movement of the air mass
95. What is the FIRST sign of the existence of a well developed tropical cyclone?
An unusually long ocean swell
96. Which condition exists at the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere?
The Southern Hemisphere is having winter
97. Anticyclones are usually characterized by - Dry, fair weather
98. Altocumulus clouds are defined as - Middle clouds
99. A generally circular low pressure area is called a(n) - Cyclone
100. Cold water flowing southward through the western part of the Bering Strait between
Alaska and Siberia is joined by water circulating counterclockwise in the Bering Sea to
form the - Oyashio Current
101. Recurvature of a hurricane's track usually results in the forward speed - Increasing
102. Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of - Low barometric pressure
103. A cyclone in its final stage of development is called a(n)
Occluded cyclone or occluded front
104. The life time of mature stage (Thunderstorm) : 15 Minutes – 40 Minutes
105. Which could type is normally associated with thunderstorms? Cumulonimbus

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 CONTROL TRIM, STABILITY AND STRESS
1. For each cargo compartment of a Bulk carrier, which plan show the position of the
vertical and longitudinal centres of gravity?
Vessel stability book
2. What reasons could be given by the master to refuse to do when the vessel is instructed
to load alternate hold when chartered to carry a high density cargo ?
IMO do not recommend alternate loading of cargo holds with high density cargoes.
3. The deep driller is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 ( transit ). Weather
conditions require ballasting to survival draft. What would be the value of uncorrected KG
if assume that 3707.66 tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 2.536 M?
15.743 M
4. The disadvantages of large double bottom tanks on a double hull oil tanker are:
Increased free surface effect and reduced transverse metacentric height.
5. The value of GZ is no longer able to be calculated using GM Sine Angle of Heel formula
at? - Large angles of heel
6. What measures regarding ship stability should be taken in order to make passenger
ships able to withstand critical damage? - Maintain sufficient intact stability
7. The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h. measured from
the bottom is: - 0.33 h
8. On a container ship, when does wind force cause heeling moments?
When the on-deck containers present a certain profile to the wind direction
9. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel’s structural strength? - The Master
10. A general Cargo vessel is deemed to be cargo worthy when:
The hatch cover and/or hatch pontoons are weather tight
11. Ships very considerably in design and underwater shape, but does the ship’s trim ever
have any influence on its steering abilities?
Yes, the ship often steers better if trimmed by the stern
12. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating in sea water (SG
1.026) from a vessel carries three slack tank of gasoline (SG 68). The vessel’s
displacement is 8,000 tons. Each tank is 15.24 M. long and 6.096 M wide? - 0.610 M
13. The IMO Convention that is not applicable to a general cargo vessel when it is carrying
timber deck cargoes is:
The International Tonnage Convention
14. The horizontal distance between the forces of ancy and Gravity acting on a vessel when
heeled by wind or waves is called the: - Righting Lever

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15. What would be the possible stability condition produced when a bulk vessel loads a full
cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such as iron ore concentrate ?
The vessel will normally have a large intact metacentric height (GM) and have a slow roll
period
16. From the ship’s centerline, to check stability, a weight of 35 tons is lifted with the jumbo
boom, whose head is 10.668 M. The clinometer shows a list of 7° with the weight
suspended. Displacement including the weight is 14,000 tons. The GM is? - 0.22 M
17. Every oil tanker of 5.000 tonnes deadweight and above delivered on or after 1 February
2002 shall comply with intact stability whereby it must have a minimum GM (metacentric
height) in port of: - Not less than 0.15 m
18. A vessel’s mean draft is 29’-07”. At this draft, the TPI is 152. The mean draft after loading
1360 tons will be ….. - 30’-04”
19. The main causes of fatigue damage in gastric girders are?
The number of repeated stress cycles
20. On a bulk carrier, what would a cracked cross-deck plating found a loaded passage, that
indicate? - That shear forces have been exceeded
21. A general cargo vessel is loading to its summer Marks. Upon completion of loading, the
final level of the water would be at - The top of the summer load line mark
22. Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of: - Bulkheads
23. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of passenger
ships? - The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
24. If properly secured what benefits do high sided car carriers have over other types
regarding seaworthiness? - They can roll to very large angles without taking in water
25. What should be checked before starting ballasting on a bulk carrier in very cold condition
is - All the air ventilator are fully pipes are closed
26. What should be checked after completion of cleaning and testing of the bilge spaces in a
cargo hold of a bulk carrier? –
Drain plate over bilge has been fitted and then covered with burlap
27. When loading heavy lift cargoes on a general cargo vessel, positive stability can be
maintained by
Monitoring the vessel stability during the loading operation and not allowing the vessel to
list on the side of the load
28. What shape of a hull would you say a course unstable ship would have?
A length to beam ration less than 5.5

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29. When the longitudinal distribution of cargo is concentrated in the middle, then the
condition of the ship is called - Sagging
30. For purpose of, a cofferdam, a pumproom or an empty tank, located between cargo tank
containing cargoes or cargo residues which might react with each other in a hazardous
manner, are all acceptable methods of segregation in chemical tanker stowage according
to the IBC Code. It may also be acceptable to have:
An intervening cargo tank containing a mutually compatible cargo or cargo residues.
31. The Dock Water Allowance is calculated as a proportion of the:
Fresh Water Allowance
32. When on a ship the longitudinal distribution of cargo is concentrated at the fore and aft
ends. This condition is known as? - Hogging
33. Prior to loading heavy lift cargoes on a General Cargo Vessel, it must be ensured that
There are minimum free surface moments in tanks
34. The result of a large metacentric height is? - The ship will roll violently
35. Freeboard is the vertical distance measured from the - Main deck to the waterline
36. If a vessel has a displacement of 15.000 tons and a righting arm of 2 meter. What is the
vessel’s righting moment if the ship has a GM of 1.5 meter?
30.000 ton-meter
39. What is effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged, when
your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern and there is progressive
flooding and trim by the stern is increasing ?
BM decreases from loss of water plane and greater volume
40. When a vessel is in neutral equilibrium, the GM will be: - Zero
41. Which cargo hold is strengthened to withstand flooding if in a single side skin bulk carrier
of 180 m in length constructed in 2001 and carrying cargo of density 1,780 kg/m3, or
above? - The foremost cargo hold
42. What action should you take first to correct this situation : your vessel is damage, listing
to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, sluggish
roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft?
Press up any slack double-bottom tanks forward of the tipping center, then fill the
forepeak if empty
43. What is the significance of, a hold inspection of a Bulk Carrier it is noted that a number of
transverse frame beam knees are slightly distorted?
This indicates the vessel is suffering racking stress and potentially serious

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44. Not counting actual capacity or structural and cargo specific limitations, the IBC Code
states that for a single tank on a type 3 chemical tanker:
There is no applicable filing restriction
45. A general cargo with a large metacentric height (GM) would be expected to have
A fast roll period and large righting levers (GZ Levers).
46. On a vessel of 8,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due
to free surface in a hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 12.192 M. long
and 6.096 M. wide. The reduction in metacentric height is - 0.03 m
47. An Oil tanker experiences large bending moments and therefore the deck scantlings
must be maintained within "x" length amidships, where "x" is: - 0.4 Length
48. When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks - Decrease
49. You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 12.192 M. and the full rolling period is 20
seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel? - 0.243 M
50. A bulk freighter 270.26 M. in length, 18.3 M. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of 0.84,
is floating in salt water at a draft of 6.4 M. How many tons would it take to increase the
mean draft by 1 cm ? - 81.6 Tons
51. Your vessel's draft is 16'-00" fwd. and 18'-00" aft. The MT1 is 500 ft-tons. How many tons
of water must be shifted from the after peak to the forepeak, a distance of 250 feet, to
bring her to an even draft forward and aft? - 48 Tons
52. A ship is inclined by moving a weight of 30 tons a distance of 9.144 M. from the
centerline. A 8.53 M. pendulum shows a deflection of 0.305 M. Displacement including
weight moved is 4,000 tons. KM is 8.425 M.. What is the KG? - 6.5 M
53. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel
angelsin damaged condition are installed in passengerships what is the maximum angle
of heel after flooding before equalization? - 15 degrees
54. A cargo of 40 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 12.192 M. from the ship's
centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 8,000 tons and the
GM is 0.61 M. with cargo suspended. What will the list of the vessel be with the cargo
suspended? - 5.7°
55. Why is it important in a RoRo vessel to ensure that cargo is loaded in a uniform way
To prevent high sheer forces and bending moments on the vessel during the loading /
discharge operations
56. Why are pure RoRo car carriers considered as being high risk design vessels where their
stability is concerned

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 Because they can easily capsize if there is ingress of water or ballast operations are not
handled correctly
57. What is usually the effect on G when the ship is damaged? - It is unchanged
58. A vessel with a GM of 1.22 M. is inclined to 10°. What is the value of the righting arm?
0.21 M.
59. If a load is suspended from the hook of a crane. What effect does that have on a vessel’s
stability?
The weight acts upon the vessel from the head of the crane
60. A General Cargo vessel develops an angle of loll while loading a heavy item of deck
cargo alongside the jetty. You should immediately:
Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and fill small ballast tank on
low side of vessel.
61. Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is
sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective
action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability?
Shift any off-center weights from port to starboard
62. For a container stowed in a position equidistant from the roll and pitch axes of a ship,
what will quarter the acceleration forces acting on it?
Doubling the roll period
63. How are ship's stability characteristics affected by Parametric Rolling?
By the constant change of underwater hull geometry as waves travel past the ship
64. What does heaving result in?
Vertical accelerations acting along container corner posts
65. What is the disadvantage of using High Tensile Steel (HTS) in ship construction?
Enhanced vibration in HTS areas
66. What roll amplitude is generally used by classification societies in calculating rolling
forces? - 24 - 30 degrees
67. What would indicate the onset of Parametric Rolling?
When the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of the ship
68. When do vertical accelerations acting on containers reach their maximum values?
When a ship changes direction at its extreme angle of pitch
69. Why would a very large container vessel pitch more than a feeder vessel?
Because pitching varies with ship’s length
70. A Bulk Vessel is to load a cargo of grain; pre loading calculations show that IMO stability
criteria cannot be achieved; the vessel should do which of the following?

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 The grain surfaces in some or all of the cargo spaces must be secured
71. A loaded bulk carrier experiences heavy ice accretion on deck forward, what are the
major concerns of the changes in stability?
Reduction of metacentric height (GM) and loss of freeboard forward
72. After discharging a high density cargo a serious crack is found in an upper ballast tank
amidships of a Bulk Carrier; what must the Master do?
Inform Designated Person Ashore (DPA) and call in Classification Society
73. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 155m in length constructed in 2000 and carrying cargo
of density 1010 kg/cu.m., which cargo hold should be able to withstand flooding?
Any cargo hold
74. Large bulk carriers are more likely to suffer from cracks in structure in which of the
following parts of the vessel? Around hatch corners and upper ballast tanks amidships
75. What are the effects of a bulk vessel loading a high density cargo resulting in a large
metacentric height (GM)?
Have a fast roll period and possibly suffer racking stresses
76. What differences in design are there between a standard cargo hold and a cargo hold
which can also be used for ballast on a Bulk Carrier?
The ballast hold hatch cover must be fitted with additional securing devices
77. What must by carefully checked when loading a bulk carrier to maximum draft
The minimum bow height must be maintained
78. Which of the below structures of bulk carriers are considered critical?
Upper and lower connection of main side frames
79. A chemical tanker intended to transport products with appreciably severe environmental
and safety hazards which require significant preventative 14 measures to preclude
escape of such cargo, usually of double-hull construction, with a variety of tank sizes /
capacities is rated as: - A type II chemical tanker, as per the IBC Code.
80. As per IBC Code, the information contained in the loading and stability information
booklet, which must be supplied to the master of a chemical tanker, shall include:
Details of typical service and ballast conditions, provisionsfor evaluating other conditions
of loading and a summary of the ship's survival capabilities, together with sufficient
information to enable the master to load and operate the ship in a safe and seaworthy
manner
81. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required to be fitted on bulk carriers?
At the after end of each cargo hold

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82. What specific data must be displayed on the loading instruments carried on bulk carriers
of 150m or more in length? - The shear forces exerted on the hull structure associated
83. As per the IBC Code, an independent tank on a chemical tanker is defined as:
One which is not contiguous with, or part of the hull structure.
84. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPOL and IBC
Code, it has become mandatory for vegetable oils to be carried in:
Double hull tankers.
85. The design pressure for a cargo compartment on a chemical tanker to meet the definition
and requirements of a “pressure tank” must be: - Greater than 0.7 bar gauge.
86. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 1
chemical tanker as per the IBC Code is: - 1250 cubic metres.
87. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 2
chemical tanker as per the IBC Code is: - 3000 cubic metres
88. The minimum permissible distance measured horizontally between the ship's shell
plating and the outer side bulkhead of the first cargo compartment on a type II chemical
tanker is: - Not less than 760 mm
89. The value of the GZ lever at small angles of heel on a General Cargo Vessel can be
denoted by the formula: - KM - KG x Sin angle of heel.
90. When loading heavy lift cargoes on a general cargo vessel, positive stability can be
maintained by:
Completely filling the ship's double bottom tanks and continuously monitoring the loading
operation.
91. Which type of material is normally used in the construction of a cargo tank designed for
transporting LPG at atmospheric pressure? - Carbon-Manganese steel.
92. As per MARPOL, the formula for calculating the minimum draft amidships for crude
tankers in ballast condition is: - 2.0 + 0.02L
93. The scantling draft of an oil tanker fitted with segregated ballast tanks is:
The draught for which the structural strength of the ship has been designed
94. What is the purpose of girders in the tank?
They support the stiffeners and also take up some of the sea forces
95. What are the main elements in a damage control plan?
Boundaries of the watertight compartments for decks and holds. Position of controls for
opening and closing of watertight compartments. Arrangement for correction of list due to
flooding.

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96. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical flooding
in damaged condition? - Cross flooding arrangement
97. What is the result of a large metacentric height? The ship will roll violently.
98. Achieving a good air flow through the various cargo compartment of a reefer vessel is a
principal design aim of a Naval Architect. Which of the options given represents the
optimum cargo space shape?
A square space as would be found in a midships lower deck.
99. A long oblong space as would be found in an after upper deck. Conventional reefer
vessels are usually designed with fine lines and large flared bows. Consequently, in
adverse weather conditions, especially from forward of the beam, the navigating officers
need to be mainly aware of which of the given options?
This type of vessel is prone to large hull deflections which may result in structural
damage.
100. Earlier cellular reefer vessels were constructed with a 'porthole system' for supplying
refrigerated air via ducting to containers. Modern vessels are designed to supply only
electrical power to integral containers. Select the main reason for this change in design to
the vessels and containers from the options given:
The 'porthole' system design was extremely complex and construction costs were high.
101. Earlier reefer vessels designed and built for liner trade usually had two or three tween
decks approximately 2 to 2.5 metres in height and deep lower holds approximately 4 to 5
metres deep. Modern designs usually incorporate more decks each approximately 2.3
metres in height. What is the main reason for this fundamental design change?
There is an almost universal use of standard height pallets.
102. How is the size of a reefer vessel normally referenced? - By the cubic foot capacity.
103. In some reefer trades cargoes of chilled horse meat carcasses are stowed hanging from
deckhead rails in refrigerated lockerspaces. What position should the centre of gravity be
assumed to be at when carrying out the stability calculations for a vessel with such a
stow? - At the deckhead of the lockers.
104. Select from the options given the one which best completes the following statement.
"Reefer vessels, loaded with a homogenous cargo, usually operate with a small GM due
to the fact that:
they are designed with fine lines and the biggest cargo spaces are at the top of the holds
105. Two conventional reefer vessels are being considered for a charter that involves the
transhipment at sea, or at anchor, of a cargo of frozen squid, as weather permits. Both
vessels have 4 holds, vessel A has high speed, 10 tonne deck cranes and vessel B has 5

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 tonne, union purchase derricks. Which of the vessels, if any, would be best suited to this
type of operation?
Vessel B would be more suitable as the derricks will give more control of the operation at
sea or at anchor.
106. On a RoRo vessel, in addition to longitudinal, transverse and vertical accelerations what
else must be taken into account when calculating the external forces acting on a cargo
unit? - Longitudinal and transverse forces by wind pressure
107. What special design feature is attributed to RoRo vessels which are only car carriers?
A very large windage area
108. When will a ro-ro vessel pitch heavily? When wave lengths are equal to the ship's length
109. What is the result of a "high metacentric height"? - The vessel will roll violently
110. What type of dynamic forces may cause indent in plating on forecastle deck and main
deck in way of pillars inside forecastle?
Pressure forces caused by green water on deck
111. Which of the following requirements regarding on board stability data corresponds to
present regulations? (NSCL 4/12.1)
A calculation example showing the use of "KG" limitation curves.
112. Which of the following requirements to ships stability for normal operation corresponds to
present regulations? (NSCL 4/12.2)
The ship is loaded in such a manner that adequate stability is achieved in all loading
condition.
113. The void space between a cargo tank and machinery space of a crude tanker is called
A cofferdam
114. A gz curve is used to determine - Stability
115. General arrangement drawing gives details of vessel’s : - Layout
116. The couple formed by the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity form what is kown
as : - Righting Moment
117. KM minus KG equals what ? - Metacentric height
118. What must be ensured before starting the ballasting of the double bottom tank with
seawater is? - Correct valves have been opened, air ventilators are open and ballasting
plan has been agreed

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 MAINTAIN SAFETY AND SECURITY OF THE SHIP’S CREW AND
PASSENGERS AND THE OPERATIONAL CONDITION OF LIFESAVING,
FIREFIGHTING AND OTHER SAFETY SYSTEMS
1. Continental polar, maritime polar, continent tropical, and maritime tropical are types of
Air masses
2. The training time interval for using davit launched lifeboats (including inflation and
descent where possible) is ? Every 4 months
3. Which of the following actions is the first to be taken, if you detect a fire on board the
ship, dependent on the situation ? Raise the fire alarm
4. As per SOLAS rules How often should the “Abandon Ship” exercise be held on a cargo
ship - Once every month
5. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with suitable
Personal Protective Equipment where it is needed? The Company/ employer
6. If the maritime Tropical cold air mass move to warm surface , the stability of the air and
the weather will become - Unstable and shower and or thunderstorm
7. Which Beaufort force indicates a wind speed of 65 knots ? - Beaufort force 12
8. There are many conditions that affect efforts to organize fire fighting, what are they?
Where the fire breaks out, how many fire teams are available, the strength of the fire, the
ships mobility, what is burning and communication
9. each crew member participates in the “abandon ship” exercise every ?
Once every month
10. Which of the following meets the stated requirements regarding service and maintenance
of life-saving equipment in accordance with current regulations?
Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in accordance with the
regulations shall be provided
11. Tanjung – Priok in the afternoon if the temperature and dew point in some place is
exactly the same, so the possibility of the weather in the aerodrome is - Smoke and fog
12. While you are shipping at 07.00 UTC, you will see lightning, 25 seconds later you will
hear thunder. Source of thunder - 8,650 meters
13. The leader of the lifeboat drill (abandon ship drill) is?
The appointed lifeboat commander
14. The most important factor in crew safety awareness is?
The level of emergency-preparedness
15. The Ship Security Plan is an international rule that aims to ?
Protect your ship from risks posed by security threats or incidents

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16. Crew members joining ships for the first time should be given training and instruction in
the use of the ship’s fire fighting equipment for at least ?
As soon as possible but not later than 2 weeks after he joins the ship
17. That half of the hurricane to the right hand side of its track ( as you face the same
direction that the storm is moving) in the Northern Hemisphere is called the
Dangerous semicircle
18. The rules or agreements that can be used to find detailed information and specific
technical requirements for a fire safety system are
Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code)
19. Surface winds at the tropical area, which gives wet season weather in the Indonesia,
generally flows in which direction? - North to south
20. Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship and fire drills do not
correspond to present regulations? On all short international voyages, muster of
passengers shall take place as soon as possible
21. Lightning causes a rapid expansion and collapse of the air that produces - Thunder
22. What action should you take, you discover that the bilges in the engine room have a
large quantity of oil residues floating around the sea? Notify Chief Engineer, find cause of
leakage, remedy the leakage and then immediately start to clean the bilges
23. What items must be included in every fire drill? All the items mentioned
24. You can find the minimum drill requirements in ? In the SOLAS convention and its annex
25. The usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone moves in the Southern
Hemisphere is :
West, North-West, North, and North-East - West, South-West, South, and South-East
26. Why are the presence of smoke represents one of the greatest dangers in the fire
fighting? It reduces the visibility, provokes panic, is irritating and may be toxic
27. At what stage should you start to make your way out of the compartment when you are
carrying out a search in a smoke filled compartment wearing a breathing apparatus.?
Regularly check your pressure gauge and note how much air you used to reach your
work area. Start to return when you have this amount left plus a reasonable reserve
28. The two people who checked the Declaration of Security is ?
The Port Facility Security Officer and the Ship Security Officer
29. crew, visitors and contractors have equal potential for ?
They all have opportunity to smuggle drugs
30. The flow of air around a Tropical Cyclone/Hurricane/Typhoon in the Southern
Hemisphere is - Clockwise and inward

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31. Shipboard personnel as part of day to day operation of the ship, should be expected to
correct non-conformities whenever possible. In this respect, what are “Non-conformities”
? - Deficiencies
32. The indication of the steps of the embarkation ladder that is proportional is ?
Length = 480 mm, breadth = 115 mm, depth = 25 mm
33. While you are shipping at 07.00 UTC, you will see lightning, 35 second later you will hear
thunderheard. How far that thunderheard of source? 12,110 meters
34. Detector testing and inspection requirements to be observed On all ships operated by
UMS as well as on most other ship including engine rooms equipped with fire detectors
are ? All the mentioned alternatives
35. A low pressure system at D has pressure around ? 1012
36. That half of the hurricane to the left hand side of its track ( as you face the same direction
that the storm is moving) in the Southern Hemisphere is called the: Dangerous semicircle
37. When a hurricane passes over colder water or land and loses its tropical characteristics,
the storm becomes a(n) - Extra tropical low – pressure system
38. If you shipping from Cilacap to Kupang at February, you will get the weather is
Haze, stable air, and strong head wind
39. Severe tropical cyclones (hurricanes, typhoons) occur in all warm-water oceans except
the - South Atlantic Ocean
40. The requirements listed regarding life-saving equipment in accordance with current
regulations are - All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made non-combustible of
fire retardant material
41. Maximum wind speed near center of Putting Beliung/ Water Spout - 130 knots
42. The flashpoint of an oil or liquefied gas is ? The flashpoint for an oil or liquefied gas is
the temperature at which it is possible to ignite the vapour above the liquid
43. Taking into account the conditions and level of busyness of the crew on board, how often
should a rescue ship be launched with the assigned crew on board and maneuver in the
water? Every month
44. As per SOLAS regulations, the general emergency alarm system must be tested
Every Week
45. During test and/or maintenance work of the CO2 system affecting the release system,
precautions to ensure that the gas is not released into the engine room due to a mistake
are to be ensured. What precautions should be taken
The main supply line to be blanked off prior to the work

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46. The service time interval of inflatable liferaft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release
units is : Every 12 months.
47. How often must the Emergency Steering Gear be tested, and how is this information
recorded in the OLB?
Every three months. Details of test with signatures of Master and witness
48. How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed?
Turned at intervals of not more than 30 months and renewed every 5 years
49. Which of the following requirements regarding life-buoys correspond to present
regulations? (SOLAS III/7.1)
Not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self-ignighting lights
50. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliances corresponds to
present regulations? All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-
combustible or fire retardant material
51. Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of lifesaving
appliances correspond to present regulations? Instructions for onboard maintenance of
life-saving appliances in accordance with the regulations shall be provided
52. On-board training in the use of davit-launched liferafts (including inflation and lowering
whenever practicable) must take place : - every 4 months
53. The Master is responsible that all crew participate in monthly emergency drills. If 25% of
the crew - or more - has not participated in such drill during the last month, what is the
time limit to conduct such a drill after the vessel has left a port? Within 24 hrs
54. When reasonable and practicable, how often shall rescue boats be launched with their
assigned crew aboard and manoeuvred in the water? Every month
55. When should a crew member joining a ship for the first time be given some training and
instructions in the use of the ship's fire-fighting appliances ?
As soon as possible but not later than 2 weeks after he joins the ship
56. Which of following items shall be included in an abandon ship drill?
instruction in the use of radio life-saving appliances
57. Which of the following items must be included in each fire drill? All the items mentioned
58. Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds to
present SOLAS regulation? Each lifeboat shall be launched, and manoeuvred in the
water with its assigned crew at least once every three months during an abandon ship
drill
59. At least, how often shall life boats be launched with their assigned operating crew aboard
and manoeuvred in the water according to SOLAS? Every three months.

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60. During abandon ship exercise, what life-saving equipment must be demonstrated?
Wearing and fastening of lifejackets and associated equipment
61. How often are "abandon ship" drills required to be held on cargo vessels according to
SOLAS? Once every month.
62. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills? Once every month
63. How often shall each member of the crew participate in an "abandon ship" drill?
Once every month
64. On board passenger ships an abandon ship drill must be performed: Every week
65. Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on a cargo ship
participate in one abandon ship drill and one fire drill? Monthly
66. The emergency fire pump is in accordance with good seamanship and precautionary
routines run and tested weekly. Routine checks and maintenance are normally carried
out by dedicated personnel. To ensure safe and appropriate operation of the pump,
would you consider it beneficial that the same dedicated personnel operate the pump in
emergencies? In case of accidents, it is important that a wide range of personnel must be
permitted and trained to operate the pump.
67. Which of the following items shall be included in an "abandon ship" drill?
Checking that passengers and crew are suitably dressed and lifejackets correctly donned
68. Which one of the following items has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to
SOLAS regulations? Checking that life-jackets are correctly donned
69. "A contractor is hired to install new navigation equipment onboard your ship while it‘s
berthed. For a period of time he‘s left unsupervised and photographs schematics of the
ship that he finds rolled up and stored in the corner of a nearby office. Later, from home,
he hacks into the network and prints off information about the ship‘s security procedures.
Which of these information security measures would have prevented his unauthorized
access?" "Secure area, passwords, a firewall and a secure network."
70. "From the list below, which is among the recommended actions for a vessel to take, on
entering an area known for pirate activity?" To transit with maximum safe speed
71. "If drugs or suspected drugs are found onboard your ship, follow the five C‘s. Confirm,
Clear, Cordon, Control and:" - Check
72. "Part way through a profiling interview with a supplier, the package the individual is
carrying arouses your suspicion. What do you do?"
Discreetly inform someone of your suspicions so he or she can get assistance
73. "Which of these precautionary measures can reduce the threat of piracy, if
implemented?" Sail at full speed.

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74. "Your ship security plan must include procedures for responding to security threats,
auditing security activities and interfacing with the port facility." TRUE
75. A Ship Security Assessment is integral to the creation of your ship‘s security plan. TRUE
76. Assign men to search men and women to search women unless a device such as a
metal detector is used. TRUE
77. Check the items that can be a possible threat: All alternatives
78. Eavesdropping and phone taps are examples of which threat to information security?
79. For a search to be effective it must be: Centrally controlled.
80. If drugs are discovered onboard your ship
Ensure the witness to the discovery signs your incident report
81. In which of these circumstances can your ship request a DoS? Your ship is conducting
activities with a port or ship that is not required to implement an approved security plan.
82. Information about your ship‘s security arrangements and procedures is stored
electronically. Which of these measures will help safeguard it from potential threats?
Passwords
83. One of the categories of information that must be included in your SSP is:
Security arrangements
84. Only search vehicle compartments where you suspect objects may be hidden. FALSE
85. Records relating to breaches of security and changes in security level must be secured
against unauthorized access and available for review by contracting governments. TRUE
86. Searches are often triggered by: An increase in security level by the Flag State
87. The best way to ensure you get the equipment you need is to:
Determine your needs and do some research
88. The best way to prevent stowaways from boarding your ship is to: "Seal spaces that are
not in use while in port, and perform a search of the ship before leaving." "
89. The Declaration of Security: Addresses the security requirements shared between ships
or between a port facility and a ship.
90. The DoS addresses the responsibility for the security of the water around the ship and
the verification of increased threat levels. TRUE
91. The first step in completing an SSA is to:
Create a list of potential motives for security incidents against your ship.
92. The International Maritime Bureau Piracy Reporting Centre attributes the increased
numbers of hijackings to:
The greater involvement in piracy of well-organized and armed crime networks.
93. The most effective way to combat the threat of drug smuggling is to?

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 "Combining routine, but irregular searches of the ship with spontaneous targeted
searches." Organize crew into pairs and conduct weekly searches of the ship.
94. The purpose of profiling is to?
Get beneath the outer shell of an individual to obtain a more complete picture.
95. What is a Continuous Synopsis Record? A record of the vessels history
96. What is a Declaration of Security?
A checklist jointly completed by the ship and shore security representatives
97. What percentage of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1?
The percentage is not specified.
98. What percentage of the ship‘s stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3?
100% of the ship‘s stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3
99. What type of bomb search should you conduct to avoid panic when the credibility of the
threat is in doubt and you don‘t want to disrupt ship business? Nominated officers search
100. Which information should be included in your search plan?
Areas to be searched and personnel to be involved in the search.
101. Which of following are security duties? All alternatives
102. Which of these actions should you take it your ship is successfully boarded by armed
pirates? Assure your captors that you‘re not planning an attack to overthrow them
103. Which of these conventions is The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS)
Code a part of? SOLAS
104. Which of these measures would you implement to prevent drugs from being smuggled
onboard your ship while it‘s berthed? Maintain restricted areas.
105. Which of these statements about drug smugglers modes of operating is true?
"Drugs smuggled by an organized conspiracy are usually concealed in a primary ship
system such as the engine room or in a tank, void or compartment
106. Which of these statements about drug smuggling is true?
The risks to ships are not restricted to specific areas or trading routes.
107. Which of these statements about profiling is correct? Verify that answers to questions
match up with what‘s already known about the person being questioned.
108. Which of these tasks are performed as part of the SSA?
Assess the likelihood and potential consequences of security incidents.
109. Which of this information must be included in a piracy attack alert?
Your ship‘s name and call sign.
110. Which statement about the use of profiling onboard a ship is true?
A random selection process must be established

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111. Which type of profiling is used to obtain information about rival companies and their
employees? Industrial
112. Who is responsible for completing the DoS on behalf of the ship? Ship Security Officer
113. Who is responsible for ensuring that your ship‘s security plan meets the requirements of
the ISPS Code? Company Security Officer
114. Who is responsible for ensuring your ship completes a security assessment?
Company Security Officer
115. Who is responsible for issuing an ISPS certificate? The Flag State
116. Who is responsible for the development of the Ship Security Plan?
The Company Security Officer
117. Who is responsible for the regular security inspections of the ship?
The Ship Security Officer
118. You can reduce the need for security guards in certain areas by installing:
Anti-intruder devices
119. The flow of air around a tropical cyclone /hurricane/typhoon in the southern hemisphere
is? Counterclockwise and outward
120. Personnel on board passenger vessels must undergo training courses before they can
be part of the safe manning and assigned to emergency duties on board. What is
minimum training requirement for all personnel?
Basic Safety Training Course and Crowd & Crisis Management Training Course
121. SOLAS regulations require surveys of ships to be carried out at certain times and at
certain intervals. Which of the following surveys apply to passenger ships only?
Periodical survey every 12 months
122. What information is required on passengers prior to departure? All persons on board
shall be counted and details of persons who have declared a need for special care or
assistance in emergency situations shall be recorded and communicated to the Master
123. When can a work vest be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required
lifesaving gear? A work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket.
124. here do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for life-saving
appliances? Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code)
125. Which crew members are not permitted to work aloft ?
Those under 18 years who have less than 1 year experience
126. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board passenger
ships? From the navigation bridge and in at least one other location

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127. Which of the following PPE (personal protective equipment) are mandatory during
bunkering operation - overalls, gloves, shoes with protective toe-cap
128. The muster list should determine
The general emergency signal and the actions of the crew and passengers
129. The minimum information that must be included in the emergency instructions posted in
the passenger cabin is ?
The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
130. The launching appliances of the life boat must be capable of operating at list and trim of:
List 20º and Trim 10º
131. What the wind speed comparison between point F and G ? F is lower than G
132. When a tropical cyclone passes over mainland China, the storm becomes a(n)
Weakened and will die
133. Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel from - West to East
134. During which seasons are tropical cyclone/hurricanes most likely to appear in the
northern hemisphere? Summer and Autumn
135. Maritime tropical cold air mass moving over a warm surface may give rise to
Unstable and cumuliform clouds
136. If the maritime Tropical cold air mass move to warm surface. The stability of the air will
become - Unstable
137. When a high pressure area is approaching, the weather generally - Remains the same
138. Why does the wind have a tedency to flow parallel to the isobars above the frictional
level? The coriolis force tends tp counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient force

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 Carriage of Dangerous Goods

1. United nations dangerous goods packing group based on the level of danger, does not
apply to - All answers are correct

2. To get the right item on the list of dangerous goods on the imdg code volume 2, following
data - UN number, Proper shipping name
3. Which of the following statements is true on general cargo ships
Cold rolled steel coils must never be loaded in rain
4. The carriage of bagged ammonium nitrate in cargo holds of a general cargo vessel is
associated with - Risk of explosion

5. The definition of “proper shipping name”, as contained in the IMDG code is ?

The name to be used in any documentation relating to the transportation of the
dangerous substance, material or article, such as on forms, labels and placards

6. What is the duty officer responsible for loading/unloading cargo and overall safety of
dangerous cargo while being transported on the ship, except
Check shipper name

7. The standard technical name to describe the hazard properties and the composition of
dangerous goods - Proper shipping name

8. Guide to stowage hazardous material on ship - IMDG code, IMSBC, IBC,IGC

9. Which of the following statements is true regarding IMDG cargo, which is loaded on
general cargo ships, which are also classified as marine pollutants
Cargo must be loaded in a protected location and preferably under deck if IMDG code
allows

10. The classes drawn up by the UN committee of experts for the safe handling of hazardous
substances, as listed in the IMDG code, are drawn up on the basis of which of the
following criteria? - The type of hazard they present
11. What deck officer should do during dangerous goods but incomplete documentation
regarding storage and classification details ? - Obtain full documentation before loading
12. The rules for general cargo ships to load dangerous goods in packaged form, must be on
board the ship are regulated in ?
Document of compliance for carriage of dangerous goods

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13. The carriage of bagged ammonium nitrate in cargo holds of a general cargo vessel is
associated with - Risk of explosion
14. Proper handling of chemicals and hazardous substances stored on ships is ?
In a separate locker. The locker shall be clearly marked, locked and ventilated
15. General principles of dangerous goods segregation - All answers are correct
16. Special considerations when assigning the correct united nations number and shipping
name added descriptive words depending on - All answers are correct
17. Provisions for water absorption in wooden deck cargo on general cargo ships as per IMO
recommendation, states that ?
15% additional weight should be used in stability calculation for the arrival condition

18. One particular group of hazardous goods is highlighted by the IMDG code as potentially
being the most dangerous for carriage. Which of the following is it?
Organic peroxides

19. What is this? “U N”

The united nations packaging symbol used for dangerous goods

20. You are on a vessel designed to carry compressed gasses in bulk with a cargo of
butadiene. Which statement is TRUE?
Silver and copper are prohibited in the parts of valves and fittings in contact with the
cargo.

21. If the is a fire and spill of dangerous goods on board and a casualty occurs, use the
procedure based on - Ems, MFAG, SOPEP
22. The segregation requirements based on ?
The IMO international maritime dangerous goods code

23. Which of the following international regulations is normally used when handling
dangerous goods? - IMDG code
25. Cargo that contains a risk to the safety of human life, ships, and the cargo itself is the
meaning of ? - Dangerous cargo

26. Which of the following statements is true regarding imdg class 4 cargo (flammable
cargo) loaded on general cargo ships?
The goods require protection against movement and can only be loaded if a cargo
declaration is supplied by the shipper

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27. One particular group of hazardous goods is highlighted by the IMDG code as potentially
being the most dangerous for carriage. Which of the following is it? - Organic proxides
28. Dangerous goods packages must be marked and labeled before being assigned for
delivery, the marking information on the goods contains the following
All answers are correct

29. What is meant by “article” in the IMDG code ?

A device that contains a dangerous substance or mixture of substances

30. The classes drawn up by the UN committee of experts for the safe handling of hazardous
substances, as listed in the IMDG code, are drawn up on the basis of which of the
following criteria? - The type of hazard they present
31. According to the IMDG Code when transporting calcium hypochlorite in containers, it is
not allowed to ? - Pack and ship the cargo in bags
32. The criteria for dangerous goods stowage near accommodation, machine rooms and
work areas must not be - All answers are correct
33. Dangerous goods packages must be marked and labeled before being assigned for
delivery, the marking information on the goods contains the following, except
Shipper name

35. Based on international guidelines, reporting incidents involving hazardous substances

and/or marine pollutants is regulated by ? - Protocol I of MARPOL
36. Responsible for delivering the proper technical and physical characteristics of the cargo
to the ships is? - The shipper
37. What are material safety data sheets used for?
To provide all personnel including emergency personnel with procedures for handling or
working with that substance in a safe manner

38. United nations packing group of dangerous goods based on the level of danger
All answers are not correct
39. The effect on steel rolls when loaded on general cargo ships tends to -
Crushing and distortion
40. The function of the eductor used in oil tanker cargo operations is ?
Cargo stripping

41. What information is contained in the medical first aid guide for use in accidents involving
dangerous goods(MFAG) is, except
Diagnosis within the limits of the facilities available at sea

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42. United nations packing group of dangerous goods based on the level of danger :
- All answers are not correct
- Packing group I : High danger, Packing group II : Medium danger, Packing group III :
Low danger
43. When shipping marine pollutants by sea, the proper shipping name shall be
supplemented with - Marine pollutant
44. What is meant by “article” in the IMDG code ?
A device that contains a dangerous substance or mixture of substances

45. If the container carrying the above goods catches fire, the ship’s crew will identify
UN number, EmS : F-G

46. If there is a fire and a spill of dangerous goods on board and casualty occurs, use the
procedure based on - EmS, MFAG, SOPEP
47. When taking action to deal with under-deck cargo spillage on container ships, reference
must be made to: - The EmS Guide
48. The minimum information to that must be provided be given on a dangerous goods
declaration on a General Cargo Vessel should be:
IMO Class, UN Number, Gross weight, number of units of cargo, Proper Shipping Name

49. A Cargo Ship Construction Certificate has a validity of: - 5 Years

50. On General Cargo ships, cargoes such as logs, fish meal, scrap metal and bales of
cotton commonly tend to cause: - Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds.
51. The carriage of logs on General Cargo vessels tends to cause:
Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds
52. When hot rolled steel coils are loaded on General Cargo ships, it may be correct to state
that: - They must not be exposed to salt water contamination
53. What is the procedure if a tank lorry containing dangerous goods is not clearly marked?
Refuse to load the vehicle
54. What type of cargo shall always be secured?
Freight vehicles carrying dangerous goods and adjacent vehicles should always be
secured
55. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board?
In a separate locker. The locker shall be clearly marked, locked and ventilated
56. Cargoes referenced within the IMDG code may be anticipated to be:
a spontaneous combustion risk
57. What is ‘toxicity’ ? - The amount of poisonous substances in a material.

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58. The is responsible for marking, packing and other documents for loading dangerous
goods. – Consigner
59. EmS in the dangerous goods Code stands for - Emergency Schedule
60. When a charterer or cargo receiver does not issue any instructions regarding crude oil
washing, then
crude oil wash the tanks required for taking ballast and 25% of the tanks for sludge
control provide they have not been washed in the last four months
61. According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for the grade B flammable liquid
piperylene is - -20°F
62. Grade D liquids are those having flash points of
greater than 80°F and less than 150°F
63. The first treatment given to a person overcome by benzene vapor should be to
remove them to fresh air
64. Where should placards be located on a freight container?
One on each end and one on each side.
65. In discussing segregation, the IMDG Code defines what it means by the term "separated
from". Which of the following is that definition?
In different compartments or holds when stowed "under deck". Provided an intervening
deck is resistent to fire and liquid, a vertical separation may be accepted as equivalent.
For "on deck" stowage, this segregation means a distance of at least 6 metres.
66. In conjunction with which two sets of international regulations should the IMDG Code be
read for security purposes?
Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS and Part A of the ISPS Code.
67. Substances, materials and articles shall be stowed as indicated in the Dangerous Goods
List of the IMDG Code, in accordance with a series of stowage categories. How are those
categories designated? - 5 categories, labelled A-E.
68. Grade E combustible liquids are those having flash points of
150⁰ F or greater
69. What best describes benzene? - Clear colorless liquid with an aromatic odor
70. Which of the following cargoes can normally be loaded next to each other in the same
space of a General Cargo vessel?
Drums of cement and steel pipes
71. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to IMDG Class 4 (flammable
solids) cargoes loaded on a General Cargo vessel?

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 The goods require protection against movement and can only be loaded if a cargo
declaration is supplied by the shipper
72. Which of these definitions is that of a ""Marine Pollutant"" under the IMDG Code?
A substance which is subject to the provisions of Annex III of MARPOL
73. As far as human factor is concerned, which of the following actions should be
considered as an efficient one? - All the listed answers
74. The flash point of a product is 100⁰ F. What can happen if it is heated above 110⁰ F?
It may burn and explode if an ignition source is present
75. If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be
Below the “explosive range”
76. Which product is volatile? - Benzene
77. According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health hazard
rating of 3,2,2. The last digit ""2"" of the rating means
The chemical poison presents some hazard if it enters the body and typically has
threshold limits of 100 to 500 ppm
78. What is an example of a grade B flammable liquid ? - Carbon disulfide
79. What is not classified as a flammable liquid? - Mineral spirits
80. The function of the Eductor used in oil tanker cargo operation is?
Cargo Stripping
81. The standard technical name to describe the hazard properties and the Composition
un number shipping name
82. Cargo UN 1339 PHOSPHORUS HEPTASULPHIDE Class 4.1 Stowage : Category B
(on deck atau under deck) - UN Number class
83. What information is contained in the medical first aid guide for use in incident involving
Provide advice necessarry for initial management of chemical poisoning
84. If there is fire and spill of dangerous good on board and a casually
MFAG, SOPEP
85. The criteria for dangerous goods stowage near accommodation,machine room and
Substances which in moist air,produce toxic,or corrosive vapour

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 OPERATE REMOTE CONTROL OF PROPULSION PLANT AND
ENGINEERING SYSTEM AND REMOTE UPDATE
1. Generator work on the principle of electromagnetic induction the internal of an a.c.
generator is controled by - The diesel speed and excitation current
2. With two alternators running in parallel, and one is to be disconnected. The first is to:
Remove the load from the alternator to be stopped
3. Which of the following that indicates the base Number of a lubricating oil is an indication?
The alkalinity of the oil.
4. In a steam boiler water system, what is the main problem associated with oil?
It forms an insulating film on heat transfer surface with the risk of overheating
5. Viscosity of fuel oil used for ME was 145cst, new fuel comes whose viscosity was
Do nothing
6. Ship’s generator must be synchronised before they can be connected to the same supply
network. Prior to synchronising, the generator voltage and frequency are respectively
adjusted by - AVR and speed governor
7. In the latest concept of variable Geometry Turbocharging, _____ angle can be varying
engine loads - Nozzle ring blade
8. What is the main difference between these two type of system (there are two basic types
of turbocharging system used for supplying combustion air to marine diesel engines :
constant pressure and pulse) ?
A Constant pressure system' has larger volume exhaust gas receiver
9. In modern marine 2-stroke diesel engines ____is sometimes used as a coating on the
underside of the exhaust Valve disc, to reduce the rate of hot corrosion - Inconel
10. Which of the following situations when a lubricating oil having a high viscosity index
number would normally be used ?
When the Machinery operates over a wide temperature range
11. What is meant by elastohydrodynamic lubrication?
Formation of hydrodynamic film under high pressure with minor elastic deformation of
mating surface, distributing load over a greater area
12. Before taking insulation resistance reading of generator windings the automatic voltage
regulators should be isolated and all semi conductor short circuited or disconnected in
order to :
Prevent damage to sensitive electronic component tester from high voltage
Prevent damage to sensitive electronic component from high voltage tester
13. In seawater cooling system, why are zinc anodes sometimes fitted to heat exchangers?

N2G 07 2022
 To prevent corrosion of the metals used in the system
14. Consider a 450 volt, 859kw Rated generator has not been in operation for service
resistance readings are taken, the minimum acceptable insulation resistance allow you to
proceed with running the generator is: - 1 000 000 Ohms
15. What action should be taken when the test on the water in a low pressure boiler show the
chloride level is 500 PPM? Blow down boiler and check the condenser for leakage
16. What would be the typical flash point of the lubricating oil in the main lubricating system
of a diesel engine? 200-240 deg C
17. To check the setting of the over speed trip on a diesel powered generator, you would use
a - Tachometer
18. When A/E stand by F.O. heater to be used for main engine - F.O. Inlet Valve causes
pressure drop M/E F.O. pressure standby water is change in engine /per load/rpm
19. What is the potential effect on a steam boiler of having calcium based compounds
present in boiler and proper water treatment is not carried out?
It Will cause corrosion and scale deposits in the boiler
20. Which factor influences the pumping capacity(flow) of a centrifugal pump the most?
Total pressure head
21. What component does it represent if the diagram shows a the symbol for a component
from a hydraulic circuit? - A direction control valve
22. Which of the following methods is normally used to lubricate bearing in a small high-
speed diesel engine? - Pressure lubrication
23. Which of the following is a reasonable statement about water washing of turbine side of a
T/C? - If properly carried out keeping rpm, load, temperature limits& other factor into
account; it is quite safe and more effective than solid washing
24. Irregular circumferential wear of linear due to diminishing neutralizing capacity of cylinder
oil away from lubricating holes is known as - Clover leafing
25. How often should boiler water test be carried out on a steam boiler? - Every day Operate
remote control of propolusion plant and engineering system and remote update
26. What maximum oil content must oil water separator generally discharge? - 50 ppm
27. What is the main function of the non-return Valve when feed check Valve for the main
and auxiliary boilers are normally of the double shut off type with one screw lift Valve and
one screw down non-return valve.? - To prevent the steam and the water in the boiler
from discharging out through the feed line fractures or a joint in the line blows
28. Following are the characteristic of a 2-stroke diesel engine?
A 2 stroke engine completes a full cycle every revolution

N2G 07 2022
29. When using low sulfur fuel oil for emission control areas(ECAS), ideally the TBN of the
cylinder oil used should be - Lower than normal
30. To avoid the engine running too long on critical speed during start up it is necessary to
Start at speeds just below critical speed and quickly move across the critical speed
31. Which of the following types of damage are metal seating of a Valve subject to?
Choose the correct alternative * Corrosion, Erosion, Abrasion, Deformation
32. Which of the following can be done to reduce the cold corrosion of main engine cylinder
liners using high sulphur fuel oil - Using high TBN cylinder oil
33. Which of the following specification/qualities of cylinder oils counter corrosive wear? TBN
34. At normal ambient temperatures, which of the following fluids usually has the lowest
density? - Lubricating Oil
35. In relation to the operating of water tube boilers and fire-tube boilers, choose the one
which is most accurate ? - Water tube boilers are more efficient and generally contain
less water than fire___major damage when run dry during operation.
36. When main engine is running in emergency condition which of the alarms can’t be by
passed - All Answer are correct
37. Which of the following changes would occur when the temperature of lubricating oil is
reduced? - Viscosity would increase
38. it is a known fact that centrifugal pumps require priming for pumping liquids, as they
cannot handle air and will lose suction due to air entry. But on the other hand T/Cs use
centrifugal compressors for supercharging. Which of the following do you think makes a
centrifugal compressor to pump air and behave differently than the centrifugal pumps?
High speed of rotation, very fine internal clearances and large impeller diameter
39. which of the following statement correctly describes the phenomenon of surging in a 2-
stroke crosshead type engine? - Due to sudden increase in engine load, the T/C turbine
rpm may increase suddenly increasing the compressor pressure ratio to surge
40. In case of 2-stroke marine diesel engines, the top part of the liner forming the combustion
chamber experiences very high pressure induced mechanical stresses as well as high
thermal stresses. Which of the following is a correctly designed liner for catering both the
above stresses? - Thick top portion to take care of high mechanical stresses while bore
cooling to reduce thermal gradients
41. An auxiliary engine turbocharger makes strange noises when the load changes. The
engine parameters however are absolutely fine. An external examination of turbocharger
parameters as stated in the manual also reveals nothing. Would you
Reduce the load of the engine

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42. In a bypass type filtering system for a medium or high speed diesel engine, the lube oil
bypassing the filter - Flows to the engine bearings
43. In a 4 cycle supercharged diesel engine the exhaust value is open in the cycle for a
period of…… - 220 degree
44. Generators work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The internal e.m.f
generated in the phase windings of an a.c. generator is controlled by:
The diesel speed and excitation current
45. What is meant by the term "two stage air compressor" ? - A compressor in which the
compressed air from the first stage is further compressed in the second stage before
being delivered to the air receiver.
46. What is the main effect on lubricating oil of operating for long periods at excessively high
temperature? - It will cause the oil to oxidise, increasing the viscosity.
47. What is the main reason for keeping engine lubricating oil viscosity within recommended
limits?
To ensure the strength of the oil film is sufficient to keep lubricated surfaces apart.
48. When referring to onboard oil treatments using a centrifuge, what is meant by the term
purification? - Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities, and the removal
of solids in the same process.
49. Which term is used to refer to the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of
one kilogram of any particular substance by one degree Celsius?
Specific heat or specific heat capacity.
50. Boiler water tests on a low pressure steam boiler show the chloride content to be 50
ppm. What action should be taken if any? - No action is necessary.
51. From the statements given in the answer options, choose the one which is most accurate
in relation to the operation of water-tube boiler and fire-tube boilers. - Water-tube boilers
are more efficient and generally contain less water than fire tube boilers. They are prone
to major damage when run dry during operation.
52. Under what load condition would soot blowing of the boiler tubes be most beneficial?
When the boiler is firing on high rate.
53. What action is required if boiler water tests confirm a pH value of less than 9?
Increase the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the pH value is back within
normal range.
54. What is an effective means of measuring the total dissolved solids in boiler water?
Conductivity test
55. What is the correct range for the pH-value for the water in an oil fired steam boiler? 9 - 11

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56. What is the main purpose of having a deaerator in a boiler feed water system?
To remove oxygen and other dissolved gases from the feed water.
57. What is the purpose of a scum valve often fitted to a steam boiler? - To allow removal of
any oil or impurities which collect on the surface of the water in the boiler steam drum.
58. What is the purpose of an economiser as often fitted in a steam boiler plant?
To heat the feed-water
59. What is the purpose of refractory linings in an oil fired steam boiler furnace?
To prevent excessive furnace heat losses and protect tubes and other fittings from
overheating.
60. What is the purpose of the flame scanner or 'magic eye' fitted to the burner unit of oil or
gas fired steam boilers? - To check that the flame is present during start up or normal
operation of the burner; if not then fuel is shut off automatically.
61. What temperature should a water sample be at before carrying out boiler water ts?
At room temperature.
62. What would be the effect of a faulty steam trap on a fuel oil heater causing condensate to
build up in the heat exchanger? - Reduced heating capacity of the heater.
63. Where should a sample for boiler water test purposes be taken from?
From the boiler water space.
64. After successful synchronising an incoming machine the kW and kVar loading are
respectively transferred by the following controls: - Speed governor and voltage regulator
65. Alteration of the excitation voltage (or field current) of one alternator operating in parallel,
will cause which change in that alternators output : Reactive load (kVAR)
66. Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be performed check:
Its readiness to perform as specified.
67. The internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of a lightly loaded a.c. generator is
controlled by: - The prime mover speed and excitation current.
68. The two instruments necessary for generator synchronising are:
Voltmeter and synchroscope
69. Which group of electrical services are likely to be supplied from an emergency
generator? - Steering gear and engine room alarm system
70. Which of the following types of damages are metal seatings of a valve subject to?
Choose the correct altenative - Corrosion, Erosion. Abrasion, Defomation
71. What action should be taken when the tests on the water in a low pressure boiler show
the chlonde level is 500 ppm? - Blow down boiler and check the condenser for leakage.
72. When A/E stand by FO. heater to be used for main engine

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 FO. inlet valve causes pressure drop ME F.O. pressure standby water is not pressurized
may cause sudden change in engine per load/rpm
73. When main engine is running in emergency condition which of the alarms can't be by
passed - All answers are correct
74. In relation to the operation of water-tube boiler and fire-tube boilers, choose the one
which is most accurate ? - Water-tube boilers are more efficient and generally contain
less water than fire tube bollers. They are prone to major damage when run dry during
operation.
75. In a 4 cycle engine the in let value begins to open when the piston is on its
Exhaust stroke.
76. In a 4 cycle engine the exhaust value opens while the piston is on its - Power stroke
77. In a naturally aspirated 4 cycle diesel engine the exhaust valve is open for a period of
250 degrees.
78. What are the indications of excessive cylinder clearance in a small diesel engine?
I. Loss of power II. Misfiring III. White exhaust smoke IV. Excessive consumption of lube
oil. - I.III and IV
79. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the four stroke of the piston required to complete one
cycle Which must take place in regular order. The second stroke - Is the power stroke.
80. If the output of this auxiliary diesel increases, say by 30 %, how will the thermometer
readings on the outlet side of engine and turbocharger change ?
They will slightly increase (by 1 to 3 degrees C)
81. How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine ?
In parallel with the cylinders
82. How is pump 'V" driven ? By gears attached to the crankshaft
83. What is the component marked 'V" ? The fresh water pump
84. How is the set pressure (opening pressure) on the safety value of a diesel engine
adjusted ? By adjusting the spring pressure
85. What type of diesel engine is shown here ? A two stroke trunk type engine
86. What type of scavenge system is in use in this diesel engine ? Combined scavenging
87. What type of turbocharger would be fitted to this engine ? A dual entry type
88. What type of diesel engine is shown here ? A four stroke flanged type engine
89. How do the inlet and the exhaust value pushrods and rocker arms moue on this type of
engine ? Pneumatically lifted via cam activated air booster

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90. In this diagram if left is portside and right is starboard, during the taking of crankshaft
positions the rotation is counterclockwise, in what position is the engine crankshaft now
shown ? Between TP and P
91. Which grade of fuel oil can be used in this kind of engine (built after 1990) ?
Marine diesel or distillate diesel oil
92. In a trunk type piston, the downward combustion pressure on the gudgeon pin is
composed of two forces. What are these forces ?
Combustion pressure and crankshaft torque
93. The fundamental difference between a 2-stroke and a 4-stroke engine is in the number
of: Piston strokes each one needs to complete a combustion cycle.
94. Mat part shown in this diagram ? A piston
95. The third stroke of four-stroke diesel engine is called the - Power stroke
96. A diesel engine block is made of …... And does not permit welding. - Cast iron
97. The best way to ensure engine speed governor stability is to allow a given ratio of
Speed droop.
98. Which part of the mechanical governor is manipulated by the servomotor to increase or
decrease engine speed ? - The linkage to the fuel rack
99. What do you call the instrument that measures the concentric position of the crankshaft
or rotor Shaft in its bearing ? - Shafting gauge
100. The narrow band of speed variation through which the governor makes no correction and
refers to the sensitivity of the governor is known as the - Sensitive band
101. What type of strainer is used in a turbine lubrication oil system to remove metallic
particles ? - Metal edge strainer
102. Which of the following is not a principle of heat transfer utilised in an oil fired steam
boiler? Forced convention.
103. How often should boiler water tests be carried out on a steam boiler? Every day.
104. What action should be taken if the boiler water tests show that the ph-value in the boiler
water is slightly over 11.5?
Blowdown the boiler and decrease the dosage of boiler water treatment chemicals.
105. What is the main problem associated with oil in a steam boiler water system?
It forms an insulating film on heat transfer surfaces with the risk of overheating
106. What is the main purpose of the superheater vent valve on a high pressure steam boiler?
To ensure a flow of steam through the superheater when raising steam pressure or when
the boiler is not on-line.
107. What temperature should a water sample be at before carrying out boiler water tests?

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 At room temperature.
108. What is the meaning of “H.S. PUMPS” ? - Hydraulic solenoid pumps
109. What is the function of the values “PR” fitted between the two after and the two forward
cylinders ? - To act as automatic by-pass valves when the steering gear is stopped
110. When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action ? As soon as point “Z” moves
111. What is part No 3 ? The poop The stern
112. What is the shaft called to which the propeller is fastened ? - The tail shaft
113. How is the propeller fitted on the drive shaft, so as to avoid it from slipping ?
It is locked into slots on the drive shaft
114. What part is fitted under the propeller cone ?
(Left triangular part of the propeller in the drawing) The propeller nut
115. Of what kind commonly named metal is the stern tube lining composed of ?
Aluminium brass
116. How is the stern tube bearing lubricated ? - By the main stern supply pump
117. What is the shape of stern tube seals (forward and aft) ?
They are lip seals and in one piece
118. Which are the stern tube bearing parts on this type of stern tube?
The cylindrical steel tube with white metal lining and oil bath
119. When a command is given to this steering gear, what happens ?
Point "X" will turn around point "Y", moving "Z" and the control rod
120. What is the purpose of spring "S" fitted between point "Y" and the Trunion block of the
steering gear ? - Ensuring flexibility by absorbing vibrations and clearances
121. What is to be checked during a drydocking period to ensure that any upward movement
of the rudder will be contained and damage to the steering gear will be avoided ?
The upper and lower pintle jumping bar clearances
122. Which action of the steering gear pumps is feasible ?
Pressure to cylinders A and D, return oil from B and C
123. During normal operations, the command rod ''C" pushes point “Z” and the control rod off
centre so that the "HS" pumps start pumping and the settering gear moves. When will it
stop moving ? - When the trunion point "Y" pushes point “Z” back in the centre
124. This electric circuit is part of the Steering Gear Control System, in which the output is
either 1 or 0 as either solenoid 1or 2 is energized. It is an example of what kind of circuit
? - A Wheatstone Bridge
125. The first potentiometer of this electric command system is located on the bridge. By what
mode of steering will it be given a command ? By any of these steering methods

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126. This steering gear telemotor system is drawn in the neutral position, rudder amidship.
This means that ………….? - Neither solenoid “S1" or "S2"is energised
127. What is the purpose of the double check valves fitted in this telemotor system ?
To maintain the set pressure in the system
128. What is the purpose of the capacity control on the telemotor of a steering gear ?
To keep the oil delivery quantity to the telemotor ram constant.
129. Under what circumstances is this steering control system energised / operational?
By any of the above
130. Mat is the purpose of the 3-way cock part No 7 in the stern tube oil circuit ?
To drain the oil from the stern tube and sample
131. Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level ?
To avoid sea water entering the stern tube
132. What would loss of vacuum indicate on a bilge pump? - Bilge empty
133. What is the usual method of reducing delivery pressure on a gear pump?
By adjusting the internal spring loaded pressure relief value
134. Flow is air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented?
A water seal line to the packing gland
135. From the following pump capacities, which would be most suitable for the domestic fresh
water System? - 5 m3/hour x 50 metres
136. Where what be the most likely service for a multi stage centrifugal pump?
Boiler feed pump.
137. At would you rate the capacity of this type of pump? - 50 to 250 m3/hour
138. For which service would a gear pump be most suitable? - Engine lub oil pressure supply.
139. Reciprocating pumps are most suited to pumping which medium?
Liquids having high air content.
140. Worm and worm wheel distinguish between what pump components?
The driving and driven shaft gears
141. What service are centrifugal pumps most suitable for?
Where liquids are not excessively viscous.
142. When assembling an 'Endless Screw" type pump what results from insufficient axial or
radial Clearance? - A water seal line to the packing gland
143. When starting a centrifugal pump what condition would be adopted to reduce the initial
load? - The discharge value closed.
144. What would be the main reason for a centrifugal pump's performance deteriorating over
time? - Excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.

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145. Would you do on first starting a gear if pumping cold oil?
Ease off the spring loaded pressure relief valve.
146. What is the most obvious reason for drop in electrical load on a ballast pump?
Pump no longer pumping liquid.
147. What is the most commonly used packing for value glands? - Soft gland packing.
148. Why does the fluid pass through the value from beneath the value lid?
With the value closed the delivery pressure is isolated from the gland.
149. What jointing material is used on engine exhausts or superheated steam lines?
Wire reinforced asbestos joints.
150. How is expansion allowed for in large diesel engine exhausts?
Fitting of steel bellows pieces.
151. Where would you find a duplex fitter unit? - In fuel oil piping
152. Where would you find a thermostatic control valve? - Engine jacket water cooling system.
153. How does a 'quick closing' value operate? - The value bridge is collapsed remotely
allowing the value o close.
154. Where would you always find Screw Down Non-Return valves fitted?
Bilge suction valves
155. What is the first check if difficulty is encountered with pumping bilges and high suction?
Open sea suction value to prime pump
156. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells?
Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded
157. How are cargo hold bilge wells covered to prevent solids from entering them?
By perforated plating
158. What type of valve is fitted to cargo bilge lines at the Engine Room bulkhead?
Non-return screw down valves
159. What is the purpose of a cofferdam? - To provide a barrier space between tanks
containing different liquids.
160. If the value wheel of an extended spindle value is free, but the value seems to be not
moving, what would you check first? - Check to see if the value spindle is being turned.
161. According to regulations, on board ships it is necessaryto have PUMP REDUNDANCY.
What does this mean?- All essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility
162. What generator cooling is sometimes used in dry-docking?
Circulating fore or aft peak tanks
163. In a centrifugal general service pump how are suction and discharge sections separated?
Mechanical garter spring seals.

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164. If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and impeller
badly, the Shape and design of which pump part could be altered and why?
The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity.
165. Why is an isolating value fitted on the fire main from the engine room? - To isolate the
engine room and enable the emergency fire pump to supply the deck.
166. What could cause overheating after pump overhaul, it is verified that assembly is correct?
Misalignment of the shaft
167. What maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'? - 0 ppm
168. Under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard in 'Special
Areas'? Only in a case of emergency.
169. What happens if the separator oil content exceeds the equipment allowable level?
The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds
170. Why are zinc anodes sometimes fitted to heat exchangers in seawater cooling
systems? To prevent corrosion of the metals used in the system

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DEVELOP EMERGENCY AND DAMAGE CONTROLS PLANS AND HANDLE EMERGENCY
SITUATIONS

1. On the Ship’s fire plan, what information was found ?

The Location of various fire fighting appliances and equipment
2. The Following are the steps that must be carried out on board the ship so that the crew of
the passenger ship can deal with emergency situations that occur on the ship quickly,
safety and under control, except - Familiar with navigation tools and ship documents
3. What is most important for crew members when preparing for emergencies ?
That people are well trained
4. Which of the following prevention actions offers the guarantee of an efficient intervention
in an emergency ? - All the listed answers
5. What must be considered in the correct sequence of actions to be taken in a fire
emergency is ? - Evaluation of the situation, rescue and life-saving, convinement of fire,
extinction, then feed back on the emergency.
6. The action that will be taken by the chief officer who is on duty in a distress situation and
immediately after distress signal is sounded, is ? - Use the intercom to inform crew and
passengers of the reason of the alarm
7. What special equipment can often provide assistance in locating a survival craft or man
overboard and in the water ? – A SART
8. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of lifeboats and life-rafts
corresponds to present SOLAS regulations ?
Lifeboats shall be showed attached to launching appliances
9. As a probable result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel involved is on
fire, what are your responsible to the other vessel ? - After checking the extent of the
damage and welfare of your crew, if possible your vessel should standby, and offer
assistance, until being relieved of that obligation by the other vessel.
10. Collect and prepare EPIRB, SART, and SOLAS radio when, - All Answers are correct
11. What do you think is the helicopter evacuation radius and capacity based on HEL-H ?
200 nm and capacity for evacuating more than 15 persons Develope Emergency And
Damage Controls Plans And Handle Emergency Situations
12. if the vertical center of gravity ( VCG ) of a ship rises, the righting arm ( GZ) for the
various angels of inclination will. - decrease
13. Main Engine Failure, action - All Answer are correct

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14. The training manual shall contain instructions and information in easily understood terms
and illustrated wherever possible. Which of the following objects have to be explained in
detail in the manual according to present regulations ?
Donning of life jackets and immersion suits
15. in case of a fire which would be your first action ?
Raise the alarm before carrying out subsequent actions
16. If a distress signal is received on board your ship, what should be the first action that
should be taken ? - Attempt to establish contact with the distressed vessel.
17. What manoeuver should be carried out in case of a fire onboard a ship?
Reduce speed and, if possible, keep the fire zone to the leeward of the ship
18. As per SOLAS, what the Number of TPA (Thermal protective Aids) to be carried into a
open type lifeboat? - Not required because the lifeboats is equipped with tarpaulin which
can stretch during hot weather
19. in case of an emergency and immediately after a corresponding signal is given by the
ship, what is the next thing you need to do as a chief officer on watch ? - To use the
internal speaker system to inform the crew and passengers of the reason for the signal
20. When the ship sailing in heavy weather/ tropical storm area secure
All Answer are correct Develope Emergency And Damage Controls Plans And Handle
Emergency Situations
21. The function on Debriefing of an emergency drill is?
expands the experience of all personnel
22. Which of the following is most likely to influence changes to emergency plans and
procedures? - The design and layout of the ship
23. Emergency resources that are difficult to plan for the best use are? - Passengers
24. Poster or signs shall be provided on or in the vicinity of survival craft and their launching
controls, which one of the following requirements has to be included?
Give relevant instructions and warnings
25. in the rules, the fire control plan or booklet ( or copy ) should be written in the language ?
in the Flag state official languages with copies in English or French
26. You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7 % mixture with air. If
your instructions say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15
% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentage of vapors for men enter? - 15%
27. The training manual shall contain instructions and information on the life-saving
appliances and the best method of survival, the training manual shall contain detailed

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 explanations of crew duties in relation to emergency situations, which of the following
tasks or duties shall be included in the manual according to present regulations ?
the use of the ship’s line throwing apparatus
28. The Ship is involved in a collision, what is the immediate action by the officer of the watch
after incident has taken place ? - Sound the general alarm and stop engines
29. Studies of shipboard emergencies show that many passengers do not read or remember
safety information as an officer, how can you best compensate for this fact ?
in an emergency, repeatedly tell passengers what’s happening, what’s being done, and
what they should do
30. What actions should the officer of the watch take when the ship’s steering gear fails ?
All of the suggested answers Develope Emergency And Damage Controls Plans And
Handle Emergency Situations
31. Action to be taken when ship collision - All answer are correct
32. The Master arrives on the bridge obviously under the influences of alcohol and states he
is taking over the “con” of the ship, what actions should the officer of the watch ( OOW )
take in this situation? - Attempt to diplomatically avoid taking any actions that would put
the ship or crew into danger and all call the chief officer for assistance
33. The alarm signal of abandon ship is - Seven short blash and one prolong by whistle
34. When steering system failure action to be taken, except - Report to port Authority
35. The time interval for the company to updates its safety management system and manual
is ? - Whenever regulations change
36. The alarm signal when firing - alarm bell
37. Which is the most important factor in the safety awareness of the ships crew ?
The level of emergency-preparedness
38. Abnormal conditions that have the potential ton endanger human life, property, and the
environment where the ship is located is the definition of - Emergency situation
39. As far as human factors is concerned, which of the following actions should be
considered as an efficient one? To establish inner rules to perform work of a special risk
40. Which of the following detailed explanations should be mentioned in the Training
Manual? How to recover survival craft and rescue boats including stowage and securing
41. Which one of the given requirements regarding manning and supervision of survival craft
corresponds to the SOLAS regulation? A deck officer or certificated person shall be
placed in charge of each survival craft to be used
42. You are on board a cargo ship. The ship is heavily listing to starboard, making impossible
the launching of the survival craft stowed on this side. Lifeboats and liferafts are equally

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 distributed on each side of the vessel. What should be the total number of personsthat
can be accommodated in the remaining survival craft stowed on the port side ? (*) N is
the total number of persons that vessel is permitted to carry. - at least 200 % N (lifeboat
capacity: 100 % N; liferaft capacity: 100 % N)
43. During helicopter evacuation of an injured man, what course should the ship steer?
With the wind on the nose from the opposite side of the helicopter works
44. HEL-H is the abbreviation of a heavy helicopter radius of action for rescue purposes.
What do you think the radius and evacuating capacity of the helicopter is?
200 nm and capacity for evacuating more then 15 persons.
45. In a distress situation, how many times or for how long should the emergency alarm
signal be sounded? Until all crew members and passengers have reported to their
respective muster stations
46. Is it necessary to be certified to be a lifeboat-commander? Yes, you must attend to a
course held by certified personnel, and provide evidence of having maintained the
required standards of competence every five years.
47. The analyses of the smoke produced by a fire, may give an interpretation of that fire.
Which are the factors we should take into account? Opacity, amount and colour
48. The muster list must be prepared: At any moment before the ship proceeds to sea
49. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to members of the crew. Which of the
following duties shall be included according to present regulations?
Manning of fire parties assigned to deal with fires.
50. The muster list shall show the duties assigned to the different members of the crew.
Which of the given duties necessarily have to be included in the muster list? Preparation
and launching of survival crafts
51. What are the conditionsthat influence the effortsfor organising the fire fighting?
Where the fire breaks out, how many fire teams are available, the strength of the fire, the
ships mobility, what is burning and communication
52. What is a contingency plan for ships? Plan for safety preparedness
53. What is the priority for the ship's management team when fire breaks out?
The ship's management team must organise the fire teams and then the teams have to
rescue missing personnel
54. When a Master takes the leadership in approaching a problem, Must his first action be a
decision that will directly solve the problem? Not necessary, he shall use all available
resources. He should resist the temptation to step in and do it all by himself

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55. Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as being assigned to
crew members in relation to passengers? Assembling passengers at muster station
56. Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as being assigned to
members of the crew ? Preparation and launching of the survival craft
57. Which of the following information shall be specified by the muster list?
Action to be taken by crew and passengers
58. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival craft muster and embarkation
arrangements corresponds to the present SOLAS regulations? - Muster and embarkation
stations shall be readily accessible from accommondation and work areas.
59. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craft
corresponds to present SOLAS regulations? Each survival craft shall be stowed: In a
secure and sheltered position and protected from damage by fire or explosion.
60. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, and at first opportunity a lot of people from
outsides parties are asking questions. What shall you tell them? Do not reply to any
questions from outside parties, except the Solicitor appointed by your company.
61. A moderate level of stress provides which useful function in an emergency?
To prepare for peak performance that will improve the chances of survival
62. In a crisis, which crew behaviours are most reassuring to passengers?
enthusiasm, confidence, decisiveness
63. The Safety Management Manual contains checklists that are:
clear, concise summaries of critical action items in the emergency plan
64. What can cause crewmembers to abdicate their safety roles? Lack of leadership
65. What is the most important factor in the master's ability to make good decisions in an
emergency? Feedback from the crew
66. Which statement about stress is correct?
Individuals in a shipboard emergency experience different levels of stress.
67. What will be action for first personal who know fire ? Push alarm-bell
68. Action when MOB (man over boat), except - Call chief engineer
69. Action when navigation in ice - All answers are correct
70. Action when the ship flooding/hullfailure - All answers are correct
71. Factors that may cause crew members to give up their usual safety role are ?
Lack of leadership
72. Calling the master, except - Passing another ship
73. On the passanger ship, must be drill every - one week
74. Action when abandon ship - All answers are correct

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75. Action when ship in restricted visibility - All answers are correct
76. In a distress situation and immediately after the distress signal has been sounded, what
is the next action to be taken by the Chief Officer on duty?
Send distress signals to call for help
77. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the
Righting strap
78. Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of - All of the above
79. Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall be
kept on board - Until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires
80. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions
and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?
15 compressions then 2 inflations
81. The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements
for. - Signals that must be sounded when being towed in restricted visibility
82. What is the definition of transverse metacenter? The point to which G may rise and still
permit the vessel to possess positive stability.
83. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should
FIRST . - Boat the sea anchor
84. A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the water,
would indicate that a submarine - Is about to rise to periscope depth
85. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when
Final topping off is occurring
86. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is - Incapable of supporting combustion
because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper
Flammable Limit)
87. If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various
angles of inclination will - Decrease
88. Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at the
periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT - Emergency towing
89. Which single-letter sound signal may be made only in compliance with the International
Rules of the Road? - D
90. You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another country signatory to
MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE? The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5 years.
91. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill the
minimum requirements for fire protection? One B-II extinguisher

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92. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is - Incapable of supporting combustion
because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (Lower Flammable Limit)
93. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT - Electricity
94. Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped
with an inert gas system if the tonnage is more than - 100,000 DWT (metric tons)
95. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their - All of the above
96. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the Rules of the
Road? All of the above
97. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?
It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill.
98. The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the
vicinity of the paint locker exit is - One B-II
99. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a
cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?
Use an explosimeter.
100. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should
be depressed about : 1-1/2 to 2 inches
101. A flame screen - Permits the passage of vapor but not of flame
102. Regardless of local requirements/regulations, when in a U.S. port, all oil spills must be
reported to. - National Response Center (USCG)
103. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must - All of the above
104. The advantages of using an inert gas system on a tank vessel is that it provides
Tank atmosphere with low oxygen content
105. The spread of fire is prevented by - Removing combustibles from the endangered area
106. Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?
They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be cumulative.
107. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be carried in the
vicinity of the radio room exit for a tank vessel on an international voyage is: one - C-II
108. What is used to test a tank for oxygen content? None of the above
109. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body
should the pressure be applied? Lower half of the sternum
110. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure
the power, then - Use a portable CO2 extinguisher
111. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker? Initial stability
112. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit?

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 Combustible gas indicator
113. Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank vessels?
Flue gases from the ship's boilers are used in some systems.
114. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by
Standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight
backwards
115. On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being
launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of
trim and with the unit listed not less than - 20°
116. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by - Human error
117. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on
cargo vessels is - None required
118. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is
called the. - Lower explosive limit (LEL)
119. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be
carried? The same location as the equipment it reactivates
120. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel - Has poor stability
121. You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. The barge is NOT gas free.
Regulations say that the cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the
barge may remain open without flame screens
When under the supervision of a senior crew member on duty
122. The deck water seal of the inert gas system
Prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas
123. The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white pages of
The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquid loading required in
the double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standar ST-0001 - 263 tons
124. The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is
that it. - Accelerates erosion
125. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill the
requirements for fire protection? One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
126. The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is - 1% to 10%
127. The MOST important element in administering CPR is - Starting the treatment quickly
128. Fire hose couplings - Are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
129. What represents the center of gravity? - G
130. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with - An identification number

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131. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water - Should be righted by standing on
the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards
132. Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are - Prohibited
133. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required for a galley
having an area of 3,500 square feet is - Two B-II's or C-II's
134. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is - 21%
135. Before CPR is started, you should - Establish an open airway
136. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially
discharge It should be - Labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
137. What represents the metacentric height? - GM
138. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel
below its ignition temperature? CO2
139. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge
should be directed - At the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
140. After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be - Recharged
141. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should - Close all openings to the area
142. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers
in the pumproom. To comply with regulations, you :
Should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the lower pumproom
143. Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge
which is NOT gas-free? An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp
144. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is
apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?
Re-tip the head and try again.
145. To determine what navigation lights and day-shapes must be displayed on mobile
offshore drilling units under tow, you should check :
the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea
146. Refer to the illustration below. Which represents the righting arm? GZ
147. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by
Removing the fuel
148. The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8' The vessel's
displacement in fresh water is 864 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What
is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? 80 foot
149. If you desired to communicate with another station that your navigation lights were not
functioning, you would send - PD1

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150. A spark arrestor - Prevents sparks from getting out of an engine's exhaust system
151. A B-III foam extinguisher contains - 12 gallons of foam
152. The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free
is a lamp that is - All of the above
153. Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge into the
marine environment of - Garbage
154. When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force through B and
the line of force through G is called the - Righting arm
155. On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height
due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 40 feet long
and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is - 1.2 feet
156. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you
hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should
Not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
157. In the International Code of Signals, the code signal meaning "I require immediate
assistance" is. - CB
158. A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of - 10 pounds of dry chemical
159. What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good? For the instant that it is made
160. Antiseptics are used principally to - Prevent infection
161. Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is 350 feet long and has a beam of 55
feet. You have timed it's full rolling period to be 15.0 seconds. What is your vessel's
approximate GM? 2.60 feet
162. A vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity will
Decrease the righting moments
163. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of
fire by . - Convection
164. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the
possibility of capsizing by - Rigging a sea anchor
165. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send? BR
166. provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a life jacket.
167. What is classified as a B-II fire extinguisher? A 2-1/2 gallon foam
168. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument
Over an electrically heated platinum filament
169. A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY
When all other means have failed

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170. What would be considered a vessel under the International Rules of the Road?
All of the above
171. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel
to have positive stability is called the - Metacenter
172. Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529 feet long and has a beam of 71
feet. You have timed your full charge rolling period to be 25.0 seconds. What is your
vessel's approximate GM? 1.56 feet
173. A negative metacentric height - Should always be immediately corrected
174. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should
Remain in the immediate vicinity
175. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS - Reduce reserve buoyancy
176. Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher?
20 pound dry chemical
177. Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum products, the tank must be certified
by. - A certified marine chemist
178. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively.
What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?
Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing.
179. A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with - Pendants
180. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel
outwards if. - G is above the center of lateral resistance
181. A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 16 feet. At this draft, the displacement is 8,000
tons. The length of the vessel is 475 ft., beam is 55 ft., TPI is 45. Calculate KM. (See P-
value, K-value table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book) - 20.9 feet
182. The most serious effect of air trapped in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is
that it. - Leads to the scuffing of cylinder walls
183. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per day should
you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours? 1 pint
184. What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between figures using flashing
light? AAA
185. Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is
FALSE? The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the clean up of the spill.
186. Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?
Hand-portable fire extinguisher

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187. The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department is the -
Chief Engineer
188. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thum To remove it you should
Push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook
189. When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as
possible to. - All of the above
190. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel? She will have a large metacentric height.
191. Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a fishing
vessel?. Recovering an individual from the water
192. You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How
many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the
sea? Must be retained aboard
193. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during
a prolonged period in a raft?. All of the above
The unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code is - Three times the length of a dot
194. Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is
TRUE? The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast Guard
195. Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number of sanitary inspections
required is - One
196. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to
Stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
197. A signal indicating zone time is preceded with the letter - T
198. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is
Concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty
199. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo liste What is the
height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? 1.50 feet
200. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus?
In the event of a malfunction in the equipment, the valve can be operated manually to
give the wearer air.
201. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is
Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
202. The standard rate of signaling by flashing light is - Forty letters per minute
203. When oil is T-Boat discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the
discharge? Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water.

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204. The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by
applying the. - Any or a combination of the above criteria
205. On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the
Master and Chief Engineer
206. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by
using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?
Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing.
207. The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to
Allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
208. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is
Hypothermia caused by cold temperature
209. Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent?
It is always non-toxi
210. On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable? B-III
211. One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is
accomplished by
Eliminating possible living spaces for rats when the ship is constructed
212. In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by
Applying direct pressure to the wound
213. The signal T 0735 means - The zone time is 0735
214. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you
should. - Place the heaviest woods in the lower holds
215. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather
Deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel
216. If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be indicated by - D120380
217. According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, a stability test may be dispensed with if the
Coast Guard has the approved stability test results of a sister vessel
218. On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are considered semi-portable when they
have a gross weight of more than - 55 pounds
219. Before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible
person from the vessel should determine that the source
is approved by the Public Health Service
220. Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by
Applying direct pressure to the wound

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221. A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 14 feet. At this draft, the displacement is 6780 tons.
The length of the vessel is 450 feet, beam is 50 feet, and TPI is 45.5. What is the KM?
(See the P-K table in the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book) - 22 feet
222. Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel? Its period of roll is short.
223. Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between perpendiculars taken at the
forward-most and the after-most points on a small passenger vessel's waterline at her
deepest operating draft? LBP
224. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft? All of the above
225. When signaling by flashing light, the signal "C" should be used to indicate a(n)
Affirmative statement
226. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention
regulations? Oil mixed with dredge spoil
227. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. "1",
"2", "3", et The height of the letters and figures must be at least - 2 inches 222. What
represents poor sanitary procedures?
Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in the bilge.
228. The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by
Direct pressure on the wound
229. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to
Determine the lightweight center of gravity location
230. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?
Concentrate weights on upper decks
231. Where will you find the requirements for the lights that must be displayed on a mobile
offshore drilling unit that is being towed? COLREGS
232. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should
Not attack the fire from opposite sides
233. Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a question? - RQ
234. As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the discharge of oil
or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, what must he do FIRST? .Call the Coast Guard
235. The term "gross tonnage" refers to - The vessel's approximate volume including all
enclosed spaces less certain exempt spaces
236. Normally, portable water systems are connected directly to the - Domestic water tank
237. A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should
Not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives

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238. One of the requirements given regarding the assembly of rescue vessels and
arrangements for embarkation in accordance with the SOLAS regulations below is ?
Muster and embarkation stations shall be readily and accessible from accomodation and
work areas
239. The actions of the crew in a crisis situation that most reassure passengers are ?
Keeping up with safety knowledge

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MONITOR AND CONTROL COMPLIANCE WITH LEGISLATIVE REQUIREMENTS
AND MEASURE TO ENSURE SAFETY OF LIFE AT SEA, SECURITY AND THE
PROTECTION OF THE MARINE ENVIRONMENT

1. The listed requirements regarding inflatable liferafts corresponds to present regulations?

Every liferaft shall be so constructed that: In the event of capsizing it will automatically
attain a position providing an above water escape
2. The emission limit of nitrogen oxides from ship build after 1 January 2000 but before 1
January 2011 is - 17.0 g/kW.h when n is less than 130 rpm
3. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank of a chemical tanker which has been washed to such
an extent that the ballast contains less than 1 ppm of the substance previously carried
may be discharge in to the sea without regard to the discharge rate, ship’s speed and
discharge outlet location, but under certain conditions, which require:
That the vessel is not less than 12miles from nearest land and is in water that is not less
than 25 meters deep
4. What of entries shall the master make in the sea service book or record of service in
connection with supervision of maritime service?
Entries regarding the seafarer’s service has been left behind, been dismissed etc.
5. Priority objectives of the ISM Code are
Safe operation of the ship and avoid inflicting damage to the environment.
6. Annex I Marpol 73/78 will be applied to
Oil tanker of GT 150 or more and Non tanker of GT 400 or more
7. As per Ballast Water Management convention, the ballast water exchange will be carried
out, except - Carried out at night time
8. Which certificate is issued not based on provision of SOLAS Convention?
Hull and machinery Certificate
9. The policies contained in the Cover Note are ?
The insurance agreement signed by the insurer only
10. If pollution takes place, what would you do immediately? Report to relevant authorities
11. Safety Management certificate is a certificate issued based on provision of: ISM Code
12. As per Marpol 73/78,coal slurry, clay slurry, dextrose solution and molasses are
classified as: - Category OS in Annex II
13. As per Marpol 73 incident means
An event involving the actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance

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14. Port state control is: - Inspection of foreign ships present in a nation’s port
15. According to Protocol I of Marpol 73/78 the repot is not necessary to be made when :
Any discharge into the sea of substance that is not regulate by this Convention
16. Who should be called upon to deal with pollution and damage claims when your Ship is
involved in a collision, resulting in a heavy oil leak are ?
The P & I Club’s nearest representative
17. Safety Equipment Certificate shall be issued for a period of: 5 YEARS
18. Which is the best way to board a liferaft which is floating close to the ship, when
conditions permit? Use a rope ladder close to the raft to climb down and board
19. As per requirements of the Ballast Water Management Convention oil tankers must have
a plan on board to achieve :
95 % volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on board at the previous port
20. The rules of the Convention SOLAS, unless otherwise stated, do not apply to vessels
with a size less than 500 G?
21. Ballast water in a tank which since oil was last carried there on has been so cleaned that
effluent therefrom if it were discharged from a ship which is stationary into clean calm
water on a clear day would not produce visible traces of oil on the surface of the water is
called: Segregated ballast
22. What part on the float free arrangement for inflatable liferafts is made to provide a
connection between the ship and the liferaft? The painter
23. The international convention on pollution prevention is ? MARPOL
24. Parties who have a Contingent Interest According to the provisions of the Marine
Insurance Act 1906 are? Consignee which is a loss due to ship delay or damaged goods.
25. The purpose of the indemnity Principle in the basic principles of insurance is not written
in the policy but must be obeyed by the insured (assured) is ? The Assured is not
permitted to make a profit on the Insurance
26. The ship is equipped with David launched life raft. At what intervals should drills on their
usage be carried out including inflating and lowering of the life rafts when practicable?
Every 4 months
27. Under international Convention on Civil Liability fir Oil Pollution Damage (CLC 1992)
claim for compensation for oil pollution damage may be made only against:
The owner of the ship
28. To have a right to leave service on board for special reasons, What should the seafarer
do? If the ship, for example, is not in a seaworthy condition for the voyage and the
master fails to take steps to remedy the defects

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29. What to do if the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment fails during ballast voyage ?
All of the mentioned must be performed
30. According to MEPC 201(62) regarding amendment to Marpol Annex V what ship should
carry the garbage management plan? Every ship of GT 100 and above
31. Sanction to crew who does not prevent and control the occurrence of pollution originating
from his ship according Law No.17 year 2008 regarding Shipping article 324 shall be :
Punish with imprisonment for maximum 2 years and fine maximum three hundreds
million rupiah
32. Port state control is: Inspection of foreign ships present in a nation’s port
33. Who is responsible so that the regulated working hours are not exceeded on the ship is ?
The master and department heads.
34. Ballast Water Management Convention has been ratified by Indonesian Government
with: Presidential decree No.132 year 2015
35. According SOLAS B PACK , how much food per person is supplied on a liferaft?
Not less than 10000 kJ
36. The Executive Director of the Maritime Administration may limit the right of the seafarer to
perform a specific function of the vessel ? If proven guilty of the accident caused,
emergency accident or pollution of the environment
37. Which equipment is provided in a liferaft to help you keep warm in cold weather? At least
10% of the rafts complement with a minimum of 2 thermal protective aids are provided
38. The rules and regulations are regulating the watch keeping routines in the engine room is
? International Standard for Training and Watch keeping (STCW)
39. IOPP certificate will be valid for a period of: 5 year
40. In most cases, which of the following actions should you generally take, when you have
abandoned ship in a liferaft.,? Organise a lookout system. Join up with other survival
craft if possible. Stream the sea anchor
41. Who publishes documents required to be carried on board ship?
International Classification Society
42. For category Y in Annex II Marpol after discharging ,before departure tanks have to be
pre washed and discharge to reception facility until the rest in the tank 5 cubic meter
43. Who is in charge of the ship’s radio station and mandatory onboard radio routines ?
The master.
44. Anyone who violates the provisions of Norwegian law or the provisions of regulations laid
down by virtue of Norwegian law, relating to contract of engagements and account book,

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 to notification to, appearance before, or to the talking of evidence, shall be liable to:
Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months
45. Annex Vi of Marpol 73/78 shall apply to : All ships
46. What of entries shall the master make in the sea service book or record of service in
connection with supervision of maritime service?
Entries regarding the seafarer’s service time, vacation days due etc.
47. Any shipmaster who refuses to provide any person carried on the ship with anything
which he is entitled to receive in such capacity, or who permits such refusal, shall be
liable to: Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, but not exceeding 1
year if there are especially aggravating circumstances
48. A person can be punished when without the captain’s permission leaves the ship in a
state of distress or other danger as long as the captain is still on board for ?
Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months
49. Evertoy one who discharge harmful substances to the sea without complying statutory
provision shall be threatened with
Pending the certificate of competency for maximum 2 years
50. Chapter III of SOLAS requires ships longer than 100 meters to have an additional life raft
on the forecastle. Should this life raft be equipped with a hydrostatic release unit?
No, this life raft is for intentional throwing overboard only
51. In the case of responsibility of cargo where the carrier is responsible for carriage, the
cargo owner shall take action_______ except
Make a note of protest if the carrier rejects the receipt is clean
52. What is a "passenger" according to SOLAS regulations?
Every person other than the Captain and the members of the crew or other persons
employed or engaged onboard the ship in the business of that ship
53. To achieve safe maritime operation, the Indonesian Sea Transportation and
Communication Directorate works in compliance with
The International Maritime Organization (IMO)
54. The assured (insured) must have an insurable interest in the policy when A loss occurs
55. MARPOL - Annex IV. Prevention of Pollution by Sewage from ships. What do you
understand by the word "Sewage"? Drainage/waste from toilets/urinals
56. What does the abbreviation STCW stand for?
The International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping
of Seafarers

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57. Do third States enjoy any fishing rights within the Exclusive Economic Zone of another
State? When the coastal State cannot harvest the 'total allowable catch', the coastal
State is to give other State access to that surplus with priority to be given to developing
and land-locked States
58. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?
Any one involved in the operation
59. Which is 'rock' under the UN Convention of the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) ?
Rocks are the islands which cannot sustain human habitation or economic life of their
own
60. Under the terms of the Marine Insurance Act 1906 the party possessing Feasible Interest
is: Shipper in the form of goods rejected by the buyer due to damage or delay
61. What must be done if the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) should fail during
a ballast voyage? - All of the mentioned must be performed
62. Broker is Person who serves as a trusted agent that has legal expertise related to the
coverage of insured from the prospective assured. The fee of services by broker is paid
by : Insurer of the premium received from the assured.
63. The goods which can be coverage by marine insurance are, except
The cost to deal with marine pollution from ship
64. Cover Note is a temporary coverage of Insurance, which then by the insurer will be
issued a policy. The policy is
Underwriter agreements signed by the assurer and the insurer
65. A subordinate who unlawfully brings intoxicating beverages on board shall be liable to
Fines or in especially aggravating circumstances to imprisonment for a term not exceeding
three months
66. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the oily water
separator which was previously certified for 100 ppm be changed to - 15 Ppm
67. How many nautical miles out are considered "teritorial water" ?
12 nautical miles from the baseline
68. A cover note is a temporary certificate of insurance issued by the Insurer before the
issuance of a policy. The information that would not usually appear on a cover note is
Deductable
69. When does an illegal act of violence on the high seas fall short of qualifying as piracy?
When it is not committed against another vessel and when it is not committed for 'private
ends'
70. What does the term OIL mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?

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 All of the mentioned
71. Who are responsible for safe working conditions onboard?
Master, Chief Engineer & Chief Officer
72. What is the function of the contiguous zone?
The contiguous zone is a zone in which the coastal State is permitted to prevent and
punish infringements of customs, fiscal, immigration or sanitary law
73. Peril on The Sea is a marine perils, that a ship may be damaged or destroyed because of
Pirates in the ocean who can harm the people and all the things of a ship
74. Which of the UN member states below has signed UNCLOS III ? Guyana
75. When did the third UN Convention on the Law of the Sea Conference (UNCLOS III) take
place ? Between 1973 and 1982
76. What is the maximum oil content in the sludge/ bilge water allowed to be pumped over
board during a voyage? - 30 litres per nautical mile
77. In Marine Insurance Policy Insurable interest must exist at the time of
At the time of claim
78. Which principle suggests that insured (assured) should try to minimize the loss of his
property even if it is insured? - Principle of indemnity
79. The fee charged by the insurer on account of providing services is called - Premium
80. Which organization or administration is responsible for surveys and inspections of
ships, and the issue of Safety Certificates? Government Authorities of the Flag State
81. What is the purpose of baselines under the law of the sea?
The determination of baselines is instrumental to the establishment of all maritime
zones, since they constitute the starting point for measuring the breadth of each zone
82. Which State exercises jurisdiction over vessels on the high seas?
The flag State is to exercise exclusive jurisdiction over its vessels on the high seas, with
the exception of specific cases, such as piracy
83. What kind of passage does qualify as 'innocent passage' ?
A vessel's passage is considered 'innocent' where it is not prejudical to the peace, good
order or security of the coastal state
84. How frequent should reports from protection and environmental work be send to shore
based management? - Annually
85. Any master who makes or permits a false entry to be made in the log book, shall be
liable to fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 1 year according to
The Ship Safety and Security Act, Section 65
86. What is the 'equitable result' in the law and practice of maritime delimitation?

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 It is the end result that all delimitations of areas of continental shelf and EEZ should
achieve, after, however, drawing a provisional 'equidistance line' and adjusting the zone
in the light of the relevant circumstances and the proportionality test
87. What kind of rights do coastal States enjoy over their continental shelf?
The coastal State enjoy ipso facto and ab initio sovereign rights over its continental
shelf for the purpose of exploring it and exploiting its natural resources
88. In case any accident occurs, the cause in known as - Marine peril
89. What is the status of the rules of the SOLAS convention? Mandatory
90. Which international convention deals with fire-fighting equipment - SOLAS
91. Which is the following principle in general insurance that not written in policy but must
be obeyed by the Insured (Assured) ? - Principle of legality
92. The first effort at codifying the Law of the sea, 1930 Hague Codification Conference,
focused on what issued - The breadth and nature of the teritorial sea regime
93. Which of the folowing is NOT one of the freedoms of the high seas set out in Article 87
of UNCLOS - Testing nuclear weapons
94. Correctly identify the answer that lists three categories of highly migratory species listed
in Annex 1 of UNCLOS - Swordfish, mackerel, pomfrets
95. Which of the following is not true of the Nyon Agreement (1937) ?
It related to aerial attacks on neutral merchant vessels
96. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea on a
Bulk Carrier, what is the most careful consideration?
Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety Management System (SMS) for
guidance
97. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged into the sea from tank cleaning or
deballasting operations , are deemed to present a hazard to either marine resources or
human health or cause harm to amenities or other legitimate uses of the sea and
therefore justify a limitation on the quality and quantity of the discharge into the marine
environment". Such substances are:
A category "Y" substance as identified in MARPOL Annex II
98. The reporting of incidents involving harmful substances and / or marine pollutants is
regulated under which international guidelines? Protocol I of MARPOL
99. A Cargo Ship Equipment Certificate will be issued for:
5 years with control every 12 months
100. What are the functions of a flag state administration?

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 They have responsibility for setting, monitoring and enforcing standards of safety and
pollution prevention on vessels flying the countries flag
101. What would happen if, when a ship is under-going a Port State Inspection, certificates
were invalid or missing Rectification would be required before sailing
102. "From the list below, which is among the recommended actions for a vessel to take, on
entering an area known for pirate activity?" To transit with maximum safe speed
103. In which of these circumstances can your ship request a DoS ?
Your ship is conducting activities with a port or ship that is not required to implement an
approved security plan.
104. A thank with contained a category “ X ” product must under go aprewash before leaving
port in compliance with MARPOL. The resulting residues shall be discharged to a
reception facility untuil the concentration of substance in the effluent, as indicated by
analiysis of samples of the effluent taken by the authorized surveyor has reached a
level of - 01% by weight
105. The operation that shall not be recorded in oil record book part II is
Discharge ballast from segregated
106. Under international convention on civil liability for oil pollution damage ( CLC 1992 )
claim for compensation pollution damage may be made oly against
The owner of the ship
107. For how long is the health certificate valid for a seafarer above the age of 18? One
year
108. For what period of time is the protection and environment committee elected?
1 - 2 years.
109. For which of the following ships, is the MARPOL convention applicable?
For all listed vessels.
110. For which ships is the SOLAS convention applicable? - for all vessels
111. In US waters "Oil Pollution Act of 1990" was activated in August 1993. What is the main
issue for the introduction of the act? To prevent oil spills in US waters
112. What can lead to "Unlimited responsibility" (OPA-90)
Wilful misconduct, gross negligence and violation of Federal Safety
113. What is SOPEP? - A Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan
114. What is the alcohol content in the blood permissible under US legislation before it is
defined as intoxication? - 0,04 %
115. Where should the placard you are shown be located, according to U.S. Coast Guard
regulations ? (Title 33-Navigation and Navigable waters, § 155.440 )

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 Both in a conspicuous place in each machinery space and in a conspicuous place at
the bilge and ballast pump control station
116. Which IMO convention takes care of the human safety at sea ? The SOLAS convention
117. MARPOL 73/78 defines ‘solidifying substances‘ as:
A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting point of
less than 15°C which is at a temperature of less than 5°C above its melting point at the
time of unloading, or in the case of a substance with a melting point equal to or greater
than 15°C which is at a temperature of less than 10°C above its melting point at the
time of unloading.
118. MARPOL 73/78 defines a ‘high viscosity substance‘ as: A noxious liquid substance of
any category with a pour point of greater than 37.8 degrees Celsius.
119. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances, the area(s)
designated as ―Special Areas, are: The Antarctic.
120. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical tanker which has been washed to
such an extent that the ballast contains less than 1 ppm of the substance previously
carried may be discharged into the sea without regard to the discharge rate, ship's
speed and discharge outlet location, but under certain conditions, which require:
That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the nearest land and is in water that is not
less than 25 metres deep
121. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional discharge into the sea of a Noxious
Liquid Substance or mixture containing such a substance, an entry shall be made in the
Cargo record Book, which shall include:
Time of occurrence Approximate quantity, substance(s) and Category(ies)
Circumstances of discharge or escape and general remarks. Date of occurrence
122. Vegetable Oils as per MARPOL are classified under:
Category "Y".
123. When small amounts of cleaning additives (detergent products) are added to water in
order to facilitate the washing of tanks which previously contained liquid chemicals,
must be ensured that:
No additives containing Pollution Category "X" components shall be used, except those
components that are readily biodegradable and present in a total concentration of less
than 10% of the cleaning additive. No restrictions additional to those applicable to the
tank due to the previous cargo shall apply
124. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPOL and
IBC Code, it has become mandatory for vegetable oils to be carried in:

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 Double hull tankers.
125. Which of these definitions is that of a "Marine Pollutant" under the IMDG Code?
A substance which is subject to the provisions of Annex III of MARPOL.
126. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers? - Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types
127. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment may be allowed by a
Port State Authority to trade for: One ballast voyage before proceeding to a repair port
128. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and a selected
pitch angle of 1.5 degrees is used to perform a bottom wash with a vertical angle from
40 degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5 cycles (3 passes). If the throughput of the machine at
design pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the washing time and quantity of crude oil
required? - 40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil.
129. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of: - Fresh water
130. After the last entry being made, the retention period of an oil record book on board must
be: - Not less than 3 years after the date of the last entry
131. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be carried
and completed on oil tankers of: - Buoyancy and Gravity actin
132. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines and pumps on an oil tanker at completion of
discharge must be: Drained and then pumped either ashore, or to a cargo tank or slop
tank on board.
133. The intentional discharge of 10,000 gallons of oil into the sea is best described as
Willful misconduct.
134. Tools for mitigation include the ships fire hoses. Fire hoses may be used to
Prevent floating oil from escaping downstream
135. In event of an oil spill, mooring lines can be used as an interim containment barrier
To keep an oil slick from escaping downstream
136. Most important in monitoring the loading or bunkering rate is
That tanks should be sounded very regularly
137. The penalty for failure to immediately notify the appropriate U.S. Government agency of
an oil spill is - A fine of not more than U.S $ 10,000 and/or one year in prison
138. To ensure clear communications under OPA 90, all verbal reports should be followed
by - A telex, fax or cable
139. A routine cause of operational oil spills is
The tendency of the vessel to report a lesser amount of bunkers than actually remains
on board and sole dependency on remote gauging systems.

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140. Basic spill prevention measurements include : A signed exchange between ship and
terminal.
141. Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to apply other chemical treatment to oily
mixtures prior to discharge these into the sea ? Not allowed at all
142. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oily mixture " ?
A mixture with any oil content
143. Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an oil tanker ?
Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk
144. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel" ?
Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary machinery
145. According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean ?
A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar stage of construction after 30
June 1976
146. What does the 'instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content "mean according to
Marpol ? The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed
of the ship in knots at the same instant
147. What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol ?
A sea area where for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditions and in view
of traffic special prevention is required
148. What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol ?
A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank D drainings, washings or other oily
mixtures
149. Which description given below is nearest to the description of clean ballast as defined
by Marpol ?
If discharged from a ship stationary in clean calm water on a clear day will not produce
visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below
150. It is the Master's responsibility of reviewing the Safety Management System and
reporting its deficiencies to - The shore based management
151. Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the Designated Person ?
Appropriate knowledge and experience associated with verification and control of safety
and pollution prevention requirements of the ISM code
152. Who is responsible for implementation of working environment work on board?
Both master and shipping company
153. What is the ISM Code? The ISM Code is an international standard for the safe
management and operation of ships and for pollution prevention

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154. The restriction of overtime work is that no person shall be required, under normal
circumstances, to work more than - 14 hours a day
155. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board? For at least three years
156. Which international organization is preparing conventions and rules for seafaring
nations ? - IMO
157. The muster list should determine
The general emergency signal and the actions of the crew and passengers
158. Who is responsible for keeping required official publications onboard ? The Master

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 MAINTAIN SAFE NAVIGATION THROUGH THE USE OF
INFORMATION FROM NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT AND SYSTEM TO
ASSSIST COMMAND DECISION MAKING

1. SOLAS (The International Convention for the safety life at sea) regulations, chapter 5,
deals with the safety of navigation and applies to which vessel?
All vessel and all voyages
2. What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?
An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a competent bridge
team
3. What is the main purpose of VTS?
Increase the safety of all ship and the protection of the environment in the vicinity
4. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over many
hours, what management issues should the master consider?
All of these answer
5. When handing over the con of vessel to a pilot, should master insist in discussing the
passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the
navigation of the ship?
A passage plan should be discussed between the master and pilot, when under pilotage
in the same way as discussed with the bridge team when deep sea
6. Which of the following answer would best define the term “risk”?
Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger and includes both identification of the
occurrence and the likelihood that it will happen
7. Who will have the authority to make charge and make appropriate decisions in the event
of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama canal?
The panama canal authority
8. You are senior officer of the watch on vessel “A” and are passing through the straits of
gibraltar. The vessel’s speed 18 knots and your vessel in overtaking several other
vessels, when the visibility reduce down to about 2nm. What aspects would you consider
when establishing a “safe speed” for your vessel?
Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of vessel;
effectiveness of navigational equipment (ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and
navigational hazards

N2G 07 2022
9. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has
right-handed propeller and there is aqual space either side of the ship (as illustrated).
What would the most suitable method to make the turn using as little space as possible?
Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway, rudder hard to starboard
and full speed
10. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which could
be sounded by a : Vessel overtaking another in narrow channel
11. In a crossing situation on international waters, a short blast by the give-way vessel
indicates that the vessel : Is turning to starboard
12. What day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft? - A cylinder
13. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel _ All of the above
14. Which statement(S) is (are) TRUE concerning light signals?
The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds
15. Under what circumstances would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two
prolonged followed by one short blast? - When overtaking in a narrow channel
16. In which case would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged
followed by one short blast? - When overtaking in a narrow channel
17. When vessels are in sight of one another, two short blasts from one of the vessel means:
“I am altering my course to port”
18. Which vessel may NOT exhibit two red lights in a vertical line?
A vessel constrained by her draft
19. Vessel “A” is overtaking vessel ”B” on open waters and will pass without changing
course. Vessel “A” : Will not sound any whistle signals
20. Of the vessel listed which must keep out of the way of al the others?
A vessel on pilotage duty
21. Which vessel would not NOT sound a fog signal of one prolonged and two short blasts?
A vessel being towed
22. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass along the
vessel’s port side. How should you signal your intention?
Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
23. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This signal indicates the vessel :
Is altering course to port
24. A vessel sounds one short blast. This signal indicates the vessel :
Is altering course to starboard

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25. You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken by a vessel astern.
After the overtaking vessel sounds the proper signal indicating his intention to pass your
vessel on your starboard side, you signal your agreement by sounding :
One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in that order
26. A sailing vessel is overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel, so as to pass
on the power-driven vessel’s port side. The overtaken will have to move to facilitate
passage. The sailing vessel is the :
Give-way vessel and would sound two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts
27. A vessel constrained by her draft may display : Three all-round red lights
28. Two power-driven vessels are meeting. A two blast whistle signal by either vessel
means: “I am altering course to port”
29. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display :
Two masthead lights in vertical line
30. Which statement applies to a vessel “constrained by her draft”?
She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of her draft in
relation to the available depth of water
31. A whistle signal of one prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short blast, is
sounded by a vessel : Being overtaken in a narrow channel
32. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor and you can see that other vessels are
approaching. You should sound : Three short blasts when leaving the slip
33. Which vessel is to keep out of the way of the others? - A vessel engaged in trawling
34. You are in sight of a power-driven vessel that sounds two short blasts of the whistle. This
signal means that the vessel : Is altering course to port
35. Vessel “A” is overtaking vessel “B” on open waters as shown and will pass without
changing course. Vessel “A” - Need not sound any whistle signals
36. If you sighted three red lights in a vertical line on another vessel at night, it would be a
vessel : Constrained by her draft
37. On open water two vessels are in an overtaking situation. The overtaking vessel has just
sounded one short blast on the whistle. What meaning of this whistle signal?
“I am changing course to starboard”
38. You are underway in fog and hear a fog signal consisting of one prolonged and two short
blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a vessel : Being towed
39. Which vessel shall avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her draft?
A fishing vessel

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40. A signal of one prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast, in that order is
given by a vessel : Being overtaken in a narrow channel
41. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another and NOT in or near an
area of restricted visibility? - One short blast on the whistle
42. In addition to her running lights, an underway vessel constrained by her draft may carry
in a vertical line : Three red lights
43. Which vessel is NOT regarded as being “restricted in her ability to maneuver”?
A vessel constrained by her draft
44. When two vessels are in sight of one another and NOT in or near an area of restricted
visibility, any of the following signal may be given EXCEPT : Four short whistle blasts
45. In a narrow channel, an overtaking vessel which intends to PASS on the other vessel’s
port side would sound : Two prolonged follow by two short blasts
46. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which would
be sounded by a vessel : Overtaking another in a narrow channel
47. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another?
One short blast on the whistle
48. The light which may be used with a vessel’s whistle must be : A white light
49. Which statement is TRUE concerning light signals?
The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds
50. While underway and in sight of another vessel, you put your engines full speed astern.
Which statement concerning whistle signals is TRUE?
You must sound three short blasts on the whistle
51. While underway at night, a power-driven vessel of less than 7 meters in length, whose
maximum speed which does not exceed 7 knots, may show :
One all-round white light, only
52. At night, a power-driven vessel less than 7 meters in length in sufficient time to prevent
collision, only not exceed 7 knots, MUST show when underway at least :
One white 360 light
53. Lighting requirements in inland waters are different from those for international waters for
Barges being pushed ahead
54. BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND a towing light : Is yellow in color
55. A towing light is : A yellow light having the same characteristics as the stern light
56. A light used to signal passing intentions must be an : All-round white light
57. A vessel constrained by her draft may display :

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 Three all-round red lights in addition to the light required for a power-driven vessel of her
class
58. If at night a vessel displays three all-round red lights in a vertical line, during the day she
may show : A cylinder
59. The international rules of road apply :
Upon the high seas and connecting waters navigable by seagoing vessels
60. Which statement applies to a vessel “constrained by her draft”?
She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of her draft in
relation to the available depth and width of navigable water
61. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel “constrained by her draft”?
She must be a power-driven vessel
62. Your vessel is crossing narrow channel. A vessel to port is within the channel and
crossing your course. She is showing a black cylinder. You should :
Not impede the other vessel
63. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor. Visibility is restricted. You should sound
One prolonged blast only
64. You are approaching another vessel and will pass safely starboard without changing
course. You should : Hold course and sound no whistle signal
65. Which statement is TRUE concerning a situation involving a fishing vessel and a vessel
not under command? - The fishing vessel must keep out of the way of the vessel not
under command
66. Of the vessel listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others?
A vessel pushing a barge
67. Which vessel shall avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her draft?
A sailing vessel
68. A signal of intent must be sounded in international waters by :
A vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel
69. While underway in fog, you hear a vessel ahead sound two prolonged blasts on whistle.
You should : Sound only fog signals until the other vessel is sighted
70. A towing vessel and her tow are severely restricted in their ability to change course.
When making way, the towing vessel will show ONLY : All of the above
71. You hear the fog signal of another vessel forward of your beam. Risk of collision may
exist. You MUST : Take all way off, if necessary
72. A fog signal of one short, one prolonged, and one short blast may be sounded by a
Vessel at anchor

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73. A vessel may enter a traffic separation zone : All of the above
74. In the traffic separation scheme, when joining a traffic lane from the side, a vessel shall
do so : At as small angle as possible
75. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme is forbidden to :
Proceed through an inappropriate traffic lane
76. To indicate that a vessel’s is constrained by her draft, a vessel may display, in vertical
line : Three 360 red lights
77. In addition to other required lights, a power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing
alongside displays : Two white masthead lights in a vertical line
78. When moving from a berth alongside a quay (wharf), a vessel must sound
No signal is required
79. You are in charge of a 250-meter freight vessel constrained by her draft proceeding down
a narrow channel. There is vessel engaged in fishing on your starboard bow half a mile
away. According to rule 9, which statement is TRUE?
If you are in doubt as to the fishing vessel’s intentions you may sound at least five short
and rapid blasts on the whistle
80. A towing light is : Shown in addition to the stern light
81. In a narrow channel, a signal of intent which must be answered by the other vessel, is
sounded by a vessel : Overtaking another
82. When two vessels are in sight of one another, all the following signals may be given
EXCEPT : Four short whistle blasts
83. What whistle signal, if any, would be sounded when two vessels are meeting, but will
pass clear starboard to starboard? - No signal is required
84. On open water, a power-driven vessel coming up dead astern of another vessel and
altering her course to starboard so as to pass on the starboard side of the vessel ahead
would : One short blast
85. Your vessel is crossing narrow channel. A vessel to port is within the channel and
crossing your course. She is showing a black cylinder. What is your responsibility?
Do not cross the channel if you might impede the other vessel
86. You are approaching another vessel and will pass starboard to starboard without danger
if no course changes are made. You should : Hold course and sound no whistle signal
87. A fishing vessel approaching a vessel not under command. Which statement is TRUE?
The fishing vessel must keep clear of the vessel not under command
88. Which signal is required to be sounded by a power-driven vessel ONLY?
A signal meaning, “I am altering my course to starboard”

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89. The light which may be used with vessel’s whistle is to be : A white light
90. When proceeding along narrow channel a vessel should :
Keep to outer limits which lies on her own starboard side
91. The level of database information which cannot be removed from the ECDIS display and
consist of information which is required at all times in all geographic areas and under all
circumstances is the : - Display base information
92. With radar overlay on ECDIS, what can be the causes of radar echoes not matching the
charted position of fixed object : - All answers are correct
93. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?
All answers are correct
94. If the ECDIS monitor’s resolution is poor or improperly set, what may be affected on
ECDIS : All answer are correct
95. You are on power-driven vessel underway in open water. You observe this vessel directly
ahead on steady bearing with distance closing steadily, what can you tell about this
vessel from the lights it is displaying : The vessel is not under command and is not
making way through the water. I cannot tell its aspect
96. While should ground stabilized true motion display mode be avoided when using the
Arpa anti collision purpose :
The collision regulation are based on ship courses through the water
97. Under what circumstance would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two
prolonged followed by one short blast? - When overtaking in a narrow channel
98. An ECDIS is required to display which information : - Sounding
99. Which of this is result of true motion display : Course, speed and aspect of any target
obtained only by plotting of triangle of relative velocities
100. Who has the authority to take over and make the right decisions in the event of a ship’s
emergency while transiting the suez canal : - The suez canal authority
101. Which of the following reference system affect the information on ECDIS :
All answer are correct
102. When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with paper chart, what chart
datum should be selected?
Select WGS84 and when plotting on the chart apply the stated corrections
103. What would be most probable cause of an error, when using the echo sounder in a river
the soundings indicated may be incorrect? - Shallow water effects
104. Which setting is one of the most important to check before performing route planning and
before the start of a new voyage : - Safety contour setting

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105. If its through or known that floating aids to navigation (buoy) have shifted, how should
this be interpreted on ECDIS : Physical buoy position may differ from charted location
on ECDIS, as with any type of chart information
106. Which of the following must an ECDIS system be able to perform : All answer are correct
107. The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed on ECDIS
is the : - Standard display information
108. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of
determining positions and include which of the following? All of these suggested answers
109. Which of the following is a performance standard for the display of SENS information :
The selected safety contour is displayed with greater emphasis that other contours
110. An ECDIS is required to display which information: - Hydrographic data
111. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the voyage track for the
previous : 12 hrs
112. Which of the following must electronic chart of an ECDIS display, as required by
IMO/IHO: All answers are correct
113. The advantage of GPS satellite system compared to other navigational aids is:
The GPS gives information about position, speed and time continuously world wide
114. ECDIS must able to perform all the following EXCEPT:
Determine magnetic compass deviation
115. A vessel shall so far is practicable, avoid crossing traffic separation lanes. But if obliged
to do so shall cross the general direction of traffic flow:
-Avoiding impeding traffic using the scheme
-on a heading as nearly as practicable at right angles
116. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at
a minimum: - All answer are correct
117. While navigating using a paper chart marked WGS84 the OOW plots the position by four
different methods and they all give slightly different positions. Which of the following
would be considered the most accurate:
Radar ranges from two radar distance headlands
118. You are proceeding along a narrow channel behind other vessel. You have a higher
speed and signaled your intention to the vessel ahead that you intend to overtake him on
his port. The vessel responds with his sound signal. What does it mean:
That vessel is indicating her agreement with my proposed manoeuvr
119. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS?
Ship hydrodynamic information

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120. Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS?
All answer are correct
121. Which of the following is a mandatory equipment that must be connected to the ECDIS :
Positional navigation sensors (e.g.GPS)
122. The closet meeting position to the target ship or ship whose bow crosses ours is known
as : Closet point approach or CPA
123. A ship which according to the rules is not allowed to show two red lights in a vertical row :
A vessel constrained by her draft
124. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest edition of information
originated by a government-authorized hydrographic office and conform to the standard
of (the) : - International hydrographic organization
125. What signal maybe given by sound and by light to indicate that vessel fail to understand
the intentions or action of another vessel, or is doubt that sufficient action is being taken
by the other to avoid collision : - Five short and rapid blast (flashes)
126. When steering by autopilot, how often should manual steering be checked :
At least one a watch
127. What error occur in the ECDIS if hydrographic or chart survey data is inaccurate :
All answers are correct
128. A vessel shall so far practicable, avoid crossing traffic separation lanes. But if obligated
to do so shall cross the general direction of traffic flow
On a heading as nearly as practicable at right angles
129. What is the role of tug in a port? - A tug assist the ship to moor and unmoor
130. ECDIS must be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT :
Determine magnetic compass deviation
131. Which of the following is mandatory equipment that must be connected to ECDIS?
Positional navigation sensors (e.g.,GPS)
132. the flashpoint of an oil or liquefied gas is? The flashpoint for an oil or liquefied gas is the
temperature at which it is possible to ignite the vapour above the liquid
133. which of these is a result of true motion display? - All object move relatively on the PPI
134. the advantages of GPS satellite system compared to other navigational aid is?
The GPS system gives information about position, speed and time continuously world
wide
135. why should ground stabilized true motion display mode be avoided when using the Arpa
for anti-collision purposes
The collision regulations are based on ship course through the water

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136. under what circumstances would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two
prolonged by one short blast? When overtaking in a narrow channel
137. when proceeding along a narrow channel a vessel should :
keep to the outer limit which lies on her own starboard side
138. which signals are emitted only by ship that are visible to other ships and not in or near
areas of limited visibility? One prolonged blast on the whistle

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 MANOEUVRE AND HANDLE A SHIP IN ALL CONDITIONS
01. When a vessel swings from side to side off course due to quartering seas, the vessel is ?
Yawing
02. The ship's rudder is full over when the ship's engines are full ahead. Will the turning
effect (lift force) of the rudder be changed when the engine is stopped?
Yes, the Lift force will be dramatically reduce when the engines are stopped
03. Actions prepared to anchored in the sea water which 100 meters deep then
Prepared the anchor, area until 5 shukcles in the water, just dropped the anchor after
being in position, lowering chain until 10 shukcles
04. The following ship will be cast of the dock, so the order of the ropes to be removed are

Leaved it after spring, engine moved ahead

05. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar
ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as liste
Based on this data what is the transfer for a turn of 30°? 140 yards
06. The effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel is most noticeable when Backing
07. "Pivot Point" position of the of the vessel when going ahead, is normally at?
1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow
08. The following ship will be cast of the dock, so the order of the ropes to be removed

Let go all lines leaved it after spring

09. Select which answer is considered the most successful method if it has been established
by experience that the most successful method of double banking two vessels, when no
tugs are available, is one of the following methods
When both vessels are underway

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10. When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, the pivot point tends to
Move forward
11. When a turn of 180° has been completed, The distance a vessel moves at right angles to
the original course, is called ? tactical diameter
12. Which is call tactical diameter in this turning circle? - C

13. Which is not a sign of the ship experiencing SQUAT

There was a wave behind the boat
14. Turning circle. Which is call advance ? -B

15. Which is the correct name of these ship lines?

1 head line, 2 and 5 breast line, 3 and 4 spring line, 6 stern line
16. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has just fallen overboard which of
the following manoeuvers is the most appropriate action when the person is still close to
the vessel? Wiliamson Turn
17. The distance that a ship moves forward with each revolution of its propeller, if there is no
slip, is called? Pitch

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18. You are maneuvering a vessel with a right-hand propeller. The rudder is amidships. The
vessel will generally back ? To port
19. Conventional Multi Buoy Mooring commonly abbreviated CBM, meaning tanker ships
moor by using At least 4 buoy
20. Conventional Multi Buoy Mooring or CMBM, meaning tanker ship moored using
Minimum 4 buoy
21. Which the best method, if two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard?
Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the other line up
through the eye of the first, and place it on the bollard
22. In calm weather, your vessel is port side to a pier with a spring line led aft from the bow
and putting the engines ahead with the rudder hard left should bring ?
the bow in and the stern out.
23. What helm would probably be required to safely round the bend and what other effects
could be expected in this situation when a ship is proceeding in the centre of the channel
and approaching a bend in a river?
The heading should be carefully monitored, some port rudder may be required to start
the swing, though starboard rudder may be required to balance any bank rejection
24. The holding capability of an anchor is primarily determined by the ?
Anchor's ability to dig in
25. The following ship will be cast of the dock, so the order of the ropes to be removed are
Let go all lines leave it one fore ward spring

26. Ship twin screw propeller, if the port propeller making aheadway and the starboard
propeller making sternway, then the ship will be turning to : To starboard
27. To reduce the influence of Squat when the ship sails in narrow waters, the appropriate
action is Reduce Speed

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28. The following ship will be cast of the dock, so the order of the ropes to be removed are
Let go all line it after spring, engine moved ahead

29. What depth of water would be considered as "Shallow Water" in relationship to a change
of the ships manoeuvring characteristics?
When the “Under Keel Clearance” is less than 15% of the draught of the ship. When the
“Under keel Clearance” is less than a quarter of the draught of the ship
30. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots which suddenly increases
to 60 knots. What will be the change of force exerted on the ship driving it off the jetty?
The force will be Quadrupled
31. What should you do if you are standing the wheel watch on entering port and the Master
gives you a rudder command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot?
Obey the Master
32. Bouy for CBM should be equipped with below equipment, except : Cakil
33. Which these tugs is the worthy for harbour tug? Tug boat B and C
34. Ship twin screw propeller, if the port propeller making sternway and the starboard
propeller making aheadway, then the ship will be turning to : - To Port

35. What is this called when your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow
wave while the stern sinks into a depression of its transverse wave system? Squatting
36. What speed do you think is best for your vessel to maintain during this operation, When
connecting a tugboat? The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots
37. Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as
compared with those of a light vessel is FALSE?

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 A light vessel loses more rudder effect in shallow water
38. The following ship will be cast of the dock, so the order of the ropes to be removed are
Let go all lines leaved it afterward spring, engine moved a head

39. You will drop anchor in the sea water with other ships already anchored, in the sea depth
25 m, the current is strong enough so the preparation you make is
Stand by starboard anchor, let go anchor, lowering chain until 3 shackle in the water

40. Where is the approximate location of the pivot point of the unit when a towboat has the
same draft as the barges it is pushing ahead and If the distance from the stern of the
towboat to the head of the tow is 243.84 Mtrs? 76.2 Mrs. from the head of the tow
41. To maintain the ship position exactly where it is being held at CMBM do
set amount chain anchor shacle
42. Explain what is likely to happen if two ships travelling in opposite directions are to pass
each other in a narrow river? Due to interaction, the bows will repel each other, and then
when alongside each other the two ships will be sucked together and finally the sterns
will be repelled as they start to pass clear
43. The term "transfer", in relation to the turning circle of a ship means the distance: gained
at right angles to the original course
44. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of water past the rudder. If the
rudder is put hard over when the ship is at full ahead in deep water, and then the engines
are stopped, how much lift force remains ? About 20 %

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45. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force. When
the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains if the rudder-angle
is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)? About 80 %
46. The following ship will be cast of the dock, so the order of the ropes to be removed are
Let go all lines leaved it head line, engine moved ahead

47. The order to put engines full astern until the vessel is dead in the water and the distance
that a vessel travels from the time, known as ? Head reach
48. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward drift) when turning.
Because the pivot point is not at the centre of the ship
49. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "transfer" means the distance
gained at right angles to the original course
50. When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, it is normally best to
turn so that the tendency to back into the wind can be used, if on a single-screw vessel
51. When heading on a course, you put your rudder hard over. The distance traveled parallel
to the direction of the original course from where you put your rudder over to any point on
the turning circle is known as - advance
52. Sidewise force of the propeller tends to throw a vessel's stern to the right or left,
depending on rotation. This force is caused by
torque from the velocity and angle at which the surrounding water impinges upon the
propeller blades
54. You are steering a southerly course, and you note that the chart predicts an easterly
current. Without considering wind, how may you allow for the set?
Head your vessel slightly to the right
55. The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea
speed is - one-third the length of the vessel from the bow
56. You are pushing a tow ahead and passing close to another towboat which is pushing
ahead in the same direction (you are overtaking). After the towheads pass close
alongside the tows will tend to drift together

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57. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "kick" means the distance
or throw of a vessel's stern from her line of advance upon putting the helm hard over
58. While the Pilot is maneuvering the vessel to a dock, what is the primary responsibility of
the watch officer?
Insure that helm and throttle orders given by the Pilot are correctly executed
59. You are standing the wheel watch on entering port and the Master gives you a rudder
command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. What should you do?
Obey the Master
60. How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel proceeding
along a narrow channel? It pulls the stern toward the bank
61. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar
ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as listed.
Based on this data what is the transfer for a turn of 30° to 035° 40 yards
62. The turning circle of a vessel is the path followed by the center of gravity
63. Most of your vessel's superstructure is forward. How will the vessel lie when drifting with
no way on? With the wind from abaft the beam
64. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving through the water, having
been steaming through a shallow water channel for several miles. The sheer may be
strong and unexpected and is due to what reason?
The large volume of water dragged behind the vessel continues to move forward and
cause a strong turning moment on the stern of the vessel
65. A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs assisting and there is little wind or
current affecting the vessel. What would be considered the best use of the tugs and at
which position?
Pushing on the ship's side and made fast in case the vessel's movement towards the
berth requires reducing by the tug pulling off
66. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel, using its own engines and
assisted by the use of one tug. Where should the tug be connected to assist the ship in
maintaining its course in the centre of the channel?
Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern
67. A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat" when moving in shallow water.
the amount of Squat is affected by the speed of the vessel through the water. If the
speed through the water is HALVED what will be the change in the affect of "Squat"
The squat effect will be reduced to a quarter of its original value

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68. A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in deep water at full ahead throughout
the turn. The same ship, in the same conditions, is now to make a complete turn (360
degrees) at half ahead throughout the turn. Would there be any difference in the size
(diameter) of the turning circle?
No, the diameter of the turning circle would be almost the same.
69. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the bollard pull exerted by the tug
be the same at any speed?
No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5 knots it will be expected that there will be a
reduced pull exerted by the tug
70. A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1 knot beam current. At
the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draught and at the
second the underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times the draught. If the current exerted a
force of 50 tonnes on the ship at the first jetty, what would be the approximate force
exerted at the second if the draught is the same? - 150 Tonnes
71. In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What are the principle reasons creating
the effects of squat? There is an increase in the water velocity and a decrease of water
pressure around the ship's hull
72. In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the centre of the channel and
approaching a bend in a river. What helm would probably be required to safely round the
bend and what other effects could be expected in this situation?
The heading should be carefully monitored, some port rudder may be required to start
the swing, though starboard rudder may be required to balance any bank rejection.
73. In the situation illustrated, what should be the distribution of the power requirements from
the tugs, if the ship is to be moved sideways without changing the heading? Both tugs
have similar bollard pull and are of conventional propulsion
Much greater power on the forward tug than on the after tug while monitoring the gyro
heading
74. In the situation illustrated, what should be the power distribution of the tugs to maintain
the ship sideways motion with only minor changes in the ship's heading?
Considerably more power on the aft tug than the forward tug, while monitoring the ship's
gyro heading
75. The effective stability of a tug, when as an be decreased by hydrodynamic interaction
with the ship it is assisting. Where is the most dangerous position of the tug relative to
the ship, for this adverse affect to be found?

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 The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the bow rounding the forward
shoulder of the larger vessel
76. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shall " remains when the engine
is stopped? About 10 %
77. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under Keel Clearance will reduce to
about 0.25 of the ship's draught. Which of the following answers most accurately
summarizes the aspects to be considered when deciding a suitable speed?
All of the suggested answers
78. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots which suddenly increases
to 60 knots. What will be the change of force exerted on the ship driving it off the jetty?
The force will be Quadrupled
79. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log shows a sideways motion to
port at both forward and aft positions. Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be
located? At a position outside the hull of the ship itself
80. What will have a major effect on the performance of a tug when used to assist in the
manoeuvring of a large vessel?
The position of the tug relative to the ship's pivot point
81. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a ship is directionally unstable"?
The ship requires continual application of the rudder to maintain a steady course.
82. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will experience an effect known as "Squat".
Which of the following statements most accurately specify the results of squat on the
vessel? There will be a reduction of the vessel's underkeel clearance and a possible
change of trim
83. When a vessel is to experience a long tow across an ocean, what would be the best
system of connecting the tow?
Wire from a deep sea tug connected to the ship's anchor chain
84. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of a vessel when going astern?
Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the stern and the rudder post
85. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting a ship through narrow
waters would be considered the most effective in the event of loosing steering power?
The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead astern. (figure 4).
86. Would the indicated speed, asshown on a Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be suitable for
berthing the vessel?
The approach speed is too fast.

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87. The ship’s rudder is full over when the ship’s engines are full ahead. Will the turning effect
(lift force) of the rudder be changed when the engine is stopped?
Yes, the Lift or turning force will be reduced to about 50% of the original lift force when
the engines are stopped
88. You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard side.
You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which step is NOT a part of a Williamson
Turn? Stop the engines until clear of the man
89. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?
Switch to the high suction for condenser circulating water, if it is submerge
90. In stopping distances of vessels, "head reach" can best be described as the : Distance
the vessel will run between taking action to stop her and being stationary in the water
91. You are the Master of a single-screw vessel. You are docking at a port which has no tugs
available. You decide to drop the offshore anchor to help in docking. The amount of
chain you should pay out is: 1 1/2 to 2 times the depth of the water
92. The helm command "meet her" means : Use rudder to check the swing
93. As a ship moves through the water, it drags with it a body of water called the wake. The
ratio of the wake speed to the ship's speed is called : Wake fraction
94. The term "Shift the Rudder" means : Change from right to left or left or right
95. Which statement is TRUE concerning the vessel's slipstream?
The propeller gives it a helical motion.
96. A vessel brought alongside should be fended off the towing vessel by : fenders
97. The helm command "shift your rudder" means :
Change from right rudder to left rudder, or vice versa, an equal number of degrees
98. As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the trailing and leading edges of the propeller
blades causing a loss of propulsive efficiency, pitting of the blades, and vibration. These
voids are known as : Cavitation
99. "Hard right rudder" means : Put the rudder over to the right all the way
100. "Ease the rudder" means to : Decrease the rudder angle
101. Generally, you can best keep a vessel under steering control when the vessel has :
Headway
102. A towing vessel is tripped when : It is pulled sideways by the tow
103. Before a Master relieves a Pilot of the conn, the : Master should foresee any danger to
the vessel on the present course
104. The measurement of the amount of force a towing vessel is capable of applying to a
motionless tow is called : Bollard pull

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105. You are on a large merchant vessel entering a port. There is a Pilot on board and he has
the conn. Which statement is TRUE? The Master is responsible for the safe navigation of
the ship and the Pilot is employed for his local knowledge
106. When steering a vessel, a good helmsman will : Repeat back to the watch officer any
rudder commands before executing them
107. A vessel is entering port and has a Pilot conning the vessel. The Master is unsure that
the Pilot is taking sufficient action to prevent a collision. What should the Master do?
Recommend an alternative action and if not followed relieve the Pilot
108. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force. When
the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains if the rudder-angle
is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)? About 80%
109. What helm would probably be required to safety round the bend and what other effects
could be expected in this situation when a ship is proceeding in the centre if the channel
and approaching a bend in a river? The heading should be carefully monitored, some
port rudder may be required to start the swing, though starboard rudder may be required
to balance any bank rejection

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PLAN AND ENSURE SAFE LOADING, STOWAGE, SECURING CARE DURING
VOYAGE AND UNLOADING OF CARGOES
1. Information about the maximum point loading in cargo holds and on decks of a General
Cargo Vessel may be obtained from: Ships Capacity Plan
2. What is essential to ensure that efficient stripping of ballast tanks on a bulk carrier can be
achieved? A good stern trim is maintained during de- ballasting operations
3. When loading coal on a Bulk Carrier, the vessel should be provided with Means for
measuring cargo temperatures
4. During the passage of methane gas and carbon monoxide from bulk coal cargoes are
measured by Using the approved sampling ports fitted on each hatch coaming
5. Where can we find information about the maximum loading point in the cargo hold and on
the deck of the general cargo ship? Ships Capacity Plan
6. Depending on density or API, an error measurement of 0.1 degree Fahrenheit in a tank
containing 50,000 cubic metres (314,491 barrels) of oil will result in which of the following
volumes? 25 cubic metres (157 barrels)
7. What is the master’s position if he is asked to load a container that is incorrectly
manifested, but which is believed to contain dangerous goods, about which insufficient
information is supplied? He has the authority to refuse it
8. The most dangerous consequence of the corrosion and wear down of container stools on
weather deck/hatch tops of a container vessel would be: Collapse of the deck stool,
leading to lashings becoming slack
9. A greater number of lashings may generally be required to secure cargo forward on deck
compared with amidships under deck of a General Cargo Vessel, because: The dinamyc
stresses on the lashing are much greater in the forward areas of the vessel
10. Which causes a greater number of straps to be required to secure cargo forward on deck
compared to midship below deck on General Cargo ships because? The dynamic
stresses on the lashing are much greater in the forward areas of the vessel
11. A ship floating in salt water has a displacement of 47,250 mts. Its light ship is 8,050 mts
and the total deductibles including constants weighs 2,570 mts how much cargo is she
carrying. 36,630 mts
12. A bulk cargo is loaded and the shore cargo figure is 10.000 tonnes; the chief officer
calculates 9.500 tonnes have been loaded; what should the master do? Ask for a draft
survey to be carried in the presence of P&I Club representative
13. What is the first action to be taken when a port temperature test reveals a fire in a waiting
room filled with coal? Fill the hold with water

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14. Coal to be loaded in Balikpapan for China is declared to have a high moisture content
(but less than the Transportable Moisture Limit (TML)); what should the Master make
sure? All cargo hold bilges are sounded daily and the amount of the water logged; the
bilges can then be pumped out
15. What governs the disposal of dray bulk cargo residues at sea? MARPOL regulations
16. Mild steel plate is loaded in bulk ship by ? Interlocked across the entire cargo hold with
the longitudinal axes athwartships
17. Cargo hold ventilator grill works for ? Prevent any large objects from falling into the hold
18. All cargo hold bilges are sounded daily and the amount of water logged; the bilges can
then be pumped out. Isolate them from use and dispose them appropriately
19. Why do structural steel products often shift or collapse in a bulk carrier's cargo holds?
Because the irregular shape of the cargo holds results in void spaces
20. What publication must be carried on a vessel carrying dry bulk cargoes? IMO Solid Bulk
cargo Code or IMO Solid Bulk
21. What must be ensured Before starting the ballasting of the double bottom tank with
seawater is? Correct valves have been opened, air ventilators are open and ballasting
plan has been agreed
22. The master’s action when he finds the condition of the ship after loading the bulk cargo is
found 4.0 centimeters above the draft of the maximum load line is? Order the pumping
out of fresh water or ballast until the maximum allowed load line is achieved
23. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift derricks with the boom close to
horizontal could result in - Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system.
24. How should mild steel slabs be loaded in a bulk carrier? Interlocked across the entire
cargo hold with the longitudinal axes athwartships
25. What should you do when you see water dripping from a container full of scrap metal
being loaded? Reject the container
26. What is the purpose of a draught survey before and after loading on a Bulk Carrier?
To ascertain the actual weight of cargo loaded
27. What crane operators must ensure during cargo operations? Crane controls are
operational, limit switches are functioning properly and weights to be lifted are within the
SWL of the crane
28. What measures should be taken in order to avoid flammable gases forming on top of coal
cargoes on a Bulk Carrier? Ventilation to be carried out as indicated in the IMO solid Bulk
Cargo Code

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29. The maximum permitted oxygen content in the inert gas main when inerting a cargo oil
tank prior to gas freeing is: 5% by volume.
30. If the cargo area is centered on the top of the ship it will have a negative GM. The impact
of negative GM is? The ship will capsize if it gets a force from outside
31. What is meant by bulk Grain load having a low angle of repose is Liable to shift
32. The application of permanent (permanent dunnage) installed on the bottom of the hatch
or above the ship’s tank top is Sweat batten
33. When the longitudinal distribution of cargo is concentrated in the middle, then the
condition of the ship is called Sagging
34. A low angle of rest indicates when carrying dry bulk cargo, indicating that? The cargo is
more liable to shift than cargo with a high angle of repose
35. The following are the requirements for ships that will carry chemical cargo, except
Safety equipment available on board
36. A bulk cargo vessel is found to be 4.0 centimetres over her maximum loadline draft after
loading; what should be the actions of the master? Order the pumping out of fresh water
or ballast until the maximum allowed loadline is achieved.
37. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea on a bulk
carrier, what is the most careful consideration? Consult MARPOL handbook and the
vessels Safety Management System (SMS) for guidance
38. What should be checked after completion of cleaning and testing of the bilge spaces in a
cargo hold of a bulk carrier?
Drain plate over bilge has been fitted and then covered with burlap
39. Cleaning the residual salt water after washing the cargo hold is very important for?
Salt encourages for corrosion of steelwork
40. A bulk coal cargo is to be loaded and the moisture content is declared as 19 ; the
transportable moisture limit of the cargo is declared as 15, what should the Master do?
Refuse to load the cargo unless the vessel is specially designed for the carriage of cargo
which may liquefy
41. What container ship masters need to pay attention to during a full winter voyage across
the North Atlantic? Metacentric height of the vessel
42. What the master has to do when he finds the condition of the bulk cargo being loaded
and the amount of ground cargo is 10,000 tons; the chief clerk counted 9,500 tons
loaded was? Ask for a draft survey to be carried in the presence of P&I Club
representative

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43. Which operation may cause the pressure in an inert tank to fall below the prescribed
limits? Discharging
44. For a ships loading computer to be safely used for loading planning and stress
calculations, it must be approved by: A Classification Society
45. a greater number of lashing may generally be required tio secure to secure cargo forward
on deck compared with amid ship under deck of a general cargo vessel , because
The dynamic streeses on the lashing are much greater in the forward areas of the vessel
46. The most dangerous consecuence of the corrosion and wear down of container stools on
on weather deck/ hath lops of a container vessel would be :
Collapse of the deck stool, leading to lashings becoming slack
47. If the cargo area is centered on the top of the ship it will have a negatif GM. The impact
of negative GM is ? - The ship will if gets a forces fom outside
48. A container vessel has lost several dangerous goods containers overboard. The master
must report this loss of container incident to: The nearest Coastal state.
49. During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a container
vessel would be most concerned with: The added weight of icing on container stacks,
leading to loss of GM.
50. Which special regulations cover transportation of grain on a Bulk Carrier?
IMO Grain Rules
51. Which special regulations cover transportation of solid Bulk cargoes? IMO Bulk Cargoes
Code (BC) and the IMO International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargo Code( IMSBC)
52. According to regulations, cargo pump rooms, on the tank vessels handling grades A, B,
or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type having
capacity sufficient to effect a complete change of air in not more than - 3 minutes
53. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of: Fresh water.
54. What are the advantages of ballasting double bottom ballast tanks by gravity filling on a
Bulk Carrier?
There is minimum pressure head on the tank top and pumps are not required
55. A bulk cargo is loaded and the cargo stow has been left with an excessive peak height;
what could be the result of this situation? Damage to hatch covers
56. A bulk carrier is to carry a full deck cargo of packaged timber; to what regulations must
the vessel comply? IMO Code of Practice for the carriage of Timber Deck cargoes
57. What is the possible concern if fuel tanks on a Bulk Carrier, which are close to cargo
spaces containing grain, are excessively heated?
The grain cargo may be heated and damaged

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58. The most appropriate method for adjusting the trim on a container vessel would be:
By internal shift of ballast.
59. The grain capacity of a hold is 1404 m3 and the bale capacity of the hold is 1365m3. If
cotton waste of SF 3.90 m3/t is to be loaded in this hold, how many tonnes of cotton
waste can be loaded? 350 tonnes
60. Which of these covers the rules and regulations for General Average on a Bulk Carrier?
The York Antwerp rules
61. Besides normal loads, the lashings of the containers stowed at the outboard part of the
deck stow are additionally subjected to: The effect of wind on the containers.
62. What must be ensured, prior to receiving a bulk cargo of iron ore on a Bulk Carrier?
Cargo hold bilge suctions must be satisfactorily tested
63. On multi-purpose vessels, responsibility for the stowage and securing of containers is:
Determined by the clauses of the charter-party.
64. A heavy piece of machinery is loaded on deck of a container vessel, stowed across
several flat rack containers. The most appropriate method for lashing such cargo would
be by: Taking all lashings to the flat-rack lashing points
65. Ship's cargo pump room alarm must be automatically activated when levels of
hydrocarbon gas concentration are: No higher than 10% of LEL.
66. The Code of Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing was prepared to give
guidance for: Preparation and content of the Cargo Securing Manual.
67. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel over 400 feet (121.9 metres) in length must carry
oil spill clean-up gear to be able to handle oil spillages of: 12 barrels (1.91 cubic metres).
68. Why is air draught an important consideration when loading bulk cargoes on Bulk
Carriers? Because of movement of the bulk cargo loader or unloaders
69. Best location to stow containers loaded with Calcium Hypochlorite would be:
On deck, away from sources of heat.
70. Bulk liquid cargoes carried in flexi-tank containers are considered dangerous: When the
associated material safety data sheet shows a constituent(s) listed in the IMDG Code.
71. During a pre-loading survey prior to loading grain on a Bulk Carrier, very small amount of
the previous grain cargo is found in a cargo hold; what is the significance of this
situation? The vessel may fail the pre-load survey and be declared off-hire
72. For guidance on lashing arrangement of containers on-board the vessel, the most
important document to refer is: The Cargo Securing Manual.
73. The lifting plant on a General Cargo vessel be proof load tested: When equipment is
new, every five years and after repairs or major modifications.

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74. The most appropriate way of dealing with twist-locks suffering from excessive wear and
tear is to: Isolate them from use and dispose them appropriately.
75. What could happen if a bulk vessel failed to display placards notifying the crew of the
disposal of garbage within and outside Special Areas?
The vessel could be detained by port state control authorities
76. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08"", AFT 6'-02"". From past experience, you know that the
vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 8 tons loaded. There is rig water on board
and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still
maintain the same trim? - 24 tons
77. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01"", AFT 6'-05"". From past experience, you know that the
vessel will increase her draft by 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on
board and 20 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded while
maintaining the same trim? - 14.0 ton
78. When loading a bulk cargo of cement the specific gravity and flow characteristic are
dependant on what criteria
The volume of air in the cargo The volume of water in the cargo
79. A bulk cargo of steel coils is loaded and a number of the coils are noted by the Chief
Officer to be rusted; what must the Master ensure? - Clause the Bill of Lading with the
reference numbers of the rusty coils and so make the Bill of Lading a "dirty" Bill.
80. A heavy metal concentrate bulk cargo has a moisture content of 16 and a transportable
moisture limit of 18, what should the Master do?
Load the cargo as the moisture content is within acceptable limits
81. What governs the disposal of dry bulk cargo residues at sea? - MARPOL regulations
82. The dangers associated with carriage of empty tank containers is that:
They may contain flammable cargo residue.
83. The direction of wave encounter that is most likely to cause a parametric roll condition on
large container ships is: - Head seas
84. The most appropriate measure to reduce the build-up of ice on containers during a sea
passage is to: - Reduce speed, whilst maintaining course.
85. When taking action to deal with under-deck cargo spillage on container ships, reference
must be made to: - The EmS Guide.
86. With regards to carriage of Calcium Hypochlorite in containers, as per IMDG Code it is
not allowed to: - Pack and ship the cargo in bags.
87. A chemical tanker may be granted, by the Government of the receiving Party, an
exemption from carrying out a mandatory prewash provided that the:

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 Unloaded tank is to be reloaded with the same substance or another substance
compatible with the previous one and that the tank will not be washed or ballasted prior
to loading
88. A tank which contained a category "X" product must undergo a prewash before leaving
port in compliance with MARPOL. The resulting residues shall be discharged to a
reception facility until the concentration of the substance in the effluent, as indicated by
analysis of samples of the effluent taken by the authorized surveyor has reached a level
of: - 0.1% by weight.
89. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances, the area(s)
designated as “Special Areas” are: - The Antarctic
90. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical tanker which has been washed to
such an extent that the ballast contains less than 1 ppm of the substance previously
carried may be discharged into the sea without regard to the discharge rate, ship's speed
and discharge outlet location, but under certain conditions, which require:
That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the nearest land and is in water that is not
less than 25 metres deep
91. Cargo residues of certain chemical substances are permitted to be removed by
ventilation. This may be carried out provided that:
The cargo discharged has a vapour pressure greater than 5 KPa at 20 degrees Celsius.
92. Definitive information on whether a particular cargo is classified as a “Noxious Liquid
Substance” (other than products provisionally assessed) can be obtained from:
The pollution category column of chapters 17 or 18 of the International Bulk Chemical
Code (IBC Code).
93. If a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is to be cleaned by recirculation with a low flash or
static accumulator product: - The tank must be inerted to less than 8% oxygen content.
94. In respect of a chemical tanker, carrying category “X”, “Y” & “Z” Noxious Liquid
Substances, the term “Clean Ballast” as defined in the IBC Code means:
Ballast water carried in a tank which, since it was last used to carry a cargo containing a
substance in category "X","Y" or "Z", has been thoroughly cleaned and the residues
resulting there from have been discharged and the tank emptied in accordance with the
appropriate requirements of Annex II.
95. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional discharge into the sea of a Noxious
Liquid Substance or mixture containing such a substance, an entry shall be made in the
Cargo record Book, which shall include: - Time of occurrence Approximate quantity,

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 substance(s) and Category(ies) Circumstances of discharge or escape and general
remarks.
96. The ‘dew point’ of a liquid chemical can be defined as: - The temperature at which a gas
is saturated with respect to a condensable component, as in operational terms is seen at
the point when air is saturated with moisture.
97. The carriage of a new Noxious Liquid Substance not yet listed in the IBC Code may be
considered possible, provided it is achieved through a ‘tri-partite” agreement between:
The Port State of the Shipper / the Flag State of the Carrier / the Port State of the
Receiver.
98. The chemical term for a substance used as an additive to start a chemical reaction and
speed up the cleaning of a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is: - Catalyst.
99. The document which confirms whether a chemical tanker is authorised to carry a
particular Noxious Liquid Substance, is called: - The (International) Certificate of Fitness.
100. The tank cleaning requirements for a Category “X” substance on a chemical tanker
constructed after 01 January 2007, require the vessel to carry out:
Prewash / strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7 knots,
proceeding en route / discharge below waterline.
101. Vegetable Oils as per MARPOL are classified under: - Category "Y”.
102. What is the name given to the risk assessment programme developed by OCIMF, under
which tankers are inspected and the results made available to potential charterers
through a database of records? - The Ship Inspection Report Programme (SIRE)
103. When cleaning a cargo tank after carriage and discharge of Sulphuric Acid, it is important
to ensure that: - Once cleaning commences, large quantities of washing water can be
delivered as quickly as possible, so that the acid is quickly diluted.
104. When small amounts of cleaning additives (detergent products) are added to water in
order to facilitate the washing of tanks which previously contained liquid chemicals, must
be ensured that: - No additives containing Pollution Category "X" components shall be
used, except those components that are readily biodegradable and present in a total
concentration of less than 10% of the cleaning additive. No restrictions additional to those
applicable to the tank due to the previous cargo shall apply.
105. You are to load a number of chemical cargoes in Rotterdam in December, for eventual
discharge in Australia, after the ship has called at Singapore and Malaysia. None of the
cargoes on board at any stage of the voyage require heating. None of the tanks to be
discharged in Singapore and Malaysia will require hot washing after discharge. When
determining the filling limits of the tanks containing the Australian cargoes, you will need

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 to consider that: - The maximum anticipated temperature that the cargoes will reach
bearing in mind ambient air and sea temperatures to be encountered on passage, so that
any expansion does not result in overflow.
106. A loaded General Cargo ship is bound from Brazil to Rotterdam during winter time.
During the voyage, ventilation in cargo spaces should:
Be carried out during voyage, as the vessel is moving from warm to colder areas.
107. Additional lashings on general cargoes must be considered when:
Heavy weather is anticipated for the planned voyage.
108. For a General Cargo ship not specifically designed for carriage of containers, the
maximum stowage height for containers on deck is limited to: - One container high.
109. For a General Cargo ship to load Dangerous Goods in packaged form, it must have on
board a: - Document of Compliance for carriage of dangerous good.
110. For special category spaces on board general cargo ship, the minimum required air
changes per hour should be : - 6
111. Information on the forces that may cause cargo shifting on a general cargo vessel may
be available by referring to: - The Cargo Stowage and Security (CSS) Code.
112. On a voyage from cold to hot climate countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of a
General cargo ship should: - Not be carried out at all.
113. On a voyage from hot to cold climate countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of a
General cargo ship should: - Be carried out continuously during the voyage.
114. The IMO Cargo Stowage and Securing Code (CSS) indicates in the 'Rule of Thumb', the
total strength of the lashings on each side of a heavy lift; what is he stated value ?
The Maximum Securing load of the lashings must equal the weight of the cargo unit.
115. The minimum information to that must be provided be given on a dangerous goods
declaration on a General Cargo Vessel should be: - IMO Class, UN Number, Gross
weight, number of units of cargo, Proper Shipping Name.
116. The most important consideration when planning the lashing system for a particular sea
route on a General Cargo Vessel is: - Transverse accelerations.
117. The segregation requirements for Dangerous Goods to be loaded on a General Cargo
ship may be obtained by referring to:
The IMO International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code.
118. The two main considerations when choosing an appropriate paint for a cargo space of a
General Cargo vessel would be: - Light reflective and compatible with edible cargoes.
119. Which of these can be loaded in the same hold of a General Cargo Vessel, as steel
coils? - Steel rebars

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120. How can you best demonstrate in an audit that you follow company cargo handling
procedures? - By being able to provide comprehensive and verifiable documentary
records of cargo operations
121. If all indications are that a cargo has been received without damages, irregularities or
short shipment and the phrase "apparent good order and condition" is entered on the Bill
of Lading, what type of Bill is this said to be? - A clean Bill of Lading.
122. What may be issued by the shipper to indicate that a ill not be held responsible for any
damage that may ari a clean Bill of Lading, even though the Mate's receipt is marked as
"unclean", such as may apply to atmospheric corrosion on steel plates that have been
waiting in a port facility for some time awaiting shipment? - A Letter of Indemnity.
123. What term is applied to the compensation payment by the charterer that is due when a
vessel is unable to load / discharge her cargo within the allowed and contracted time?
Demurrage.
124. What type of Bill of Lading covers "door to door" shipment? - A Through Bill of Lading.
125. When conducting a risk assessment for a shipboard work activity, what are the two
elements to be considered? - The potential severity of harm and the likelihood that harm
will occur.
126. According to SIGTTO publications, what is a typical accuracy for LNG pressure
measurement equipment? +/- 0,0015 bar (which will apply within the MARVS of the tank)
127. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is the minimum number of "Firemen’s outfits"
required to be carried on an LNG carrier with a cargo capacity above 5,000 m3? - 5 sets
128. Carbon dioxide, CO2, can solidify and form dry ice at low temperatures. What is the
solidifying temperature of CO2? - approximately minus 78.5 C
129. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers? - Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types.
130. Does the Oil Pollution Act, 1990 (OPA90) apply to vessels engaged in carrying liquefied
natural gas (LNG)? - Yes, OPA90 applies to all ships.
131. Due to the very low carriage temperatures for LNG the thermal conductivity, k value, is
an important property of the insulation material used in cargo containment systems. For a
given rate of heat leakage across the insulation, which of the following statements is
true? - The higher the k value the thicker the insulation needs to be.
132. During cargo tank gassing up and cooling down operations on an LNG carrier which of
the given options, regarding temperature, needs to be observed?
Never allow temperature of the insulation to fall below the safe minimum temperature.

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133. Having water vapour in an LNG carriers cargo tanks prior to loading cargo is
unacceptable due to ice formation at low carriage temperatures. How can water vapour in
the tank atmosphere be removed prior to the cooling down and loading operation?
By displacing the tank atmosphere with pre-dried inert gas.
134. What is the approximate normal daily cargo "boil off" rate for an LNG carrier of 125000
cubic metre cargo capacity? -. From 0,15 % to 0,20 % per day of total cargo.
135. What is the normal procedure for cooling down the a cargo tank prior to loading LNG?
Introducing liquid LNG into the tank slowly through the spray lines.
136. What is the typical accuracy for onboard LNG temperature measurement systems?
+/- 0.2 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
137. Which of the gas groups, identified by SIGTTO, in 'Liquid Gas Handling Principles on
Ships and in Terminals', does LNG belong to? - Saturated Hydrocarbon.
138. Which term is usually used to describe the compressor that collects the boil-off from the
header connected to each cargo tank of an LNG carrier? - The low-duty compressor.
139. Why is nitrogen used for the inerting of hold spaces and interbarrier spaces on LNG
carriers? - Because the carbon dioxide in combustion generated inert gas would freeze
when in close proximity to the cargo.
140. With reference to preparations of LNG carrier cargo tanks for cargo loading operations,
how can it be determined that the cool down operation is complete?
When temperature monitor, or liquid level gauge, shows that liquid is forming in the
bottom of the cargo tank.
141. Before loading a refrigerated cargo of LPG the cargo tanks must be cooled down slowly
in order to minimise thermal stresses for the vessel and the cargo containment system.
What is the generally accepted c : 10 degrees C per hour.
142. Cargo tanks on an LPG carrier can be inerted using either inert gas from a combustion
type inert gas generator or by using nitrogen. Is gassing up of an inerted cargo tank with
LPG allowed when the tank contains combustion generated inert gas?
Yes, but only if the atmosphere has an oxygen content of less than 5% by volume and
the charter allows it.
143. During pre-entry checks of an enclosed space onboard a liquefied gas carrier it is
necessary to check the condition of the atmosphere. If the gas detection equipment to be
used for the checks included a catalytic type combustible gas indicator, an absorption
type toxic gas detector and a paramagnetic type oxygen analyser, which would be the
preferred order for the checks?
Oxygen content followed by hydrocarbon gas content and then toxic gas content

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144. IMO publishes a number of Codes relating to the carriage of bulk cargoes including the
IGC Code for liquefied gas carriers. What is the main purpose of the IGC Code?
To provide an international standard for the construction of, and equipment for, gas
carriers to ensure the safe carriage of liquefied gases in bulk.
145. Inhibitors are often added to liquefied gas cargoes prior to loading to prevent or slow
down polymerisation. An inhibitor information form or certificate must be provided by the
cargo shipper to the vessel. What sort of information must this certificate contain about
the inhibitor in addition to the technical name and quantity added?
Expected lifetime of the inhibitor, temperature limitations affecting the lifetime of the
inhibitor and the date the inhibitor was added
146. Is it permitted to load fully refrigerated propane directly onto a fully pressurised LPG
carrier without additional conditioning of the cargo or cargo spaces? - Only if the cargo
containment system is designed for temperatures of minus 48 degrees C or less
147. It is necessary for personnel to enter a liquefied gas carrier cargo tank to clean up some
dust and other loose debris. What are the permit requirements before entry into the tank
is allowed? - Both Enclosed Space Entry and Cold Work Permits are required.
148. Liquefied gas cargoes will expand as the temperature increases and therefore tanks are
not allowed to be filled to 100%. What is the maximum allowable filling limit for the cargo
tanks on liquefied gas carriers?
Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 98% on gas carriers.
149. What is the full title of the IMO code which applies to all gas carriers built after 1986?
The International Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ships Carrying Liquefied
Gases in Bulk (the IGC Code)
150. What is the main reason for adding inhibitors to some liquefied gas cargoes such as
ethylene oxide and vinyl chloride? - To prevent polymerisation of the cargo.
151. What is the requirement for the atmosphere in the hold spaces surrounding cargo tanks
that require a secondary barrier when carrying LPG cargoes? - The hold spaces must be
kept in an inert condition whenever there is cargo in the cargo tanks.
152. What method should be used to discharge a semi-pressurised gas carrier if there is a
break down on the cargo discharge pump? - By pressurising the vapour space of the
cargo tank using a vaporiser and cargo compressor to force liquid cargo ashore.
153. When a ship is switching from ammonia to LPG virtually all traces of vapours must be
removed. What is the allowable concentration of ammonia vapour in the tank prior to
loading the next cargo? - Less than 20 parts per million.

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154. With some liquefied gas cargoes special conditions must be met before they can be
loaded into a cargo tank. Is it permitted load ammonia into an inerted cargo tank?
Only if the tank is inerted with nitrogen
155. A VLCC is to anchor in a depth of 80 meters in open water with moderate swell running.
How many shackles of anchor chain should be used to aid a safe anchorage?
11 shackles
156. Small-size loads that can be arranged or placed between other large loads or as insertion
loads are called ? - Cargo fillers
157. What rules must a ship obey when it comes to carrying a full deck load of packaged
wood? - IMO code of practice for carriage of timber deck cargoes
158. Which certificate is issued to LPG and other liquefied gas carriers in accordance with the
IGC code? The Certificate of Fitness is issued in accordance with the IGC code
159. Any person who can assume overall charge of the ships crude oil washing operation
must have: At least 12 months appropriate experience on oil tankers, have participated in
at least two COW programmes and be fully knowledgeable of the contents of the
Operations and Equipment Manual.
160. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be carried and
completed on oil tankers of: 150 gross tonnes and above.
161. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines and pumps on an oil tanker at completion of
discharge must be: Discharged ashore or retained on board as per the pre-discharge
agreement made between the ship and shore.
162. As per requirements of the International Convention for the Control and Management of
Ship's Ballast Water and Sediments, oil tankers must have a plan on board to achieve:
95% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port.
163. As per the OCIMF Ship to Ship Transfer Guide (Petroleum) guidelines, both vessels
engaged in the cargo transfer operation shall: Have their duty engineers on stand-by so
as to prepare the engines if required for use at any time.
164. As per the US Code of Federal Regulations, the current Oil Transfer Procedures for a
vessel carrying out discharge in US ports must be: Available on board, legibly printed in a
language or languages easily understood by personnel engaged in the transfer operation
and permanently posted or available at a place where crew members can see and use
them.
165. Crude Oils required by MARPOL to be specifically listed in a tanker's Crude Oil Washing
manual as unsuitable for COW are: Those with high pour point or viscosity.

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166. For a vessel proceeding enroute, located more than 50 nm from nearest land outside a
special area and having in operation its ODME, the maximum instantaneous rate of oil
discharge (from washings of cargo tanks) in to the sea is: 30 litres per nautical mile.
167. On board an oil tanker, slop tanks may be used for the carriage of oil: Only on clean
ballast tankers and are only included in the total cargo capacity of this type of vessel.
168. Prior to discharging cargo from an oil tanker, ‘line displacement’ or ‘line pressing’ must be
conducted to ensure:
Testing of the automatic shut-down arrangements in the shore line system.
169. The details of an internal transfer of oil must be entered in the Oil Record Book:
Only if required by the specific instructions of the owners or Flag State of the vessel
170. The ideal maximum viscosity at which aromatic crude oil cargoes are best discharged at,
is: 250 cst (250 mm2/s)
171. The ODME printouts for tank cleaning operations must be retained on board for a
minimum period: Of 3 years.
172. The recommended guideline for avoiding the risk of electrostatic potential in a mist
produced by using oil and water during Crude Oil Washing operations is that:
Before washing begins, any tank that is to be used as a source of oil for Crude Oil
Washing should be partly discharged to remove any water that has settled out during the
voyage. The discharge of a layer of at least 1 meter is necessary for this purpose.
173. To correctly report an oil spill in US waters: The person in charge must report the spill to
the National Response Center or, if not practicable, to the Environmental Protection
Agency regional office or local U.S. Coast Guard Marine Safety Office. This must be
done immediately that person has knowledge of the spill.
174. What do we mean with a IOPP certificate? With IOPP certificate we mean International
Oil Pollution Prevention certificate and the ship is classed to prevent oil pollution
175. When discharging dirty ballast from an oil tanker at a high flow rate with main cargo
pumps, the instantaneous rate of discharge of oil is calculated by formula:
Instantaneous rate of discharge (l/nm) = oil content (ppm) x flow rate (m3/h) / speed
(knots) x 1,000.
176. When internally transferring any oil cargo within the vessel, the correct procedure would
be to: Obtain permission from the charterers and document all operations fully in the Oil
Record Book.
177. Within the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System, an ‘overboard discharge control’
is defined as: A device which automatically initiates the sequence to stop the overboard

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 discharge of the effluent in alarm conditions and prevents the discharge throughout the
period the alarm prevails.
178. A hazard is is a source of potential harm or damage or a situation with potential for harm
or damage. Risk is determined based on evaluation of two elements. Which two
elements? The likelihood that a hazard may occur and the consequences of the
hazardous event
179. How frequently should the PA-system (Public Address) be tested? Every week
180. How often shall abandon ship- and fire drills take place on board passenger ships?
Weekly
181. How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and
closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in passenger
ships? Weekly
182. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board?
In a separate locker. The locker shall be clearly marked, locked and ventilated.
183. Personnel on board passenger vessels must undergo training courses before they can
be part of the safe manning and assigned to emergency duties on board. What is
minimum training requirement for all personnel?
Basic Safety Training Course and Crowd & Crisis Management Training Course
184. SOLAS regulations require surveys of ships to be carried out at certain times and at
certain intervals. Which of the following surveys apply to passenger ships only?
Periodical survey every 12 months
185. The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL)
covers detailed regulations to prevent various sources of ship generated pollution. Annex
I - VI deals with regulations for the prevention/ control of pollution from:
Harmful Substances in Packaged Form, Sewage, Air Pollution, Garbage, Oil and Noxious
Liquid Substances in Bulk
186. What information is required on passengers prior to departure? All persons on board
shall be counted and details of persons who have declared a need for special care or
assistance in emergency situations shall be recorded and communicated to the Master
187. What is important to prepare prior to a helicopter operation?
Make sure all loose deck equipment at helicopter deck is stowed away and secured.
188. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets?
To provide all personnel including emergency personnel with procedures for handling or
working with that substance in a safe manner

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189. What necessary precautions should be taken before entering a tank or an enclosed
space? Make sure that the tank/ enclosed space is gas free, ventilated and the oxygen
content is measured. O2 content shall be 21% before entering the tank/ enclosed space.
190. Which international convention deals with maritime safety and safety equipment onboard
ro-ro passenger vessels? SOLAS
191. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with suitable
Personal Protective Equipment where it is needed? The Company/ employer
192. You are burning garbage containing plastics. What shall you do with the ashes from the
vessel's incinerator? Discharge the ashes to a shore facility.
193. A cellular container vessel is to load frozen ice cream in containers. Space is available
either in the hold or as a deck stow. Select, from the options given, the most suitable
stowage position, with the reason, for this cargo.
The deck stow as it is less sensitive to temperature in the event of a mechanical problem.
194. A conventional reefer vessel operating a Controlled Atmosphere (CA) is approaching the
port of discharge in Northern Europe. Which is the most suitable action to take from the
options given? Turn off the CA plant and thoroughly ventilate the cargo spaces under CA
with fresh air just prior to arrival.
195. A reefer vessel is loading a cargo of fruit alongside in a South African port. During
loading another vessel arrives at an adjacent berth to have its cargo discharged after
having been towed in following a fire onboard which had resulted in abandonment. What
should concern the Master of the reefer vessel most about the situation?
That the cargo may be contaminated by the smell of smoke and the products of
combustion from the damaged vessel.
196. A reefer vessel is to load a cargo of plantains and bananas. Due to space restrictions
both have to be loaded into a common space. The usual delivery temperature for
bananas is about 13 degrees Celsius and for plantains it is 7 degree Celsius. What would
be the best delivery temperature for the mixture of these two fruits? 13 C as plantains
are less sensitive to the consequences of a higher delivery temperature.
197. A reefer vessel is to load a part cargo of frozen beef hocks (large joints of beef, usually
quarters, not packed in cartons). In deciding which would be the most appropriate space
on a conventional reefer vessel, which of the given options would be the preferred
choice? 1C deck as this is the narrowest space on the vessel and will best constrain the
cargo from any possible movement during the voyage.
198. A reefer vessel, which is about to carry a palletised cargo, has to have available sufficient
cargo equipment including air bags (dunnage bags), air lines and valves, cargo slings,

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 wooden dunnage, nails, etc. These items are required to ensure a quick loading
operation and a successful passage. Complete the following statement from the options
given. "Air bags are particularly important in that they reduce the movement of the
pallets and prevent short circuiting of the air flow."
199. A situation arises where there is insufficient fruit cargo available to fill a cargo space.
There is a cooler arrangement (cooler/evaporator/brine nest/fans) positioned at one end
of the cargo space. Select, from the options given, the best method for stowage of the
fruit. Start at the end with the cooler arrangement and work away from the cooler.
200. A situation exists where a cargo of palletised fruit is being loaded to capacity on a
conventional reefer vessel. In order to load all of the available cargo it is proposed to
break down some of the pallets and place the loose cartons on top of the pallets; there is
just enough space to accommodate this below the deckhead. From the options given
which is the most suitable action to take? Reject the plan as the reduced gap at the top of
the stow will restrict the return air flow.
201. A standard convention for a 4 deck reefer vessel is to designate the decks A to D from
upper to lower deck. Decks A and B common as are C and D with a gas tight seal
between B and C. Apples are to be carried in decks C and D with bananas in A and B.
Which of the options is the best to avoid the risk of crossover of temperature and
respiration between the two cargoes?
Create a pressure differential with a higher pressure in decks C and D.
202. After discharge of any refrigerated cargo a thorough inspection of the vessel should be
carried out before presenting the vessel for loading the next cargo. Amongst the reasons
for this is to ensure that any traces of or residues from the previous cargo are removed.
This is particularly so if a fruit or meat cargo is to be loaded after a fish cargo has been
carried. Select, from the options given, the main reason for this requirement.
Fish is strong smelling and the odour may contaminate the next cargo.
203. Apart from temperature there are few differences between carrying cargoes of chilled
meat, minus 1 degree Celsius, and frozen meat, minus 18 degrees Celsius. A key
difference is that for frozen meat the cooling fans are operated at half speed or some are
switched off whereas for chilled meat the fans are run constantly at full speed. Select,
from the options given, the main reason for this difference in fan operation. The chilled
meat is more sensitive to damage and therefore tighter temperature control is necessary.
204. In preparing a reefer vessel for loading the next cargo a careful inspection of the cargo
spaces should be carried out. All required maintenance and the repair of any damage
identified during the inspection should be completed prior to loading. Select, from the

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 options given, the most appropriate action to be taken when the maintenance and any
repairs are completed. Make a detailed record of all maintenance and repairs carried out
for presentation to the supervisor at the loading port as proof that the vessel is in an
acceptable condition for loading the cargo.
205. On some trades fruit cargoes may be subjected to 'in-transit cold treatment' also known
as cold treatment. From the options given which is the main purpose of this cold
treatment? To maintain a specified minimum temperature for a prescribed time period to
kill off any fruit fly which may be present when loading the cargo.
206. Reefer vessels form part of the 'cold chain' in the transport of perishable goods from the
producer to the consumer. There are times when hatches have to remain open in less
than perfect conditions, for example strong winds. There are steps that can be taken
however to mitigate the effects of this on cargo that has already been loaded. Which of
the options given could be considered to be the most important measure to counter the
effect of such conditions? Refrain from ventilating the cargo with fresh air.
207. With the exception of some citrus fruits and bananas, fruit is usually pre-cooled to the
required carriage temperature prior to loading on a reefer vessel. In order to protect the
cold chain, and to maintain the temperature of the fruit, a minimum exposure time to
ambient conditions during loading is necessary. What action should the deck officers take
during loading to achieve this minimum exposure time?
Close the hatches and apply cooling to the cargo already loaded during any break in
cargo operations that exceed 30 minutes.
208. A Standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 18mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction and
lashed by belts of SWL 2mt. Using the general rule How many lashing belts should be
used to secure the unit? 9 on each side
209. A standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 2mt is to be loaded fore and aft and lashed by belts of
SWL 0.6mt. Using the general rule How many lashing belts should be used to secure the
unit? 4 on each side
210. On a roro vessel, a ro-ro unit weighing 2mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction
and lashed by belts of SWL 0.6mt. How many lashing belts should be used to secure the
unit? 4 on each side
211. On a roro vessel, a vehicle weighing 50mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction and
lashed by chains/turnbuckles of SWL 5mt. By the general Rule How many sets of
chains/turnbuckles should be used to secure the unit? At least 10 per side
212. On a roro vessel, how often should a dangerous goods stowage plan be produced
Every time you load a dangerous cargo

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213. On a roro vessel, if the vessel is loaded by stevedores, who is responsible for the lashing
of the cargo :
The vessel is responsible for cargo as soon as it crosses the ramp including its securing
214. On a roro vessel, what dangers are associated with using a steep loading ramp?
The ends of ro-ro units can be damaged
215. On a roro vessel, what instruction should be given to the crew about unlashing of cargo
prior to arrival at the berth : This can only be done when the bridge gives permission and
no unit stowed on a ramp or incline can be unlashed. Provided the company allow it.
216. On a roro vessel, what must be considered when planning the loading of ro-ro cargoes
on ramps? SWL and loading limit of the ramp and Minimum clearances for the operation
of ramp doors
217. On a roro vessel, what must be ensured onboard the vessel prior to commencing cargo?
Cargo hold ventilation systems are operational
218. On a roro vessel, what standing instruction should be given to prevent a blackout on
board?
Check with the duty engineer before switching on motors, fans or other machinery
219. On a roro vessel, what standing instruction should be given to protect the Ramps when
loading ro-ro units?
Units whose weights exceed the ramp load density/SWL must not be loaded
220. On a roro vessel, what stowage factors should be taken into account when planning the
loading of cars? The longitudinal and athwartship distances between the cars
221. On a roro vessel, which of the following is not required in the pre-stowage plan?
Checking communications equipment
222. On a roro vessel, which of the ships trading certificates details the type and location that
dangerous goods are allowed to be stowed onboard
Certificate of compliance for the carriage of Dangerous goods
223. On a roro vessel, which of these situations will result in an emergency shutdown of cargo
operations? Any of the listed situations
224. On a roro vessel, which regulations require supervising the embarkation of persons on
board ship? The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code
225. Under SOLAS, what are the minimum required air changes per hour for 'Special
Category Spaces' on a roro vessel,? 10
226. What must not be obstructed when planning the loading of ro-ro cargoes?
Ships' bracket connections to the deck.

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227. A hazard is is a source of potential harm or damage or a situation with potential for harm
or damage. Risk is determined based on evaluation of two elements. Which two
elements? The likelihood that a hazard may occur and the consequences of the
hazardous event
228. How can the Master ensure that all cargo loading doors, bow visors, weathertight ramps
etc. Are locked and secured before the ship proceeds on any voyage?
By having an effective system of supervision and reporting of the closing and opening of
doors. Time of closing and opening of doors shall be entered in the log-book.
229. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board?
In a separate locker. The locker shall be clearly marked, locked and ventilated.
230. On most ro-ro passenger ships there is no requirement to carry out drills with the
passengers. What is the most effective ways of informing embarking passengers about
the emergency procedures? Information on boarding cards, public announcement on
departure, posters in public areas and cabins, safety video running continuously
231. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such as
iron ore concentrate; what would be the possible stability conditions produced?
The vessel will normally have a large intact metacentric height (GM) and have a fast roll
period
232. A cargo hatch cover seal on a Bulk Carrier is known to be damaged and not weather tight
prior to sailing; what is the legal significance of this situation?
The vessel may well be judged to be un-seaworthy; this could invalidate some
certification and hull and machinery insurance
233. Before a solid bulk cargo is loaded, the Master and shore representative must agree a
loading plan which covers which of the following aspects?
All of the items specified in the possible answers
234. How are cargoes on self-unloading bulk carriers fed to the vessel's conveyor belts during
discharge? Via hydraulically-operated hopper gates at the bottom of each hold
235. The high level water ingress alarm in number 1 hold of a Bulk Carrier activates in bad
weather at sea; what would be the actions of a prudent Master? Sound general alarm,
muster ships crew and transmit a Mayday call and message.
236. Under international regulations for a Bulk Carrier, who needs to be trained in the use of
oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment? The ship's crew
237. What does the IMSBC Code emphasise with reference to the exposure of personal to the
dust created when carrying some bulk cargoes? A high standard of personal hygiene

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238. What extent of hatch cover spares should be available on board a Bulk Carrier at all
times? Specimen fittings shown in the hatch cover manufacturer's manual
239. What height of water above the inner bottom will activate the cargo hold high level alarm
on a Bulk Carrier Any height above 2.0m
240. What is the maximum period between the sampling/testing of the moisture content of a
solid bulk cargo and the loading of that cargo into a bulk carrier?
A maximum for seven (7) days, when there has been no change in the moisture content
due to rain or snow
241. What must be specified when ordering gas detection equipment when used in
association with bulk carriers?
That the instrument is suited for its purpose of application
242. Which of the following is a warning sign of a faulty hydraulic hatch cover system on a
Bulk Carrier? A fall in the hydraulic header tank level
243. Who needs to be trained in the use of oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment?
The entire ship's crew
244. Why do bulk cargo carriers need to carry oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment?
Because of enclosed or confined space entry requirements
245. Why do the cargo holds of a self-unloading bulk carrier have a "W" shaped cross
section? So that during discharge the cargo will automatically fall onto the underlying
conveyor belts
246. A vessel has lost several containers overboard during a voyage. Upon arrival into port,
she is being inspected by the attending surveyors. The most important item to be
checked during this inspection would be:
Certificates of approval related to lashing equipment used to secure those containers.
247. An inspection in the amidships area of the weather deck of a Panamax container vessel
has revealed cracks in the hatch coamings. It is extremely important to urgently inspect
the: Longitudinals in the double bottom tanks in the amidships half length of the vessel.
248. On a container vessel, flexitanks are used for:
The carriage of non-hazardous liquids, in bulk.
249. Racking forces imposed on a container would likely cause the greatest deflection to:
The door end of the container.
250. Shock loads in a container lashing system are generally caused by:
Loose cargo lashings.
251. The correct weight of a wrongly declared container may be best indicated by:
Strain gauges fitted to the shore gantry cranes.

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252. The most effective method of dealing with an under-deck cargo space fire on board a
container ship, is to: Deploy the fixed firefighting system.
253. The most important function of a buttress fitting on a container vessel is:
To transfer forces from the container stow to the ships structure.
254. What contributes to wear-down of twistlocks on a container vessel?
The continuous action of longitudinal forces.
255. What items of container securing equipment must be used in conjunction with
buttresses? Double stacking cones or link plates.
256. When planning the loading of containers, the planning officer must refer to:
The Cargo Securing Manual (CSM).
257. "Passivation" is a restorative process periodically applied to stainless steel tanks on a
chemical tanker. What effect does this process have on the steel surface?
It restores and reforms the passive Chromium Hydroxide surface layer
258. Basic manual dew point measurement devices are commonly used by surveyors when
monitoring the dryness of a cargo tank prior to loading a liquid chemical product. Which
of the descriptions below is a summary of how the measurement is carried out?
A small quantity of Acetone is placed into the device and dry-ice is progressively added
to it to steadily reduce the temperature. A sample of the atmosphere in the tank is
continuously drawn through the device, passing over the polished or mirrored surface of
the container. When the first drop of mositure (dew) is observed to form on the polished
surface, the temperature of the Acetone bath is noted. Reference may be required to
tables to correct the reading for desired parameters.
259. Chemical tankers of 20,000 tonnes DWT or above, with a keel laid on or after 1st July
1986, when carrying flammable products with a flashpoint not exceeding 60 degrees
Celsius, such as those listed in chapters 17 and 18 of the International Bulk Chemical
Code, are exempt from the requirement to be fitted with and use an inert gas plant
provided certain conditions are met. Which of the following is a summary of those
conditions? The cargo tank does not exceed 3000 cubic metres capacity / each tank
washing machine nozzle does not exceed 17.5 cubic metres per hour delivery rate / the
total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing machines does not exceed 110
cubic metres per hour.
260. High level and high-high level alarms must be tested at the tank for proper operation
within 24 hours of the start of cargo transfer on a chemical tanker. What acceptable
alternative is there to this requirement? That a function test is carried out by means of an
automatic self-test and circuit monitoring facility within the alarm system.

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261. How would you determine whether a particular cargo transfer hose was compatible with
the chemical product to be transferred? Refer to the product entry in the hose
manufacturer's chemical resistance chart.
262. If your chemical tanker is equipped with high velocity venting valves, at what minimum
height above the weather deck or catwalk should they be installed? 3 metres
263. In a typical shipboard de-humidifier plant as may be found on a modern chemical tanker,
operating on a "rotating bed" principle, what names are given to the two parts of the
rotating bed? The "process sector" and the "reactivation sector".
264. The IBC Code prescribes certain design conditions for a cargo heating or cooling system
fitted to a chemical tanker. What does it require in respect of pressure within such a
system, for any condition other than when it is empty? That a higher pressure can be
maintained within the system than the maximum pressure head that could be exerted by
the contents of the cargo tank on that system.
265. The specified maximum working pressure of a cargo hose in service on a chemical
tanker should be at least which of the following? 10 bar gauge.
266. To what pressure will a new length of cargo hose be tested by a manufacturer prior to its
supply to a vessel for service onboard a chemical tanker?
Not less than one and a half times its specified maximum working pressure, but not more
than two-fifths of its bursting pressure.
267. What temperature defines "hot" water in the context of tank washing on a chemical
tanker? At least 60 degrees Celsius.
268. When a submerged centrifugal cargo pump is being run at too high a speed during
discharge of a viscous chemical cargo, the pump may start racing, causing a heat build-
up around the suction, possible localised solidification of the cargo and consequent
damage to the pump. What term is applied to this problem? Cavitation.
269. Which of the following is a summary of the features of a "controlled tank venting system"
as may be found on a chemical tanker? PV valves are fitted to limit the pressure or
vacuum in the tank; no shut-off valves may be fitted either above or below the PV valves;
provision may be made to by-pass the PV valves under certain operating conditions;
such a system shall consist of a primary and secondary means of allowing full flow of
vapour, except that the secondary system may be replaced by pressure sensors fitted
within the tank.
270. You are carrying a bulk cargo of Phosphoric Acid. Which components of the cargo
pumps may be damaged as a result of discharging this particular cargo and why?
The cargo seals may be damaged from the abbrasive effect of any sediment.

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271. A five yearly thorough survey of cargo gear on a General Cargo vessel should be carried
out by: A classification society surveyor.
272. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne SWL heavy lift derrick and a load of 48 tonnes is
to be loaded. The lifting gear of slings and spreader bar weighs 4 tonnes. In this case, it
would be correct to state that: The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight
of the load and the lifting gear will exceed the SWL by two tonnes.
273. During a pre-loading survey on board a General Cargo ship, the most efficient method of
testing the weather tightness of the hatch covers is considered to be: Ultrasonic test.
274. During cargo watch on a General Cargo ship, if the OOW informs you that the condition
of the discharge equipment such as slings and shackles being used by the stevedores is
unsuitable for use, you should: Inform stevedores of concern and protest by letter.
275. On a General Cargo ship, the most likely cause of a hatch cover hydraulic system to
deteriorate would be: Due to dust and cargo particles lodged around the piston seals.
276. On a General Cargo vessel, a 16T derrick should be tested to a proof load of: 20T
277. Prior to loading cotton on a General Cargo vessel, it is important to ensure that:
The cargo hold fire-fighting system is thoroughly examined.
278. Prior to loading general cargo on a General Cargo vessel, with regard to lashing wires,
terminations, shackles, turnbuckles, pad eyes and D rings etc., you must make sure that:
They must all be certified and be visually inspected for any apparent damage.
279. Proper guidance on the stowage and securing of general cargo may be obtained by
referring to: IMO Code of practice for stowage and securing of cargoes.
280. The main purpose of a hatch cover ventilator grill on a General Cargo vessel is:
To prevent sparks entering the cargo hold.
281. The ship’s lifting plant must be proof load tested and all parts thoroughly examined at
intervals not exceeding: 5 years
282. When general cargo is damaged during heavy weather on a General Cargo vessel, it
must be ensured that the damage is inspected by the:
Surveyor representing the vessel's P. & I. Club.
283. According to "Summary of minimum requirements" in the IGC Code, what is the
requirement for vapour detection for methane (LNG) cargoes?
Flammable vapour detection.
284. According to the IMO Gas Code, what is the requirement for the number of sets of
portable gas detection equipment that must be carried onboard an LNG carrier?
There must be at least two sets.

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285. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what are the maximum time intervals for sampling and
analysing samples from the permanent installed gas detection system on a LNG carrier?
30 minutes.
286. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is the required number of temperature indicating
devices in the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier? At least two devices in each tank.
287. Gas carrier type A and B cargo tanks have a MARVS of less than 0.7 barg. What is the
liquid and vapour connection shut off valve requirement for this type of tank according to
the IMO gas codes? Single shut-off valves with manual closing facility.
288. LNG tankers are often fitted with fixed water spray system for fire protection purposes for
deck areas, deck tanks, deck manifolds and pipelines. What is the minimum required flow
rate of water per minute for horizontal and vertical surfaces to ensure adequate, uniform
coverage of these areas? 10 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 4 litre/m2
per minute for vertical surfaces.
289. Select, from the options given, the one that best describes a requirement of the remotely
controlled valves fitted in the ESD (Emergency Shut-Down) systems on an LNG carrier?
They must be fail-safe.
290. Some LNG carriers are fitted with a water glycol system for heating the cofferdam spaces
next to cargo tanks when the vessel is loaded. What is the purpose of this heating
system?
To maintain the temperature inside the space above 5 degrees C to protect the steel.
291. What is the minimum requirement with respect to pressure relief valves on the cargo
tanks of an LNG carrier where the individual tanks are over 20 cubic metres capacity?
Two valves.
292. What is the preferred method of accommodating expansion in cargo pipeline systems on
LNG carriers? A. Use expansion loops.
293. What is the purpose of the "forcing vaporizer" found in some LNG carrier cargo plants?
To provide gas for burning in the boiler.
294. When LNG is used as fuel a double wall piping system must be used in the engine room.
What condition should the annular space between the concentric pipes be maintained in
when the fuel system is in service? Filled with nitrogen at a pressure greater than the
LNG fuel pressure.
295. Which kind of cargo pumps are the most commonly used in cargo systems for LNG
carriers? Submerged electric motor pumps.
296. Which line can be utilized to prevent line surge when starting the main pumps of a LNG
carrier's cargo system? The condensate spray line.

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297. Which of the following insulation materials that are used in the cargo containment
systems for LNG carriers has the highest diffusion resistance? Polyurethane foam.
298. A chlorine carrier must be equipped with a chlorine absorption plant connected to the
cargo tanks and cargo lines. This requirement includes the provision of gas detectors for
the spaces and areas around the cargo containment system and the absorption plant
outlet. What is the recommended setting for the visual and audible alarms of the gas
detectors? 5 ppm.
299. Cargo heaters are frequently used when discharging refrigerated LPG cargoes into
pressurised shore tanks. What would be a typical "heating range" required from a heater
for discharge of fully refrigerated propane? From - 45 C to - 5 C.
300. Cargo hoses intended for liquefied gas carriers have to be prototyped tested before
being approved. When new hoses of an already approved type are received onboard
they also need to be pressure tested before being put into service. What are the IMO
Gas Code requirements for such hoses before they are put into service?
Not less than 1.5 times the specified maximum working pressure or more than two fifths
of bursting pressure at ambient temperature
301. LPG carriers rely heavily on the compressors fitted as part of the reliquefaction plant.
Screw and reciprocating types are widely used. Which type of reciprocating compressor
is most common as a cargo compressor?
Double acting, single stage, oil free compressor.
302. Most reliquefaction plants on LPG carriers use a direct cooling system. Which of the
statements given in the options best describes a direct cooling cycle? A. Cargo vapours
are drawn off by a compressor, compressed, condensed than passed through an
expansion valve back to the tank.
303. Some liquefied gas carriers are fitted with nitrogen generating equipment, often of the
membrane module design. What would be the expected purity of the nitrogen produced
by such equipment? 95 to 97% pure nitrogen.
304. The IMO Gas Codes require that all liquefied gas carrier cargo tanks are fitted with
pressure relief valves. Pilot operated relief valves are frequently used, particularly with
refrigerated cargoes. What is the main advantage of using pilot operated relief valves
rather than simple spring loaded types for refrigerated liquefied gas cargoes tanks?
They ensure accurate operation at the very low cargo carriage pressures.
305. The reliquefaction plant for cargo cooling of liquefied gas cargoes can operate on either a
direct or indirect cycle. On which liquefied gas cargoes must indirect cycle cargo cooling
plant be used according to the IMO Gas Codes? Cargoes such as chlorine, ethylene

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 oxide and propylene oxide for which the vapours cannot be compressed due to
temperature restrictions.
306. There are a number of standard reliquefaction plants commonly fitted onboard LPG and
other liquefied gas carriers. What type of reliquefaction plant is required for a cargo of
Ethylene Oxide? Indirect cycle.
307. There are strict rules governing the placement and category of electrical equipment
allowed in certain areas of liquefied gas carriers. One such category is that of flameproof
enclosures. What is a flameproof enclosure? One which can withstand the pressure
build-up during an internal ignition of a flammable mixture and is designed to cool any
flames occurring within the enclosure to below the ignition temperature.
308. What is the main disadvantage of using oil free, screw type compressors for the
reliquefaction plant of an LPG carrier? The compressor has to run at very high speeds to
compensate for internal leakage.
309. What is the purpose of an automatic shut-down system fitted onboard most liquefied gas
carriers and how is it initiated? To prevent overfilling of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a
high level sensor in the cargo tank.
310. What is the purpose of the purge gas condenser fitted to some liquefied gas carrier
reliquefaction plants? It is used to condense out any cargo vapours which have passed
through the main condenser with incondensable gases.
311. When measuring the liquid level in the cargo tank of a liquefied gas carrier a number of
different corrections may be necessary to get a true reading. Why do readings obtained
from a float type ullage tape sometimes require a 'tape correction'?
The length of tape in contact with very cold cargo vapours may contract.
312. Which type of reliquefaction plant can have the cooling coil placed directly in the vapour
space of the cargo tank? One type of the indirect cycle reliquefaction plants.
313. A “Pellistor” is: - It is an electrical sensor unit fitted in a flammable gas detector for
measuring hydrocarbon vapours and air mixtures to determine whether the mixture is
within the flammable range
314. According to 33 CFR 156, for oil tankers trading in US waters, the minimum requirement
for testing of cargo transfer hoses and associated piping system are:
That no leakage occurs under static liquid pressure of at least 1.5 times the maximum
allowable working pressure.
315. After passing through the scrubbing tower of an inert gas system, the approximate level
of carbon dioxide in the inert flue gas should be: A. 13%

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316. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment may be allowed by a
Port State Authority to trade for: One ballast voyage before proceeding to a repair port.
317. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and a selected
pitch angle of 1.5 degrees is used to perform a bottom wash with a vertical angle from 40
degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5 cycles (3 passes). If the throughput of the machine at
design pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the washing time and quantity of crude oil
required? 40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil.
318. As per IMO requirements, the mechanical ventilation system of the cargo pump room
shall be capable of making: At least 30 air changes per hour
319. Fluid driven eductors operate on Bernoulli’s principle, which states that:
The speed of a moving fluid increases as the pressure in the fluid decreases.
320. The automatic stripping systems fitted on some of the centrifugal cargo pumps operate
on the principle that: If cargo vapour can be stopped from entering the cargo pump
suction inlet, the flow will continue without cavitation.
321. The difference between the absolute pressure of a liquid at the inlet to a cargo pump and
the vapour pressure of the liquid is called the: Net Positive Suction Head Available.
322. The inert gas system shall be capable of delivering inert gas to the cargo tanks at the
rate of: At least 125% of the maximum discharge capacity.
323. The typical amounts of sulphur dioxide gas in flue gas produced when burning high
sulphur content fuels would be: 2,000 ppm
324. The usual pressure and vacuum levels at which the P/V valves on board an oil tanker are
required to activate are: - Pressure: 1 psi (0.069 bar) Vacuum: 0.5 psi (0.034 bar)

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Assess reported defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tank and
take appropriate action

1. Which of the following methods is highly accurate and least cumbersome for checking
water tightness of a hold? - Ultrasonic test
2. What should the master do, when a heavy metal concentrate bulk cargo has a moisture
content of 16 and a transportable moisture limit of 18?
Load the cargo as the moisture content within acceptable limits
3. After completion of discharge of a dry bulk cargo, the CO2 lines in each cargo hold
should be - Blown through with compressed air to ensure that they are clear of any
cargo traces
4. Damage to cargo caused by fumes or vapors from liquids, gases, or solids is known as
Tainting
5. A bulk cargo of steel coils is loaded and number of the coils are noted by the chief officer
to be rusted; what must the master ensure
Clause the Bill of Lading with the reference number of the rusty coils and so make the Bill
of Lading a “dirty” bill
6. Sinkage remaining to maximum draft A bulk carrier that must complete loading at a draft
of 10 meters. The current midline draft of the vessel is 9.96 meters (left side) and 9.98
meters (right side). Is? - 0.03 meters
7. A bulk carrier is loading to complete at a draught of 10.0m when in salt water. She is
currently floating in dock water and the Dock Water Allowance (DWA) is 80 mm. her
maximum draught at completion of loading should be - 10.08 meters
8. The perforated plate cover of the cargo hatch bilge are normally covered with burlap, so
as ? - To prevent small particles of cargo draining into the bilges
9. On a RoRo vessel, what is Maximum Securing Load?
The load capacity of a devices used to secure cargo on board
10. An oil tanker with faulty Oil Release Monitoring Equipment (ODME) may be permitted by
the Port State Authority to trade for:
One ballast voyage before proceeding to a repair port
11. Overcarriage is best prevented by
Inspection of the hold at completion of discharge
12. Associated with the carriage of a bulk cargo of salt on a Bulk Carrier, what is the primary
hazard?

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 The only possible hazard is associated with ingress of water into the hold and a loss of
stability
13. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment may be allowed by a
Port State Authority to trade for:
One ballast voyage before proceeding to repair port
14. “Noxious liquid substances which, if discharged into the sea from tank cleaning or
deballasting operations, are deemed to present a hazard to either marine resources or
human health or cause harm to amenities or other legitimate uses of the sea and
therefore justify a limitation on the quality and quantity of the discharge into the marine
environment”. Such substances are:
A category “Y” substance as identified in MARPOL Annex II
15. A bulk cargo of coal is to be loaded in Australia for Europe; what must the muster ensure
that the coal is declared as having a high a moisture content (but less than the
transportable moisture Limit (TML));?
All cargo hold bilges are sounded daily and the amount of water logged; the bilges can
then be pumped out
16. Which includes the principle of loading, except: - Watch over pirates
17. Before entering the enclosed space, there are several things that must be considered,
namely, except: - Space
19. A bulk cargo has a stowage factor (S.F) of 1.50 cubic metres per metric tonne (m3/mt). if
1000 tonnes are to be loaded what volume will this cargo occupy?
1500 cubic metres (m3)
20. According to MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry, clay slurry, dextrose solution and molasses are
classified as - “OS” (Other subtances)”
21. In general, the hatch opening/closing system is viewed from the way it works The system
is divided into: - Everything is correct
22. What you must make sure when prior to loading general cargo on a General Cargo
vessel, with regard to lashing wires, terminations, shackles, turnbuckles, pad eyes and D
rings etc? - They must all be certified and be visually inspected for any apparent
damage
23. When loading a bulk cargo of Coal the ship must be fitted with appropriate instruments to
measure the concentration of what gases within the cargo space?
The gases specified in all of these answers
24. What hazards are associated with the carriage of wood pellets in bulk?

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 Oxygen depletion and generation of carbon monoxide in cargo and communicating
spaces
25. When carriage of ammonium nitrate, what is typical hazard is ? - Explosion
26. It is considered especially necessary to continue to ventilate the tank and to continuously
monitor the atmosphere when working inside a cargo compartment which still contains
vegetable oil residues, because :
The decomposing residues continue to release hazardous gases, reducing the levels of
oxygen in the tank and making the atmosphere potentially dangerous
27. Prior to loading general cargo on a Cargo vessel, with regard to cargo hold, you must
make sure that:
They must all be visually inspected and notice of readiness is issued
28. During cargo watch on a General Cargo ship, if the OOW informs you that the condition
of the discharge equipment such as slings and shackles being used by the stevedores is
unsuitable for use and that can be damage into even cargo hald, you should:
Inform stevedores of concern and protest by letter
29. You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a
dangerous cargo and you must complete hatch cover repairs involving hot work before
sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
The Captain of the port may give specific approval to make hot work repairs
30. Ships must be equipped with appropriate instruments to measure the concentration of
what gas is in the cargo hold especially when loading coal bulk cargo?
The gases specified in all of these answers
31. What is the reason of fire in a container carrying chemicals is difficult to extinguish ?
Heat is often produced due to chemical reactions within the cargo
32. In terms of stress, the most important consideration. When planning stowage of
containers on a container vessel would be:
Distribution and weight of the containers
33. Where would you refer when determine the weight capacity of a deck in a cargo hold,
Deck capacity plan

34.

The United Nations Packaging symbol used for Dangerous Goods

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35. The IMO Code requires protection against spillage of the most dangerous products
(ethylether, antiknock lead compounds such as TML and TEL etc) by prescribing that:
They shall be carried in cargo tanks independent of the ships hull structure?
36. What should the master do, when a bulk cargo is loaded and the shore cargo figure is
10.000 tonnes; the chief officer calculates 9.500 tonnes have been loaded?
Inform Designated Person Ashore ( DPA )
37. Accorsing to MARPOL 73/78, the defines a ‘high viscosity substance’ as
A Noxious liquid substance in category “X” or “Y” with a viscosity equal to or greater than
50 mPa.s at the unloading temperature
38. A bulk cargo is loaded and the shore cargo figure is 10 000 tonnes; the chief officer
calculates 9 500 tonnes have been loaded, what should the master do ?
Ask for a draft survey to be carried In the presence of P&I club representive
39. Information about the maximum point loading in cargo holds and on decks of a General
Cargo Vessel may be obtained from: - Ships Capacity Plan
40. Which of the following groups of chemical cargoes is particularly susceptible to
polymerisation, especially through exposure to heat? - Monomers
41. A special list of cargo loaded on a ship that needs to be prepared for reporting and other
administrative purposes is called ? - Manifest
42. What is called the wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading?
Ceiling
43. What is recommended if a tank container of liquid ammonia is engulfed in fire,:
To allow ventilation
44. What general background colour is used on warning signs which require a specific
mandatory” action, such as one which might require the wearing of a safety harness
during a particular work task? - Blue
45. On what criteria of when loading a bulk cargo of cement the specific gravity and flow
characteristics are dependant ? - The volume of air in the cargo
46. The most dangerous consequence of the corrosion and wear down of container stools on
weather deck/hatch tops of a container vessel would be:
Collapse of the deck stool, leading to lashings becoming slack
47. Exposure to moderate concentrations of ammonia may cause:
Choking and possible loss of eyesight
48. A vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved means of processing oily
bilge slops or oily ballast must have
a fixed piping system for ballast discharge to a reception facility

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49. After the discharge of Lube Oils, Lube Oil Additives, Phthalates and Olefins and before
the loading of "high-spec" cargoes on a chemical tanker, the test that might be expected
to produce unsatisfactory results during initial wall-wash analysis would be: -
Hydrocarbons
50. Battens are fitted in cargo holds across the frames of the vessel from the turn of the bilge
upward. The purpose of these cargo battens is
to prevent cargo from coming in contact with the vessel's frames or shell plating
51. Damage to cargo caused by dust is known as - Contamination
52. What part of the ship is shown by letter B ? - The hatch coaming
53. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you
should - place the heaviest woods in the lower holds
54. If a tank container of liquid ammonia is engulfed in fire, it is recommended:
To allow ventilation
55. What is the purpose of wheel A in this picture ?
To tip the hatch cover into a vertical position when opened
56. When fruit is carried as refrigerated cargo, the most frequent cause of its being infected
at the discharge port is - Improper cleaning of the cargo spaces
57. In discussing the properties of Noxious Liquid Substances, the criteria for defining
Threshold Limit Value (TLV) is:
The time-weighted concentration of a substance to which a worker may be repeatedly
exposed for a normal 8 hour working day and 40 hour week without adverse health
effects
58. In a collision, the impact on the shipside is transferred to the hatch cover by the
Side cleats
59. A claim for cargo damages may be held against the ship owner if such damage is the
result of failure of the ship's officers to
Ensure the fitness and safety of cargo spaces
60. When should a master agree to accept a bulk cargo of concentrates?
When he is fully satisfied that the actual moisture content of the cargo is less than the
Transportable Moisture Limit (TML)
61. Ballast holds on board general cargo ships and bulk carriers are used to
Carry ballast only during ballast passage in heavy weather
62. A bulk coal cargo is to be loaded and the moisture content is declared as 19 ; the
transportable moisture limit of the cargo is declared as 15, what should the Master do?

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 Refuse to load the cargo unless the vessel is specially designed for the carriage of cargo
which may liquefy
63. The most important consideration, in terms of stress, when planning stowage of
containers on a container vessel would be:
Distribution and weight of the containers
64. In this picture, what should be checked before closing the hatch cover, in order to make
sure that the hatch cover will make a watertight seal ?
That the rubber around the underneath of the cover is not missing
65. A container full of scrap metal is being loaded, and you sight water dripping from it. You
should: - Reject the container
66. A bulk cargo declaration shows that the iron ore to be loaded has an angle of repose of
45⁰; what does this indicate? - The cargo pile is stable and unlikely to shift
67. Containerised scrap metal fire is best extinguished by: - Smothering.
68. Although not required by the IMDG Code, on a container vessel, carrying Calcium
Hypochlorite under refrigeration is beneficial so as to:
Prevent the cargo temperature increasing into the danger zone
69. Carriage of wet scrap steel borings, turnings and swarf in containers is generally
considered dangerous, because: - It can spontaneously ignite
70. What part of the hatch cover is in circle A ? - A wedge type cleat
71. What is mean by bulk Grain cargoes have a low angle of repose? - Liable to shift
72. On a RoRo vessel, to what should you pay very close attention, when inspecting the
structure and condition of movable car decks?
Cracks in way of deck supports
73. Which is an example of cargo damage caused by inherent vice? - Heating of grain
74. MARPOL 73/78 defines 'solidifying substances' as:
A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting point of less
than 15 degree C which is at a temperature of less than 5⁰ C above its melting point at
the time of unloading, or in the case of a substance with a melting point equal to or
greater than 15⁰ C which is at a temperature of less than 10⁰ C above its melting point at
the time of unloading
75. Stack allowable weights on a container vessel should not be exceeded because this can
cause: - Failure of the corner posts of the containers stowed at the bottom of the stack
76. What is part C here ? - A hydraulic jack, for lifting the cover onto its trackway

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77. On a RoRo vessel, what additional securing arrangements should be used when loading
a vehicle on an incline or fixed Ramp -The Vehicle should also be chocked under its
wheels
78. You are to carry a cargo of Phenol across the North Atlantic in winter time. What
precaution will you take with the double bottom tank located under the cargo tank
containing the Phenol?
It should be empty, to avoid cold water contacted the structure around the product
because Phenol has a relatively high melting point
79. You have just loaded a cargo of Toluene on a chemical tanker and are about to clear the
lines into the ship. The one particular hazard that must be noted about this product would
be that
It is a static accumulator and settling time must be allowed before gauging
80. A P - H type Mollier diagram or chart is often used when dealing with LNG cargoes. What
is the main information that can be obtained from a Mollier diagram?
Information about the exact values of the pressure, density, specific volume and dryness
fraction of the vapour when both the enthalpy and temperature are known
81. LNG is one of the liquefied gases transported by sea. What is the IMO's definition of
liquefied gases?
Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +37.8 C and certain other
chemicals listed in the Gas Codes.
82. What is a typical composition of LNG (Arabian Gulf LNG)?
Methane 91% - Ethane 6% - Propane 3%
83. What is the relative liquid density of Methane? - 0.427
84. A number of substances are carried as cargoes on liquefied gas carriers. Of those given
in the options, which is the most reactive, and therefore least compatible, with other
liquefied gas cargoes? - Chlorine
85. The 'Critical Temperature' is important when dealing with liquefied gas cargoes. What is
the IMO Gas Codes' definition of the term 'Critical Temperature'?
It is the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied by pressure alone
86. The densities of most hydrocarbon gas mixtures which evolve from normal petroleum
products are greater than the density of air. What would be the approximate relative
density of a mixture of 50% by volume of air and propane relative to 100% air? - 1.25
87. What kind of damage is most likely when Ro-Ro cargoes come into contact with fuel oil
spilt/left on roro decks ? - Tyre and bodywork damages

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88. Where should a Ro-Ro unit that requires protection from heat and large temperature
variations be stowed?
Under-deck away from bulkheads, fuel tanks, heating coils and uninsulated machinery
89. When general cargo is damaged during heavy weather on a General Cargo vessel, it
must be ensured that the damage is inspected by the
Surveyor representing the vessel's P. & I. Club.
90. The ship‟s lifting plant must be proof load tested and all parts thoroughly examined at
intervals not exceeding - 5 year
91. The main purpose of a hatch cover ventilator grill on a General Cargo vessel is
To prevent sparks entering the cargo hold
92. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift derricks with the boom close to
horizontal could result in
Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system
93. On a General Cargo ship, the most likely cause of a hatch cover hydraulic system to
deteriorate would be
Due to dust and cargo particles lodged around the piston seals.
94. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne SWL heavy lift derrick and a load of 48 tonnes is
to be loaded. The lifting gear of slings and spreader bar weighs 4 tonnes. In this case, it
would be correct to state that:
The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the lifting gear
will exceed the SWL by two tonnes.
95. A five yearly thorough survey of cargo gear on a General Cargo vessel should be carried
out by - A classification society surveyor
96. If extensive repair to the superstructure has been carried out, it will affect the
Load line certificate
97. How often shall a survey for renewal of cargo ship safety construction certificate be
carried out? - Every fifth year with a periodical survey every 12. Month
98. Who should operate ships' ramps, car platforms, retractable car decks and similar
equipment?
Only competent persons authorised by a responsible ships' officer, in accordance with
the company's work instructions.
99. When there is doubt about the freshness of the atmosphere in ro-ro cargo spaces, what
action should be taken?

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 Arrangements should be made for testing of the atmosphere to ensure maintenance of
21% oxygen and a carbon monoxide content below 50 ppm in the atmosphere of the
space
100. What type of cargo shall always be secured?
Freight vehicles carrying dangerous goods and adjacent vehicles should always be
secured
101. What is the procedure if a tank lorry containing dangerous goods is not clearly marked?
Ask the driver to write a declaration of contents and load the vehicle
102. Which of the given options is the approximate value of the flammable range for Methane
measured as a percentage volume in air? - 5.3 - 14.0% by volume
103. A petroleum product is considered “Non-Volatile” when
With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C or above (closed cup method), these liquids produce,
when at any normal ambient temperature, equilibrium gas concentrations below the
Lower Flammable Limit
104. At which of the following concentrations of Hydrogen Sulphide would dizziness,
headache, nausea, etc. Occur within 15 minutes of exposure, followed by loss of
consciousness and possibly death, after 30-60 minutes of exposure? - 500-700 ppm
105. Besides danger of vapour inhalation by crew members, if Hydrogen Sulphide is present
in high concentrations in crude oil, it can also cause - corrosion
106. When carrying out oil cargo calculations, the relationship between absolute and gauge
pressure is
Absolute pressure = gauge pressure + barometric pressure
107. When referring to crude oil petroleum products, “volatility” means
Their tendency to produce gas
108. When describing the characteristics of oil cargoes or oil/water slops, a „mercaptan” is
A colourless, odorous gas, with a smell similar to rotting cabbage and which is generated
naturally by the degredation of natural organisms, as may be found where water has
remained under oil for a long time
109. What is meant by the term “segregation” ?
The planned, separated stowage of cargoes that may react dangerously with each other
in the event of leakage or other damage

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 Tambahan Soal UKP
1. Lines which shall follow for the ships to entering or outer an area : Leading lines.
2. What should you apply to a fathometer reading to determine the depth of water?
Add the draft of the vessel.
3. A chart with a natural scale of 1:160,000 is classified as a : General chart
4. Tropic tides are caused by the : Moon being at its maximum declination
5. In REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the port side of
a channel would be marked by a : Red can buoy
6. A pilot chart does NOT contain information about : Tidal currents
7. All of the following can be found on a Pilot Chart except information concerning the :
Amounts of precipitation
8. If you were sailing in the North Pacific and were interested in the ice and iceberg limits,
you could find this information in the : Pilot Chart
9. A traffic separation zone is that part of a traffic separation scheme which : Separates
traffic proceeding in one direction from traffic proceeding in the opposite direction
10. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall : Avoid crossing traffic lanes, but if
obliged to do so, shall cross on as small an angle as is practical
11. The date is the same all over the world at : 1200 GMT
12. The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If you are
on the central meridian of your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your meridian at:
11-51-20 ZT
13. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a three
dimensional fix that takes into account altitude? 4
14. The true wind is from 330°T, speed 6 knots. You want the apparent wind to be 30 knots
from 10° on your port bow. To what course and speed must you change? Cn 090°, 32.5
knots
15. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar : Can use radar information from one
object to fix the position
16. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from : Fixed known objects on the shore
17. The Decca green zone has : 18 lanes
18. A vertical sextant angle gives : The height of a bridge above sea level
19. The SHA of star "VEGA" to the nearest minute is : 80⁰ 47'
20. The LHA of the body when on the observer's meridian is : 360⁰
21. Your DR latitude is 10⁰ S. A body whose declination in 20⁰ S when setting makes an
angle of 30⁰ At the observer's zenith. What is its azimuth? 330⁰

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22. A fixed quantity of Mercury will weigh more at : 30⁰ N Latitude
23. When the equation of time is taken from the Nautical Almanac for use in celestial
navigation, it is used to determine : Time of local apparent noon 115. 90°- Ho = . Zenith
distance
24. A line of position derived by radar range from an identified point on a coast will be a(n)
Arc
25. The small circle of the celestial sphere parallel to the celestial equator, and transcribed
by the daily motion of the body, is called the : Parallel of declination
26. With regard to GPS, a civilian receiver may be capable of achieving the same accuracy
as a military receiver if : Selective availability is set to zero
27. In the celestial equator system of coordinates, what is comparable to latitude on the
terrestrial sphere? Declination
28. A line of position formed by sighting two charted objects in line is called a(n) : Range line
29. At about GMT 1436, on 3 December 1981, the lower limb of the Moon is observed with a
sextant having an index error of 2.5' on the ar The height of eye is 32 feet. The sextant
altitude (hs) is 3°38.8'. What is the observed altitude (Ho) : 4°29.1'
30. On 21 January 1981, you observe a back sight of the Sun's lower lim The sextant altitude
(hs) is 121°31.5'. The index error is 2.5' on the ar The he ight of eye is 31 feet (9.3
meters). What is the observed altitude (Ho)? 58°53.1'
31. What great circle is always needed to form the astronomical triangle? Celestial Meridian
32. On 16 January 1981, you take a sight of a star. The sextant altitude (hs) is 4°33.0'. The
tempera ture is - 10°C, and the barometer reads 992 millibars. The he ight of eye is 42
feet. The index error is 1.9' off the ar What is the observed altitude (Ho)? 4°17.0'
33. To measure distance on a Mercator chart between the parallels of LAT 34°30'N and LAT
31°30'N, whi ch 30 mile scale should be used? 32°45'N to 33°15'N
34. Radar makes the most accurate determination of the : Distance to a target
35. You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they intersect in a triangle. The actual
position of the vessel . May be inside or outside of the triangle 139. The magnitude of
three stars is indicate Which star is the brightest? Altair + 0.9 140. Concerning a celestial
observation, the azimuth angle is measured from the principal vertical circle to the
Vertical circle of the body
36. You are on course 238°T. To check the course o f your vessel you should observe a
celestial body on which bearing? 328°
37. A line connecting all possible positions of your vessel at any given time is a :
Line of position

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38. When using GPS without Selective Availability, you may expect your horizontal accuracy
to be better than : 20 meters
39. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent
to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability? Selective Availability
40. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by :
DGPS, within a coverage area
41. Which statement about gyrocompass error is TRUE? The sign (E or W) of the error will
change with different headings of the ship.
42. To find a magnetic course from a true course you must apply : Variation
43. Magnetic information on a chart may be : All of the above
44. The earth„s magnetic field is : The only force effecting a magnetic compass
45. While your vessel is proceeding down a channel you notice a range of ligths in line with
your mast. If your vessel on a course of 001° per gyro compass and the charted value of
the range of lights is 359°T, wh at is the gyro error ? 2°W
46. Your vessel is proceeding up a channel, and you see a pair of range lights that are in line
ahea The chart indicates that the direction of this pair of lights is 311° T, and the variation
is 8° E. If the headi ng of your vessel at the time of sighting is 305°PSC, what is the
correct deviation ? 2°W
47. You are heading 328° PGC to make good a course of 332° T, correcting for 3° of leeway
due to southwesterly winds and 1° E gyro error. If the var iation is 17° E, what should the
heading be to make good 332°T. If you were steering by magnetic compas s ?
DEVIATION TABLE 315°MAGNETIC HEADING DEVIATION
48. You are swinging ship to determine the residual deviation by comparing the magnetic
compass against the gyrocompass. The gyro error is 2°W. The variat ion is 8°W. After
completing the swinging you have the following readings : HEADING PSC - PGC
HEADING PSC - PGC HEADING PSC - PGC 358.5°- 354° 122.5°-114° 239.5°-234°
030.5°- 024° 152.0°-144° 269.0°-264° What is the deviation on a true heading of 157°?
0°
49. Your vessel is steering course 216°psc, variat ion for the area is 9°W, and the deviation
is 2°E . The wind is from the east, proceeding a 5° leeway. What true course are you
making good ? 343°
50. Your ship is proceeding on course 320°T at a s peed of 25 knots. The apparent wind is
from 30° off the starboard bow, speed 32 knots. What is the relative direction, true
direction and speed of the true wind? Relative 80°true 040°T, 16.2 knots.
51. You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the :

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 VHF-FM service
52. While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a
continuous listening watch on channel : 16 (156.8 mhz)
53. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your
vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to : Search for survivors
54. You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels involved in a collision.
What will your actions be following the collision? Make sure your vessel + crew are safe
and then offer your assistance to the other vessel
55. Which statement is TRUE concerning narrow channels? You should avoid anchoring in a
narrow channel.
56. You are crossing the course of another vessel which is to your starboard. You have
reached an agreement by radiotelephone to pass astern of the other vessel. You must:
None of the above
57. Vessels "A" and "B" are meeting on a river as shown and will pass about 1/4 mile apart.
Which statement is TRUE? The vessels should exchange two blast whistle signals and
pass starboard to starboard.
58. IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the starboard
side of a channel would be marked by a : Green conical buoy
59. The most common form of solid precipitation is ? Snow
60. The dew point is the temperature at which the rate of condensation :
Equals the rate of evaporation.
61. Continental polar, maritime polar, continental tropical, and maritime tropical are types of
air masses.
62. Weather map symbols H and L indicate : air pressure centers.
63. Fog differs from clouds in that fog forms closer to : the ground
64. Which of the following is not one of the three properties used by meteorologists to
classify : clouds. Cloud, Composition
65. Which condition exists at the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere? The
Southern Hemisphere is having winter
66. Uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large portions of the sky, and are
responsible for a large percentage of the precipitation in the temperate latitudes, are
called : Altostratus
67. The circulation around a low pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is
Counterclockwise
68. Recurvature of a hurricane's track usually results in the forward speed : Increasing

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69. All of the following are associated with cumulonimbus clouds EXCEPT : Steady rainfall
70. In the Northern Hemisphere, an area of counterclockwise wind circulation surrounded by
higher pressure is a : Low
71. Clouds that form as small white flakes or scaly globular masses covering either small or
large portions of the sky are : Cirrocumulus
72. The wind circulation around a high pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is .
Clockwise and moving outward from the high
73. A thin, whitish, high cloud popularly known as "mares' tails" is : Cirrus
74. Good weather is usually associated with a region of . High barometric pressure
75. Warm air masses will generally have : Stratiform clouds
76. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn of over 360 degrees is the path followed by
the : Center of gravity
77. The distance a vessel moves parallel to the original course from the point where the
rudder is put over to any point on the turning circle is called the : Advance
78. The pivoting point of a vessel going ahead is :
About one-third of the vessel's length from the bow
79. As a ship moves through the water, it drags with it a body of water called the wake. The
ratio of the wake speed to the ship's speed is called : Wake fraction
80. A vessel is equipped with a single right-handed screw. With rudder amidships and calm
wind, the vessel will most likely back : To port
81. When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is
About one-quarter of the vessel's length from the stern.
82. You are aboard a right-handed single-screw vessel with headway on. The engine is put
full astern and the rudder hard left. What will the bow do? It will swing to the left,
straighten out and then swing to the right as the vessel loses way.
83. You are maneuvering a vessel with a right-hand propeller. The rudder is amidships. The
vessel will generally back : To port
84. The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force of the
sea is known as : Heave
85. The direction a vessel is pointed at any given time is the : Heading
86. Fetch is the : Stretch of water over which a wave-forming wind blows
87. On mid-ocean waters, the height of a wind-generated wave is not affected by the
Water depth exceeding 100 feet
88. When steering a tow downstream around the shape of a sand bar, and staying on the
proper side of the buoys, an operator should be cautious of : Eddies under the bar

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89. Where is the pivot point of a towboat with a tow ahead? One-third the length of the
combined unit back from the head
90. A towboat has the same draft as the barges it is pushing ahead If the distance from the
stern of the towboat to the head of the tow is 800 feet, where is the approximate location
of the pivot point of the unit? 250 feet from the head of the tow.
91. The direction in which a vessel should be steered between two points is the : Course
92. The type of current which will have the greatest effect on the course made good for your
vessel is : One that flows at nearly right angles to your course steered.
93. The speed of an ocean current is dependent on . The density of the water
94. Which statement about a tunnel bow thruster is TRUE? It provides lateral control without
affecting headway.
95. When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, the pivot point tends to:
Move forward
96. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees is the path followed by the
Center of gravity
97. Which shallow water effect will increase dramatically if you increase your ship's speed
past its "critical speed"? Squatting
98. The measurement of the amount of force a towing vessel is capable of applying to a
motionless tow is called : Bollard pull
99. The International Rules of the Road apply Upon the high seas and connecting waters
navigable by : seagoing vessels
100. You are approaching another vessel and will pass safely starboard to starboard without
changing course. You should : Hold course and sound no whistle signal
101. To indicate that a vessel is constrained by her draft, a vessel may display, in a vertical
line : Three 360°red lights
102. You are underway on the high seas in restricted visibility. You hear a fog signal of one
prolonged and two short blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a vessel
Being towed
103. In a narrow channel, a signal of intent which must be answered by the other vessel, is
sounded by a vessel : Overtaking another
104. When two vessels are in sight of one another, all of the following signals may be given
EXCEPT : Four short whistle blasts
105. A power-driven vessel leaving a quay or wharf must sound what signal?
No signal is require

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106. In a narrow channel, a vessel trying to overtake another on the other vessel's port side,
would sound a whistle signal of : Two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts
107. Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot should be
supervised by: A responsible Officer
108. When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with a paper chart, what
Chart Datum should be selected? Select WGS84 and when plotting on the chart apply
the stated corrections.
109. While navigating using a paper chart marked WGS84 the OOW plots the ships position
by four different methods and they all give slightly different positions. Which of the
following would be considered the most accurate.:
Radar ranges from two radar distinctive headlands
110. If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS, it must display the minimum data required by
IMO/IHO, to include all of the following EXCEPT : Tidal currents
111. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include : Vector and raster
112. Raster-scan chart data is : A digitized "picture" of a chart in one format and one layer
113. The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the electronic navigational chart
(ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use, (2) the updates to the ENC by appropriate means,
and (3) the additional data added by the mariner, is called the :
System electronic navigational chart
114. The level of database information which cannot be removed from the ECDIS display and
consists of information which is required at all times in all geographic areas and under all
circumstances is the : Display base information
115. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases? All of the above
116. Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from
several satellites simultaneously? Continuous
117. Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites does a GPS
receiver need in order to provide an exact three-dimensional position? Four
118. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have beenin a
collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What wouldyou do?
Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors
119. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall : Turn off her sidelights when not
making way
120. A power-driven vessel at anchor, not fishing or otherwise restricted in its ability to
maneuver, sounds her fog signal at intervals of not : More than one minute

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121. You are underway in reduced visibility. You hear the fog signal of another vessel about
20° on yo ur starboard bow. Risk of collision may exist. You should :
Reduce your speed to bare steerageway
122. You are approaching a bend in a channel. You cannot see around the bend because of
the height of the bank. You should . Sound a whistle blast of 4 to 6 seconds duration
123. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel of 150 meters in length, at anchor?
She must show all-round white lights forward and aft.
124. Which vessel would be required to show a white light from a lantern exhibited in sufficient
time to prevent collision? A rowboat
125. Barges being towed at night : Must be lighted at all times
126. You sight another power-driven vessel dead-ahead showing both the red and
greensidelights. The required action to take would be to : Alter your course to starboard
127. You are underway in fog and hear one short, one prolonged, and one short blast
insuccession. What is the meaning of this signal?
A vessel is at anchor, warning of her position.
128. An anchored vessel on pilotage duty must show which light(s) at night? A white light over
a red light and anchor lights
129. A vessel which is fishing is required to show sidelights and a stern light only when
Underway and making way
130. What is a requirement for any action taken to avoid collision? The action must be positive
and made in ample time.
131. In the daytime, you see a large sailing vessel on the beam. You know that she is also
propelled by machinery if she shows: A black cone
132. Your power-driven vessel is stopped and making no way, but is not in any way disable
Another vessel is approaching you on your starboard beam. Which statement is TRUE?
Your vessel is the give-way vessel in a crossing situation.
133. For identification purposes at night, U.S. Navy submarines on the surface may display an
intermittent flashing light of which color? Amber (yellow)
134. Vessels engaged in fishing may show the additional signals described in Annex II to the
Rules when they are : In close proximity to other vessels engaged in fishing
135. Which vessel must show a masthead light abaft of and higher than her identifyinglights? .
55-meter vessel trawling
136. The lights required by the Rules must be shown: From sunrise to sunset in restricted
visibility
137. A lantern combining the sidelights and stern light MAY be shown on

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 6-meter vessel under oars
138. A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels maybe
hidden by an obstruction shall : Sound a prolonged blast
139. You are approaching a vessel dredging during the day and see two balls in a vertical line
on the port side of the dredge. These shapes mean that : There is an obstruction on the
port side of the dredge

140. Which statement is TRUE concerning the light used to accompany whistle signals?
It is used to supplement short blasts of the whistle.
141. Which vessel must sound her fog signal at intervals not to exceed one minute?
A vessel aground
142. By day, you sight a vessel displaying three shapes in a vertical line. The top and bottom
shapes are balls, and the middle shape is a diamon It could be a
Vessel engaged in replenishment at sea
143. You are heading due east (090°) and observe a vessel's red sidelight on your port beam.
The vessel may be heading : Southwest (225°)
144. Which vessel is, by definition, unable to keep out of the way of another vessel?
Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
145. Which vessel must exhibit forward and after masthead lights when underway?
All of the above
146. As defined in the Rules, a towing light is a yellow light having the same characteristics as
a(n) : Stern light
147. A vessel underway and making way in fog shall sound every two minutes
One prolonged blast
148. When anchoring a 20-meter vessel at night, you must show : One all-round white light
149. According to the Navigation Rules, all of the following are engaged in fishing EXCEPT a
vessel : Trawling
150. When a vessel sounds three short blasts on the whistle, this indicates that
Her engines are going astern
151. A vessel is overtaking when she approaches another from more than how many degrees
abaft the beam? 22.5°
152. What equipment for fog signals is required for a vessel 20 meters in length?
Whistle and bell only
153. Sailing vessels are stand-on over power-driven vessels except
When they are the overtaking vessel.

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154. Which statement is TRUE concerning risk of collision? Proper use shall be made of radar
equipment to determine risk of collision.
155. You are fishing at night, and you sight a vessel showing three lights in a vertical line. The
upper and lower lights are red and the middle light is white. Which statement is TRUE?
You must keep out of the way of the other vessel.
156. Which statement is TRUE concerning a partly submerged vessel being towed?
A diamond shape will be carried at the aftermost extremity of the tow
157. Your vessel enters fog. You stop your engines, and the vessel is dead in the water.
Two prolonged blasts every two minutes
158. The term "power-driven vessel" refers to any vessel : With propelling machinery in use
159. In which situation do the Rules require both vessels to change course? Two power-driven
vessels meeting head-on
160. A vessel towing where the tow prevents her from changing course shall carry: The lights
for a towing vessel and the lights for a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
161. Which statement is TRUE concerning the danger signal? May be supplemented by an
appropriate light signal
162. If a sailing vessel with the wind on the port side sees a sailing vessel to windward and
cannot tell whether the other vessel has the wind on the port or starboard side, she shall .
Keep out of the way of the other vessel
163. Vessel "A" is on course 000°T. Vessel "B" is o n a course such that she is involvedin a
head-on situation and is bearing 355°T, 2 miles away from vessel "A". Toensure a safe
passing, vessel "A" should : Maneuver to ensure a port to port passing
164. What is a vessel "restricted in her ability to maneuver"? A vessel towing unable to deviate
from her course
165. All of the following are distress signals under the Rules EXCEPT
A green star signal
166. The Rules state that vessels may depart from the Rules when : Necessary to avoid
immediate danger
167. A vessel is towing and carrying the required lights on the masthea What is the visibility
arc of these lights? 225.0°
168. Which situation would be a "special circumstance" under the Rules?
More than two vessels meeting
169. You are approaching another vessel on crossing courses. She is approximately half a
mile distant and is presently on your starboard bow. You believe she will cross ahead of
you. She then sounds a whistle signal of five short blasts. You should :

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 Make a large course change, accompanied by the appropriate whistle signal, and slow
down if necessary
170. You are approaching another vessel and are not sure whether danger of collision exists.
You must assume : There is risk of collision
171. What is the minimum sound signaling equipment required aboard a vessel 10 meters in
length? Any means of making an efficient sound signal
172. Which statement is TRUE regarding equipment for sound signals? Manual sounding of
the bell and gong must always be possible.
173. Which statement concerning an overtaking situation is correct? The overtaking vessel
must keep out of the way of the other
174. The Rules state that a vessel overtaking another vessel is relieved of her duty to keep
clear when : She is past and clear of the other vessel
175. Which statement is TRUE concerning fog signals? A vessel aground may sound a
whistle signal.
176. Which day-shape would a vessel aground show during daylight? Three black balls
177. Which vessel must have a gong, or other equipment which will make the sound of
agong? Any vessel over 100 meters
178. A sailing vessel is proceeding along a narrow channel and can safely navigate ONLY
inside the channel. The sailing vessel approaches a vessel engaged in fishing. Which
statement is TRUE? The fishing vessel is directed not to impede the passage of the
sailing vessel.
179. Rule 14 describes the action to be taken by vessels meeting head-on. Which of
thefollowing conditions must exist in order for this rule to apply? All of the above
180. Day-shapes MUST be shown : During daylight hours
181. The stern light shall be positioned such that it will show from dead astern to how many
degrees on each side of the stern of the vessel? 67.5°
182. During a normal voyage heat is transferred to the LNG cargo through the cargo tank
insulation which causes some boil off of the cargo. This boil off changes the composition
of the LNG as more of the lighter components will vaporise. Which component of the
LNG cargo is likely to have a lower than original percentage on arrival at the discharge
port? Methane.
183. LNG is often considered as an ideal gas when looking at the physical properties and
characteristics. With reference to the physical properties of gas mixtures which of the
given options is the SIGTTO definition of the term 'mole'? The mass that is numerically
equal to the molecular mass.

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184. An important physical property of LNG is the saturation vapour pressure. What is the IMO
definition of the term "saturated vapour pressure"? The pressure at which a vapour is
inequilibrium with its liquid at a specified temperature.
185. Ethylene is normally carried on fully refrigerated liquefied gas carriers at its atmospheric
boiling point. What is the approximate atmospheric boiling point of ethylene? Minus 104
degrees C
186. Hydrate formation may be a problem with some LPG cargoes. The hydrates may enter
cargo pumps, block lubricating passages, unbalance impellers and seize bearings. What
is the most common practice to prevent such problems? Inject a small quantity of
freezing-point depressant into the pump.
187. Polymerisation may be a problem with some liquefied gas cargoes such as vinyl chloride
and ethylene oxide. What is the definition of polymerisation? Polymerisation is when
single molecules of the same compound join together to form a new compound usually
with a higher viscosity.
188. supply? LPG vapour is heavier than air at atmospheric conditions and represent a risk as
they may accumulate in machinery spaces.
189. When butadiene is carried as a liquid gas cargo it usually has inhibitors added. One
reason for this is to minimise the formation of polymers. What is the other reason for
adding inhibitors to this particular cargo? To scavenge any oxygen that may be present
to prevent peroxide formation
190. Which publication contains detailed information, in the form of material safety data
sheets, relating to the chemical and physical properties and associated hazards of the
most commonly transported liquefied gases, including LPG? The ICS Tanker Safety
Guide (Liquefied Gases)
191. Why must inert gas from a combustion-type generator never be used when preparing the
cargo tanks of a liquefied gas carrier for a cargo of ammonia? Because inert gas from
this type of generator contains carbon dioxide which reacts with ammonia to form
carbamates.
192. When preparing the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier for loading it is important to consider
the dew point of the vapour mixtures present in the tank. What is the definition of the
"dew point" of a vapour mixture containing water vapour? The dew point is the
temperature at which the water vapour begins to condense as the temperature
decreases.
193. Anti-static additives are used to treat fuel oil cargoes so as to: Ensure they become non-
accumulator of static charge.

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194. The approximate API gravity of Arabian Light Crude is: 33 degrees.
195. The approximate density ratio of undiluted gas, in relation to air, from a typical crude oil
is: 1.5 times that of the air.
196. The name given to compounds consisting solely of carbon and hydrogen atoms joined
together by single bonds is: Saturated hydrocarbons.
197. The Vapour Pressure of crude oils is determined by the: The Reid Closed Test method.
198. When an inhibitor is added to an oil cargo, the items mentioned on the accompanying
certificate include: Inhibitor name; amount added; date added; period of efficiency;
precautions if voyage length exceeds that period; eventual temperature limitation
199. When carrying certain cargoes (e.g. Aviation Turbine Oils) it is important to carefully
monitor ship„s tanks during passage, because these cargoes can: Release oxygen,
which they may have absorbed during the refining process, into the ullage spaces of
ship„s cargo tanks
200. Which of the following type of crude oil requires special consideration in terms of carriage
and cleaning? Paraffinic Crude
201. With reference to chemistry of petroleum cargoes, if 'Alkanes' are saturated
hydrocarbons, then unsaturated hydrocarbons are: Alkenes.
202. With reference to oil cargo characteristics, ‗cloud point„ is: The temperature at which a
liquid hydrocarbon begins to congeal and take on a cloudy appearance, due to the
bonding of constituent paraffin compounds.
203. With reference to oil cargoes, their wax content is generally referred to as:
The percentage of paraffinic wax by volume, based on a representative sample of the
crude oil.
204. At what latest time shall doors, side scuttles, gangway doors, cargo- and coaling ports
and other openings which are to be kept closed watertight at sea be closed at the start of
the voyage? Before leaving the port
205. Cross-flooding fittings shall be operable from: Above the bulkhead deck
206. How often shall watertight doors in main transverse bulkheads which is in use at sea be
operated (tested)? Daily
207. In which cases shall side scuttles in passenger ships be so constructed that they cannot
be opened without the consent of the master of the ship? Where the sills of the side
scuttles are below the margin line
208. Is there any requirements regarding double bottom for large passenger ships? Yes, in
ship of 76 m in length and upwards, a double bottom shall be fitted amidships, and shall
extend to the fore and after peak bulkheads, or as near thereto as practicable.

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209. When are power-operated watertight sliding doors (class 3 doors) compulsory for all
watertight doors aboard passenger ships? Where the ship has passenger spaces below
the bulkhead deck
210. When there is doubt about the freshness of the atmosphere in enclosed or confined
spaces, what action should be taken? Arrangements should be made for testing of the
atmosphere to ensure maintenance of 21% oxygen and a carbon monoxide content
below 50 ppm in the atmosphere of the space
211. Tonnage tax is officially based upon the figures obtained from the
Admeasurement Certificate
212. A person is found operating a vessel while under the influence of alcohol. He/she is liable
for . a civil penalty of not more than $5,000
213. To "ease" a line means to : pay out line to remove most of the tension
214. A person is found operating a vessel while intoxicated. He/she is liable for a civil penalty
of not more than $5,000
215. While moving ahead, a twin-screw ship has an advantage over a single-screw ship
because : side forces will be eliminated
216. When inspecting wire rope that has been in use for some time, one must look for
All of the above
217. On a vessel proceeding from a very cold to a warm climate with a cargo of a
nonhygroscopic nature in the holds, which is TRUE? There is danger of heavy cargo
sweat if outside air is introduced by ventilation.
218. A cargo of 10,000 barrels of gasoline is loaded at a temperature of 90°F, and a cargo
temperature of 5°F, is expected on this voyage. It has a coefficient of expansion of .0006.
How many barrels would you expect to discharge at your destination? 9790
219. In handling break bulk hazardous materials, it is forbidden to use : metal bale hooks
220. An International Tonnage Certificate will be issued to a vessel when it meets several
requirements, one of which is that the vessel must : be 79 or more feet in length
221. Which method should be used to secure a synthetic fiber line to two bitts? Two round
turns on the bitt closest to the strain and then figure eights
222. When securing a synthetic line to a bitt what is the minimum number of round turns you
should take before figure-eighting the line? 2
223. Faking a line means to : arrange it on deck in long bights
224. You are stopped with no way upon your vessel at the pilot station. Your vessel is a large
twin-screw ship. You must come around 180° to board your Pilot. How should you use

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 the engines and rudder to turn the ship fastest in the least amount of space? Half ahead
with hard over rudder, then full astern on inboard engine
225. What is the greatest danger of an overriding tow? Collision between the tow and the
stern of the towing vessel
226. Your vessel is going from a warm climate to a cold climate with a hygroscopic cargo.
Which statement is TRUE? You must ventilate constantly and vigorously to combat ship
sweat
227. A tank is loaded with 9,000 barrels of gasoline. The temperature of the product is 90°F
(32°C), a nd it has a coefficient of expansion of .0008. What is the net amount of cargo
loaded? 8784 bbls
228. On a manned vessel carrying packaged hazardous cargo, the hazardous materials shall
be inspected : All of the above
229. Official proof of an American vessel's nationality is contained in the
Certificate of Documentation
230. A licensed Master of Towing Vessels may NOT serve as the person in charge of which
towing vessel? 405 GRT towing vessel operating between Florida and the US Virgin
Islands
231. When a tow is trimmed by the stern it is said to . Drag
232. To "belay" a line means to : secure it to a
233. The amount of force a tug can exert on a stationary pull is called its : bollard pull
234. The rudders are amidships and both screws are going ahead. What will happen if the
starboard screw is stopped? The bow will go to starboard
235. Prior to getting underway in fresh or brackish water, the Master must :
log the density of the water
236. Your vessel is loaded with nonhygroscopic cargoes and is going from a cold to a warm
climate. You should : not ventilate the cargo holds
237. When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST action you should take if a cargo valve
jammed open? Order the dock man to shut down.
238. If a Master must jettison a container loaded with hazardous material, he must, as soon as
possible, notify the : nearest Captain of the Port
239. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown. Use the salmon colored pages in the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral : 91.40 numeral
240. A metal object on the pier resembling a tree stump and made to receive mooring lines is
a : Bollard
241. Where are the towing bitts best placed for towing purposes?

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 Forward of the rudder post and close to the tug's center of pivot
242. A twin-screw vessel can clear the inboard propeller and maneuver off a pier best by
holding a(n) : forward spring line and going slow ahead on the outboard engine
243. One reason a tug's towing bitts are located forward of the rudders is because :
this allows more responsive steering
244. Hygroscopic cargoes should be ventilated when : going from a warm to a cold climate
245. Once a vessel has loaded packaged hazardous cargo, the cargo spaces shall be
inspected. The spaces shall also be inspected at least once in every 24 hours. The only
exception to daily inspection is when : a vessel is equipped with an automatic smoke or
fire detecting system
246. What is official proof of a vessel's ownership? Certificate of Documentation
247. Where should the foundation supports for towing bitts terminate? In the frames or other
substantial structural members below decks
248. What purpose does a tow hook serve? To quickly connect or release the towing hawser
249. A rope ladder with wooden rungs is a : Jacob's ladder
250. A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is:
transversely framed
251. You are conning a twin-screw vessel going ahead with rudders amidships. If the port
screw stops turning the bow will : go to port
252. You are the operator of an uninspected diesel towing vessel of 190 GT operating on a
regular run from New York to the Gulf of Mexico. Which statement is TRUE? All crew
members must have Merchant Mariner's Documents.
253. Sweat damage will occur in a cargo hold containing cased machinery when the . dew
point of the hold is higher than the temperature of the ship's skin
254. Petroleum cargo tanks should not be topped off at deck level when loading on a cold day
because : a subsequent temperature rise will cause the cargo to overflow
255. When stowing hazardous materials on deck, lashing of such cargo is permitted if
the lashings are secured to deck pad eyes
256. Where is the best location to install a towing hook? Just aft of amidships
257. The safe working load (SWL) of wire rope with a safety factor of 6 is what percent of its
strength? 17%
258. A tow span : All of the above
259. The static bollard pull of a tug is measured in tons and consists of the brake horsepower
of the tug's engine divided by 100 and multiplied by a factor of : 1.3

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260. During the course of a voyage, a seaman falls on the main deck and injures his ankle.
The Master should submit a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death if the
injured is incapacitated
261. A stopper used in securing the ground tackle for sea that consists of a grab attached to a
turnbuckle is : a devil's claw
262. Considering manning requirements for US flag vessels, your 2 watch cargo vessel has a
deck crew of 20 people, exclusive of officers. How many of these people do the manning
regulations require to be able seamen? 10
263. Which of the following describes the term couple? Two equal forces acting on a body in
opposite directions along the centerline of the Vessel
264. Which motion of the vessel does a ship„s officer most easily control through transverse
stability stowage? Swaying
265. In the diagram on the right, which of the following represents the righting arm? GZ
266. In the diagram onthe right, the distance between the points B and M is known as:
Metacentric Height
267. Which of the following is true of a vessel in a neutral stability condition? G is below M
268. An inclination of a vessel due to negative stability is known as : Angle of Loll
269. The geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is:
the center of Buoyancy
270. The ratio of the volume of displacement to a block having length, breadth and draft of the
vessel Is known as the vessel’s : Area of the water plane
271. Morrish„s Formula is used to determine :. Metacentric Height
272. Which of the following best describes the moment of inertia about the longitudinal axis?
The measure of a ship„s resistance to heaving.
273. At large angles of inclination, the transverse metacenter will :
Remain fixed on the transverse centerline.
274. On the attached hydrostatic curves, what is the value of KM when the draft is 18 feet?
9.5 feet
275. Which of the following is true of synchronous rolling? It occurs when the natural rolling of
the vessel is the same as the ocean wave period.
276. The point at which all vertically downward forces of weight are considered to be
concentrated is the : Metacenter
277. When a cargo with a KG above the KG of the vessel is discharged, the vessel„s center of
gravity will : Move downward
278. One long ton is equivalent to : 2000 pounds

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279. vessel with a GM of 4 feet is inclined to 10 degrees, What is the value of the righting
arm? 2.3 feet
280. If a vessel is inclined due to an external force, assuming that weight on the vessel remain
fixed, you would expect : G and B to both move
281. The metacentric height of a vessel is the distance from: The keel to the metacenter
282. What measures the stability of a vessel at all angles of inclination? The righting moment
283. The number of long tons necessary to change the mean draft of a vessel 1 inch is known
as the : Moment to trim 1 inch
284. Which of the following is a characteristic of a ―stiff ship : A small GM
285. Are there any exceptions from OPA-90 : Yes, transit passage through US waters to a non
US port
286. For a ship operating or calling in US waters, COTP can request (OPA-90)
Unannounced drills at any time
287. In case of pollution in US waters, do you always have to notify the National Response
Center (OPA-90) : Yes, within thirty (30) minutes
288. In relation ot OPA 90, Which of the following statement is correct?
COTP-zones may have additional rules and regulations
289. OPA-90 is referring to a Qualified Individual (QI) : QI is an authorised individual, situated
in the US, and contracted by the owner or operator of the vessel
290. What is the top priority if an incident occurs in US waters (OPA-90)
Safety of ship and crew
291. Where is the Safety Certificates for ships to be kept? In the Captain's office
292. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and a selected
pitch angle of 1.5 degrees is used to perform a bottom wash with a vertical angle from 40
degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5 cycles (3 passes). If the throughput of the machine at
design pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the washing time and quantity of crude oil
required? 40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil
293. During oil spill clean up, booming strategies are most effective to contain spills in :
Rough weather conditions in open sea.
294. What is meant by culture is - A developed way of life belonging to a group of people
295. What is meant by excellent service? All answers are correct.
296. The aim of excellent service is ? All ansewrs are correct
297. Describe the standard of excellent service ? All answers are correct
298. In addition to the equipment above, other work equipment that is often used on ships :
All answers are correct

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299. What is the safety culture ? All answers are correct
300. What is the result of that safety culture ? All answers are correct
301. What is the strategy for implementing of service security of safety culture ? All answers
are correct
302. The main factors of accidents are ? ( 80% Human factor, 10% Technical, 10% Weather
condition) All answer are correct
303. The most basic characteristic that a leader should have is : Honest
304. The signals used in distress communications to call for help at sea are as follows :
Mayday, Mayday, Mayday
305. Since what years should ships over 500 GRT implement the ISM Code system ? 2002
306. The objectives of company safety management include : create protection against all
types of risks
307. All companies have a responsiblity to ensure healt and safety of work :
Safety of workplace and environment
308. One of the personal protective equipment for head protection is ? Helmet
309. Body and limbs protective equipments are ? All answers are correct
310. The factors which cause of work accidents are ? All answers are correct
311. RI law No. 1 year 1970 articles: 12b and 12c states that : All answers are correct
312. Maritime safety and security are : The condition of fulfilling safety and security
requirements concerning transportation in waters, ports and the maritime environment
313. Regulations related to health aspects and occupational safety (British standard) are : All
answers are correct
314. The ISM Code requires the management of enterprise safety objectives : All answers are
correct
315. All companies have the responsibility to ensure occupational health and safety : All
answers are correct
316. The purposes of safety culture are : All answers are correct
317. The goals of general occupational health and safety regulations are : All answers are
correct
318. The parties involved in occupational health and safety are : All answers are correct
319. Every crew member must undergo basic safety training (BST) which includes training :
All answers are correct
320. The special purpose of K-3 is : Prevention reduces the rate of accidents and their
consequences

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321. Before boarding the ship, sailors must be given safety induction material, is : All answers
are correct
322. Who is responsible for maritime safety and security? All answers are corret
323. When a ship collision occurs at sea, the person responsible for the ship accident is : All
answers are correct
324. The port control carries out security and order duties according to shipping law no 17 of
2008 : All answers are correct
325. Article 117 of Law No. 17 of 2008 concerning shipping regulates : All answers are correct
326. Factors that support the realization of ship safety and sustainability of the marine
environment is : All answers are correct
327. The basic law of maritime safety is : All answers are correct
328. The shipping is a unified system consisting of : All answers are correct
329. The safety and security of transportation in waters where navigational safety conditions
are fulfilled : All answers are correct
330. Voyage channels are : All answers are correct
331. The creation of safety voyage requires : All answers are correct
332. The abbreviation of K-3 is ? kesehatan dan keselamatan kerja
333. All ships over 500 GRT must comply : ISM-Code
334. Hazard categories, to identify the types of hazards can be categorized based on the
causes : All answers are correct
335. List of hazards that can occur when : All answers are correct
336. The safety officer must carry out inspections or checks, are : All answers are correct
337. The safety officer should also check the working environment, is : All answers are
correct
338. The safety officer also checks the working conditions : All answers are correct
339. The main causes of work accidents are unsafe actions (unsafe ACTS) committed by
workers, they are : All answers are correct
340. Some examples of unsafe acts or unsafe acts: All answers are correct
341. On ships which are relatively more dangerous than on land must be equipped with : All
answers are correct
342. In addition to tools and safety equipment, the company must also provide : All answers
are correct
343. The polar star is located in the constellation : Ursae Minoris
344. Position line of Loran-C is shaped : Hyperbola
345. Which position includes the effects of wind and current? Estimated position

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346. SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations, Chapter
5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels? All vessels and on
all voyages

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