Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1186) FLT - 3 Solution PDF
1186) FLT - 3 Solution PDF
Uploaded by
kahog76586Copyright
Available Formats
Share this document
Did you find this document useful?
Is this content inappropriate?
Report this DocumentCopyright:
Available Formats
1186) FLT - 3 Solution PDF
1186) FLT - 3 Solution PDF
Uploaded by
kahog76586Copyright:
Available Formats
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
ANSWER KEY
Q.1) C Q.2) B Q.3) A Q.4) C Q.5) B
Q.6) D Q.7) C Q.8) C Q.9) C Q.10) A
Q.11) B Q.12) B Q.13) C Q.14) D Q.15) B
Q.16) A Q.17) D Q.18) C Q.19) B Q.20) A
Q.21) D Q.22) A Q.23) C Q.24) D Q.25) C
Q.26) B Q.27) A Q.28) C Q.29) D Q.30) B
Q.31) C Q.32) A Q.33) B Q.34) B Q.35) D
Q.36) A Q.37) A Q.38) B Q.39) D Q.40) A
Q.41) B Q.42) D Q.43) D Q.44) B Q.45) A
Q.46) A Q.47) B Q.48) B Q.49) C Q.50) C
Q.51) C Q.52) B Q.53) B Q.54) B Q.55) A
Q.56) A Q.57) A Q.58) B Q.59) D Q.60) C
Q.61) C Q.62) B Q.63) A Q.64) C Q.65) A
Q.66) D Q.67) B Q.68) C Q.69) B Q.70) D
Q.71) D Q.72) D Q.73) D Q.74) D Q.75) D
Q.76) B Q.77) B Q.78) D Q.79) C Q.80) D
Q.81) B Q.82) B Q.83) A Q.84) B Q.85) A
Q.86) D Q.87) C Q.88) D Q.89) C Q.90) A
Q.91) B Q.92) D Q.93) C Q.94) D Q.95) D
Q.96) C Q.97) B Q.98) A Q.99) C Q.100) B
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 1
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.1) Consider the following statements:
1. A candidatecontestinganelectiontotheRajyaSabhafromaparticularstateshouldbeanelector
in that particular state.
2. AmemberofscheduledcastesorscheduledtribescannotcontestaseatintheLokSabhanot
reserved for them.
3. IntheRajyaSabhaseatsarereservedforscheduledcasteandscheduledtribesasperthefourth
schedule of the Indian Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: C
Explanation
● T heConstitutionlaysdownthefollowingqualificationsforapersontobechosenamemberofthe
Parliament:
● He must be a citizen of India.
● He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorized by the
electioncommissionforthispurpose.oHemustbenotlessthan30yearsofageinthecaseofthe
Rajya Sabha and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the Lok Sabha.
● He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
● The Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications intheRepresentationof
People Act (1951):
○ He must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency.
○ This is the same in the case of both, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.
■ TherequirementthatacandidatecontestinganelectiontotheRajyaSabhafroma
particularstateshouldbeanelectorinthatparticularstatewasdispensedwithin
2003.Hence statement 1 is not correct.
○ He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe in any state or union
territoryifhewantstocontestaseatinLokSabhareservedforthem.However,amember
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 2
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest aseatnotreservedforthem.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
● In the Rajya Sabha seats are not reserved for scheduled caste and scheduled tribes. Hence
statement 3 is not correct.
● oreover,thefourthscheduleoftheIndianConstitutioncontainstheprovisionsinrelationtothe
M
allocation of seats for States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 3
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.2) The 'recess' of a House of the Parliament is defined as
( a) The period spanning between question hour and zero hours.
(b) The period spanning between the prorogation of a House and its reassembly in a new session.
(c) The period spanning between the first sitting of a house and its prorogation.
(d) The period between a morning sitting and post-lunch sitting of a House.
A nswer: B
Explanation
● T hePresidentfromtimetotimesummonseachHouseofParliamenttomeet.But,themaximum
gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months.
● A ‘session’ of Parliament is the period spanning between the first sitting of a House and its
prorogation(ordissolutioninthecaseoftheLokSabha).Duringasession,theHousemeetsevery
day to transact business. A session of Parliament consists of many meetings.
● Eachmeetingofthedayconsistsoftwosittings,thatis,amorningsittingfrom11amto1pmand
post-lunch sitting from 2 pm to 6 pm.
● AsittingofParliamentcanbeterminatedbyadjournmentoradjournmentsinedieorprorogation
or dissolution (in case of the Lok Sabha).
● Anadjournmentsuspendstheworkinasittingforaspecifiedtime,whichmaybehours,daysor
weeks.
● The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned sine die whenthe
businessofasessioniscompleted.Withinthenextfewdays,thePresidentissuesanotificationfor
the prorogation of the session. However, the President can also prorogue the Housewhilein
session.
● T heperiodspanningbetweentheprorogationofaHouseanditsreassemblyinanewsession
is called ‘recess’.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 4
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.3) Who among the following takes part in the appointment of High Court Judges?
1 . P resident
2. Chief Justice of India
3. Governor of the concerned state
4. Chief Justice of the concerned high court
5. Chief Secretary of the concerned state
6. Leader of opposition in the state assembly
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
( a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 4 and 5 only
(c) 3, 5 and 6 only
(d) 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
A nswer: A
Explanation
● A rticle 217,whichdealswiththeappointmentofHighCourtjudges,saysthePresidentshould
consulttheChiefJusticeofIndia,Governoroftheconcernedstate,andChiefJusticeoftheHigh
Court concerned. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
● AftertheThirdjudges'case,theSCopinedthatintheappointmentofhighcourtjudges,thechief
justice of India should consult a collegium of two very senior judgesoftheSC.Thusthesole
opinion of chief justice India alone does not constitute the consultation process.
● Inthecaseofthecommonhighcourtfortwoormorestates,governorsofallstatesconcernedare
consulted by the President.
● Moreover,noauthorityrelatedtothestateexecutiveapartfromtheGovernortakespartinthe
appointment of judges of the high court.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 5
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.4) Consider the following statements about the Leader of the Opposition:
1 . T he office of the leader of the Opposition is not mentioned in the Constitution of India.
2. They are entitled to the salary, allowances and other facilities equivalent tothatofacabinet
minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
( a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A nswer: C
Explanation
● T heofficesoftheleaderoftheHouseandtheleaderoftheOppositionarenotmentionedinthe
Constitution ofIndia,theyarementionedintheRulesoftheHouseandParliamentaryStatute
respectively.Hence statement 1 is correct.
● Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, the ‘Leader of the House’ means theprimeminister,ifheisa
memberoftheLokSabhaoraministerwhoisamemberoftheLokSabhaandisnominatedby
the prime minister to function as the Leader of the House.
● Thereisalsoa‘LeaderoftheHouse’intheRajyaSabha.Heisaministerandamemberofthe
Rajya Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as such.
● In each House of Parliament, there is the ‘Leader of the Opposition’.
● The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total
strength of the House is recognized as the leader of the Opposition in that House.
● Hismainfunctionsaretoprovideconstructivecriticismofthepoliciesofthegovernmentandto
provide an alternative government.
● Theyarealsoentitledtothesalary,allowances,andotherfacilitiesequivalenttothatofacabinet
minister.Hence statement 2 is correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 6
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding Gram Sabha:
1 . I t is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of panchayats at the village level.
2. The recommendations of gram sabha shall be mandatory for grant of prospecting licensefor
minor minerals in every panchayat.
3. Under PESA Act, 1996 itisresponsiblefortheidentificationofbeneficiariesunderthepoverty
alleviation and other programs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: B
Explanation
● T heactprovidesforaGramSabhaasthefoundationofthePanchayatirajsystem.Itisabody
consistingofpersonsregisteredintheelectoralrollsofavillagewithintheareaofPanchayatat
the village level.Hence statement 1 is correct.
● Thus,itisavillageassemblyconsistingofalltheregisteredvotersintheareaofapanchayat.It
mayexercisesuchpowersandperformsuchfunctionsatthevillagelevelasthelegislatureofa
statedetermines.TherecommendationsoftheGramSabhaorthePanchayatsattheappropriate
levelshallbemandatoryforgrantofprospectinglicenseorminingleaseforminormineralsinthe
Scheduled Areas.Hence statement 2 is not correct.
● Every gram sabha shallberesponsiblefortheidentificationofbeneficiariesunderthepoverty
alleviation and other programs.Hence statement 3is correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 7
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .6) India after independence adopted the First Past ThePostsystem(FPTP).Whichamongthe
following is not the reason behind its adoption?
(a) Proportional Representation is a complicated system which may work in a small country but
difficult to work in a large country like India.
(b) The entire election system of FPTP is simple to understand even for common voters.
(c) FPTP is a constituency based system and a representative is responsible for one locality.
(d) InFPTPVotersareoftenaskedtochooseapartyandtherepresentativesareelectedonthebasis
of party lists.
A nswer: D
Explanation
● U nder the First Past the Post (FPTP) system, a candidate who gets one votemorethanother
candidatesisdeclaredasthewinner.Inproportionalrepresentation,thenumberofseatswonby
a party or group of candidates is proportionate to the number of votes received.
● Proportionalrepresentation(PR)isacomplicatedsystemwhichmayworkinasmallcountrybut
would be difficult to work in a sub-continental country like India.Hence option (a) is correct.
● ThereasonforthepopularityandsuccessoftheFPTPsystemisitssimplicity.Theentireelection
systemisextremelysimpletounderstandevenforcommonvoterswhomayhavenospecialized
knowledge about politics and elections.Hence option(b) is correct.
● Thereisalsoaclearchoicepresentedtothevotersatthetimeofelections.Votershavetosimply
endorseacandidateorapartywhilevoting.Dependingonthenatureofactualpolitics,voters
may either give greater importance to the party or to the candidate or balance the two.
● The FPTP system offers voters a choicenotsimplybetweenpartiesbutspecificcandidates.In
otherelectoralsystems,especiallyPRsystems,votersareoftenaskedtochooseapartyandthe
representativesareelectedonthebasisofpartylists.Asaresult,thereisnoonerepresentative
whorepresentsandisresponsibleforonelocality.Inaconstituency-basedsystemliketheFPTP,
the voters know who theirownrepresentativeisandcanholdhimorheraccountable. Hence
option (c) is correct.
● oreimportantly,themakersofourConstitutionalsofeltthataPR-basedelectionmaynotbe
M
suitableforgivingastablegovernmentinaparliamentarysystem.Thissystemrequiresthatthe
executive has a majority in the legislature. The PR system may not produce a clear majority
becauseseatsinthelegislaturewouldbedividedonthebasisoftheshareofvotes.Henceoption
(d) is not correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 8
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.7) With reference to Gram Nyayalayas, consider the following statements:
1. I tspresidingofficer(Nyayadhikari)isappointedbythestategovernmentinconsultationwiththe
High court.
2. It is a mobile court and exercises the powers of both criminal and civil courts.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
( a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A nswer: C
Explanation
● G ramNyayalayasorvillagecourtsareestablishedundertheGramNyayalayasAct,2008forspeedy
and easy access to the justice system in the rural areas of India.
● TheGramNyayalayasarepresidedoverbyaNyayadhikari,whowillhavethesamepower,enjoy
the samesalaryandbenefitsasaJudicialMagistrateofFirstClass.SuchNyayadhikariistobe
appointed by the State Government in consultation with the respective High Court. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
● T he Court can function as a mobile court at any place within the jurisdiction of such Gram
Nyayalaya, after giving wide publicity to that regard.
● TheGramNyayalayastrycriminalcases(wheretheallegedoffenseattractsapunishmentofnot
morethan2yearsorwhenthevalueofthepropertyinvolvedinacriminalcaseisnotmorethan
20000 rupees), civil suits (cases over cattletrespassingact,minimumwagesact,protectionof
women from domestic violence act and property disputes, etc.), claims or disputes. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
● G ram Nyayalayascanfollowspecialproceduresincivilmatters,inamanneritdeemsjustand
reasonable intheinterestofjustice.GramNyayalayasallowforconciliationofthedisputeand
settlement of the same in the first instance.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 9
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.8) Consider the following statements:
● Statement I:The central council of ministers is aconstitutional body.
● StatementII: Thesizeandclassificationofthecentralcouncilofministersarementionedinthe
Indian Constitution.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
( a) Both statements are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
(b) Both statements are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true
A nswer: C
Explanation:
T he91stAmendmenttotheConstitutionintroducedArticle75(1A),whichstatesthattheUnion
Council of Ministers cannot exceed more than 15 percent of the number of MPs in the Lok Sabha.
● Statement 1 is correct: The Council of Ministers is a constitutional body. Article 74 of the
ConstitutionprovidesthatthereshallbeaCouncilofMinisterswiththePrimeMinisteratthehead
toaidandadvisethePresidentwhoshall,intheexerciseofhisfunctions,actinaccordancewith
such advice.
● Statement 2 is not correct: Its classification is not mentioned in the Constitution. But the
maximum size of council of ministers (15% of the number of MPs in Lok Sabha) was mentioned.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 10
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.9) Consider the following statements with respect to powers and jurisdictions of a High Court:
1 . H igh Courts have the power to decide the Constitutional validity of Laws enacted by Parliament.
2. High Courts have the power to review their own judgements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
( a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Though the phrase ‘judicial review’ has nowhere been used in the
C onstitution,theprovisionsofArticles13and226explicitlyconferthepowerofjudicialreviewon
ahighcourt.Theconstitutionalvalidityofalegislativeenactmentoranexecutiveordercanbe
challenged in a high court on the following three grounds:
○ it infringes the fundamental rights (Part III),
○ it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and
○ it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions.
● Statement 2 is correct: High Courts in India have the power toreviewtheirownjudgments.
AccordingtotheCodeofCivilProcedure,1908,andundervariousHighCourtrules,aHighCourt
canreviewitsjudgmentororderifthereisadiscoveryofnewandimportantmatterorevidence
which,aftertheexerciseofduediligence,wasnotwithintheknowledgeofthepersonseekingthe
revieworcouldnotbeproducedbyhimatthetimewhenthedecreewaspassedorordermade,
or there is a mistake or error apparent on the face of the record, or for any other sufficient reason.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 11
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.10) Consider the following situations:
1 . I nvolvement of Executive in selection and appointment of Judges of Supreme Court
2. Chief Justice of India giving assent to the bills passed by the parliament when the office of
President and Vice President falls vacant at the same time.
3. Creating a tribunal with equal numbers of Judicial and Non-Judicial members.
How many of the above situations is/are antithetical to Article 50 of the Indian Constitution?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: A
Explanation:
Article 50 states that,
S eparationofjudiciaryfromtheexecutive.TheStateshalltakestepstoseparatethejudiciaryfromthe
executive in the public services of the State.
● The involvement of the ExecutiveintheselectionandappointmentofJudgesoftheSupreme
CourtviolatesthesupremefeatureoftheIndianConstitutionofIndependenceofJudiciaryandis
also antithetical to Article 50.So statement 1 iscorrect.
● In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both the President and the
Vice-President,byreasonineachcaseofdeath,resignationorremoval,orotherwise,theChief
Justice of India or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India
available shall discharge the functions of the President until a new President elected
f ollowingtheprovisionsoftheConstitutiontofillthevacancyintheofficeofthePresidententers
uponhisofficeora newVice-PresidentsoelectedbeginstoactasPresidentunderarticle65of
the Constitution, whichever is earlier.So statement2 is not the violation of Article 50.
● Tribunalisaquasi-judicialbodythatisneitheracourtnoranexecutivebody.Article50talksonly
about the Executive and Judiciary and not about Legislative or quasi-judicial bodies. So,
Statements 3 is not the violation of Article 50.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 12
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.11) Consider the following statements about ‘Democratic socialism’ and ‘Gandhian Socialism’:
1. G andhian Socialism advocated the state to redistribute wealth among people whereas
Democratic Socialism advocated workers' control over factories.
2. GandhianSocialismrejectedtheideaofprivatecapitalwhereasDemocraticSocialismaccepted
the presence of private capital in the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
( a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● A ccording to Gandhi, in a stateless democracy, there is decentralization and equality.
Non-professionandbreadlabourshouldbetheidealofsociety.Inastatelessdemocracy,every
individualgetsthemaximumfreedomtodevotehimselftotheserviceofsocietyaccordingtohis
caliberorcapacity.ThusGandhianSocialismdoesnotadvocatethestateredistributingwealth
among people rather it advocates a Stateless democracy.
● Indemocraticsocialismgoalsofsocialismlikeequality,andjusticeisacceptedbutthesegoalsare
to be attainedthroughdemocraticmeans.Democraticsocialismallowsworkersinafactoryto
form Trade Unions and Associations. But the law enacted by the democratically elected
government controls the factory and not the workers.So, Statement 1 is not correct.
● According to Gandhi, trusteeship is the only ground on which he can work out an ideal
combination of economics and morals. He believed in the decentralization of work and
Cooperatives and thus he rejected the accumulation of private capital.
● In a Democratic Socialism, much of the property is heldbytheprivatesectorincludingmany
majorindustries,utilities,andtransportationsystemsandthepresenceofcompletelyprivately
owned industries is limited in certain critical areas.So, Statement 2 is correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 13
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .12)Whichofthefollowingconstitutionalprovisionsrevealtheasymmetricfederalcharacterof
the Indian State?
1 . I mposition of President’s Rule under Article 356
2. Division of Power under Schedule VII
3. Creation of Autonomous Districts Councils under Schedule VI
4. Representation of the states under Schedule IV
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● A symmetricfederalismreferstothegrantingofdifferentialrightstocertainfederalsubunits,often
in recognition of their distinctive ethnic identity.Thismethodallowsthegovernmenttogrant
special status to some units providing them with special powers not enjoyed by other states.
● ScheduleVIIandImpositionofPresident'sRuleunderArticle356 doesnotgrantdifferential
rights to any federal units. Thus, this does not revealtheasymmetricfederalcharacterofthe
Indian State.So statement 1 & 2 is not correct.
Some of the major provisions in this regards to Asymmetry -:
● Schedule VI: It contains provisions for the creation of autonomous districtsandautonomous
regions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. An
autonomousdistrict withdifferentScheduledTribeswillbedividedintoautonomousregions.
T hesewillbeadministeredbyDistrictCouncilsandRegionalCouncils.TheseCouncilscanmake
lawswithrespecttoallotment,occupationanduseofland,managementofforestsotherthan
reserveforestsandwatercourses.Besidestheycanregulatesocialcustoms,marriageanddivorce
and property issues.Hence, option 3 is correct.
● ScheduleIV: doesn'tprovideforequalrepresentationofstatesintheRajyaSabha.Fore.g.,Uttar
Pradeshhasbeenallotted31seatsinRajyaSabha,whileUttarakhandhasbeenallottedonly3
seats.Hence, option 4 is correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 14
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.13) Consider the following statements:
1. w herethepersonagainstwhomthewritisissuedorthepersonwhoisdetainedisnotwithinthe
jurisdiction of the Court.
2. to secure the release of a person who has been imprisoned by a court of law on a criminal charge
3. to interfere with the proceeding for contempt by a court of record or by Parliament
The writ of habeas corpus cannot be issued in how many of the above circumstances?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● T heSupremeCourt(underArticle32)andthehighcourts(underArticle226)canissuethewritsof
habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, and quo-warranto.
● Habeas Corpus is a Latin term which literally means ‘to have the body of’.
● Itisanorderissuedbythecourttoapersonwhohasdetainedanotherperson,toproducethe
body of the latter before it.
The writ, is not issued if,
● herethepersonagainstwhomthewritisissuedorthepersonwhoisdetainedisnotwithinthe
w
jurisdiction of the Court.
● to secure the release of a person who has been imprisoned by a court of law on a criminal charge.
● tointerferewiththeproceedingforcontemptbyacourtofrecordorbyParliament.Henceoption
C) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 15
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.14) Consider the following statements:
1. I n caseofnon-compliancewiththefundamentalduties,theParliamentcanimposepenaltyor
punishment.
2. In a court of law, such punishment or law won’t be questioned.
3. Fundamental duties include the duty to pay taxes.
How many of the above statements are the provisions under fundamental duties ?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: D
● T heneedandnecessityoffundamentaldutieswasfeltduringtheemergencyperiod.Soin1976,a
committeewassetupwhomadetherecommendationforthesame.Therecommendationwas
madeforincludingaseparatechapterintheIndianConstitutionundertheheadingFundamental
Duties. Citizens will be aware of their duties while enjoying their fundamental rights. This
suggestionwasacceptedbythegovernmentandanewarticlethatisArticle51Awasincludedin
theIndianConstitutionwhichhad10fundamentaldutiesinitearlier.Thegovernmentalsosaid
that it was a mistake that was made by the original framers of the India Constitution to not
includethefundamentaldutiesatthattime.Thecommitteesuggested8fundamentaldutiesbut
the42ndamendmenthad10duties.Outofalltherecommendations,noteveryrecommendation
was accepted.
Some of the recommendations that were not accepted are:
● Statement1isincorrect:Incaseofnon-compliancewiththefundamentalduties,theParliament
can impose penalty or punishment.
● Statement 2 is incorrect:In a court of law, suchpunishment or law won’t be questioned.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Fundamental duties also include the dutytopaytaxeswhichwere
rejected.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 16
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.15) With reference to the administration of ‘Scheduled areas’, consider the following statements:
1. T hepowertoamendtheConstitutionalprovisionsfortheadministrationof‘Scheduledarea’in
any state is vested with the Parliament.
2. TheLegislatureofastatehavingaScheduledareacanonlyincreasebutnotdecreasethesizeof
the Scheduled area.
3. TheGovernorofastatewithScheduledareashaspowerstomodifytheprovisionsofanactof
Parliament in relation to such areas.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: B
Explanation
● T he FifthScheduleoftheConstitutiondealswiththeadministrationofscheduledareasinany
state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
● As of 2019, ten states of India have scheduled areas. These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
Jharkhand,Chhattisgarh,Gujarat,HimachalPradesh,MadhyaPradesh,Maharashtra,Odisha,and
Rajasthan. The provisions of the Fifth Schedule may be altered by Parliament by ordinary
legislation,withoutbeingrequiredtogothroughtheformalitiesrelatingtotheamendmentofthe
Constitution.Hence statement 1 is correct.
● The President (& notthestatelegislature)isempoweredtodeclareanareatobeascheduled
area. He/She can also increase or decrease its area, and alter its boundary lines. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
● T heConstitutionofIndiaempowerstheGovernortodirectthatanyparticularactofParliamentor
thestatelegislaturedoesnotapplytoascheduledareaorapplywithspecifiedmodificationsand
exceptions.Hence, statement 3 is correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 17
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.16) Consider the following statements with respect to Emirates Declaration:
1. I t is the declaration adopted at the Conference of the Parties (COP) 15 of theUnitedNations
Convention to Combat Desertification.
2. ThedeclarationaimstointegratefoodsintotheNationallyDeterminedContributions(NDCs)by
respective countries by 2025.
3. The declaration is signed by only 125 UN member countries.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All Three
(d) None
A nswer : A
Explanation:
Emirates Declaration: At the recently conducted COP 28 of United Nations Framework
C onvention on Climate Change, 134 have signed Emirates Declaration for Sustainable Agriculture,
Resilient Food Systems and Climate Action.So, statements1 and 3 are incorrect.
● EmiratesDeclarationaimstointegratefoodsintotheNationallyDeterminedContributions(NDCs)
by respective countries by 2025.
● ItisadeclarationonSustainableAgriculture,ResilientFoodSystemsandClimateAction. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 18
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.17) Consider the following pairs:
Places in news Countries
( A) Canary Islands 1 . Greece
(B)Kemer 2. Syria
(C)Islands of Rhodes 3. Spain
(D)Latakia 4. Turkey
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above
A nswer: D
Explanation:
These places were in news due to wildfires:
● Spain –facedthebruntofwildfires,particularlyintheCanaryIslandswhere4,000peopletoflee
and forced others to wear face masks.
● Turkey –Theseaside townofKemer wasaffectedbywildfire.Inthewesterncoastalprovinceof
Izmir, towns of Kinik and Odemis were also affected by wildfires.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 19
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
● Greece – Wildfires which were initially confined to the islands of Rhodes and Corfu spread
towards the mainland with the city of Volos facing a large brunt of the crisis.
● Syria– The fires inLatakiaraged for five days beforerescuers could control it.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 20
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.18) Consider the following statements:
● StatementI:MissionAspidesisaEuropeanUnion(EU)navalmissiontoprotectcargoshipsinthe
Red Sea from attacks from Yemen’s Houthi rebels.
● StatementII: SomalipirateshavebeenlaunchingattacksoncommercialvesselsintheRedSea,
Gulf of Aden and surrounding water.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
( a) Both statements are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
(b) Both statements are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● Statement I is true: Mission Aspides isaEuropeanUnion(EU)navalmissiontoprotectcargo
ships in the Red Sea from attacks from Yemen’s Houthi rebels .
● StatementIIisfalse: Somalipirateshavenotbeenlaunchingattacksoncommercialvesselsin
the Red Sea, Gulf of Aden and surrounding waters sinceOctober2023.Infact,thenumberof
pirateattacksoffthecoastofSomaliahasdeclinedsignificantlyinrecentyearsduetoincreased
internationalnavalpatrolsandanti-piracymeasures.Themainthreattomaritimesecurityinthe
regionnowcomesfromYemen’sHouthirebels,whohavebeenusingdrones,missilesandmines
to target Saudi-led coalition ships and commercial vessels .
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 21
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.19) Consider the following countries:
1 . I taly
2. Malaysia
3. Myanmar
4. Sierra Leone
How many of the above countries have officially withdrawn from the BRI of China?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● Italy wasthefirstG7countrytojointheBRIinMarch2019,butitwithdrewfromtheinitiativein
F ebruary2024,citingconcernsoverChina'shumanrightsrecord,debtsustainability,andstrategic
interests.
● Malaysia joinedtheBRIinMay2017,butitcanceledorrenegotiatedseveralBRIprojectsunder
thenewgovernmentofMahathirMohamad,whotookofficeinMay2018.InAugust2020,Malaysia
officially announced its withdrawal from the BRI, citing the economic impactoftheCOVID-19
pandemic and the need to prioritize domestic development.
● Myanmar & Sierra Leone are still part of BRI.So thecorrect option is B.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 22
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .20) Consider the following statements with reference to International North South Transport
Corridor (INSTC):
● Statement-I: ThemajorityofprojectsundertheINSTChavenotreceivedfinancialsupportfrom
major international financial institutions.
● Statement-II:The United States has imposed unilateralsanctions on Iran.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(b) BothStatement-IandStatement-IIatecorrectandStatement-IIisnotthecorrectexplanationfor
Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
A nswer: A
Explanation:
● R ecently, Russia and Iran have signed a deal tobuildanIranianrailwayline,theRasht-Astara
railway as part of an International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC).
● Statement 1 is correct: The main challengesfacedbyINSTCarethatthemajorityofprojects
associatedwiththeINSTC,havenotreceivedfinancialsupportfrommajorinternationalfinancial
institutions such as the WorldBank,ADB(AsianDevelopmentBank),EuropeanInvestment
B ank and Islamic Development Bank.
● Statement2iscorrect: Thisismainlyduetothe unilateralsanctionsimposedbytheUnited
States on Iran, which has led to concerns about possible“secondarysanctions."Theharsher
s anctionsimposedonIranaftertheUS'swithdrawalfromtheJCPOA(JointComprehensivePlan
ofAction)in2018resultedinmanyglobalcompanieswithdrawingfrominfrastructureprojectsin
Iran.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 23
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.21) Consider the following countries:
1 . J ordan
2. Syria
3. Egypt
4. Lebanon
How many of the above countries share boundaries with Israel?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All
Answer: D
● I srael hascommonborderswithLebanonandSyriainthenorthandnorth-east,Jordaninthe
east, and Egypt in the west.
● Lebanon:IsraelsharesalandborderwithLebanoninthenorth.Theborderhasbeenasourceof
conflict between the two countries.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 24
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
● Syria:IsraelsharesaborderwithSyriainthenortheast.Theborderhasbeenasiteoftensiondue
to the ongoing conflict in Syria.
● Jordan:IsraelsharesaborderwithJordanintheeast.Thetwocountriessignedapeacetreatyin
1994, which has helped to maintain peaceful relations between them.
● Egypt:IsraelsharesaborderwithEgyptinthesouthwest.Theborderhasbeenasiteoftensionin
the past, but the two countries signed a peace treaty in 1979, which has helped to maintain
peaceful relations.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 25
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .22) Consider the following statements about the principles governing UN Peacekeeping
operations:
1. C onsent of the parties involvedintheconflictisnotrequiredforinitiatingaUNPeacekeeping
operation.
2. Peacekeepersarerequiredtomaintainimpartialitybutarenotneutral;theyactivelyexecutetheir
mandate and uphold international norms.
3. The use of force in UN Peacekeeping operations is strictly prohibited under all circumstances.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: A
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
Detailed Explanation:
● ConsentofthemainpartiesinvolvedintheconflictisafundamentalprincipleforinitiatingaUN
P eacekeeping operation.
● Peacekeepersarerequiredtomaintainimpartialitybutarenotneutral;theyactivelyexecutetheir
mandate and uphold international norms.
● Impartiality is a key principle, and it does not mean neutrality. Peacekeepersareexpectedto
actively execute their mandate.
● While peacekeeping operationsgenerallyrefrainfromusingforce,theyareallowedtouseitin
self-defense and for the defense of their mandate.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 26
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.23) Consider the following statements about Global Symposium on Farmers' Rights
1 . T he 1st ever Global Symposium on Farmers' Rights was held in India.
2. It is organized by the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture.
3. ItworkstoimplementArticle9oftheInternationalTreatyonPlantGeneticResourcesforFood
and Agriculture.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● T he inaugural 'Worldwide Forum on the Rights of Farmers' takes place at the Agricultural
ResearchCouncil'sConventionCenterinIndia'scapital.Thisinternationaleventisconvenedby
the Office of the Global Treaty on Food and Agricultural Plant Genetic Resources, under the
umbrella of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
● The Indian Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is co-hosting the symposium, in
partnership with organizations such as the Authority for the Protection of Plant Varietiesand
Farmers’ Rights (PPVFR).
● Theprimaryaimofthesymposiumistoengageindialoguesurroundingtherightsoffarmers,as
definedin Article9oftheGlobalTreatyonPlantGeneticResourcesforFoodandAgriculture.
Thisarticleemphasizestherecognition,implementation,andfosteringoffarmers'rightsrelated
to plant genetic assets used in food and agriculture.
● TheTreatyentrustsnationalgovernmentswiththetaskofbringingtheserightstofruitionand
suggestspotentialstrategiesfortheirprotectionandenhancement.InthecontextofIndia,the
rightsofplantbreedersandfarmersareincorporatedintothePPVFRActof2001,withSection39
laying out the provisions for farmers' rights.
● Key collaborators in the event include the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), its
affiliatetheIndianAgriculturalResearchInstitute(IARI),andtheNationalBureauofPlantGenetic
Resources (NBPGR).
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 27
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.24) Avdiivka was in news recently is located in
( a) Israel
(b) South Africa
(c) Libya
(d) Ukraine
A nswer: D
Explanation:
● U krainereported"heated"fightingarounditseasterncityofAvdiivka,sayingRussianforceshad
"not stopped assaulting" the symbolic industrial hub for days in their attempt to surround it.
● Avdiivka has been a symbol of Ukrainian resistance since 2014, after it briefly fell to
Russian-backed separatists.
● Russian forces now control territory to the east, north and south of Avdiivka.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 28
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.25) Consider the following statements with reference to International Organization for Migration:
1 . I t is a part of the United Nations.
2. It is an intergovernmental organization which promotes orderly migration for the benefit of all.
3. It plays an important role in achieving the 2030 agenda.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● Statements1and2arecorrect:TheInternationalOrganizationforMigration(IOM)hasbeena
key component of the United Nations System since 1951, advocating for the humane and
o rganizedmovementofpeopletobenefitglobalsociety.With175memberstatesandoperations
spanning across more than 100 nations, it stands as the primary inter-governmental body
dedicated tomanaging migration effectively.
● Statement3iscorrect:Since1951,theInternationalOrganizationforMigration(IOM)hasbeenat
theforefrontofpromotinghumaneandorderlymigration,playingavitalroleinadvancingthe
objectives of the 2030 Agenda. Through various interventions, IOM effectively bridges
humanitarian assistance with sustainable development efforts, thereby contributing
significantly to the achievement of the agenda's goals.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 29
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.26) “Torkham Crossing” recently seen in news, is related to:
( a) Turkey and Iran
(b) Pakistan and Afghanistan
(c) Turkey and Syria
(d) Pakistan and China
A nswer: B
Explanation:
Recently Pakistan closed a key border crossing with Afghanistan to truck drivers.
About:
● T he Torkham Crossing, a critical border pointconnectingPakistan and Afghanistan.
● ItisacrucialbordercrossingthatlinksPakistanandAfghanistan.Itsstrategiclocationmakesita
vital entry point for trade and connectivity between the two nations.
● TheBorderroadisakeylifelineforalandlockedAfghanistan,linkingthenorthwesternPakistani
cityofPeshawartoJalalabad,themaincityinNangarhar,andtherouteonwardstothecapital
Kabul.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 30
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .27)WhichofthefollowingoptionscorrectlyrepresentsthehierarchyoftheCholaadministration
from the highest to the lowest level?
( a) Bhukti, Vishya, Gram, Vithi
(b) Bhukti, Vithi, Vishya, Gram
(c) Vithi, Bhukti, Vishya, Gram
(d) Vithi, Vishya, Bhukti, Gram
A nswer: A
Bhukti, Vishya, Gram, Vithi.
● B hukti was the province or region.
● Vishya was the district or sub-region.
● Gram was the village or group of villages
● Vithi was the town or city.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 31
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.28) Consider the following statements about the Ahom kingdom:
1 . I t was established by Sukaphaa, a Shan prince from Mong Mao in present-day Yunnan, China.
2. It maintained its sovereignty despite encountering Mughal expansion in Northeast India.
3. It adopted the Brahmanical system of legitimacy and patronized Hinduism extensively.
4. It had a council of ministers called patra mantris who could appoint or remove the king.
How many of the above statements are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● Statement1iscorrect: TheAhomkingdomwasestablishedbySukaphaa,aShanprinceofMong
Mao who came to Assam after crossing the Patkai mountains in 1228.
● Statement 2 iscorrect: TheAhomkingdommaintaineditsindependencefornearly600years
despiteencounteringMughalexpansioninNortheastIndia.TheAhomsfoughtseveralwarswith
the Mughals and successfully resisted their attempts to conquer Assam.
● Statement3isincorrect:TheAhomkingdomdidnotadopttheBrahminicalsystemoflegitimacy
andpatronizedHinduismextensively.TheAhomshadtheirownsystemoflegitimacybasedon
their ancestral deity Lengdon. They also followed their own religion and culture, which was
influencedbyBuddhism,animismandancestorworship.HinduismwasintroducedintheAhom
kingdombytheKochandtheKacharikings,whowerealliesoftheAhoms.TheAhomsgradually
assimilatedHinduelementsintotheirculture,buttheydidnotabandontheiroriginalfaithand
identity.
● Statement4iscorrect: TheAhomkingdomhadacouncilofministerscalledpatramantriswho
could appoint or remove the king. The office of thekingwasreservedforthedescendantsof
Sukaphaa,butthekingcouldnotrulewithouttheconsentofthepatramantris.Thepatramantris
consisted of five powerful officials: Burhagohain, Borgohain, Borpatrogohain, Borbarua and
Borphukan. They had their own domains and armies, and they could check the king's authority.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 32
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.29) Consider the following statements:
● Statement I: Market reforms by Alauddin Khilji were government interventionsthataimedto
liberalize the market by reducing entry barriers and encouraging competition.
● Statement II: Market reforms by Alauddin Khilji were initiated in the early 14th century to
maintain a large army and subjugate the Hindus.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but StatementIIisnotthecorrectexplanationof
Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
A nswer: D
Explanation:
● Statement I is false, because marketreformsbyAlauddinKhiljiwerenotaimedatimproving
arket performancebyreducingentrybarriersandencouragingcompetition.Onthecontrary,
m
theywereaimedatcontrollingandregulatingthemarketbyfixingprices,banninghoardingand
regrating,appointingsupervisorsandspies,andpunishingtheviolators.AlauddinKhiljididnot
allowanyfreetradeorcompetitioninthemarket,andimposedhisauthorityoverthemerchants
and traders.
● StatementIIistrue, becausemarketreformsbyAlauddinKhiljiwereinitiatedintheearly14th
centurytomaintainalargearmyandsubjugatetheHindus.AlauddinKhiljifacedfrequentMongol
invasions and rebellions in his empire, and therefore, he needed a huge army to defend his
territoryandexpandhisconquests.Hepaidhissoldiersincash,andtoreducetheirsalaries,he
fixedthepricesofessentialcommoditiesatlowrates.Healsowantedtoweakentheeconomic
power of the Hindus, who were the majority of the population and the main producers and
consumersofthegoods.Heimposedheavytaxesonthem,andforcedthemtoselltheirproducts
at low prices. He also confiscated their lands andproperties,andconvertedmanyofthemto
Islam.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 33
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.30) Consider the following Sikh gurus with their respective contributions:
Sikh Guru Contribution
( A) Guru Angad Dev 1 ) Introduced the Gurmukhi script and collected the hymns of Guru Nanak
(B)Guru Amar Das 2) Compiled the Adi Granth and built the Golden Temple
(C)Guru Arjan Dev 3) Established the institutions of langar, pangat and sangat
How many of the Pairs given above are incorrectly matched?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● Guru Angad Dev (1504-1552) was the second guru and the successor of Guru Nanak. He
c ompiled the writings of Guru Nanak and introduced the Gurmukhi script,whichbecamethe
official script of the Sikhs.So pair 1 is correctlyMatched.
● GuruAmarDas(1479-1574) wasthethirdguruandthediscipleofGuruAngad.Heestablished
the institutions of langar (free communal kitchen), pangat (eating together without
discrimination) and sangat (congregation of the faithful).So pair 2 is incorrectly Matched.
● GuruArjanDev(1563-1606)wasthefifthguruandthesonofGuruRamDas.HecompiledtheAdi
Granth,theholyscriptureoftheSikhs,andbuilttheHarmandirSahib,alsoknownastheGolden
Temple, in Amritsar.So pair 3 is incorrectly Matched.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 34
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .31)WithrespecttoModernIndianHistory,arrangethefollowingconspiracycasesinthecorrect
chronological order:
1 . K akori conspiracy case
2. Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy case
3. Meerut conspiracy case
4. Alipore Bomb Conspiracy case
Select the correct answers using the code given below:
( a) 3 – 1 – 4- 2
(b) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
(c) 4 – 2 – 1- 3
(d) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
A nswer: C
Explanation:
Alipore Bomb Conspiracycase(1908-1909)>KanpurBolshevikConspiracycase(1924)>Kakori
conspiracy case (1925)>Meerut conspiracy case (1929)
● In 1908, Prafulla Chaki and KhudiramBosethrewabombatacarriagecarryingaparticularly
s adistic white judge, Kingsford, in Muzaffarpur. The whole Anushilan group was arrested,
includingtheGhoshbrothers,AurobindoandBarindra,whoweretriedintheAliporeconspiracy
case, variously called the Manicktolla bomb conspiracy or Muraripukur conspiracy.
● The Alipore Bomb case trial, which took place from May 1908 to May 1909, is an event of
historical significance during which many young Bengali revolutionaries were charged with
“waging war against the King.”
● MadanlalDhingrafromthiscircleassassinatedtheIndiaofficebureaucratCurzon-Wylliein1909.
Soon,Londonbecametoodangerousfortherevolutionaries,particularlyafterSavarkarhadbeen
deported in 1910 and transported for life in the Nasik conspiracy case
● The KanpurBolshevikconspiracycase wasacontroversialcourtcaseinitiatedinBritishIndiain
1924.The KanpurConspiracyCase wasoneofthemajoranti-revolutionaryactionsundertaken
bythecolonialgovernmentinIndianhistory.Thepoliticalactivistsdetainedandtriedunderthis
conspiracy were arrested from Kanpur Nagar, Uttar Pradesh.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 35
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
● F rom 1923 onwards,aseriesofprominentactivists,includingMuzaffarAhmad,S.Chettiar,S.A.
Dange, and Ghulam Hussain, among others, were arrested and charged with conspiring to
separate India from Britain through armed revolution
● TheKakoriRevolution(alsocalledtheKakoriConspiracyorKakoritrainrobbery)tookplaceat
Kakori on August 9, 1925, during IndependenceMovementagainsttheBritishGovernment.It
also refers to its subsequent court trial recommending death sentences for four freedom fighters.
● In 1929,thegovernmentcrackdownoncommunistsresultedinthearrestandtrialof31leading
communists, trade unionists, and left-wing leaders; they were tried at Meerut in the famous
Meerut conspiracy case.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 36
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.32) With reference to the Quit India Movement, consider the following statements:
● Statement-I: The British administration resorted to use of violence against the unarmed
protestors and civilians to suppress the movement.
● Statement-II:During the course of the movement, Gandhiwent on a fast unto death from Prison.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
(b) BothStatement-IandStatement-IIarecorrectandStatement-IIisnotthecorrectexplanationfor
Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-I is correct
A nswer:A
Explanation:
● T heQuitIndiaMovement(QIM)waslaunchedin1942todemandtheimmediatewithdrawalof
British forces from India and complete independence.
● Statement-I is correct: The British administration resorted to use of violence against the
unarmed protestors and civilians to suppress the movement. In February 1943, Gandhi
announcedhisdecisiontogoonafastuntodeathto makeapowerfulstatementagainstthe
u se of violence by the State and to urge the British administration to reconsider its
oppressive tactics.
● T hefastexposedthebrutalnatureofBritishruleandgeneratedsympathyandsupportforthe
Indiancauseglobally.Thus,GandhidecidedtogofastuntodeathinresponsetotheBritish’suse
of violent force in the QIM.
● Statement-II is correct: It is true that during the course of the QuitIndiaMovement,Gandhi
announcedfastuntodeathfromPrisoninFebruary1943.Thisfastbecameasignificanteventthat
aimed to address and protest against the Violence of the State.
In addition to exposing the British Administration’s violence against the protestors, the fast also
● R aised the public morale
● Increased the anti-British feeling of the general public.
● Provided an opportunity for political activity
S o, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 37
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.33) Consider the following:
1 . T o defer abolishment of the salt tax.
2. Suspension of the Civil disobedience movement.
3. Participation in the second Round Table Conferences.
H owmanyoftheaboveoptionswereagreeduponbyM.K.GandhiundertheGandhi-IrwinPactof
1931?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● Gandhi-IrwinPactorDelhiPact(1931):GandhiandtherestoftheCongressWorkingCommittee
( CWC)wereunconditionallyreleasedonJanuary25,1931.GandhiwasgivenauthoritybytheCWC
to start negotiating with the viceroy Irwin.
● Following these discussions, a pact was signed in Delhi on March 5, 1931, by the viceroy,
representing the British Indian Government, and Gandhi, representing the people of India.
Gandhi, on behalf of the Indian National Congress, agreed upon the following points:
○ The suspension of the civil disobedience movement.Hence, option 2 is correct.
○ Participation in the upcoming (second) Round Table Conference on the constitutional
questioncentredonthethreepillarsoffederation,Indianresponsibility,andreservations
and safeguards that may be required in India's interests.Hence, option 3 is correct.
○ Option 1 is incorrect. There was no suchagreementbetweenGandhijiandLordIrwin
which deferred the abolition of salt tax. Thus, this statement is incorrect.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 38
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.34) Which of the following factors was/were responsible for the decline of the Gupta empire?
1 . I nvasion by Shakas
2. Weak successors
3. Rise of the feudatories
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
( a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● T hesuccessorsofChandraguptaIIhadtofaceaninvasionbytheHunas andnotShakas from
Central Asia in the second half of fifth century AD.
● Skandaguptatriedtoeffectivelystemtheirmarchbuthis weaksuccessors couldnotcopewith
the Huna invaders.
● The Gupta empire was further undermined by the rise of the feudatories. Hence, only
statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 39
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.35) Consider the following sites
1 . K upgallu
2. Piklihal
3. Tekkalkota
Above mentioned sites are
( a) Chalcolithic sites from north India
(b) Harappan sites from western India
(c) Jain pilgrimage sites from south India
(d) Neolithic paintings sites from south India
A nswer:D
Explanation:
Neolithic paintings sites from south India
Prehistoric Rock Painting
● T he granite rocks of Karnataka and
Andhra Pradesh provided suitable
canvases totheNeolithicmanforhis
paintings.
● Thereareseveralsuchsitesbutmore
famous among them are Kupgallu,
Piklihal and Tekkalkota. Hence
option D is correct.
● Three types of paintings have been
reportedfromherepaintingsinwhite,
paintings in redochre over a white
background and paintings in red
ochre.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 40
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.36) Consider the following pairs:
Sl. No. Author Book
1. Kalidasa "Malatimadhava"
2. Bhavabhuti "Swapnavasavadatta"
3. Bhasa "Kumarasambhava"
4. Vishakhadatta "Mudrarakshasa"
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All
A nswer:A
Explanation:
Author Notable Works
Kalidasa ● "Abhijnana Shakuntalam" (The Recognition of Shakuntala)
● "Meghaduta" (The Cloud Messenger)
● "Raghuvamsha" (Dynasty of Raghu)
● "Kumarasambhava" (The Birth of Kumara)
Bhavabhuti ● "Malatimadhava"
● "Uttararamacharita" (The Later Story of Rama)
● "Mahaviracharita" (The Great Hero's Deeds)
Bhasa ● "Swapnavasavadatta"
● "Pratima Nataka"
● "Balacharita"
V ishakhadatta ● "Mudrarakshasa" (The Signet Ring of Rakshasa)
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 41
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .37)ConsiderthefollowingstatementsregardingthereligiousgroupsNathpanthis,Siddhacharas,
and Yogis:
1 . T hey criticized social order.
2. They advocated for the intensification of rituals and practices in conventional religion.
3. These groups gained popularity primarily among the "high" castes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
( a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
A nswer: A
Explanation:
● AnumberofreligiousgroupslikeNathpanthis,SiddhacharasandYogiscriticizedthe ritualand
otheraspects of conventionalreligionandthesocialorder,usingsimple,logicalarguments.
Thesegroupsadvocatedrenunciationoftheworldandthepathtosalvationthroughmeditation,
not the intensification of rituals and practices in conventional religion. So, Statement 1 is
correct. And Statement 2 is not correct.
● T heyadvocatedrenunciationoftheworld.Tothemthepathtosalvationlayinmeditationonthe
formlessUltimateRealityandtherealizationofonenesswithit.Toachievethis,theyadvocated
intensetrainingofthemindandbodythroughpracticeslikeyogaasanas,breathingexercisesand
meditation.
● Thesegroupsbecameparticularlypopularamong “low” castes.Theircriticismofconventional
religioncreatedthegroundfordevotionalreligiontobecomeapopularforceinnorthernIndia.
Statement 3 is not correct
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 42
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.38) With reference to Indian theatres, consider the following pairs:
Theatrical form State
1 . B hand Pather : K ashmir
2. Bhaona : Assam
3. Bhavai : Uttar Pradesh
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: B
Explanation:
Theatrical Form State
Bhand Pather Kashmir
Nautanki Uttar Pradesh
Rasleela Uttar Pradesh
Jatra Bengal
Maach Madhya Pradesh
Bhaona Assam, Bengal, Orissa, Uttar Pradesh
Bhavai Gujarat
Jatra Bengal
K rishnattam, Mudiyettu,
Theyyeam, Therukoothu Kerala
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 43
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.39) Which of the following elements are associated with the Dravida style of temples?
1 . ater tank
W
2. Multiple Shikharas
3. Pyramidal Vimana
4. River goddesses at the entrance of the Garbagriha
5. Tall gateways
How many of the elements given above are correct?
( a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All
A nswer: D
Explanation:
Features of Dravida Features of Nagara Style Features of Vesara Style
Temples Temples Temples
E nclosed within a Enclosed within a compound A combination ofDravidaand
compound wall. wall. Nagara features.
T all entrance g ateway Typically has a Shikhara, may
(Gopuram), multiple have multiple Shikharas. May have a Gopuram, a
Gopurams. Shikhara, or a combination.
S tepped pyramid-shaped Shikhara rises geometrically, Combination of stepped and
Shikhara. and can be multiple. geometric Shikharas.
Sculptures of fierce Images like Mithunas, Ganga,
D varapalas a nd Yamuna near the Varied sculptures depending
(door-keepers). entrance. on the combination.
L arge water reservoir o r May or may not have a water Presenceofwaterreservoirsis
temple tank within. r eservoir. possible.
N orthIndian-stylemultiple Multiple Shikharas rising Varied architectural features
Shikharas not popular. together as a cluster. from both styles.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 44
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Examples Examples Examples
B rihadeeswarar Temple, Kandariya Mahadeva Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal,
Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu. Temple, Khajuraho. Karnataka (Combination of styles).
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 45
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.40) With reference to ancient India, the “Pranay” tax is related to:
( a) Emergency tax imposed by the state
(b) A tax levied on agriculture produce and cattle
(c) A tax paid by husbandsmen
(d) A tax paid by the person who owned a plough
A nswer: A
Explanation:
● Pranay tax: There was also a concept of emergency tax known as Pranay tax . According to
K autilyathistaxcouldonlybeimposedonceduringthereignofaking.Thesewerevariousother
sources of income of the state. The state charged toll tax and trade tax on the article sold.
● Bhaga tax :levied on agriculture produce and cattle
● Pindakara: Thepeasantspaidataxcalledpindakara.Itwaspaidbyhusbandsmen,whichwas
assessed on a group of villages. This was customary in nature.
● Halivakara: HalmeansaPlough,soHalivakrawasakindoftaxslab,thosewhoownedaplough
used to pay tax.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 46
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.41) With reference to Government of India Act 1919, consider the following statements :
1 . I t established an All-India Federation, which included British Indian Provinces only.
2. The act compelled the governor to act on the advice of ministers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● Statement1isincorrect:TheActestablishedanAll-IndiaFederation,whichincludedbothBritish
Indian Provinces and the Indian States.The InstrumentofAccession specifiedtheconditions
u nder which a state might join the federation. It was at thediscretionofthestatewhetherit
wanted to join the federation that was given by theGovernment of India Act, 1935.
● Statement2iscorrect: OneredeemingfeatureofthenewActwasthatitmarkedthebeginning
of Provincial Autonomy. The Act established responsible governments in provinces, which
compelledthegovernortoactontheadviceofministerswhowereaccountabletotheprovincial
legislature.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 47
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.42) Arrange the following provinces of Ashokan Empire from south to north:
1 . T osali
2. Taxila
3. Suvarnagiri
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
( a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-1-3
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 3-1-2
Answer: D
● Tosali(intheeast):ThecapitaloftheeasternprovinceoftheAshokanEmpire.Itwaslocatedin
the modern day state of Odisha.
● Ujjain(inthewest):ThecapitalofthewesternprovinceoftheAshokanEmpire.Itwaslocatedin
the modern day state of Madhya Pradesh.
● Suvarnagiri(inthesouth): ThecapitalofthesouthernprovinceoftheAshokanEmpire.Itwas
located in the modern day state of Karnataka.
● Taxila(inthenorth): ThecapitalofthenorthernprovinceoftheAshokanEmpire.Itwaslocated
in the modern day state of Pakistan.
● Pataliputra (the imperial capital): The capital of the Ashokan Empire. It was located in the
modern-day state of Bihar.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 48
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .43)ConsiderthefollowingterminologiesabouttheadministrationoftheBahmanikingdomand
their use:
Terminology Refers to
( A) Tarafs 1 . Sub divisions in kingdom
(B)Vakil-us-Sultanat 2. The prime minister
(C)Amir-i-Jumla. 3. Finance minister
(D)Sadr-i-Jahar 4. Chief judicial officer
How many of the above Pairs are correctly matched?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
A nswer: D
Explanation:
● Pair1iscorrect: ThekingdomwasdividedintofourprovincescalledTarafs,eachheadedbya
T arafdarorSubedar.ThefourprovinceswereDaultabad,Bidar,Berar,andGulbarga.TheTarafdar
or Subedar was the provincial governor who had extensive administrative and military powers.
● Pair 2 is correct: The Vakil-us-Sultanat was the chief minister who assisted theSultaninall
matters of the state.
● Pair 3 is correct: Amir-i-Jumla was the finance minister who looked after the revenue and
expenditure of the kingdom.
● Pair 4 is correct: The chief judicial officer was called Sadr-i-Jahar and he also looked after
religious affairs and charitable works.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 49
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .44)WhichrulertranslatedtheUpanishadsfromSanskrittoPersianinhisworkSirr-i-Akbar(The
Great Secret):
( a) Sikandar lodi
(b) Dara Shikoh
(c) Shah Shuja
(d) Abul fazal
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● D ara Shikoh was the eldest son of Shah Jahan and was considered the heir-apparent to the
Mughal throne.
● Hewasknownforhisliberalandunorthodoxviewsonreligion,showingakeeninterestinfinding
common ground between Hinduism and Islam.
● DaraShikohtranslatedtheUpanishadsfromSanskrittoPersianinaworkknownas"Sirr-i-Akbar"
or"TheGreatSecret,"aimingtohighlighttheunityofallreligionsandtheunderlyingtruththey
shared.So the correct answer is option B.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 50
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.45) Consider the following tribal art forms with the tribes that practice them:
Art form Tribe
( A) Mandana painting 1 .Rathwa
(B)Gond art 2. Meena
(C)Pithora painting 3. Gond
(D)Gudna art 4.Sahariya
How many of the Pairs given above are correct ?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
A nswer: A
Explanation:
● Mandanapaintings areatraditionaltribalartformofMadhyaPradeshthatispractisedby the
Sahariyatribe,Rathwatribe. Thepaintingsaretypicallymadeonthewallsandfloorsofhomes
a ndareusedtomarksignificanteventsandcelebrations,suchasweddings,births,andreligious
ceremonies.So pair 1 is correct.
● Gondart isapopularfolkartformthatispractisedbythe GondtribalcommunityofMadhya
Pradesh. Gond art tells the stories of nature,folkloreandritualsthroughdrawingofanimals,
birds and mythical creatures.So pair 2 is incorrect.
● Pithorapaintings areatypeofritualisticpaintingsdoneonthewallsbythe Rathwa,Bhilsand
B hilala tribes. So Pair 3 is incorrect.
● Gudna art isauniquetribalartformthatispractisedbythe GudnaorGodnacommunityof
MadhyaPradeshandChhattisgarh. Theartforminvolvestattooingtheskinwithnaturalcolours
and geometric patterns. So pair 4 is incorrect.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 51
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.46) Consider the following statements regarding the Harappan economy:
● Statement I:Harappan seals have been found in Mesopotamiancities.
● Statement II:Harappa’s carried out both internaland external trade extensively.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(b) BothStatement-IandStatement-IIarecorrectandStatement-IIisnotthecorrectexplanationfor
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: A
● Statement 1 is correct: They carried out internaland external trade.
● Statement2iscorrect: HarappanssealshavebeenfoundinMesopotamiancitieslikeSusaand
U r.
● TheinferencesaboutHarappanEconomyhavebeenderivedfromitsflourishingtraderelations
with its contemporary Mesopotamian and Persian civilisations.
● Seals hold aspecialsignificanceintheHarappancontext.Everymerchantprobablyhadaseal
bearing an emblem, often of a religious character and a name / brief description on one side.
● The standard Harappa seal was a square / oblong plaque made of steatite stone.
● Thoughitsprimarypurposeisinferredtomarktheownershipofproperty,theymayalsohave
served as amulets.
● Inland transport primarily employed bullock carts.
● InNippur,asealhasbeenfoundbearingHarappanscriptandaunicorn.Someancientsitesinthe
Persian Gulf like Failaka and Bahrain have also yielded Harappan seals.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 52
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.47) A philosophical school of Buddhism teaches the Idea of Shunyata (sometimes called as
S unyavada),thatthedharmasareemptyanddonotexistperse.ThisschoolwasfoundedbyNagarjuna
in the 2nd century CE and its important thinkers include Aryadeva, Buddhapalita, Bhavaviveka,
Chandrakirti, and Shantideva.
Which of the following schools of Buddhism has been described above?
( a) Yogacara
(b) Madhyamaka
(c) Vijnanavada
(d) Sautrantika
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● adhyamaka is an important school in Mahayana Buddhism. The founder of this school was
M
Nagarjunainthe2ndcenturyADwhodevelopedthedoctrinesunyavadawhichmeansthatallis
void.
● ThenameoftheschoolisareferencetotheclaimmadeofBuddhismingeneralthatitisamiddle
path (madhyamapratipad) that avoids the two extremes of eternalism – the doctrine that all
thingsexistbecauseofaneternalessence–andannihilationism–thedoctrinethatthingshave
essenceswhiletheyexistbutthattheseessencesareannihilatedjustwhenthethingsthemselves
go out of existence.
● Important thinkers of this include Aryadeva, Buddhapalita, Bhavaviveka, Chandrakirti,
Shantideva, Jnanagarbha and Santaraksita.So, Option(b) is correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 53
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .48)IfyouwanttotraveltoalltheUNESCOWorldHeritagesiteslocatedinuttarpradesh,How
many of the following will you visit?
1 . F atehpur sikri
2. Agra Fort
3. Sarnath Stupa
4. Atala Mosque
5. Tajmahal
Choose the correct option:
( a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● F atehpur Sikri - Yes, it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
● Agra Fort - Yes, it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
● Sarnath Stupa - No, while it is an important Buddhist site,itisnotlistedasaUNESCOWorld
Heritage Site.
● Atala Masjid - No, it is not listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site..
● Taj Mahal - Yes, it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
● T herefore,youwillvisitthreeUNESCOWorldHeritageSitesinUttarPradesh:FatehpurSikri,
Agra Fort, and Taj Mahal.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 54
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .49) Consider the assertion reason question
Assertion:The first Buddhist council was convened by King Ajatashatru.
Reason:Buddhism bifurcated in Hinayana and Mahayanasects in this council.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and the Reason is the correct explanation for the
Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but the Reason is not the correct explanation forthe
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, but the Reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, but the Reason is correct.
A nswer: C
Explanation:
First Buddhist Council- 483 B.C
● The First Buddhist council convened at the Sattapanni caves in Rajgriha.
● It was held under the patronage of King Ajatashatru.
● T he First Buddhist Council was presided over by Monk Mahakasyapa.
● TheAgendaoftheFirstBuddhistCouncilwastopreservetheteachings(Sutta)oftheBuddhaand
the monastic discipline and guidelines for monks (Vinaya).
● It was held just after the death of the Buddha.
● Suttas and Vinaya were recited by the monks Ananda and Upali respectively.
● Abhidhamma Pitaka was also recited in this council.
Fourth Buddhist Council- 72 AD
● T he fourth Buddhist council was convened in Kashmir.
● It was under the patronage of Emperor Kanishka.
● The Fourth Buddhist Council was presided over by Vasumitra and Asvaghosha.
● TheAgendaofthisBuddhistcouncilwasthereconciliationofvariousconflictsbetweendifferent
schools of thought.
● Hinayana and Mahayana sects of Buddhism diverged after this council.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 55
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.50) Consider the following effects:
1 . F ear of excessive depreciation of the rupee
2. Fear of excessive appreciation of the rupee
3. Inability to deal with current account deficit
4. Greater capital inflows
H owmanyoftheabovearethepossibleeffects,preventingIndiafromimplementingfullCapital
Account convertibility?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● D uring the mid-1990s, the rupee was fully made current account convertible for all trading
activities,remittances,andindivisibles.However,therupeecontinuestoremaincapitalaccount
non-convertible.Fullcapitalaccountconvertibilityisthefreedomtoconvertlocalfinancialassets
into foreign financial assets and vice versa without any restrictions.
● The following are possible effects preventing India from implementing full capital account
convertibility.
● IfIndiaweretoallowthefreemovementofcapitalinandoutofthecountry,itcouldleadtoa
sudden outflow of foreign currency, which could cause the value of the rupee to depreciate
rapidly.Thiswouldmakeimportsmoreexpensiveandcouldleadtoinflation,whichisamajor
concern for the Indian government.
● The appreciation of the rupee means that the value of the rupee increases relative to other
currencies,suchastheUSdollarortheeuro.IftoomuchforeigncurrencyweretoflowintoIndia,
itcouldcausethevalueoftherupeetoappreciaterapidly.ThiscouldmakeIndianexportsmore
expensive and less competitive on the global market, which would hurt the country's economy.
● So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● C urrentAccountDeficit(CAD)iswhenthevalueofacountry'simportsofgoodsandservicesis
greaterthanitsexports.Indiahasasignificantcurrentaccountdeficit,meaningitimportsmore
goodsandservicesthanitexports.IfIndiaweretoimplementfullcapitalaccountconvertibility,it
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 56
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
could lead to even more imports and worsen the current account deficit. So,Statement3is
correct.
● F reeandopenentrytoanenormousnumberofglobalmarketparticipantswouldincreasetherisk
of losing regulatory control due to the large market size and a huge flow of capital.
● Allowingfullcapitalaccountconvertibilitycouldsignificantlyincreasecapitalinflows,whichcould
bedifficultfortheIndiangovernmenttomanage.Thiscouldleadtoassetpricebubblesandan
increaseininflationandcurrencyappreciation.ButgreatercapitalinflowsdonotpreventIndia
from implementing full capital account convertibility.So, Statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 57
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.51) Consider the following scenarios:
1 . D epreciation of rupee
2. Shortage of global supply of oil
3. Monsoon failure
4. Change in people's tastes and preferences
How many of the above can result in cost-push inflation?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● T hecost-pushinflationiscausedbyanincreaseinthecostofproductionofgoodsandservices,
leading to a decrease in the aggregate supply.
● Depreciationoftherupeeiswhenthevalueofthedomesticcurrencydepreciatesagainstforeign
currenciesandthecostofimportedgoodsincreases.Thisleadstohigherproductioncostsand
reduced aggregate supply, which can result in cost-push inflation.So, Statement 1 is correct.
● Ifthereisashortageofoilintheglobalmarket,itcanleadtoanincreaseinthepriceofoil.This
canresultinanincreaseinthecostofproductionofgoodsandservicesthatrelyonoil,suchas
transportation, manufacturing, and agriculture. This can lead to a decrease in the aggregate
supply, resulting in cost push inflation.So, Statement2 is correct.
● Normalorpoormonsoonscanmakeallthedifferencebetweenmeetingbasiceconomicneeds
andaplungeintopovertyanddestitution.Thefirstblowofapoormonsoonfellonagricultural
outputbringingdowntheoveralleconomicgrowth.Thisledtoinflationarytendenciesthrough
higher food prices and higherpricesforindustrialinputslikecotton.Inotherwords,Monsoon
failurecanalsoleadtoadecreaseinthesupplyofagriculturalproducts,whichcanincreasetheir
prices and production costs, leading to cost push inflation.So, Statement 3 is correct.
● Thedemandforacommodityisaffectedbytheconsumer'stasteandpreferences.Thedemand
foracommoditywillincreaseiftheconsumer'stastechangesinfavorofthecommodityandany
unfavorablechangewillreducethedemandforacommodity.Thus,itmayleadtodemand-pull
inflation.So, Statement 4 is not correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 58
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
● Other factors which lead to Cost-push inflation are,
● Monopoly: Companies that achieve a monopoly overanindustrycreatecost-pushinflation.A
monopoly reduces supply to meet its profit goal.
● Wage inflation occurs when workers have enough leverage to force through wage increases.
Companies then pass higher costs through to consumers.
● ExchangeRates: Thefifthreasonisashiftinexchangerates.Anycountrythatallowsthevalueof
itscurrencytofallwillexperiencehigherimportprices.Theforeignsupplierdoesnotwantthe
valueofitsproducttodropalongwiththatofthecurrency.Ifdemandisinelastic,itcanraisethe
priceandkeepitsprofitmarginintact.Cost-pushinflationiswhenpricespersistentlyrisebecause
of growing factor costs.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 59
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .52) The terms 'Capital Conservation Buffer'and'CountercyclicalCapitalBuffer'arerelatedto
which of the following?
( a) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code
(b) Basel III framework
(c) SARFAESI Act
(d) Lead Bank Scheme
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● BaselIIIreforms aretheBaselCommitteeonBankingSupervision(BCBS)responsetoimprove
t hebankingsector'sabilitytoabsorbshocksarisingfromfinancialandeconomicstress,whatever
the source, thus reducing the risk of spill over from the financial sector totherealeconomy.
Consequently, the Basel Committee on BankingSupervision(BCBS)releasedacomprehensive
reform package entitled "Basel III:Aglobalregulatoryframeworkformoreresilientbanksand
banking systems" (known as Basel III capital regulations) in December 2010.
● TheCapitalConservationBufferwasintroducedtoensurethatbankshaveanadditionallayerof
usablecapitalthatcanbedrawndownwhenlossesareincurred.Wheneverthebufferfallsbelow
2.5%,automaticconstraintsoncapitaldistribution(forexample,dividends,sharebuybacksand
discretionary bonus payments) will be imposed so that the buffer can be replenished. The
distribution constraints increase as the bank's capital ratio approaches the minimum capital
requirement.
● The Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCyB) aims to protect the banking sector from periods of
excessaggregatecreditgrowththathaveoftenbeenassociatedwiththebuild-upofsystem-wide
risks.BaselIIIrequiresthatauthoritiesactivateandincreasetheCCyBwhentheyjudgeaggregate
credit growth as excessive and associated with a build-up of system-wide risk.
● Thebufferwouldsubsequentlybedrawndowninadownturntohelpbanksmaintaintheflowof
credit in the economy. The CCyB is implemented as an extension of the capital conservation
buffer. Accordingly, banks that fall below their CCyB requirement are subject to automatic
distribution restrictions.So, Option (b) is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 60
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.53) Consider the following scenarios:
1 . R educed dependence on imports
2. Increased possibility of Base Erosion and Profit Shifting
3. Increased access to improved technologies
4. More optimal utilization of resources
5. Greater outflow of primary income
How many of the above are the likely benefits of encouraging Foreign Direct Investment?
( a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● F oreigndirectinvestment(FDI)occurswhenabusinesstakescontrollingownershipinacompany,
sector, individual, or entity in another country. Through FDI, foreign companies are directly
involvedwithday-to-daytasksfromtheothercountry,transferringmoney,knowledge,skills,and
technology. A foreign direct investment primarily benefits both parties involved in the
transaction.
● The likely benefits of encouraging Foreign Direct Investment are
● Reduced dependence on imports: When foreign companies invest in a country, they often
establish local production facilities, reducing reliance on imports and increasing local production.
● Increased access to improved technologies: Foreigncompaniesmaybringnewtechnologies
and expertise tothehostcountry,whichcanenhancetheproductivityandcompetitivenessof
local firms.
● Moreoptimalutilizationofresources:Foreigncompaniesmayhaveaccesstoresourcesthatare
not available in the host country or underutilized, which can lead to more efficient use of
resources.
● IncreasedEmploymentandEconomicGrowth: Creatingjobsisthemostobviousadvantageof
FDI.IncreasedFDIbooststhemanufacturingaswellastheservicessector.This,inturn,creates
jobsandhelpsreduceunemploymentamongtheeducatedyouthandskilledandunskilledlabour
in the country.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 61
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
● ExchangeRateStability:TheconstantflowofFDIintoacountrytranslatesintoacontinuousflow
o f foreign exchange. This helps the country’s Central Bank maintain a comfortable foreign
exchange reserve. This, inturn,ensuresstableexchangerates. So,Statements1,3and4are
correct.
● The Factors which do not encourage Foreign Direct Investment are,
● BaseErosionandProfitShifting(BEPS)referstothetaxplanningstrategiesusedbymultinational
companies to shift profits from high-tax to low-tax jurisdictions, thereby reducing their tax
liabilities. Thus, Base Erosion andProfitShiftingisnotabenefitofencouragingForeignDirect
Investment.
● GreateroutflowofprimaryincomeisanegativeconsequenceofFDIasprofitsmayberepatriated
tothehomecountryratherthanreinvestedinthehostcountry.Foreigncompaniesmaybringin
newcapital,contributingtoeconomicgrowthandjobcreation. So,Statements2and5arenot
correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 62
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .54) Consider the following statements regarding the Borrowing power of the Centre and the
States:
1. T heCentercanborrowfrombothwithinandoutsideIndia,whileStatescanborrowonlywithin
India.
2. StatesmustobtainpreviousconsentfromtheCentrebeforeraisingaloaniftheyalreadyhavean
outstanding loan with the Centre.
3. In practice, the Centre and the States exercise their borrowing power in accordance with the
recommendations of the Reserve Bank of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● Article292oftheIndianconstitution providesthattheCentralgovernmentcanborroweither
ithin India or outside upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of India or can give
w
guarantees, but both within the limits fixed by the Parliament. So far, no such law has been
enactedbytheParliament.Theborrowingpowersenjoyedbythestategovernmentaremuchless
in comparison to the Central Government.
● Astherearevariouskindsofterritorialandotherlimitationsontheborrowingpowersofthestate.
UnderArticle298oftheIndianConstitution,astategovernmentcanborrowwithinIndia(andnot
abroad)uponthesecurityoftheConsolidatedFundoftheStateorcangiveguarantees,butboth
within the limits fixed by the legislature of that state.So, Statement 1 is correct.
● Article293underclause(3)oftheIndianconstitutionprovidesthataStatemaynot,withoutthe
consentoftheGovernmentofIndia,raiseanyloanifthereisstilloutstandinganypartofaloan
thathasbeenmadetotheStatebytheGovernmentofIndiaorbyitspredecessorGovernment,or
inrespectofwhichaguaranteehasbeengivenbytheGovernmentofIndiaorbyitspredecessor
Government. So, Statement 2 is correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 63
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
● I npractice,theCentrehasbeenexercisingthispowerinaccordancewiththerecommendationsof
the Finance Commission (not the Reserve Bank of India). The Finance Commission discusses
issuesrelatedtomacroeconomics,financialstabilityandthecostofborrowingoftheUnionand
Statestheotherissuespertainingtomarket-drivenborrowingcost,debttrajectoriesofStatesand
recapitalization of banks with the Reserve Bank of India.
● TheCommissionsuggestedthattheCentrereducethefiscaldeficitto4%ofGDPby2025-26.For
states, it recommended the fiscaldeficitlimit(as%ofGSDP)of:(i)4%in2021-22,(ii)3.5%in
2022-23,and(iii)3%during2023-26.Ifastateisunabletofullyutilisethesanctionedborrowing
limitasspecifiedaboveduringthefirstfouryears(2021-25),itcanavailtheunutilisedborrowing
amount(calculatedinrupees)insubsequentyears(withinthe2021-26period). So,Statement3
is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 64
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.55) With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. F romtheSecondFive-YearPlan,therewasadeterminedthrusttowardssubstitutionofbasicand
capital goods industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased
concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. IntheFifthFive-YearPlan,forthefirsttime,thefinancialsectorwasincludedasanintegralpartof
the plan.
How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: A
Explanation:
● T he stated objective of the Second five-year plan was rapid industrialisation with particular
emphasisonthedevelopmentofbasicandheavyindustries-aimedatestablishingtheSocialistic
Pattern of Society.Hence Statement 1 is Correct.
● Thefourthfive-yearplanemphasizedthereductionoftheconcentrationofincomes,wealthand
economic power to achieve social equality and justice.Hence Statement 2 is Correct.
● Thefifthfive-yearplanaimsattheremovalofpovertyandtheachievementofself-reliance.Hence
Statement 3 is Not Correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 65
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.56) Consider the following sentences:
● Statement I: Currency appreciation discourages a country'sexport activity.
● StatementII: Appreciationofthecurrencyimpliesthatadollarcannowbuygoodsworthlesser
rupees than before.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(b) BothStatement-IandStatement-IIarecorrectandStatement-IIisnotthecorrectexplanationfor
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
A nswer: A
Explanation:
● A ppreciation of the currency implies that lesser rupees are required tobuyadollar,orthata
dollarcannowbuygoodsworthlesserrupeesthanbefore.Accordingly,exportsarelikelytotakea
hit. On the other hand, imports are likely to increase.
● Currenciesappreciateagainsteachotherforavarietyofreasons,includinggovernmentpolicy,
interest rates, trade balances and business cycles.
● Currencyappreciationdiscouragesacountry'sexportactivityasitsproductsandservicesbecome
costlier to buy.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 66
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .57) Consider the following sentences with respect to PreferentialTradeAgreement(PTA)and
Free Trade Agreement (FTA):
1 . I n a FTA, there is a positive list of products on which duty is to be reduced.
2. In an PTA, there is a negative list on which duty is not reduced or eliminated.
3. ComparedtoaPTA,FTAsaregenerallymoreambitiousincoverageoftarifflinesonwhichdutyis
to be reduced.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: A
Explanation:
● PreferentialTradeAgreement(PTA):Twoormorecountriesagreeuponapreferentialrightof
entry to certain products facilitated by reducing duties.
○ A positive list is maintained i.e. the list of the products to which preferentialaccessis
provided.
○ Examples: India – MERCOSUR PTA and India–SAARCPreferentialTradingArrangement
(SAPTA)
● Free Trade Agreement (FTA): Multiple countries agree to eliminate tariffs on items covering
substantial bilateral trade.
○ A negative list of products and services is maintained by the negotiating countries on
which the terms of FTA are not applicable. Hence compared to PTAs, FTAs are more
comprehensive.
○ Examples: India – South Asia Free Trade Area (SAFTA) and India Sri Lanka FTA
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 67
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.58) Consider the following statements.
1. W hen an economy goes through a phase of high inflation, there are chances that the
unemployment rate will fall.
2. High inflation can lower the purchasing power of the consumer.
3. The RBI monetary policy has a direct impact on controlling “cost-push” inflation.
How many of the above statements are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● T here is a trade-off between inflation and unemployment. Typically, when an economy goes
through a phase of high inflation, chances are that the unemployment rate will fall. That’s
because firms, enticed by higher prices, try to ramp up production by recruiting more people.
● Inaninflationaryenvironment, unevenlyrisingpricesinevitablyreducethepurchasingpower
of some consumers, and this erosion of real income is the single biggest cost of inflation.
Inflationcanalsodistortpurchasingpowerovertimeforrecipientsandpayersoffixedinterest
rates.
● It is also important to understand that monetary policy does not have a directsolutionto
controllingsuch“cost-push”inflation. Itcannotmakefuelpriceslowerbyraisinginterestrates.
All it can do is to control demand in the economy.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 68
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.59) Which of the following was/were the policy reforms under Washington Consensus?
1 . C ompetitive exchange rates
2. Liberalization of inward foreign direct investment
3. Privatization Of state enterprises
4. Fiscal discipline
How many of the above statements are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
A nswer: D
Explanation:
● T he term ‘Washington Consensus’ was coined bytheUSeconomistJohnWilliamson(in1989)
underwhichhehadsuggestedasetofpolicyreformswhichmostoftheofficialinWashington
(i.e.,InternationalMonetaryFundandWorldBank)thoughtwouldbegoodforthecrisis-driven
Latin American countries of the time.The policy reformsincluded ten propositions:
○ Fiscal policy discipline,with avoidance of largefiscal deficits relative to GDP;
○ Redirection of public spending from subsidies (“especially indiscriminate subsidies”)
toward broad-based provision of key pro-growth, pro-poor services like primary
education, primary health care and infrastructure investment;
○ Tax reform, broadening the tax base and adopting moderatemarginal tax rates;
○ Interest ratesthat are market determined and positive(but moderate) in real terms;
○ C ompetitive exchange rates;
○ Tradeliberalization: liberalizationofimports,withparticularemphasisoneliminationof
q uantitativerestrictions(licensing,etc.);anytradeprotectiontobeprovidedbylowand
relatively uniform tariffs;
○ Liberalizationof inward foreign direct investment;
○ Privatizationof state enterprises;
○ Deregulation:abolitionofregulationsthatimpedemarketentryorrestrictcompetition,
exceptforthosejustifiedonsafety,environmentalandconsumerprotectiongrounds,and
prudential oversight of financial institutions;
○ Legal securityfor property rights.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 69
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.60) Consider the following statements regarding GDP Deflator:
● Statement-I: ItshowstheincreaseinthevalueofGDPduetoanincreaseininflationbetweenthe
periods rather than an increase in output.
● Statement-II: The GDP deflator contains only those goods and services which households
purchase for consumption.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(b) BothStatement-IandStatement-IIarecorrectandStatement-IIisnotthecorrectexplanationfor
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● GDP Deflator:This is the ratio of the GDP at currentprices to that of the constant prices.
● I t is derived by using the following formula - GDP Deflator = GDP at Current Prices ÷ GDP at
Constant Prices * 100
● This ratio helps show the extent to which the increase in the gross domestic product has
happened on account of higher prices rather than an increase in output.
● This is why it is used as a measure of inflation (also known as an ‘implicit price deflator’).
● IncaseofIndia,whileservicesarenotincludedinthewholesalepriceindex(WPI),theconsumer
price index (CPI) contains only those goods and services which households purchase for
consumption (such as food,cloth,health,education,etc.)andmissesseveralothergoodsand
services (such as intermediate goods, services required by firms, etc.).
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 70
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.61) Consider the following statements about Treasury Bills (T-Bills):
● Statement-I:These are issued to meet short-term mismatchesin receipts and expenditure.
● Statement-II:These can be issued by the governmentas well as blue chip companies.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(b) BothStatement-IandStatement-IIarecorrectandStatement-IIisnotthecorrectexplanationfor
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● T reasurybillsaremoneymarketinstrumentsissuedbytheGovernmentofIndiaasapromissory
notewithguaranteedrepaymentatalaterdate.Fundscollectedthroughsuchtoolsaretypically
used to meet short term requirements of the government, hence, to reduce the overallfiscal
deficit of a country.
● TreasurybillsorT-bills,whicharemoneymarketinstruments,areshorttermdebtinstruments
issuedbytheGovernmentofIndiaandarepresentlyissuedinthreetenors,namely,91day,182
dayand364day.Treasurybillsarezerocouponsecuritiesandpaynointerest.Instead,theyare
issuedatadiscountandredeemedatthefacevalueatmaturity.Forexample,a91dayTreasury
bill of ₹100/- (facevalue)maybeissuedatsay₹98.20,thatis,atadiscountofsay,₹1.80and
would be redeemed at the face value of ₹100/-.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 71
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.62) With reference to the Easterly Jet Streams, consider the following statements:
1 . T he easterly jet stream shifts southward during the southwest monsoon period.
2. The easterly jet stream is responsible for bringing the tropical depressions into India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
( a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
● J et Streams and Upper Air Circulation during the summerseason:TheEasterlyJetstreamisa
unique and dominant feature of the northern hemispheric summer over southern Asia and
northernAfrica.TheEasterlyJetStreamisfoundnearbetween5°and20°N.Itflowsfromeastto
west over peninsular India at 6 – 9 km and over the NorthernAfricanregion.Itresultsinthe
reversalofupperaircirculationpatterns[Highpressureswitchestolowpressure]andleadstothe
quick onset of monsoons.
● Statement2iscorrect: TheeasterlyjetstreamsteersthetropicaldepressionsintoIndia.These
depressions play a significant role in the distribution of monsoon rainfall over the Indian
subcontinent. The tracks of these depressions are the areas of the highest rainfall in India.
● Statement1isnotcorrect:AneasterlyjetstreamflowsoverthesouthernpartofthePeninsulain
Juneandhasamaximumspeedof90kmperhour.InAugust,itisconfinedto15°Nlatitude,and
inSeptemberupto22°Nlatitudes.Theeasterliesnormallydonotextendtothenorthof30°N
latitudeintheupperatmosphere.Hence,theinfluenceoftheeasterlyjetstreamkeepsincreasing
towards the north during the southwest monsoon period.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 72
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .63)ItisanaturalstraitconnectingtheBlackSeatotheSeaofMarmara.ItseparatestheEuropean
part from the Asian part of Istanbul, Turkey. Identify the straits using the information given above.
( a) Bosphorus strait
(b) Yucatan Strait
(c) Bab-el-Mandeb Strait
(d) Bering Strait
Answer: A
● Recently, Turkey has decided to implement an international convention on naval passage
throughtwoofitsstrategicstraits(BosphorusandDardanelles),whichwouldallowthemtolimit
t he movement of Russian warships between the Mediterranean Sea and the Black Sea.
● The BosporusandDardanellesstraits,alsoknownastheTurkishStraitsortheBlackSeaStraits,
connect the Aegean Sea and the Black Sea via the Sea of Marmara. It is the only passage
through which the BlackSeaportscanaccesstheMediterraneanandbeyond. Bosphorusisa
natural strait connecting the Black Sea to the Sea of Marmara, thus being a very strategic
waterway. It was a river in the valley during the Tertiary period of thecontinents,whichwas
drowned by the sea at the end of this period.
● Its length is 32 kilometers (20 miles) in the north to south direction, width varies between
730-3300meters(800-3600yards),anddepthisbetween30-120meters(100-395feet).Bosphorus
strait separates the European part from the Asian part of Istanbul. The surface current flows
alwaysfromnorthtosouth;however,astrongcountercurrentunderthesurfacecreatesswirls
and eddies.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 73
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .64) This National Park is located along the Western Ghats in the state of Karnataka. Three
importantrivers,theTunga,theBhadra,andtheNetravatiaresaidtohavetheiroriginhere.The
animals found there include malabar civets, wild dogs, sloth bears and spotted deer.
The above passage describes which of the following national parks?
(a) Nameri National Park
(b) Eravikulam National Park
(c) Kudremukh National Park
(d) Bannerghatta National Park
Answer: C
● K udremukh National Park is a beautiful place, located in the Dakshina Kannada, Udupi and
Chikmagalur districts ofthestateofKarnataka.NestledintheWesternGhats.Threeimportant
rivers,theTunga,theBhadra,andtheNetravatiaresaidtohavetheiroriginhere.TheTungaRiver
and Bhadra River flow freelythroughtheparklands.Theanimalsfoundthereincludemalabar
civets, wild dogs, sloth bears and spotted deer.Henceoption (c) is the correct answer.
● EravikulamNationalPark islocatedalongtheWesternGhatsintheIdukkidistrictofKeralain
India.ItisthefirstnationalparkinKerala.EravikulamNationalParkisaUNESCOWorldHeritage
Site.Anamudi,(2,695meters),thehighestpeakinIndiasouthoftheHimalayasisinsidethispark.
Manyperennialstreamscriss-crossthepark.TheymergetoformtributariesofthePeriyarriverin
thewestandoftheCauveryRiverintheeast. BannerghattaNationalParkislocatedabout22Kms
southoftheBengalurucityofthestateofKarnataka.Itisoneamongthefewplacesintheworld
where wildernessispreservedsoclosetoabigcity.ThevisionoftheBengaluruBannerghatta
National Park is to create an opportunity for the citizens-especiallytochildrenofBangalore
MetropolitanCitytohaveaBiologicalRecreationCenterveryclosetothecityinthemidstofthe
forestsinthevalleyofthefamousChampakadhamahillsinsidetheBannerghattaNationalPark.
Toaccomplishthisvision,aminizoowascreatedin1972'whichgraduallygrewintothepresent
National Park by 2002.
● NameriNationalPark islocatedinthefoothillsoftheEasternHimalayasintheSonitpurDistrict
of Assam, India, about 40 kilometers from Tezpur.Nameriisabirder'sparadisewithover300
speciesofbirds.TheareaiscrisscrossedbytheriverJia-Bhorolianditstributariesnamelythe
Diji,Dinai,Doigurung,Nameri,Dikorai,Kharietc.ThereisagoodpreybaseintheformofSambar,
Barkingdeer,HogDeer,WildBoarandGaur.About3000domesticcattlealsoformpartofthisprey
base for Tiger and Leopards.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 74
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.65) Which of the following statements isnotcorrect with reference to the Western Disturbances?
( a) Their arrival in India is characterized by a sudden drop in the prevailing night temperature.
(b) It is highly beneficial for rabi crops in Northern India.
(c) They are shallow cyclonic depressions originating over the eastern Mediterranean Sea.
(d) They are steered in India by Westerly Jet Streams
Answer: A
● Western Disturbances: They are shallow cyclonic depressions (weak temperate cyclones)
o riginating over the easternMediterraneanSeaandtravelingeastwardsacrossWestAsia,Iran,
AfghanistanandPakistanbeforetheyreachthenorthwesternpartsofIndia.Henceoption(c)is
correct.
● They are steered in India by Westerly Jet Streams. Hence option (d) is correct.
● Ontheirway,themoisturecontentgetsaugmentedfromtheCaspianSeainthenorthandthe
PersianGulfinthesouth.Althoughtheamountofrainfallcausedbythemismeagre,itishighly
beneficial for rabi crops. Hence option (b) is correct.
● It sustains the flow of water in the Himalayan rivers during the summer months.
● Anincreaseintheprevailingnighttemperaturegenerallyindicatesanadvanceinthearrivalof
these cyclone disturbances. Hence option (a) is not correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 75
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.66) Which of the following tourist places are also famous volcanic Hot Spots?
1 . G alapagos Island
2. Hawaii
3. Yellowstone National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
( a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
● A sshownintheadjoiningfigure,allthreearecorrect.Alineofdotsinthecentralpartsofthe
AtlanticOceanrunsalmostparalleltothecoastlines.ItfurtherextendsintotheIndianOcean.It
bifurcatesalittlesouthoftheIndiansubcontinentwithonebranchmovingintoEastAfricaand
theothermeetingasimilarlinefromMyanmartoNewGuiana.Thislineofdotscoincideswiththe
midoceanicridges.Theshadedbeltshowinganotherareaofconcentrationcoincideswiththe
Alpine-HimalayansystemandtherimofthePacificOcean.Themapofvolcanoesalsoshowsa
similar pattern. The rim of the Pacific is also called rim of fire due to the existence of active
volcanoes in this area.Hence, the answer is (d).
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 76
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.67) As one moves from Equator towards Poles, one will observe:
1 . D ecrease in length of longitudes
2. Decrease in distance between longitudes
3. Increase in altitude
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
( a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
● Statement1isnotcorrect: Longitudesisanangulardistance,measuredindegreesalongthe
e quator east or west of the Prime Meridian. This means one halfoftheworldismeasuredin
degreesofeastlongitudeupto180°,andtheotherhalfindegreesofwestlongitudeupto180°.
EachlineoflongitudeequalshalfofthecircumferenceoftheEarthbecauseeachextendsfrom
the North PoletotheSouthPoleandpassesthroughtheequator.Hence,alllongitudesareof
equal length irrespective of the location of the observer, whether one is at pole or equator.
● Statement2iscorrect:Asthelongitudesconvergetowardsthepoles,thedistancebetweentwo
corresponding longitudes decreases poleward. It is highest at the equator.
● Statement 3 is not correct: Altitude of place is its height of aplaceoversealevel.Ithasno
correlation with latitude or longitude of a place. Like Ural mountains in Russia have higher
altitudescomparedtoNorthernIndianplainsandMountEveresthasaltitudeevenhigherthan
Ural mountains.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 77
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.68) With reference to the Kanwar Lake, consider the following statements:
1 . I t is a freshwater oxbow lake.
2. It is formed due to meandering of Gandak river.
3. It is the only designated Ramsar site from Bihar.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: C
● I t is Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake and Bihar’s only Ramsar site.
● It is also known as Kabartal jheel.
● It is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to the meandering of Gandak river, a tributary of Ganga.
● It is covering the majority of the Indo-Gangetic plains in northern Bihar,
● The wetland is an important stopover along the Central Asian Flyway, with 58 migratory
waterbirds using it to rest and refuel.
● It is also a valuable site for fish biodiversity with over 50 species documented.
● Five critically endangered species inhabit the site, including three vultures – the red-headed
vulture (Sarcogyps calvus), white-rumped vulture (Gyps bengalensis) andIndianvulture(Gyps
indicus) – and two waterbirds, the sociable lapwing (Vanellus gregarius) and Baer’s pochard
(Aythya baeri).
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 78
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.69) Consider the following statements about the recently launched Green Credit programme:
1 . T he programme is a follow-up action of the 'LiFE' (Lifestyle for Environment) campaign.
2. The Green Credit programme aims to incentivize environmentally-positive actions through a
market-based mechanism.
3. The Green Credit programme is an extension of the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme, 2023.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: B
Detailed Explanation:
● The programme is a follow-up action of the 'LiFE' (Lifestyle for Environment) campaign.
● Statement1iscorrect. TheGreenCreditprogrammeisindeedafollow-upactionofthe'LiFE'
campaign.
● The Green Credit programme aims to incentivize environmentally-positive actions through a
market-based mechanism.
● Statement 2 is correct. The programme does aim to use a market-based mechanism to
incentivize positive environmental actions.
● The Green Credit programme is an extension of the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme, 2023.
● Statement 3 is incorrect. The Green Credit programme is separate from the Carbon Credit
Trading Scheme, 2023.
● TheGovernmenthasintroducedaspecialprogramwhereanindividualorentitycanearngreen
creditandtradeitonadedicatedexchange.GreenCreditreferstoaunitofanincentiveprovided
for a specified activity; delivering a positive impact on the environment.
● “A Green Credit programme is being launched at the national level to leverage acompetitive
market-based approach for green credit for incentivizing environmental actions of various
stakeholders,”theEnvironment,Forest,andClimateChangeMinistrysaidinanotification.This
programme is a follow-up action of the ‘LiFE’-(Lifestyle for Environment) campaign. The
notification further added that the new programme is a voluntary one.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 79
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
● T his programme will cover 8 types of activities. Tree plantation which is meant to promote
activities for increasing the green cover across the country. Water management is meant to
promote water conservation, water harvesting, and water use efficiency or water savings,
includingtreatmentandreuseofwastewater.Sustainableagricultureismeanttopromotenatural
andregenerativeagriculturalpracticesandlandrestorationtoimproveproductivity,soilhealth,
and nutritional value of food produced. Waste management is meant to promote circularity,
sustainableandimprovedpracticesforwastemanagement,includingcollection,segregation,and
environmentallysoundmanagement.Airpollutionreductionismeanttopromotemeasuresfor
reducingairpollutionandotherpollutionabatementactivities.Andmangroveconservationand
restoration, which is meant to promote measures for conservation and restoration of mangroves.
● ThenotificationclarifiedthattheGreenCreditprogrammeisindependentofthecarboncredit
provided under the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme, 2023 which was made under the Energy
Conservation Act, 2001. “An environmental activity generating green credit may have climate
co-benefits,suchasreductionorremovalofcarbonemissionsandanactivitygeneratinggreen
creditunderGreenCreditprogrammemayalsogetcarboncreditfromthesameactivityunderthe
said Scheme,” it said.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 80
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.70) With reference to India's biodiversity osprey, common teal, northern shoveler are:
( a) Amphibians
(b) Primates
(c) Reptiles
(d) Birds
A nswer: D
Explanation:
● ith over150garganeys,andseveralotherspecies,includingwadersandraptors,flockingthe
W
Pallikaranai marshland, the curtain for the migratory season has been raised.
● Birder and The Nature Trust founder K.V.R.K. Thirunaranan said garganey, northern pintail,
northern shoveler, common teal, western yellow wagtail, grey-headed lapwing, common
sandpiper, and wood sandpiper have arrived. Raptors,suchasred-neckedfalcon,osprey,and
greater-spotted eagle were also sighted.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 81
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .71) Arrange the following Greenhouse gasses in the increasing orderoftheirGlobalWarming
Potential:
1 . ethane (CH4)
M
2. Sulfur hexafluoride (SF6)
3. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFC)
4. Nitrous Oxide (N2O)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
( a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-3-4-1
(c) 3-4-1-2
(d) 1-4-3-2
A nswer: D
Explanation:
● T heGlobalWarmingPotential(GWP)wasdevelopedtoallowcomparisonsoftheglobalwarming
impactsofdifferentgases.Specifically,itisameasureofhowmuchenergytheemissionsof1ton
ofagaswillabsorboveragivenperiodoftimerelativetotheemissionsof1tonofcarbondioxide
(CO2).ThelargertheGWP,themorethatagivengaswarmstheEarthcomparedtoCO2overthat
timeperiod.ThetimeperiodusuallyusedforGWPsis100years.GWPsprovideacommonunitof
measure,whichallowsanalyststoaddupemissionsestimatesofdifferentgases(e.g.,tocompile
a national GHG inventory), and allows policymakers to compare emissions reduction
opportunities across sectors and gases.
● CO2, bydefinition,hasaGWPof1regardlessofthetimeperiodusedbecauseitisthegasbeing
used as the reference. CO2 remainsintheclimatesystemforaverylongtime:CO2emissions
cause increases in atmospheric concentrations of CO2 that will last thousands of years.
● Methane(CH4)isestimatedtohaveaGWPof27-30over100years.CH4emittedtodaylastsabout
adecadeonaverage,whichismuchlesstimethanCO2.ButCH4alsoabsorbsmuchmoreenergy
thanCO2.Theneteffectoftheshorterlifetimeandhigherenergyabsorptionisreflectedinthe
GWP.TheCH4GWPalsoaccountsforsomeindirecteffects,suchasthefactthatCH4isaprecursor
to ozone, and ozone is itself a GHG.
● Nitrous Oxide (N2O) has a GWP 273 timesthatofCO2fora100-yeartimescale.N2Oemitted
today remains in the atmosphere for more than 100 years, on average.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 82
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
● Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs),
p erfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulfur hexafluoride (SF6) are sometimes called high-GWPgasses
because,foragivenamountofmass,theytrapsubstantiallymoreheatthanCO2.(TheGWPsfor
these gasses can be in the thousands or tens of thousands)So, Option (d) is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 83
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.72) Consider the following statements regarding Energy Sector of India:
1 . I ndia targets 500 GW of non-fossil energy, including 450 GW of renewable energy by 2045
2. India aims for net zero emissions by 2070.
Select the correct answer using code given below:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(b) BothStatement-IandStatement-IIarecorrectandStatement-IIisnotthecorrectexplanationfor
Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
A nswer: D
Explanation:
● Statement I is Incorrect Indian Initiatives towards Clean Energy TransitionAmbitiousTargets
I ndia targets 500 GW of non-fossil energy, including 450 GW of renewable energy by 2030.
Complementary policies, legislative mandates, missions, fiscal incentives, and market
mechanisms support these goals.
● Statement II is Correct Net Zero Target India aims for net zero emissions by 2070. Updated
NationallyDeterminedContributions(NDC)reflectagoalof50%cumulativeelectricpowerfrom
non-fossilsourcesby2030. EnergyConservationAmendmentBill,2022PassedinAugust2022,
the bill mandates non-fossilfuelsources,includinggreenhydrogen,greenammonia,biomass,
and ethanol for energy and feedstock Grants power to the Central Government to establish
carbon markets.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 84
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .73)ConsiderthefollowingstatementswithrespecttothedifferencebetweenBioaccumulation
and Biomagnification:
1. B iomagnification refers to how pollutants enter a food chain,whereasBioaccumulationisthe
tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next.
2. For Bioaccumulation to occur, the pollutantmustbefatsolublewhile forbiomagnificationto
occur, the pollutant must be Biologically active.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
( a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A nswer: D
Explanation:
● B ioaccumulation refers to how pollutants enter a food chain. In bioaccumulation, there is an
increaseintheconcentrationofapollutantfromtheenvironmenttothefirstorganisminafood
chain. Bioaccumulation takesplaceinasingleorganismoverthespanofitslife,resultingina
higher concentration in older individuals.
● ExampleforBioaccumulation-WheninorganicMercuryspreadsoutinthewater,itistransformed
into methylated Mercury,whichbio-accumulatesinlivingorganismsandconcentratesthrough
the food chain, particularly via fish.
● Biomagnification refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one
trophic level to the next. Thus in biomagnification there is an increase in concentration of a
pollutant from one link in a food chain to another.So, Statement 1 is incorrect.
● In case of bioaccumulation, there is an increase in the concentration of a pollutant from the
environment to the first organism in a food chain.
● Butbiomagnificationreferstothetendencyofpollutantstoconcentrateastheymovefromone
trophicleveltothenext.Biomagnificationoccursaschemicalstransferfromlowertrophiclevels
to higher trophic levels within a food web, resulting in a higher concentration in apex predators.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 85
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
For biomagnification to occur, the pollutant must be:
● L ong-lived
● Mobile, soluble in fats
● Biologically active
● Ifapollutantisshort-lived,itwillbebrokendownbeforeitcanbecomedangerous.Ifitisnot
mobile, it will stay in one placeandwillunlikelybetakenupbyorganisms.Ifthepollutantis
solubleinwater,itwillbeexcretedbytheorganism.However,pollutantsthatdissolveinfatsmay
be retained for a long time.So, Statement 2 is notcorrect.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 86
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.74) Which of the following statements isnotcorrectabout Peatland?
( a) Peat occurs when the production of organic matter exceeds its decomposition.
(b) Peatlands store more carbon than all other vegetation types in the world combined.
(c) Global Peatlands Initiative is an attempt to conserve peatlands and is headed by UNEP.
(d) The world’s largest tropical peatland was identified beneath the forests of the Amazon.
A nswer: D
Explanation:
● P eatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant
material from fully decomposing. Consequently, the production of organic matter exceeds its
decomposition, which results in a net accumulation of peat.
● Peatlandsareatypeofwetlandthatiscriticalforpreventingandmitigatingtheeffectsofclimate
change, preserving biodiversity, minimizing flood risk, and ensuring safe drinking water. So,
Option (a) is correct.
● P eatlandsarethelargestnaturalterrestrialcarbonstore.Theystoremorecarbonthanallother
vegetationtypesintheworldcombined.About84%oftheworld’speatlandsareconsideredtobe
in a natural or near natural state.
● In peatlands, year-round water-logged conditions slow plant decompositiontosuchanextent
that dead plants accumulate to form peat. This stores the carbontheplantsabsorbfromthe
atmospherewithinpeatsoils,providinganet-coolingeffectandhelpingtomitigatetheclimate
crisis.So, Option (b) is correct.
● TheGlobalPeatlandsInitiativeisaninternationalpartnershipformedin2016tosavepeatlandsas
theworld’slargestterrestrialorganiccarbonstock.Forty-sixinternationalpartnerorganizations
andfourmajortropicalpeatlandcountriesofIndonesia,theRepublicofCongo,theDemocratic
RepublicofCongoandPeruhavecometogethertoworktoimprovetheconservation,restoration
and sustainable management of peatlands globally.
● Itisanattempttoconservepeatlandsastheworld'slargestterrestrialorganiccarbonresourceby
leadingexpertsandorganizationsandtoavoidthemfrombeingreleasedintotheatmosphere.It
is headed by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).So, Option (c) is correct.
● Peatland landscapes are varied: from temperate blanket mires withopen,treelessvegetation,
such as the Flow Country of Scotland, to swamp forests in Southeast Asia.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 87
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
● T he Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands, along with Brazil and
Indonesia.ThepeatswampforestoftheCongoBasinstoresaround29billiontonsofcarbon–
approximatelyequivalenttothreeyears’worthofglobalgreenhousegasemissions–whilethe
Basin as a whole absorbs nearly 1.5 billion tonsofcarbondioxideayear.TheBasinstretches
across six countries- Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo,
Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.So, Option (d)is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 88
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.75) Consider the following statements:
1 . T he Soil Organic Carbon of coastal ecosystems is higher than Tropical forest
2. The living biomass of mangroves is higher than Sea grasses and Salt marshes
3. The Soil organic carbon of mangroves is higher than Sea grasses and Salt marshes
4. The living biomass of tropical forests is higher than Coastal ecosystem
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
A nswer: D
Explanation:
● S oilorganiccarbonisameasurablecomponentofsoilorganicmatter.Organicmattermakesup
just2–10%ofmostsoil'smassandhasanimportantroleinthephysical,chemicalandbiological
function of agricultural soils.
● Organicmattercontributestonutrientretentionandturnover,soilstructure,moistureretention
andavailability,degradationofpollutants,andcarbonsequestration.Soilorganiccarbon(SOC)is
onepartofthemuchlargerglobalcarboncyclethatinvolvesthecyclingofcarbonthroughthe
soil, vegetation, ocean and the atmosphere.
● Soil Organic Matter (SOM) encompasses all of theorganiccomponentsofsoil,includingliving
biomass (intact plant and animal tissues and microorganisms), dead roots and other plant
residues and dead tissue, and soil humus.
● SOMandthedebrisofdeadtissuesleftbyplantsandanimals(detritus)areessentialforbiological
activityinthesoil.Theyarethemainsourceofenergy,nutrientsandhabitatforthevastmajority
of soil organisms. Soil Organic Carbon makes up approximately 50-60% of SOM.
● The Soil organic carbon of coastal ecosystems is higher than Tropical forests.
● The living biomasses of mangroves are higher than Sea grasses & Salt marshes.
● The Soil organic carbons of mangroves are higher than Sea grasses and Salt marshes.
● The living biomass of Tropical Forest is higher than Coastal ecosystem.So, Option (d) is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 89
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.76) With reference to Millets, consider the following statements:
1. T heyarewell-adaptedtorain-fedandaridclimatessincetheyrequireminimalwater,fertilizers,
and pesticides.
2. Sorghum (Jowar) constitutes the largest share of India's total production of millets.
3. India is the largest producer of millet in the world.
4. Karnataka is the largest producer of millet in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● The United Nations General Assembly, at its 75th session in March 2021, declared 2023 the
I nternational Year of Millets (IYM 2023). FAO is the lead agency for celebrating the Year in
collaboration with otherrelevantstakeholders.Milletsgrowwellindryzonesasrain-fedcrops
undermarginalconditionsofsoilfertilityandmoisture.Indiaranksfirstinrainfedagriculture,
both in area and value of produce. More than 60% of farmers are dependent on rain fed
agriculture for their livelihood.So, Statement 1is correct.
● Indiaisthelargestproducerofmilletintheworld.India'stwovarietiesofmillet,namelyPearl
Millet(Bajra)andSorghum(Jowar),togethercontributedapprox.19percenttoworldproduction
in 2020.
● India'sPearlMilletproductionaccountsfor40.51percent,followedbySorghum's8.09percentin
the world production of millet in 2020.
● ThemajormilletproducingstatesinIndiaareRajasthan,Karnataka,Maharashtra,UttarPradesh,
Haryana, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
● Currently,togetherthesetenstatesaccountforaround98percentofmilletproductioninIndia
duringtheperiod2020-21.Sixstates,namelyRajasthan,Karnataka,Maharashtra,UttarPradesh,
HaryanaandGujarat,accountformorethan83percentoftotalmilletproduction. So,Statement
2 is not correct, and Statement 3 is correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 90
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
● R ajasthantopsthecountrywith48.64lakhtonnesofmilletproduction,followedbyKarnataka
(23.99lakhtonnes)andUttarPradesh(22.31lakhtonnes).Rajasthancontributes28.61percentof
the total millet production in India.So, Statement4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 91
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.77) Consider the following statements regarding Corals:
1 . T hey are sensitive to both temperature and PH level.
2. They are found in both shallow and deep water.
3. They have a Commensalism relationship with zooxanthellae.
How many of the above statements are correct:
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
A nswer:B
Explanation:
● C oralscangrowonlyinoptimumrangeofTemperatureandPHlevel.Bothhighandlowofthese
two cause serious damage to corals. So, statement1 is correct.
● Theyarefoundinbothshallowanddeepwater. Thehabitatofdeep-watercorals,alsoknown
ascold-watercorals,extendstodeeper,darkerpartsoftheoceansthantropicalcorals,ranging
fromnearthesurfacetotheabyss,beyond2,000meters(6,600ft)wherewatertemperaturesmay
be as cold as 4 °C (39 °F). So, statement 2 is correct.
● TheyhaverichbiodiversityjustlikeEquatorialrainforests.Theyhavea Symbioticrelationship
with zooxanthellae. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
Q.78) Consider the following pairs
1 . K anger Valley National Park –Jharkhand
2. Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary – Uttarakhand
3. Guindy National Park- Odisha
How many of the above options are correct:
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 92
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
A nswer: D
Explanation:
About Kanger Valley National Park:
● I t is located in Jagdalpur in Bastar district ofChhattisgarhstate.
● The National Park derives its name from the Kanger River, which flows centrally from the
Northwest to the Southeast direction.
● It is home to three exceptional caves – famous for their amazing geological structures of
Kutumbasar, Kailash and Dandak- Stellagmites and Stalactitees.
● National Park is known for the presence of underground limestone caves with dripstone and
floston. The stalegmites and stalactite formation is still increasing.
● Tirathgarh Waterfall is located in Kanger Valley National Park.
About Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary
● Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary is situated north of Bandipur National Park in Mysore District of
Karnataka.
● T he northern part of Nugu WLS is occupied by the Nugu Reservoir.
● It serves as a home to many species of flora and fauna such as Dipterocarpus indicus,
Calophyllum tomentosum, elephants, wild pigs, spotted deer, leopards, jungle cats, etc.
● Nugu is a vulnerable area as far as human–elephant conflicts are concerned.
About Guindy National Park:
● I tisIndia’seighth-smallestnationalparkandoneoftheveryfewnationalparkslocatedinsidea
city.
● It is located in the heart of Chennai’s metropolitan area ofTamil Nadu.
● It is one of the last remnants of the tropical, dry evergreen forestsof the Coromandel Coast.
● Flora:Tropical dry evergreen forest, Scrub and thorn forests.
● Fauna:Blackbuck,Toddycat,Civetcat,Junglecat,Pangolin,Hedgehog,Shrewandblack-naped
hare etc.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 93
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 94
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.79) Consider the following statements regarding the Asian Elephants:
1 . T heir society is organized into well-defined, matrilineal communities.
2. The IUCN classified them as ‘Vulnerable’ species.
3. They are categorized as the ‘Umbrella Species’, as well as the ‘Keystone Species.’
How many of the above statements are correct:
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer:C
Explanation:
Key Facts related to the Asian Elephants:
IUCN (The International Union for Conservation of Nature) Status:Endangered.
● T heAsianElephantsinhabitgrasslands,tropicalevergreenforests,semi-evergreenforests,moist
deciduous forests, dry deciduous forests and dry thorn forests, in addition to cultivated and
secondary forests or scrublands.
● TheAsianElephantscanrangeoverlargeareasandtherefore,theelephantsdisperseseedsover
longer distances than most other herbivores and, thus, are responsible for structuring and
maintaining plant diversity within the ecosystems.
● Given their large area requirements, the elephants are regarded as an “Umbrella Species”,
becausetheirconservationwillalsoprotectalargenumberofotherspeciesoccupyingthesame
area.Theymayalsobeconsideredthe“FlagshipSpecies”becauseoftheiriconicorculturalvalue,
and the “Keystone Species” because of their important ecological role and impact on the
environment.
● The Asian Elephant society is organized into well-defined, matrilineal communities or clans,
comprising adult females, as well as sub-adult and juvenile males and females.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 95
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.80) India launched the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) for the conservation of:
1 . T iger
2. Lion
3. Leopard
4. Snow Leopard
5. Cheetah
6. Jaguar
7. Puma
How many of the above cats are included in the alliance:
( a) Only four
(b) Only five
(c) Only six
(d) All seven
A nswer:D
Explanation:
● T ocommemorate50yearsofProjectTiger,thePrimeMinisterofIndialaunchedtheInternational
Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)fortheconservationofsevenbigcats,namelytheTiger,Lion,Leopard,
Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, and Puma harboring our planet.
● Theallianceaimstoreachoutto97rangecountriescoveringthenaturalhabitatsof Tiger,Lion,
Snow Leopard, Puma, Jaguar, and Cheetah.
● T he IBCA will facilitate the mobilization of financial and technical resources for the overall
ecosystem dealing with big cat species while implementing the conservation and protection
agendathathasemergedfromtheexperiencesofothercountries.IBCAwouldfurtherstrengthen
global cooperation and efforts to conserve the wild denizens, especially the big cats.
● Thealliancewillprovideaplatformforthemembernationstoshareknowledgeandexpertiseand
extend support to recovery efforts in potential habitats. The IBCA will also assist existing
species-specific inter-governmental platforms to boost conservation efforts.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 96
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.81) With reference to the Hepatitis C, consider the following statements:
1 . I t is a viral infection which mainly affects the liver.
2. It cannot spread through food or water.
3. It is only concentrated in the Eastern Mediterranean and European Region.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: B
statements 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is incorrect
● Accordingtothe WorldHealthOrganisation(WHO) Egyptbecamethefirstcountrytoachieve
“ gold tier” status on the path to elimination of hepatitis C as per the global health body criteria.
● It is a viral infection that affects the liver.
● It can cause both acute (short term) and chronic (long term) illness. It can be life-threatening.
● Transmission:
○ It is spread through contact with infected blood.
○ Thiscanhappenthroughsharingneedlesorsyringes,orfromunsafemedicalprocedures
such as blood transfusions with unscreened blood products.
○ Itcanbepassedfromaninfectedmothertoherbabyandviasexualpracticesthatleadto
exposure to blood.
○ Hepatitis C is not spread through breast milk, food, water or casual contact such as
hugging, kissing and sharing food or drinks with an infected person.
○ Symptoms: It can include fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, abdominal
pain, dark urine and yellowing of the skin or eyes (jaundice).
● Geographical distribution
○ This virus infection occurs in all WHO regions.
○ The highest burden of disease is in the Eastern Mediterranean Region and European
Region.
○ New HCV infections are usually asymptomatic, few people are diagnosed when the
infection is recent.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 97
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
○ I n those people who develop chronic HCVinfection,theinfectionisoftenundiagnosed
becauseitremainsasymptomaticuntildecadesafterinfectionwhensymptomsdevelop
secondary to serious liver damage.
○ There is no vaccine for hepatitis C, but it can be treated with antiviral medications.
● What is Gold tier status?
○ It includes meeting specific criteria such as
○ Ensuring100%bloodandinjectionsafety,maintainingaminimumof150needles/syringes
per year for people who inject drugs (PWID).
○ Diagnosis of over 80% of people living with chronic hepatitis C virus (HCV),
○ Treating of over 70% of individuals diagnosed with HCV.
○ The establishing of a sentinel surveillance programme forhepatitissequelae,including
liver cancer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 98
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.82) Consider the following pairs:
Missions Purpose
1. Peregrine Mission One T o study hydrogen abundance on the
moon
2. Europa Clipper T o return to the Didymos-Dimorphos
asteroid system
3. PACE Mission T o enhancetheunderstandingofEarth’s
atmosphere.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● Pair 1 is correctly matched: The scientific objectives of NASA's Peregrine MissionOneareto
s tudy the lunar exosphere, thermal properties and hydrogen abundanceofthelunarregolith,
magnetic fields, and the radiation environment. It would also have tested advanced solar arrays.
● Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Europa Clipper's mainsciencegoalistodeterminewhether
there are places below the surface of Jupiter's icy moon, Europa, that could support life.
○ ESA’s Hera Mission: It is a mission by the European Space Agency to return to the
Didymos-Dimorphos asteroid system that NASA’s DART mission visited in 2022.
● Pair 3 is correctly matched: NASA is gearing up to enhance our understanding of Earth’s
atmosphere with the upcoming Plankton, Aerosol, Cloud, Ocean Ecosystem (PACE) mission,
scheduledforlaunchinearly2024.Themissionwillemployadvancedpolarimeterstostudythe
interplayoflight,aerosols,andclouds,contributingtoadeepercomprehensionoftheirimpact
on air quality and climate.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 99
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.83) Which of the following are RNA viruses?
1 . H uman immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
2. Ebola
3. Herpes
4. Smallpox
Choose the correct code:
( a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
A nswer: A
Explanation:
● A nRNAvirusisavirus—otherthanaretrovirus—thathasribonucleicacidasitsgeneticmaterial.
The nucleic acid is usually single-stranded RNA but it may be double-stranded.
○ HumandiseasescausingRNAvirusesincludeOrthomyxoviruses,HepatitisCVirus(HCV),
Eboladisease,SARS,influenza,poliomeaslesandretrovirusincludingadultHumanT-cell
lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1) andhuman immunodeficiencyvirus (HIV).
● DNA viruses have DNA genomes that are replicated by either host or virally encoded DNA
polymerases.
○ Human diseasescausingRNAvirusesinclude HerpesVirus,Adenovirus,Papillomavirus,
Smallpoxand Warts.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 100
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.84) Consider the following statements regarding tribal areas under colonial rule:
1 . T he entry of moneylenders and revenue farmers was restricted in tribal areas.
2. The Indian Forest Act of 1865 extended British claims over the forests.
3. The Britishers introduced the system of Begar in tribal areas.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The tribal violence was directed towards the money-lenders and
t raderswhowereseenasextensionsofthecolonialgovernment.Asagriculturewasextendedina
settledformbytheBritishers,thetribalslosttheirland,andtherewasaninfluxofnon-tribalsto
theseareasduetocolonialrevenuepolicies.Themoneylendersintroducedinthetribalareasled
to severe exploitation of the local tribals.
● Statement 2 is correct: The British enforcedtheForestActof1865and1878andestablished
monopoly over the forested land. The tribals lost theiragriculturallandandwereturnedinto
landlessandbondedlaborers.Restrictionswereimposedontheuseofforestproducewhichled
to complete loss of livelihood of tribals.
● Statement3iscorrect:TheBegarsystemofforcedlabourwasintroducedintribalareasthathad
alteredlabourrelations.Forcedlabour,embargoesoncollectingminorforestproduceandbans
on tribal agriculture practices led to severe distress.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 101
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.85) Consider the following statements regarding cultured meats:
1 . T hey are grown from plant-based proteins.
2. It is safe for consumption for vegetarian people.
3. It tastes the same as genuine animal meat.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: A
Explanation:
● Plant-basedmeats arecreatedbyseveralmethods,butthemostpopulartechniqueisknownas
t he “high moisture extrusion”. The Plant-proteins are putinsideabarrelbeforegoingthrough
thermal and mechanical stresses – a process that involves a variety of heating, cooling, and
shearing techniques – to produce a product that is essentiallyplantproteinswithameat-like
texture.Byalteringthetextureprocessslightly,thecharacteristicsofeachplant-basedmeatcan
also be changed.
● Ontheotherhand,the“culturedmeat”,lab-grownmeattakesonadifferentapproachtocreating
‘alternative’ meats. Lab-grown meat uses muscle samples and stem cells from animals, then
cultivates (i.e., grows) this small sample into alargeamountofmeat. So,Statement1isnot
correct.
● C ultivated meat, also knownasculturedmeat,isgenuineanimalmeat(includingseafoodand
organ meats) that is produced by cultivating animal cells directly. This production method
eliminates the need to raise and farm animals for food.
● Cultivated meat is made of the same cell types that can be arranged in the same or similar
structureasanimaltissues,thusreplicatingthesensoryandnutritionalprofilesofconventional
meat.So, Statement 2 is not correct and statement3 is correct.
● Cultivated meat has several benefits over traditional livestock meat production.
● Firstly,itdoesnotharmanimalsascellsareextractedoncefromadonoranimalandcanproduce
cultured meat indefinitely. Thiseliminatestheneedforharmfulproceduresusedintraditional
farming and slaughter.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 102
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
● S econdly,itfreesuplandaslivestockmeatproductionrequires70%ofglobalarablelandusedfor
growing livestock feed. Cultivation of animal cells requires smaller quantities of agricultural
resources like land, reducing land usage for meat production by 99%.
● Thirdly,itusesconsiderablyfewerwaterresourcescomparedtoconventionalmeatproduction,
reducing water usage by 82%-96%.
● Fourthly, the Cattle systems are associated with the production of all three GHGs i.e. carbon
dioxide (CO2) , methane (CH4) , and nitrous oxide (N2O
), including significant emissions of CH4,
while cultured meat emissions are almost entirely CO2from energy generation.
● Finally, there is a growing demand for meat worldwide and cultivatedmeatprovidesanother
meat protein option that can alleviate pressure from conventional supply chains while using
considerably fewer natural resources to produce meat.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 103
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .86) TheBharat6GVisionDocumentandthe6Gresearchanddevelopmenttestbedhavebeen
launched recently. In this context, which of the below are the applications of 6G technology?
1 . D igital twins
2. Holograms
3. Remote-controlled factories
4. Self-driven cars
5. Wearable smart talking inputs
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
( a) 3, 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
A nswer: D
Explanation:
● P rime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled the Bharat 6G Vision Document and launched the 6G
researchanddevelopmenttestbed.Thedocumentwillbekeyinboostingthefasteradaptationof
new technology in India. India plans to identify priority areas for research by involving
stakeholders, including industry, academia and service providers spanning theoretical and
simulation studies, proof-of-concept prototypes and demonstrations and early market
interventions through start-ups, the vision document states.
● Since6Gwillbeabletosupporthighdataratesof1terabitpersecond,a6Guserwillbeableto
downloadmorethan100filmsperminute,simplyput.Inaddition,6Gwillbeabletousecases
like digital twins, holograms and truly immersive extended reality applications, among many
other features.
● It is considered the first technology to offerintegrationbetweenterrestrialandnon-terrestrial
networks,whichmeansthatonedevicewillbeabletofunctionacrossseveraltechnologies.Itwill
connect billions ofmachinesanddevicesandwillbringabigrevolvingchangeinbringingthe
virtual and physical worlds together.
● As per the vision document shared by the Prime Minister, 6G use cases will include
remote-controlled factories, constantly communicating self-driven cars and wearable smart
talking inputs directly from human senses. Along with growth, 6G will support a lot of
sustainability as most of the6Gsupportingdeviceswillbebattery-powered. So,Option(d)is
c orrect.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 104
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.87) Which of the following statements best describes ‘Biostimulants’ in agriculture?
(a) Biostimulantsarebiologicalsubstancesthatenhancecropyieldbyreleasingnutrientcontentinto
the Soil.
(b) BiostimulantsaremicroorganismsthatliveintheSoilandhelpplantsabsorbnutrientsandgrow
well.
(c) Biostimulants are substancesormicroorganismsappliedtoplants,soilsorseedsthatimprove
plant growth and development.
(d) Biostimulants are bio-pesticides that protect crops from diseases and pests.
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● B iostimulants mean compounds, substances and products, including microorganisms whose
functions, when applied to plants/seeds/ rhizosphere is, to regulate and enhance a crop's
physiological processes independent of the product's nutrient contents to improve input use
efficiency,growth,yield,qualityand/orstresstolerance.Thebio-stimulantsmayincludeproducts
of plants /animals or microbial origin. Bio Stimulants shall be under any of the following
categories, namely,
● Botanical extracts, including seaweed extracts
● Biochemicals
● Protein hydro lysates and amino acids
● Vitamins
● Cell-free Microbial products
● Antioxidants
● Anti-transparent
● Humic & fulvic acid and their derivations Biostimulantsareproductsthatreducetheneedfor
fertilizers and increase plant growth and resistance to water and abiotic stresses. In small
concentrations, these substances are efficient, favouring the plant's vital processes' good
performance and allowing high yields and good-quality products. In addition, bio stimulants
appliedtoplantsenhancenutritionefficiency,abioticstresstoleranceand/orplantqualitytraits,
regardless of their nutrient contents.So, Option(c) is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 105
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.88) Barnase/Barstar system is mentioned in the news is related to:
( a) Encryption in Blockchain Technology
(b) Terminator seed technology
(c) Precision farming technology
(d) Genetically modified Mustard
A nswer: D
Explanation:
● R ecently, Approval was given for the environmental release of GeneticallyModified(GM)mustard
DMH 11 by the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) under the Union Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
● GeneticallyModifiedtechnologyisadisruptivetechnologycapableofbringinganytargetedchange
withinthecropvarietytoovercomeadifficultproblemthatisalsosafeforhumans,animalsandthe
environment. The barnase-barstar system is an indelible technique to produce hybrid seeds in
self-pollinated crops. The genetically engineeredbarnase/barstarsystemprovidesanefficientand
robustalternativemethodforhybridseedproductioninMustard.Ithasbeensuccessfullydeployedin
Canada, Australia and America for decades. Hybrid technology can play an important role in
enhancing the productivity of rapeseed mustard in the country.
● InIndia,theCentreforGeneticManipulationofCropPlants(CGMCP),theUniversityofDelhiSouth
Campus, New Delhi, has madeasuccessfulattemptwithsomealterationsinthebarnase/barstar
system,whichculminatedinthedevelopmentofGMMustardhybridMH11whichhasundergonethe
required regulatory testing processes during 2008-2016.So, Option (d) is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 106
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.89) Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of Blockchain technology:
1 . D ecentralized database
2. Immutability
3. Unanimous
4. Anonymity of users
5. Energy saving
Select the correct option using the codes given below:
( a) only two
(b) only three
(c) only four
(d) All five
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● B lockchaintechnologyisanadvanceddatabasemechanismthatallowstransparentinformation
sharingwithinabusinessnetwork.Ablockchaindatabasestoresdatainblocksthatarelinked
together in a chain.
Key features of Blockchain Technology
● B lock chain technology has a key feature called "immutability," which means that once a
transaction block is added to the digital ledger, it cannot be edited, deleted, or updated.
● Decentralizedstructure,whichmeansthatthereisnogoverningauthorityandusershavedirect
control over their assets using their private key.
● Unanimous - Every participant in a block chain network agrees that each of the records is valid
● Anonymous-Theidentityoftheparticipantswithinanetworkcanremaineitheranonymousor
pseudonymous
● HashingisIrreversible,quitecomplex,andit’simpossibletoalterorreverseit.Noonecantakea
public key and come up with a private key. Also, asinglechangeintheinputcouldleadtoa
completely different ID, so small changes aren’t a luxury in the system.
● Block chains are energy intensive, the Bitcoin block chain alone currently uses 204,5 TWh of
electricityperyear,comparabletothepowerconsumptionofentireThailand. So,Option(c)is
c orrect.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 107
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.90) Consider the following statements about Launch Vehicles of India:
1 . I t is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages.
2. The launch vehicle has successfully launched India's only space-based observatory.
3. Launch vehicle deployed for launching all threetypesofpayloadsviz.EarthObservation,Geo
stationary and Navigation.
Which of the following launch vehicles fulfills the conditions stated above?
( a) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)
(b) Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle (ASLV)
(c) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV)
(d) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III (LVM3)
A nswer: A
Explanation:
● L aunchersorLaunchVehiclesareusedtocarryspacecrafttospace.Theactiveoperationallaunch
vehicles of India are Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), Geosynchronous Satellite Launch
Vehicle (GSLV), and Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mk-III (LVM3).
● Astrosat,India'sfirstspaceobservatory,willflytoitsorbit650kmfromEarth,wassuccessfully
launchedon28September2015fromtheSatishDhawanSpaceCentreonboardaPolarSatellite
Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C30) .
● RecentlylaunchedSmallSatelliteLaunchVehicle(SSLV),isthedevelopmentallaunchvehicleof
ISRO.ThePolarSatelliteLaunchVehicle(PSLV)isthethirdgenerationlaunchvehicleofIndia.Itis
thefirstIndianlaunchvehicletobeequippedwithliquidstages.Afteritsfirstsuccessfullaunchin
October 1994, PSLV emerged as India's reliable and versatile workhorse launch vehicle.
● PSLV is configuredwithfourvariants,6,4,2solidrocketstrap-onmotors&core-aloneversions.
Variantswillbechosenbasedonthepayloadweights&orbittobeaccomplished.PSLVhasbeena
versatilelaunchvehicledeployedforlaunchingallthreetypesofpayloads,viz.EarthObservation,
Geo-stationary and Navigation. It has got the highest success rate and is considered the
workhorse of ISRO.
● Astrosat, the country's first astronomy observatorytostudydistantcelestialobjects,hasbeen
launched by India'sPolarSatelliteLaunchVehicle(PSLV).Indiawillbetheonlycountrywitha
multi-wavelengthspace-basedobservatorycapableofmonitoringintensityvariationsinabroad
range of cosmic sources.So, Option (a) is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 108
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.91) With reference to Chemical Vapour Deposition (CVD), consider the following statements:
1. I t can be used effectively to deposit thin films on the areas which have restricted access to
humans.
2. It is widely used in the production of three dimensional materials.
3. It plays a major role in developing lab grown diamond that are physically similar to natural
diamonds
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer:B
Explanation:
C hemical vapour deposition (CVD) is a coating process that uses thermally induced chemical
reactions to form thin films on the surface of substrates by using one or more gaseous compounds.
● Statement1iscorrect: ChemicalVapourDeposition(CVD)isamaterialsprocessingtechnique
usedtodepositthinfilmsorcoatingsontoasubstratesurface.Itinvolvesthechemicalreactionof
gaseous precursors to create a solid material on a substrate. As such, CVD process by taking
advantageofcharacteristicsofgasescanbeusedtocoatrestrictedaccesssurfacesi.e,placesthat
cannot be easily accessed by humans such asclosedsurfaces.
● Statement2isincorrect:ChemicalVapourDeposition(CVD)iswidelyusedfordepositingthin
films and coatings onto flat or 2 dimensional surfaces, it is not usually employed for the
production of three dimensional (3D) materials. However advanced CVD such as Atomiclayer
deposition (ALD), which can be used to deposit thin films in a controlled manner onto 3D
substrates with complex geometries like Diamond.
● Statement3iscorrect:ItistruethatCVDtechniquesplayamajorroleindevelopinglabgrown
diamonds that are physically similar to natural diamonds.
F orexample,recentlythePrimeMinisterofIndiapresentedtheUSFirstLadywithalab-grown7.5
caratgreendiamondmadeusingtheCVDprocesses.Inthechemicalprocess,theseedisheatedupto
800degreeCelsiusinasealedchamberfilledwithmoleculesofcarbon-richgassuchasmethane.These
gas molecules are broken down into carbon and hydrogen atoms, which get deposited on the seed
giving it the shape of a square,tabular diamond crystal.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 109
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .92) Zeolites are microporous tectosilicates of natural or synthetic origin which have been
extensively used in various technological applications. Consider the following applications:
1 . C atalysis
2. Molecular sieving
3. Air and water purification
4. Harvesting waste heat and solar heat energy
5. As detergent
How many of the above corresponds to the applications of zeolites?
( a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All of the above
A nswer:D
Explanation:
● Z eolitesareatypeofcrystallinesolidmadeofaluminumsilicate.Theyhavesmallporeswitha
fixed size that allow smallmoleculestopassthrougheasily,butlargermoleculescannot.This
property makes them useful as molecular sieves.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 110
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Z eolites are versatile materials with a porous structure that can be used for a variety of
applications.
● T heyarecommonlyusedascatalysts,promotingacid-baseandmetal-inducedreactions,andcan
control the degree of product formation.
● Theyarealsousedforgasseparationbyselectivelyallowingmoleculesofcertaindimensionsto
enter the pores. The structure of the zeolite can be modified to fine-tune this property.
● The porous structure of zeolites allows them to selectively adsorb or trap certain molecules,
making them useful for removing impurities and pollutants from air and water.
● Otherapplicationsincludepolymerizationofsemiconductingmaterialsandconductingpolymers,
which can produce materials with unique properties.
● Zeolites can also undergo ion exchange, which is useful for water softening, detergents, and
soaps.
● They can even remove radioactive ions from contaminatedwater,asdemonstratedatnuclear
accidents at Chernobyl and Three-Mile Island.
I n recent years, researchers have explored the use of zeolites forenergystorageapplications,
wherethematerialcanactasathermalbattery.Thisapproachinvolvesusingzeolitestostorethermal
energygeneratedfromwasteheatorsolarheat,whichcanthenbeusedtogenerateelectricityorheat
when needed.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 111
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.93) What is the primary purpose of NASA's OSIRIS-REx mission?
( a) To study and explore the Sun's Corona
(b) To establish a permanent human presence on the Moon
(c) To retrieve samples from the asteroid Bennu for scientific analysis
(d) To explore the atmosphere of Venus with a robotic probe
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● T heNationalAeronauticsandSpaceAdministration(NASA)confirmsthepresenceofhigh-carbon
contentandwater-bearingclaymineralsinsamplescollectedfromtheasteroidBennu(formerly
1999 RQ36).
● Bennuisa4.5-billion-year-oldsmallnear-EarthasteroidthatpassesclosetoEartheverysixyears.
The asteroid was discovered by a team from the NASA-funded Lincoln Near-Earth Asteroid
Research team in 1999.
● ThematerialcollectedfromBennuactsasatimecapsulefromtheearlydaysofoursolarsystem
and can help answer questions about the origins of life and the nature of asteroids.
● NASA’s Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource Identification, and Security-Regolith Explorer
(OSIRIS-REx),thefirstU.S.efforttoretrieveanasteroidsample,launchedin2016forthejourney
to Bennu.
● Themission'ssuccessenhancesourunderstandingofasteroids,includingthosethatcouldpose
threats to Earth.
● Scientistswillanalyzethesamplesfurtheroverthenexttwoyearstounlockinsightsintooursolar
system's origins.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 112
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.94) Global Lighthouse Network is an initiative of
( a) World Bank
(b) United Nations Development Program
(c) UNESCO
(d) World Economic Forum
A nswer: D
Explanation:
● T he World Economic Forum recently announced the addition of three factoriesandindustrial
sites, from India, to its Global Lighthouse Network.
● ThethreemanufacturersfromIndiatobeaddedinthenetworkincludeCipla,DrReddy'sLabs
and Mondelez.
● Global Lighthouse Network:
○ I t is a community of over 100 manufacturers that are showing leadership in applying
Fourth Industrial Revolution technologies suchasartificialintelligence,3D-printingand
big data analytics.
○ The network has been set up by the World Economic Forum’s Shaping the Future of
Advanced Manufacturing and Value Chains platform.
○ Aim: To accelerate a more comprehensive and inclusive adoption of advanced
technologies in manufacturing.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 113
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.95) Consider the following places:
(Place in News) (Location)
1 . P arvati Kund H imachal Pradesh
2. Cachar West Bengal
3. Chorao Island Kerala
How many of the pairs given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: D
Place in News Location
P arvati Kund U ttarakhand
Cachar Assam
Chorao Island Goa
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 114
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.96) Consider the following statements about Vidya Samiksha Kendra (VSKs).
1 . V SK is a data repository which will have data from all schemes run by the state government.
2. Repository will include regularly updated data from PM-POSHAN.
3. Teacher training data from National Initiative for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic
Advancement portal also comes under it.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above
A nswer: C
Explanation:
● VidyaSamikshaKendra(VSKs)isa datarepository whichwillhavedatafromallschemesrunby
the Ministry of Education(MoE).
● ThecontrolroomsoftheseKendras willcollectdatatotrackkeyperformanceindicators as
well as analyse data collated from govt schemes ‘using AI & machine-learning.’
● This repository will include regularly updated data from
○ ThePM-POSHANmid-day meal programmes;
○ TeachertrainingdatafromtheNationalInitiativeforSchoolHeads’andTeachers’Holistic
Advancement portal;
○ Textbook content from Digital Infrastructure for KnowledgeSharing;
○ School dropout and attendance-related data on UnifiedDistrictInformationSystemfor
Education (UDISE+);
○ Students learning outcomes from the National Achievement Survey;
○ Performance Grading Index, which evaluates the school education system at the
State/U.T. level.
● Funding: The Centre has allocated funds ranging from 2to5crorerupees toeachStatefor
adopting and establishing VSKs.
● Significance:
○ T heideaofdevelopingVSKsisalso tomaptheschoollocationlayerwiththepopulation
layer to assess the Gross Access Ratio.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 115
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
○ I t can help plan for new schools or for industry clusters to understand the skilling
requirementsoftheareaandhelpplanhighereducationalinstitutionsbasedondemand
and future scenarios.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 116
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.97) Consider the following statements Central Road Infrastructure Fund:
1. T heCentralRoadandInfrastructureFundwasestablishedin2000underCentralRoadFundAct,
2000.
2. The fund comprises a cess imposed along with excise duty on petrol and diesel.
3. The administrative control of the CRIF falls under the Ministry of Road Transport.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above
A nswer: B
Statements 1, 2 are correct, 3 are incorrect.
Explanation:
● R ecently,theMinistryofRoadTransport&Highwayshasdisclosedtheapprovalofsevencrucial
bridgeprojectsinArunachalPradeshundertheSetuBandhanSchemeunderCentralRoadand
Infrastructure Fund (CRIF).
● Theseprojects,withacombinedcostofRs118.50Crores,areslatedforimplementationduring
the fiscal year 2023-24.
● TheCentralRoadandInfrastructureFund(earlierknownasCentralRoadFund)wasestablishedin
2000 under Central Road Fund Act, 2000.
● The fund comprises a cess imposed along with excise duty on petrol and diesel.
● The administrative control of the CRIF falls under the Ministry of Finance.
● Earlier it was under the domain of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
● Central Road Fund Act (Amendment), 2018:
○ TheamendmentrenamedtheCentralRoadFundasCentralRoadandInfrastructureFund
(CRIF).
○ ItallowedusingtheproceedsoftheroadcessunderCRIFtofinanceotherinfrastructure
projectsincludingwaterways,someportionoftherailwayinfrastructureandevensocial
infrastructure including educational institutions, medical colleges etc.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 117
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q .98) The terms “Amini and Kalpeni” sometimes seen in the news are related to which of the
following?
( a) Inhabited islands of Lakshadweep (Union Territory).
(b) Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in Madhya Pradesh.
(c) Newly named Indian research stations in the Arctic region.
(d) Cattle breeds in Gujarat.
A nswer: A
Explanation:
Agatti, Amini and Kalpeni
● T heKochi-Lakshadweepislandssubmarineopticalfiberconnectionwasrecentlyinauguratedby
PrimeMinister,NarendraModithatconnectselevenLakshadweepIslandsincludingAgatti,Amini
and Kalpeni.
● The tiniest Union Territory of India, Lakshadweep is an archipelago consisting of
● 12 atolls, 3 reefs and 5 submerged banks. The inhabited islands are Kavaratti, Agatti,
● Amini, Kadmat, Kiltan, Chetlat, Bitra, Andrott, Kalpeni and Minicoy. More than 93% of the
populationwhoareindigenous,areMuslimsandmajorityofthembelongtotheShafiSchoolof
the Sunni Sect.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 118
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.99) Reykjanes Peninsula, sometimes seen in the news recently, is located in?
( a) Greenland
(b) China
(c) Iceland
(d) Madagascar
A nswer: C
Explanation:
Reykjanes Peninsula
● R ecently a volcano erupted in the Reykjanes Peninsula which is located in Iceland.
● The Reykjanes peninsula in recent years saw several eruptions in unpopulated areas, butthe
latest outbreak could pose a risk to the Grindavik town.Icelandishometo33activevolcano
systems, the highest number in Europe.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 119
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.100) Consider the following statements with reference to Codex Alimentarius Commission:
1 . I t is an intergovernmental food standards body set up in 1963.
2. India is a member of this commission.
3. It was established by FAO and IFPRI.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
( a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
A nswer: B
Explanation:
● R ecently,IndiahasbeenunanimouslyelectedasamemberrepresentingtheAsianregioninthe
ExecutiveCommitteeofCodexAlimentariusCommission(CAC)duringits46thmeetingatFood
and Agriculture organization (FAO) headquarters at Rome.
● Statements 1 is correct and 3 is incorrect: CAC is an international food standards body
established jointly by the FAO andtheWorldHealthOrganization(WHO)inMay1963withthe
objective of protecting consumer’s health and ensuring fair practices in food trade.
● Statement2iscorrect: CurrentlytheCodexAlimentariusCommissionhas189CodexMembers
madeupof188MemberCountriesand1MemberOrganization(TheEuropeanUnion).Indiahas
been a member of the commission since 1964.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 120
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 121
You might also like
- Search Warrant ManualDocument44 pagesSearch Warrant Manualdpi435No ratings yet
- 500 Indian Polity MCQs - MCQs PR - DemyNotesDocument184 pages500 Indian Polity MCQs - MCQs PR - DemyNotesBen Woods100% (5)
- Virginia Rules of Civil Procedure - BARBRI 2010Document19 pagesVirginia Rules of Civil Procedure - BARBRI 2010sarasavesq100% (1)
- Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules 1964 (QN 1 - 35)Document4 pagesCentral Civil Services (Conduct) Rules 1964 (QN 1 - 35)Shanta Kumar50% (2)
- Common CarrierDocument25 pagesCommon CarrierSam Fajardo0% (1)
- POA (Power of Attorney)Document5 pagesPOA (Power of Attorney)Siva PrasadNo ratings yet
- ProcessFlowchart OF CICLDocument8 pagesProcessFlowchart OF CICLangel deocampo100% (1)
- Samson vs. DawayDocument1 pageSamson vs. DawayCistron ExonNo ratings yet
- Bureau of Trademarks: Intellectual Property Office of The PhilippinesDocument1 pageBureau of Trademarks: Intellectual Property Office of The PhilippinesJerry SerapionNo ratings yet
- DRAFT CHIEF FINANCIAL 2020 Actualizado PDFDocument21 pagesDRAFT CHIEF FINANCIAL 2020 Actualizado PDFGlenn Sandoval100% (1)
- CS (MA) Rules and CGHS: (Important MCQ From Exam Perspective)Document9 pagesCS (MA) Rules and CGHS: (Important MCQ From Exam Perspective)System Group MHA88% (8)
- Ordinance Covered CourtDocument4 pagesOrdinance Covered CourtBarangay Onse Malaybalay100% (6)
- T-745-20 Notice of ApplicationDocument14 pagesT-745-20 Notice of ApplicationStewart BellNo ratings yet
- OCA Circular No. 52-2024Document14 pagesOCA Circular No. 52-2024tpr1nc3ss6No ratings yet
- LEGAL ETHICS - Bar Questions and AnswersDocument13 pagesLEGAL ETHICS - Bar Questions and AnswersJolas E. Brutas91% (11)
- LEAVE RULES - Model - PaperDocument7 pagesLEAVE RULES - Model - PaperIlham100% (2)
- Page 1 of 9Document9 pagesPage 1 of 9Anirban MazumdarNo ratings yet
- Tolentino v. Spouses LataganDocument1 pageTolentino v. Spouses LataganMark Evan GarciaNo ratings yet
- MCQ-ADR (With Answers)Document32 pagesMCQ-ADR (With Answers)Shreyansh Chopra100% (10)
- Francisco Vs Zandueta - G.R. No. 43794. August 9, 1935Document4 pagesFrancisco Vs Zandueta - G.R. No. 43794. August 9, 1935Ebbe DyNo ratings yet
- Tapiador vs. OmbudsmanDocument3 pagesTapiador vs. OmbudsmanGie LaoNo ratings yet
- Engleza Grile Toate Pana La 200 RezolvateDocument14 pagesEngleza Grile Toate Pana La 200 RezolvateandreaNo ratings yet
- 1182) FLT - 2 - Solution PDFDocument117 pages1182) FLT - 2 - Solution PDFkahog76586No ratings yet
- Anubhav 4 KeyDocument27 pagesAnubhav 4 Key19-435 K. BABA FAKRUDDINNo ratings yet
- Weekly Premix Compilation 8Document19 pagesWeekly Premix Compilation 8NRNo ratings yet
- Paper 1. Exam 1Document9 pagesPaper 1. Exam 1Neeraj Kumar0% (1)
- CIP (2008 With Answers)Document5 pagesCIP (2008 With Answers)Laxman KuddemmiNo ratings yet
- AC Vet Recruitment BSFDocument14 pagesAC Vet Recruitment BSFkaran kambojNo ratings yet
- RA8981Document5 pagesRA8981Jhuvie CastilloNo ratings yet
- Vajiram Test Ans KeyDocument66 pagesVajiram Test Ans Keysakshi750singhNo ratings yet
- FLT - 05 - Explanation FinalDocument58 pagesFLT - 05 - Explanation Finaldreamias8210No ratings yet
- Test Two CLATGyanDocument47 pagesTest Two CLATGyanPiyush Tyagi100% (1)
- LLB Question SetDocument34 pagesLLB Question Setomkarwaje99No ratings yet
- Solution - Polity Test 1 Watermark Lyst4180 Lyst2454 Lyst9970Document47 pagesSolution - Polity Test 1 Watermark Lyst4180 Lyst2454 Lyst9970uttamNo ratings yet
- Sample MCQs On Parliamnentary Proceedings - Raghav GroverDocument9 pagesSample MCQs On Parliamnentary Proceedings - Raghav GroverRaghav GroverNo ratings yet
- Study Notes 001Document6 pagesStudy Notes 001sakhujasaab0001No ratings yet
- 23-24 X Hist AeaDocument7 pages23-24 X Hist Aeaimpasse.scorch-0jNo ratings yet
- September Monthly MCQ (1) - CompressedDocument505 pagesSeptember Monthly MCQ (1) - CompressedDiya SrivastavaNo ratings yet
- GS SCORE Prelims 2024 Practice Test 4 With SolutionDocument37 pagesGS SCORE Prelims 2024 Practice Test 4 With Solutionapabhishek6011No ratings yet
- CIPE Jan 2013 PDFDocument4 pagesCIPE Jan 2013 PDFPrasad C MNo ratings yet
- INSTA May 2022 Static Quiz CompilationDocument54 pagesINSTA May 2022 Static Quiz CompilationMOVIES CHACHANo ratings yet
- Constitution II690 Zus8GHVK1ADocument3 pagesConstitution II690 Zus8GHVK1Akrish bhatiaNo ratings yet
- The Railway Carriage & Wagon Workshop Established by East Indian Railway Company at Howrah and Shifted To The Liluah at Present Place in The YearDocument39 pagesThe Railway Carriage & Wagon Workshop Established by East Indian Railway Company at Howrah and Shifted To The Liluah at Present Place in The YearSourav NandiNo ratings yet
- Mining Rules Regulation Act MCQ Part - 1Document11 pagesMining Rules Regulation Act MCQ Part - 1surajdhurve195No ratings yet
- 2021 - 12 - 30 10 - 04 Labour Law FinalDocument4 pages2021 - 12 - 30 10 - 04 Labour Law FinalHarsh RajNo ratings yet
- Cds Paper 3Document22 pagesCds Paper 3jtdavis5523No ratings yet
- Any FourDocument17 pagesAny FourMeraj HaseenNo ratings yet
- Political Science MCQs Practice Test 120Document7 pagesPolitical Science MCQs Practice Test 120Anurag SinghNo ratings yet
- Naib Tehsildar Reconduct 2023Document10 pagesNaib Tehsildar Reconduct 2023Amandeep GargNo ratings yet
- Quantitative Aptitude YamunaDocument8 pagesQuantitative Aptitude YamunaArpana DeenadayalanNo ratings yet
- 2021 - 12 - 30 10 - 02 Labour LawDocument4 pages2021 - 12 - 30 10 - 02 Labour LawHarsh RajNo ratings yet
- Quiz 15Document5 pagesQuiz 15Anshul SoodNo ratings yet
- Week 3 Test: (A) Hydrogen Cyanide (B) Hydrogen Methyl IsobutaneDocument5 pagesWeek 3 Test: (A) Hydrogen Cyanide (B) Hydrogen Methyl IsobutaneParveen SainiNo ratings yet
- ০৮ তম শিক্ষক নিবন্ধন প্রশ্ন সমাধানDocument28 pages০৮ তম শিক্ষক নিবন্ধন প্রশ্ন সমাধানMostofa ZamanNo ratings yet
- Intro Class KD LiveDocument25 pagesIntro Class KD LivehijaNo ratings yet
- LL.B (2017 Pattern)Document16 pagesLL.B (2017 Pattern)Sachin GiridharNo ratings yet
- Win & ShineDocument9 pagesWin & Shinem.preethiNo ratings yet
- General LAW MCQs (The Pakistan Penal Code 1860) Set-IIDocument8 pagesGeneral LAW MCQs (The Pakistan Penal Code 1860) Set-IIAhmadRaza BhattiNo ratings yet
- DJS 2022 Set 3Document62 pagesDJS 2022 Set 3LavinaNo ratings yet
- 06.GO Ms No 188 Order of Priority Recruitment Employment ExchangesDocument9 pages06.GO Ms No 188 Order of Priority Recruitment Employment ExchangesVenkatesh RajendranNo ratings yet
- 14CIP18 - 28 Dec 14 Jan 15 Constitution of India, Professional Ethics and Human RightsDocument4 pages14CIP18 - 28 Dec 14 Jan 15 Constitution of India, Professional Ethics and Human RightsRitwik guptaNo ratings yet
- IASbabas Open Mock 1 Paper 1 HindiDocument22 pagesIASbabas Open Mock 1 Paper 1 HindiMohammad SaubanNo ratings yet
- CISFDocument6 pagesCISFTanya AggarwalNo ratings yet
- Bihar Judicial Services Prelim Question PaperDocument32 pagesBihar Judicial Services Prelim Question PaperShree Joytish SansthanNo ratings yet
- UPSC EPFO Polity Revision Test 1 AbhipediaDocument4 pagesUPSC EPFO Polity Revision Test 1 Abhipediasatyendra singh rathodNo ratings yet
- Constitution of India and Professional EthicsDocument13 pagesConstitution of India and Professional EthicsSreemanth DesaiNo ratings yet
- Weekly Assignment 2 026002e48bb11Document5 pagesWeekly Assignment 2 026002e48bb11sarthak mohapatraNo ratings yet
- Ailet 2020Document27 pagesAilet 2020RISHABH NIGAMNo ratings yet
- What Is The Compensation Amount For Death or Permanent Disability in Case of Train Accidents?Document40 pagesWhat Is The Compensation Amount For Death or Permanent Disability in Case of Train Accidents?Sourav NandiNo ratings yet
- Motor TPDocument14 pagesMotor TPnia.713303No ratings yet
- Test - CH 13, 14 & 15Document2 pagesTest - CH 13, 14 & 15anime2305No ratings yet
- TypicalDocument23 pagesTypicalHemanth KumarNo ratings yet
- GJS Test-IiDocument27 pagesGJS Test-Iitrue 4213No ratings yet
- Constitution 21-25 2023Document4 pagesConstitution 21-25 2023malayika15No ratings yet
- Is Bad-Faith the New Wilful Blindness?: The Company Directors’ Duty of Good Faith and Wilful Blindness Doctrine Under Common Law Usa (Delaware) and Uk (England): a Comparative StudyFrom EverandIs Bad-Faith the New Wilful Blindness?: The Company Directors’ Duty of Good Faith and Wilful Blindness Doctrine Under Common Law Usa (Delaware) and Uk (England): a Comparative StudyNo ratings yet
- PPL V Francisco DigestDocument21 pagesPPL V Francisco DigestejpNo ratings yet
- Basulto v. Ialeah Automotive - FindlawDocument9 pagesBasulto v. Ialeah Automotive - FindlawNewDay2013No ratings yet
- Art. 1381 Art 1383 - 1384. Art 1383. Art 1389Document6 pagesArt. 1381 Art 1383 - 1384. Art 1383. Art 1389chelseaNo ratings yet
- Buenaventura v. Court of Appeals G.R. Nos. 127358 127449 Art. 36Document17 pagesBuenaventura v. Court of Appeals G.R. Nos. 127358 127449 Art. 36Jackelyn GremioNo ratings yet
- ICT Laws in The Philippines-W2Document23 pagesICT Laws in The Philippines-W2Jialyn LegaspiNo ratings yet
- 1:13-cv-01861 #80Document38 pages1:13-cv-01861 #80Equality Case FilesNo ratings yet
- National Law University Odisha: Transfer of Property ActDocument33 pagesNational Law University Odisha: Transfer of Property ActIshwar MeenaNo ratings yet
- Muhammad Idrees, Suit For Declaration of PropertyDocument2 pagesMuhammad Idrees, Suit For Declaration of Propertyadonis teamNo ratings yet
- Assignment No. 5 - ICC ProcedureDocument4 pagesAssignment No. 5 - ICC ProcedureFrank Lloyd CadornaNo ratings yet
- G.R. No. 129978. May 12, 1999Document9 pagesG.R. No. 129978. May 12, 1999Tovy BordadoNo ratings yet
- G. R. No. 115925Document11 pagesG. R. No. 115925Kelly ThompsonNo ratings yet
- Auto Accident Jury InstructionsDocument3 pagesAuto Accident Jury InstructionsGail BalserNo ratings yet
- Political Law Case DigestsDocument96 pagesPolitical Law Case DigestsLawstudentArellanoNo ratings yet
