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1182) FLT - 2 - Solution PDF
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Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
ANSWER KEY
Q.1) A Q.2) C Q.3) B Q.4) C Q.5) A
Q.6) B Q.7) A Q.8) C Q.9) C Q.10) B
Q.11) A Q.12) A Q.13) C Q.14) B Q.15) B
Q.16) A Q.17) A Q.18) C Q.19) A Q.20) C
Q.21) B Q.22) A Q.23) D Q.24) D Q.25) B
Q.26) C Q.27) C Q.28) B Q.29) B Q.30) A
Q.31) A Q.32) B Q.33) D Q.34) B Q.35) C
Q.36) B Q.37) C Q.38) B Q.39) B Q.40) B
Q.41) C Q.42) A Q.43) C Q.44) B Q.45) B
Q.46) C Q.47) B Q.48) A Q.49) B Q.50) C
Q.51) C Q.52) C Q.53) C Q.54) D Q.55) B
Q.56) B Q.57) B Q.58) B Q.59) C Q.60) A
Q.61) B Q.62) A Q.63) C Q.64) A Q.65) A
Q.66) C Q.67) B Q.68) D Q.69) B Q.70) A
Q.71) B Q.72) A Q.73) A Q.74) B Q.75) D
Q.76) D Q.77) C Q.78) A Q.79) B Q.80) A
Q.81) C Q.82) D Q.83) D Q.84) A Q.85) C
Q.86) B Q.87) C Q.88) D Q.89) A Q.90) D
Q.91) A Q.92) D Q.93) D Q.94) D Q.95) C
Q.96) A Q.97) D Q.98) C Q.99) C Q.100) C
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 1
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India:
1. It provides for the administration of tribal areas in six states of North-East India.
2. TheGovernoroftheStateisempoweredtodeterminetheareaorareasasadministrativeunitsof
the Autonomous Districts and Autonomous Regions.
3. The Constitution provides for the formation of Tribal advisory councils and Regional Councils
with legislative and executive powers.
4. It protects the land rights and cultural identity of the tribal communities.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer - A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the
administration and control of tribal areas in four states of North-East India, namely Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
● Statement 2 is correct: One of the most important provisions oftheSixthScheduleisthatthe
tribalareasaretobeadministeredasAutonomousDistrictsandAutonomousRegions. Underthe
provisionoftheSixthSchedule,theGovernoroftheStateisempoweredtodeterminetheareaor
areas as administrative units of the Autonomous Districts and Autonomous Regions.
● Statement3isincorrect:TribesAdvisoryCouncil(TAC)isaconstitutionalbodyformedunderthe
fifthscheduleoftheConstitution.ItadvisestheGovernoronmatterspertainingtothewelfareand
advancement of the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes in the State.
● SixthprovidesforthecreationofAutonomousDistrictCouncilsandRegionalCouncils,which
are elected bodies with legislative and executive powers over various subjects such as land,
agriculture, health, education, etc.
● Statement 4 is correct:TheSixthSchedulealsoprotectsthelandrightsandculturalidentityof
the tribal communities by restricting the transfer of land to non-tribals and preserving their
customs and traditions.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 2
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.2) Privileges of a state legislature are extended to which of the following?
1. Governor
2. Chairman of the Legislative Council
3. Members of the Legislative Assembly
4. Member of Legislative Council
5. Advocate General of the state
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: C
Explanation:
● Privilegesofastatelegislaturearethespecialrights,immunities,andexemptionsenjoyedbythe
houses of the state legislature, their committees, and their members. These privileges are
necessary to maintain the dignity and decorum of the house. Without these privileges, houses
cannot secure the independence and effectiveness of the actions of their members.
● The constitution has extended these privileges to those persons who areentitledtospeakand
take partintheproceedingsofahouseofthestatelegislatureandanyofitscommittees.These
include state ministers, advocate general, members of both the houses of thestatelegislature,
presiding officers of both houses.
● These privileges are not extended to the Governor who is an integral part of the State Legislature.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 3
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.3) Consider the following statements about the allotment of symbols in election by election
commission:
1. The Election Commission of India (ECI) allots symbols to politicalpartiesandcandidatesunder
the Election Symbols (Reservation & Allotment) Order, 1968.
2. A free symbol is one that is allocated to a registered and recognized political party, while a
reserved symbol is available to be allocated to non-recognized parties and independent
candidates.
3. The ECI decides the disputes among rival sections or groups of a recognized political party by
applying the test of majority support among the members of the organisational andlegislative
wings of the party.
4. TheECIcanwithdraworfreezethesymbolofarecognizedpoliticalpartyifitfailstoobservethe
Model Code of Conduct or violates the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer - B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The ECI allots symbols to political parties and candidates under the
ElectionSymbols(Reservation&Allotment)Order,1968,whichisissuedbythePresidentofIndia
in exerciseofthepowersconferredbyArticle324oftheConstitutionofIndiaandSection29Aof
the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: A reserved symbol is one that is allocated to a registered and
recognizedpoliticalparty,whichmeansapartythathassecurednotlessthansixpercentofthe
valid votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or to the Legislative
AssemblyoftheStateconcerned,andhasalsoreturnedatleastonemembertotheHouseofthe
PeoplefromanyStateoratleasttwomemberstotheLegislativeAssemblyoftheStateconcerned.
A free symbol is available to be allocated to non-recognized parties and independent
candidates, who have to choose from a list of freesymbols provided by the ECI.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 4
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
● Statement 3 is correct: The ECI decides the disputes among rival sections or groups of a
recognized political party by applying the test of majority support among the members of the
organizationalandlegislativewingsoftheparty,aslaiddownbytheSupremeCourtinSadiqAliv.
Election Commission of India (1971). The ECI also considers the aims and objects of the party
constitution, the party constitution itself, and the conduct and attitude of the rival groups.
● Statement 4 is incorrect: The ECI cannot withdraw or freeze the symbol of a recognized
political party if it fails to observe the Model Code of Conduct or violates the provisions of the
Representation of the People Act, 1951. The ECI can only issuenotices,warnings,advisories,or
censures to such parties or candidates, or take other appropriate actions as per the law.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 5
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.4) Which of the following has/have the right to equality under Article 14 besides the Indian
citizens ?
1. Foreigners
2. Statutory corporations
3. Registered Societies
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation
● Article 14 says that no person shall bedeniedtreatmentofequalitybeforethelawortheequal
protection of the laws within the territory of India.Therightisextendedtoallpersonswhether
citizensorforeigners,statutorycorporations,companies,registeredsocieties,oranyothertypeof
legal person. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
● Article 14 forbids discrimination in matters of procedure also.
● Article 14 of the constitution prohibits class legislation andnotreasonableclassificationforthe
purpose of the legislation.
● Thus while Article 14 forbids class legislation, it does not forbid classification whichrestsupon
reasonablegroundsofdistinction.Itreferstolegislationthatappliestocertainpersonsorclasses
of persons, either natural or artificial,ortocertaindistrictsofterritoryorstate.Classlegislation
violates equal protection guaranteed by the Constitution.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 6
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.5) In the context of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. The term "minority" is defined in Article 30 of the Indian Constitution.
2. Under Article 28, religious instruction is permitted in educationalinstitutionsestablishedunder
any endowment or trust and administered by the state.
3. Article 29 grants protection only to linguistic minorities.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: A
Explanation
● The term "Minority" is not defined in the Indian Constitution. However, the Constitution
recognizes religious and linguistic minorities.Hence,statement 1 is not correct.
● Article 28 prohibits completely state-run educational institutions from giving any religious
instructions.However,therestrictionisnotapplicableiftheeducationalinstitutionisestablished
under any endowment or trust and is administered by the state.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
● Article29providesthateverysectionofcitizensresidinginanypartofthecountryhastherightto
protect and conserve its own distinct language, script or culture (it provides the right to a
group/section/community of people).
● Article29grantsprotectiontobothreligious,linguisticaswellasculturalminorities.However,the
rights are not necessarily restricted to minorities only, as it is commonly assumed to be. It
includes minorities as well as the majority.Hence,statement 3 is not correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 7
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.6) Which one of the following groups of languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
(a) English, Hindi, Dogri and Sanskrit
(b) Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada and Hindi
(c) Hindi, Kashmiri, Manipuri and English
(d) Tulu, Tamil, Malayalam and Kannada
Answer: B
Explanation
● ChiefJusticeofIndiarecommendedamendingtheOfficialLanguagesActof1963toincludemore
vernacular languages in governance, and not just confine it to Hindi and English. The Eighth
Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
○ Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri,
Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali,
Maithili and Dogri.
● Of these languages, 14wereinitiallyincludedintheConstitution.Sindhilanguagewasaddedin
1967.Thereafterthreemorelanguagesviz.,Konkani,ManipuriandNepaliwereincludedin1992.
Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.
● EnglishandTuluarebothnotincludedintheEighthScheduleoftheConstitutionofIndia.Hence
option (b) is the correct answer.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 8
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.7)TheconstitutionofIndiamandateswhichofthefollowingstatestohaveaseparateMinisterin
charge of Tribal Affairs?
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Jharkhand
3. Bihar
4. Odisha
5. Maharashtra
6. Madhya Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3 and 6 only
(d) 1, 4 and 5 only
Answer: A
Explanation
● As per article164oftheconstitution,TheChiefMinistershallbeappointedbytheGovernorand
the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
However,inthestatesofChhattisgarh,Jharkhand,MadhyaPradesh,andOdisha,thereshallbea
Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the
scheduled castes and backward classes or any other work.
● The state of Bihar was excluded from thisprovisionbythe94thAmendmentActof2006.Hence
options 1, 2, 4, and 6 are correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 9
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.8) With reference to mercy petition in India, consider the following statements:
1. In India, only the Supreme Court and High Courts can award death sentences.
2. Whenamercypetitionermakesoutasufficientcase,oralhearingbeforethePresidentcannotbe
denied.
3. ThereisnoprescribedtimelimitwithinwhichthePresidentisboundtotakeadecisionregarding
mercy petitions.
4. If a state law prescribes a death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies with the governor.
How many of the statements given above areincorrect?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: C
Explanation
● TheSupremeCourthadSuomotoopenareviewoftheprocessbywhichcourtsawardthedeath
penalty.
● The Indian Penal Code in accordance with the provisions enshrinedintheConstitutionofIndia
provided for awarding of capital punishment for certain specific offenses. Apart from other
offenses under IPC, the death penalty is also awarded under Section 31A of theNarcoticDrugs
andPsychotropicSubstancesAct,itcanbeawardedincaseofDrugtraffickingincasesofrepeat
offenses.
● The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district. He possesses original and
appellatejurisdictioninbothcivilaswellascriminalmatters.Thesessionsjudgehasthepowerto
impose any sentence including life imprisonment and capital punishment (death sentence).
However, a capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court,
whether there is an appeal or not.Hence statement1 is not correct.
● Under Article 72 of the Constitution, the President is empowered to grantpardons,etc.,andto
suspend,remitorcommutesentencesincertaincases.ItextendstocasesofCourt-martial,death
sentenceormatterstowhichexecutivepowersoftheUnionextends.S/heisboundtoactonthe
aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 10
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
● The President can pardon the death sentence while the governor cannot. Even if a state law
prescribes a death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies with the President and not the
governor. However, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence. Hence
statement 4 is not correct.
● The Supreme Court examined the pardoning power of the President under different cases and
laid down the following principles:
○ ThepetitionerformercyhasnorighttoanoralhearingbythePresident.Hencestatement
2 is not correct.
○ The power is to be exercised by the President on the advice of the union cabinet.
○ ThereisnoneedfortheSupremeCourttolaydownspecificguidelinesfortheexerciseof
power by the President.
○ The exercise of power by the Presidentisnotsubjecttojudicialreviewexceptwherethe
presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory.
● At present, there is no timelimitfordisposingclemencypleasfiledbeforethePresident.Hence
statement 3 is correct.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 11
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.9) Which of the following are the possible benefits of e-Governance in India?
1. Reduction in corruption in the administration
2. More hierarchical organizational structure
3. Greater citizen participation in the governance process
4. Improved relations between the public authorities and civil society
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: C
Explanation
● E-Governance or electronic governance implies the application of Information and
Communications Technology (ICT) to government functioning.
● According to the World Bank, e-governance refers to the use by government agencies of
informationtechnologies(suchasWideAreaNetworks,theInternet,andmobilecomputing)that
have the ability to transform relations with citizens, businesses, and other arms of government.
● e-Governance is basically a move towards SMART governance implying: simple, moral,
accountable, responsive and transparent governance.
● The benefits of e-Governance are as follows:
○ Better delivery of government services to citizens
○ Improved interactions with business and industry
○ Citizen empowerment through access to information
○ More efficient government management
○ Less corruption in the administration. Hence option 1 is correct.
○ Increased transparency in administration
○ Greater convenience to citizens and businesses
○ Cost reductions and revenue growth
○ Increased legitimacy of government
○ Flattens organizational structure (less hierarchic). Hence option 2 is not correct.
○ Reduced paperwork and red tapism in the administrative process
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 12
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
○ Better planning and coordination between different levels of governance
○ Greater citizen participation in the governance process. Hence option 3 is correct.
○ Improved relations between the public authorities and civil society. Hence option 4 is
correct.
○ Restructuring of administrative processes
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 13
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.10) In the context of the citizen’s charter in India, consider the following statements:
1. Itenliststhecommitmentsmadebyagovernmentagencytothecitizensinrespectoftheservices
being provided to them.
2. It is legally enforceable and justifiable.
3. It empowers the citizens to demand committed standards of service.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: B
Explanation
● Acitizens’charterisadocumentofcommitmentsmadebyagovernmentagencytothecitizensin
respect of the services being provided to them. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● It empowers the citizens to demand committed standards of service. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● However, it is not legally enforceable and hence, non-justiciable. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
● Its objective is to build bridges between citizens and administration and to streamline
administration in tune with the needs and concerns of citizens.
● A citizens’ charter in India has the following components:
○ Vision and Mission Statement of the Organisation
○ Details of Business transacted by the Organisation
○ Details of citizens or clients
○ Statement of services including standards, quality, time frame etc., provided to each
citizen/client group separately and how/where to get the services
○ Details of grievance redressal mechanism and how to access it and
○ Expectations from the citizens or clients.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 14
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.11) Consider the following statements:
Statement I :The Prime Minister of India is the leaderof the Lok Sabha and the Council of Ministers.
StatementII:ThePrimeMinisterisappointedbythePresidentonthebasisofhis/hermajoritysupport
in the Lok Sabha.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both statements are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
(b) Both statements are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true
Answer: A
Explanation
● StatementIiscorrect:ThePrimeMinisterofIndiaistheleaderoftheLokSabhaandtheCouncil
of Ministers because he/she is the head of the government and the chief spokesperson of the
policiesandprogrammesoftherulingpartyorcoalition.He/shealsopresidesoverthemeetings
of the Cabinet and coordinates the work of different ministries.
● StatementIIiscorrect:ThePrimeMinisterisappointedbythePresidentonthebasisofhis/her
majority support in the Lok SabhabecauseinIndiawehaveadoptedtheparliamentaryformof
government, where the executive is responsible to the legislature.
● Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I as The leader of the majority partyor
coalitionintheLokSabhaistheonewhocancommandtheconfidenceoftheHouseandensure
the stability of the government. The President, as the nominal head of the state, acts on the
advice of the Prime Minister and appoints him/her as well as other ministers.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 15
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.12) Consider the following statements:
Statement I:As a court of record, the Supreme Courthas the power to punish for contempt of court.
StatementII:ThepowertopunishforcontemptofcourtisderivedfromtheConstitutionalprovisions,
which states that the Supreme Court shall be a court ofrecordandshallhaveallthepowersofsucha
court.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both statements are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
(b) Both statements are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true
Answer: A
Explanation:
● StatementIistruebecausetheSupremeCourthasthepowertopunishforcontemptofcourtas
a court of record. Contempt of court means any act or omission that interferes with the
administration of justice or lowers the authority ordignityofthecourt.TheSupremeCourtcan
exercise this power under Article 129 of the Constitution, which states that the Supreme Court
shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court.
● StatementIIistruebecausethepowertopunishforcontemptofcourtisderivedfromArticle129
oftheConstitution,whichdeclarestheSupremeCourtasacourtofrecord.Acourtofrecordisa
court whose judgements, proceedings, and acts are recorded for perpetual memory and
testimony.Theserecordsareofhighevidentiaryvalueandcannotbequestionedwhenproduced
before any court. They are also recognized as legal precedents andreferences.StatementII is
the correct explanation of statement I because the power to punish forcontemptofcourtis
one of the powers of a court of record, and the Supreme Court is acourtofrecordbyvirtueof
Article 129 of the Constitution. Therefore, the Supreme Court derives its power to punish for
contempt of court from Article 129 of the Constitution.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 16
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.13) With reference to provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, consider the following
statements:
1. According to the Act, the British Crown had the power to veto any bill passed by the Central
Legislature.
2. It gave the Provincial legislatures the jurisdiction over the Police system.
3. It abolished the division between transferredandreservedsubjectsintheprovincesandplaced
the entire administration under the ministers accountable to the legislature..
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation:
TheGovernmentofIndiaAct1935providedfortheestablishmentofanAll-IndiaFederationconsistingof
provinces and princely states as units.
● It provided bicameral legislature at the Central which was to have an upper house (Council of
States)andalowerhouse(FederalAssembly).ThelegislativepowersoftheCentralandProvincial
legislaturesweresubjecttovariouslimitations.ApartfromtheGovernor-General'spowerofveto,
a bill passed bytheCentrallegislaturewasalsosubjecttovetobythecrown.Sostatement1is
correct.
● The Federal legislature had exclusive jurisdiction over the federal list while the provincial
legislatureshadexclusivejurisdictionovertheprovinciallist.ProvincialsubjectsincludedPolice,
Provincial Public Service, Education etc.So, statement2 is correct.
● TheActdiscontinuedtheapplicationofdyarchyintroducedattheprovinciallevelunderthe
act of 1919 as the experiment failed miserably. The distinction between transferred and
reserved subjects was removed and the whole administration was entrusted withtheministers
responsible to the legislature.So, statement 3 iscorrect.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 17
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.14)InComparingwiththeSupremeCourtoftheUnitedStatesofAmerica,considerthefollowing
statements regarding the Supreme Court of India.
1. InIndia,theSupremeCourtjudgeshaveanupperagelimit,whileinAmericathereisnoupperage
for the Federal Court judges.
2. In India, the appointment of Supreme Court judges must be approved by theHouseofPeople,
while in America, the President's nomination of a judge to the Federal Court is final.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement1iscorrect:InIndia,theSupremecourtjudgesholdsofficeuntilheattainstheageof
65years.TheConstitutionofIndiahasnotprescribedaminimumageforappointmentasajudge
of the Supreme Court. Whereas in America,Federalcourtjudgeshavenomandatoryretirement
date. They are appointed for life by the President oftheUnitedStateswithconfirmationbythe
United States Senate.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, the judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the
president. The chief justice is appointed by the presidentafterconsultationwithsuchjudgesof
the Supreme Court and high courts. The other judges are appointed by president after
consultation with the chief justice and such other judges of the Supreme Court and the high
courts.Theconsultationwiththechiefjusticeisobligatoryinthecaseofappointmentofajudge
other than Chief justice. ThesedecisionsarebindingonthePresident.ThusApprovaloftheLok
Sabha is not mandatory for the appointment of Supreme Court judges in India.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 18
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.15) In the Indian context, consider the following statements:
1. TheHouseoftheEldershasspecialpowerswithrespecttotheStateListcomparedtotheCouncil
of States.
2. A minimum of 7 Judges should sit forthepurposeofhearinganyreferenceunderArticle143of
the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement1iscorrect:AccordingtoArticle249,RajyaSabhahasspecialpowerstoauthorisethe
Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State list.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitutional cases or references made by the Presidentunder
Article 143 are decided by a Supreme Court Bench consisting of at least five judges.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 19
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.16) Consider the following statements about the National Emergency:
1. It can be extended to a maximum of three years with an approval of Parliament every six months.
2. During this Emergency, the life of the State Legislative Assembly can be extended by Parliament.
3. IthastoberevokedbythePresidentiftheHouseofthePeoplepassesaresolutiondisapproving
it.
4. ThePresidentcanissueaProclamationonlywhenitiscommunicatedtohim/herinwritingbythe
Union Cabinet.
How many of the statements above are incorrect?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency
continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the
Parliament for every six months.
● Statement 2 is correct: While a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the
Parliament may extendthenormaltenureofastatelegislativeassembly(fiveyears)byoneyear
each time(foranylengthoftime)duringanationalemergency,subjecttoamaximumperiodof
six months after the Emergency has ceased to operate.
● Statement3iscorrect:ThePresidentmustrevokeaproclamationofEmergencyiftheLokSabha
(House of People) passes a resolution disapproving its continuation. Such aproclamationdoes
not require the parliamentary approval. It is required to be passed by the Lok Sabha only.
● Statement4iscorrect:ThePresident,canproclaimanationalemergencyonlyafterreceivinga
writtenrecommendationfromthecabinet.Thismeansthattheemergencycanbedeclaredonly
on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the prime minister.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 20
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.17) Consider the following military exercises with respect to participating countries:
Military Exercise Participating Country
A. Sada Tanseeq 1. UAE
B. Ex Ekuverin 2. Maldives
C. Mitra Shakti 3. Nepal
D. Desert Cyclone 4. Egypt
How many of the pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Recently, the maiden joint military exercise ‘Sada Tanseeq’ between the Indian Army and the
Royal Saudi Land Forceconcluded at Mahajan FieldFiring Ranges.So Pair 1 is incorrect.
● "Ekuverin," meaning 'Friends,' is a bilateral annual exercise alternates between India and the
Maldives. So pair 2 is correct.
● Mitra Shakti Exercise is a bilateral joint military exercise between the armies of India and Sri
Lanka. So pair 3 is incorrect.
● "Desert Cyclone" is a joint military exercise betweenIndia andUAE. So pair 4 is incorrect.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 21
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Prelims - 2024
Q.18) Consider the following statements with respect to Operation Prosperity Guardian
1. ItaimstomaintainsecurityinthePersianGulfanddefendsPersianGulfSeashippingfromHouthi
attacks.
2. It is led by the European union to maintain its Maritime trade.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
● OperationProsperityGuardianTheoperationProsperityGuardianwasrecentlyannouncedbythe
USA to defend Red Sea shipping from Houthi attacks. The operation attempts to ward off
mounting attacks from Yemen’s rebel Houthis on merchant shipping. So both statements are
incorrect.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 22
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Prelims - 2024
Q.19)WhichoneofthefollowingpairsofcountriessharesitsborderwithRussiathroughbothland
and sea?
(a) Norway, Finland, Japan and the United States of America
(b) Norway, Finland, Estonia, Poland and Ukraine
(c) China, Mongolia, Latvia and North Korea
(d) Latvia, Lithuania, Estonia and Belarus
Answer: A
Explanation:
Norway and Russia share a land border in the Arctic, and they alsofaceeachotheracrossthe
Barents Sea. FinlandsharesalengthylandborderwithRussia.JapanandRussiaareseparatedbythe
SeaofJapan,withthetwocountrieshavingterritorialdisputesovertheKurilIslands.TheUnitedStates
andRussiaareseparatedbytheBeringStrait,whichincludesbothseaandanarrowinternationalborder
between the two countries' islands in the strait (e.g., Diomede Islands).
● Estonia, Poland, and Ukraine share land borders with Russia but do not share sea borders.
● Mongolia and Latvia does not share a sea border with Russia.
● Latvia, Lithuania, Estonia, and Belarus all share land borders with Russia, but none of these
countries share a sea border with Russia.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 23
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Q.20) Consider the following pairs of militant organisations and their bases.
Militant Organisations Bases (countries)
A. Hezbollah 1. Lebanon
B. Fatah 2. Palestine
C. Boko Haram. 3. Chad
D. Al-shabab 4. Democratic Republic of congo
How many of the given pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: C
Explanation:
● Hezbollah–IsaShiiteMuslimpoliticalpartyandmilitantgroupbasedinLebanon.Itwasfounded
during the 15-year Lebanese Civil War.So pair 1 iscorrect.
● Fatah – Is the main pillar of thePalestiniannationalmovementwithinthePalestineLiberation
Organization. It has been politically crushed and seensaggingpopularityinrecentyears,which
has given a boost toHamas. So statement 2 is correct.
● Boko Haram- is an Islamist jihadist organization based in northeastern Nigeria, which is also
active inChad, Niger, northern Cameroon, and Mali.So Pair 3 is correct.
● Al-Shabab- An insurgent group formed in the early 2000s, al-Shabaab seeks to establish an
Islamic state in Somalia.So pair 4 is incorrect.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 24
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Prelims - 2024
Q.21) “Global Good Alliance for Gender Equity and Equality” is an initiative of:
(a) UN WOMEN
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) World bank
(d) International monetary fund
Answer: B
Explanation:
● Atthe2024WorldEconomicForuminDavosorganizedaroundthethemeof“RebuildingTrust”,
India participatedembodyingthespiritof“VasudhaivaKutumbakam”–readytoshapeashared
future underpinned by global cooperation.
● A key outcome was the launch of a “Global Good Alliance forGenderEquityandEquality”with
WEF’s backing to bring together best practices, knowledge sharing and investments across
women’s health, education and enterprise.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 25
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Q.22) Salton Sea, sometimes seen in the news, is located in which of the following country?
(a) United States of America
(b) Russia
(c) Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC)
(d) Australia
Answer: A
Explanation:
Salton Sea
● Recently World’s largest reserve of Rare Earth Element, Lithium wasdiscoveredBeneathSalton
Sea, California of USA.
● Salton Sea is a saline lakeinthelowerColoradoDesert,southernCaliforniaofUnitedStatesof
America.
● In rare-earth elements (REEs), lithium stands out because of its usefulness and potential value.
● Recently World’s largest reserve of Rare Earth Element, Lithium wasdiscoveredBeneathSalton
Sea.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 26
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Q.23) In the UN’s Genocide Convention, the term ‘Genocide’ includes which of the following:
1. Killing members of a group.
2. Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of a group.
3. Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life, calculated to bring about its physical
destruction in whole or any part of it.
4. Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group.
5. Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Answer: D
Explanation:
● UN’s Genocide Convention
● South Africa filed a genocide case against Israel at International Court of Justice.
● The Genocide Convention wasthefirsthumanrightstreatyadoptedbytheGeneralAssemblyof
the United Nations on 9 December 1948.
● AccordingtotheConvention,genocideisacrimethatcantakeplacebothintimeofwaraswellas
in time of peace.
Article II of the UN’s Genocide Convention defines the term ‘Genocide’ that includes:
● Killing members of a group.
● Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of a group.
● Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life, calculated to bring about its physical
destruction in whole or any part of it.
● Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group.
● Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.
So all the statements are part of UN Genocide convention.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 27
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Q.24) Which of the following is correct about the location of the Gaza strip?
(a) Western Mediterranean basin
(b) East of Dead Sea
(c) East of West Bank
(d) Border with Egypt
Answer: D
Explanation:
TherecentescalationofconflictbetweenIsraelandHamasmilitantshasthrusttheGazaStripinto
the global spotlight.
About:
● The Gaza Strip is situated in
the eastern Mediterranean
basin, sharing borders with
Egypt in the southwest and
Israeltothenorthandeast.To
the west, it isboundedbythe
Mediterranean Sea.
● It is one of the most densely
populated areasglobally,with
over 2 million residents living in a tiny area.
● The term "open air prison" has been widely used by academics, activists, and journalists to
characterize the conditions in Gaza.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 28
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Q.25) Consider the following countries:
1. Germany
2. France
3. Poland
4. Hungary
How many of the countries given above are part of Bucharest Nine or Bucharest Format ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: B
Explanation
● TheBucharestNineisagroupofnineNATOcountriesinEasternEuropethatbecamepartofthe
US- led military alliance after the end of the Cold War.
● TheBucharestNineorBucharestFormat,oftenabbreviatedastheB9,wasfoundedonNovember
4, 2015, and takes its name from
Bucharest,thecapitalofRomania.
The B9 are, apart from Romania
and Poland, Hungary, Bulgaria,
the Czech Republic,Slovakia,and
the three Baltic republics of
Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania.
● All nine countries were once
closely associated with the now
dissolved Soviet Union, but later
chose the path of democracy.
Romania, Poland, Hungary, and
Bulgaria are former signatories of
the now dissolved Warsaw Pact
military alliance led by theSoviet
Union. Estonia, Latvia, and
Lithuania were part of theformer
UnionofSovietSocialistRepublics
(USSR).
● AllmembersoftheB9arepartoftheEuropeanUnion(EU)andNorthAtlanticTreatyOrganisation
(NATO).
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 29
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Q.26) Consider the following statements about Vijayanagara Empire:
1. The patronage of temples and cults was important for rulers who were trying to establish and
legitimize their authority through association with the divinities housed in the shrines.
2. Vijayanagara was noted for its markets dealing in spices, textiles and precious stones.
3. KingsoccasionallyassertedtheircontroloverAmara-nayakasbytransferringthemfromoneplace
to another.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer : C
● Vijaynagar In 1336, the Vijayanagar kingdom was established byHariharaandBukka,whowere
twobrothersandservedinthearmyofMuhammad-bin-Tughlaq.TheybrokeawayfromtheDelhi
Sultanate and established an independent state in Karnataka and established the capital city
Vijayanagar on the banks of river Tungabhadra in 1336.
● Harihara and Bukka were helpedandinspiredbycontemporaryscholarsandasaintVidyaranya
for the establishment of their kingdom. While many of the structures at Vijayanagara were
destroyed whenthecitywassacked,traditionsofbuildingpalatialstructureswerecontinuedby
the nayakas. Many of these buildings have survived. The royal center was located in the
southwestern part of the settlement. Although designated as a royal center, itincludedover60
temples.Clearly,thepatronageoftemplesandcultswasimportantforrulerswhoweretryingto
establish and legitimize their authority through association with the divinities housed in the
shrines. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
● Vijayanagarawasalsonotedforitsmarketsdealinginspices,textilesandpreciousstones.Hence,
Statement 2 is correct.
● Trade was often regarded as a status symbol for such cities, which boasted of a wealthy
population that demanded high-value exotic goods,especiallypreciousstonesandjewelry.The
amara-nayakassenttributetothekingannuallyandpersonally,appearedintheroyalcourtwith
gifts to express their loyalty. Kings occasionally asserted theircontroloverthembytransferring
them from one place to another. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
● However, during the course of the seventeenth century, many of these nayakas established
independent kingdoms. This hastened the collapse of the central imperial structure.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 30
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Q.27) According to the Arthashastra of Kautilya, consider the following with respect to the
economic regulations during Mauryan rule:
Statement I: A striking social development of the Maurya period was the employment of slaves in
agricultural operations.
StatementII:Thepunch-markedgoldcoins,whichcarrythesymbolsofthe peacockandcrescentedhill,
formed the imperial currency of the Mauryas.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(b) BothStatement-IandStatement-IIarecorrectandStatement-IIisnotthecorrectexplanationfor
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: C
● Statement1iscorrect:AccordingtotheArthashastraofKautilya,astrikingsocialdevelopmentof
the Maurya period was the employment of slaves in agricultural operations.
● Statement 2 is not correct: The punch-marked silver coins, which carry the symbols of the
peacock and crescented hill, formed the imperial currency of the Mauryas.
● The Arthashastra is a treatise onpolitics,economics,militarystrategy,statefunction,andsocial
organization attributed to the philosopher and Prime Minister Kautilya (also known as Chanakya).
● The Arthashastra is said to have been authored by Kautilya as a manual for Chandragupta,
teaching him on how to rule a kingdom and promoting direct action in dealing with political
issues without regard for ethical considerations.
● Both Hinduism and the practicality of the Charvaka philosophical school, which rejected the
supernatural parts of the faith in favor of atotallymaterialisticviewoftheuniverseandhuman
existence, inform the Arthashastra.
● Charvakabelievedthatonlydirectperceptionofaphenomenoncouldestablishreality,andhence
promoted apracticalapproachtolifethatencompassedlogical,reason-basedactioninreaction
to situation.
● Whetheritcomestotopicslikewhenandhowamonarchshouldassassinatefamilymembersor
competitors, or how to consider foreign states as foes competing for the same resources and
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Prelims - 2024
powerasoneself,andhowtoneutralizethemmosteffectively,theArthashastrafollowsthesame
path.
● The Arthashastra, written 1500 years before The Prince, is still studied today for its rational
presentation of statecraft and effectiveness in arguing for the State as an organic entity best
served by a strong leader whose primary duty and focus should be the welfare of the people.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 32
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Q.28) Consider the following departments and the rulers who introduced them in the Delhi
Sultanate:
Department Ruler
A) Diwan-i-Wizarat 1) Balban
B) Diwan-i-Arz 2) Alauddin Khalji.
C) Diwan-i-Insha 3) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
D) Diwan-i-Risalat 4) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
How many of the statements above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 & 2 are correct
● Diwan-i-Wizarat: This was the finance department headed by the Wazir. It was established by
Balban, who also appointed an Auditor-General andan Accountant General under the Wazir.
● Diwan-i-Arz: This was the militarydepartmentheadedbytheAriz-i-Mumalik.Itwasestablished
by Alauddin Khalji, who also introduced the system of dagh (branding of horses) and chehra
(descriptive roll of soldiers) to prevent fraud in the army.
Statement 3 & 4 are incorrect
● Diwan-i-Insha: This was the department of correspondence and royal orders headed by the
Dabir-i-Khas.ItwasestablishedbyFerozShahTughlaq,whoalsocreatedaseparatedepartment
of slaves called Diwan-i-Bandagan.
● Diwan-i-Risalat:ThiswasthedepartmentofreligiousaffairsandjusticeheadedbytheChiefQazi.
It was established by Muhammad bin Tughlaq, who also appointed a separate Qazi for each
province.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 33
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Q.29) Consider the following Bahmani kingdoms and their founders:
Kingdom Founder
A) Bijapur 1) Ibrahim adil shah
B) Ahmednagar 2) Burhan Nizam shah
C) Berar 3) Fathullah Imad-ul-Mulk
D) Bidar. 4) Qasim Barid
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: B
Explanation:
● Bijapur: It was founded by YusufAdilShah,whowasaformerslaveoftheOttomanSultan.He
declared his independence from the Bahmani Sultanate in 1489 and established the AdilShahi
dynasty.So pair 1 is incorrect.
● Ahmednagar: ItwasfoundedbyMalikAhmad,whowasaformergovernorofJunnarunderthe
Bahmani Sultanate. He rebelled against the Bahmani Sultan in 1490andestablishedtheNizam
Shahi dynasty.So pair 2 is incorrect
● Berar: It was founded by Fathullah Imad-ul-Mulk, who was a former general of the Bahmani
Sultanate. He revolted against the Bahmani Sultan in 1490 and established the Imad Shahi
dynasty.So pair 3 is correct.
● Bidar: It was founded by Qasim Barid, who was a former prime minister of the Bahmani
Sultanate. He asserted his independence from the Bahmani Sultan in 1492 andestablishedthe
Barid Shahi dynasty..So pair 4 is correct
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 34
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Q.30) what was the correct sequence of Allauddin Khilji’s conquests in chronological order:
(a) Gujarat, Ranthambore, Chittor, Malwa
(b) Ranthambore, Gujarat, Malwa, Chittor
(c) Gujarat, Chittor, Ranthambore, Malwa
(d) Ranthambore, Chittor, Gujarat, Malwa
Answer: A
Explanation:
Allauddin Khilji's conquests of these four regions occurred in the following order:
● Gujarat: He raided Gujarat in 1299 and annexed it in 1304.
● Ranthambore: He besieged and captured the fort of Ranthambore in 1301.
● Chittor: He attacked and sacked the city of Chittor in 1303.
● Malwa:He conquered Malwa and its capital Ujjain in1305.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 35
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Q.31) Consider the following statements about the Sikh Empire:
1. It was founded by Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth Sikh Guru.
2. ItwasaregionalpowerthatextendedfromGilgitandTibetinthenorthtothedesertsofSindhin
the south.
3. It was divided into 5 provinces: Lahore, Multan, Peshawar, Balochistan, and Kashmir.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement1isincorrect:TheSikhEmpirewasfoundedbyMaharajaRanjitSingh,whocaptured
LahorefromitsDurraniruler,ZamanShahDurrani,in1799.HewasnotthetenthSikhGuru,buta
secular ruler who followed Sikhism. Guru Gobind Singh was the tenth and last Sikh Guru, who
formalised the practices of Sikhism in 1699.
● Statement2iscorrect:TheSikhEmpirewasthelastmajorregionoftheIndiansubcontinentto
be annexed by the British Empire in 1849, after the Second Anglo-Sikh War. It was a regional
power that extended from Gilgit and Tibet in thenorthtothedesertsofSindhinthesouthand
from the Khyber Pass in the west to the Sutlej in the east.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Sikh Empire was divided into four provinces: Lahore, which
becametheSikhcapital;Multan;Peshawar;andKashmirfrom1799to1849.Eachprovincehadits
own governor and administration.
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Q.32) Consider the following statements regarding the Mauryan Empire:
1. The use of iron tools during the Mauryan period was restricted to the upper classes.
2. Burnt bricks were used during the Mauryan Period.
3. Being a highly centralized empire there was no tax exemption to any village.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: B
Explanation:
● The taxes during the Mauryan period were directly collected by the king’s officials from the
individual cultivators without bringing in intermediaries. Inaddition,theArthasastrastatesthat
the amount of taxwouldalsodependonthenatureofirrigationfacilitiesandwouldrangefrom
one-fifth to one-third.
● TheRummindeiinscriptionmentionsthatthekingdealsdirectlywiththequestionofexemption
from land tribute.
● The village that was exempted from taxation was calledparikrama.Hencestatement3isnot
correct; those that supplied soldiers, ayudhiya;thosethatpaidtheirtaxesintheformofgrain,
cattle, gold, or raw material were calledkupya.
● The Mauryan period witnessed a rapid development of material culture in the Gangetic plains.
Given the access to the rich iron ores of south Bihar, people used more and more of this metal.
● This period evidences socketed axes, hoes, spades, sickles, and plowshares. Besides theseiron
implements, the spoked wheel also began to be used. Although arms and weapons were the
monopoly of the Maurya state, the use of theotherirontoolswasnotrestrictedtoanyclass.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
● In the end of the Maurya period burnt bricks were used in north-eastern India. Maurya
constructionsmadeofburntbrickshavebeenfoundinBiharandUP.Housesweremadeofbricks,
and also timber which was available in abundance because of the dense vegetation in ancient
times.Hence statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 37
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Q.33) Consider the following pairs:
Associations / Organisations Leaders
Bombay Mills Hand Association M G Ranade
Poona Seva Sadan H N Kunzru
Indian National Liberal Federation Rash Behari Bose
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Pair 1 is not correctly matched:Narayan Meghaji Lokhande founded the Bombay Mill Hands
Association,in1890.tofightforworker'srights.Hewasthepioneeroftheworker'smovementin
India. Hence, he is called 'Father of the Indian Workers Movement'.
● Pair 2 is not correctly matched: To promote the welfare of women, Poona Seva Sadan was
founded by G.K.Devadhar and Ramabai Ranade (wife of M.G.Ranade) in 1909 at Pune,
Maharashtra.
● Pair3isnotcorrectlymatched:WhentheMontagureportof1918wasmadepublic,therewasa
divide in the Congress over it.Themoderateswelcomeditwhiletheextremistsopposedit.This
led to a schism in the Congress with moderate leaders forming the "Indian National Liberal
Federation" in 1919. The party (INLF) was foundedbySurendraNathBanarjeaandsomeofits
prominent leaders were Tej Bahadur Sapru, V. S. Srinivasa Sastri and M. R. Jayakar.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 38
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Q.34) Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Under the Woods Despatch (1854)Commissionmuchemphasiswasplacedonincreasing
the number of primary, middle, and high schools.
Statement-II:In1857,Bombay,Madras,andCalcuttauniversitieswereestablishedandBethuneSchool
(founded by J.E.D. Bethune) was established for women's education.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-IandStatement-IIatecorrectandStatement-IIisnotthecorrectexplanationfor
Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
● Charles Wood prepared a dispatch on an educational system for India in 1854. This document,
known as the "Magna Carta of English EducationinIndia,"wasthefirstcomprehensiveplanfor
the spread of education in India.
● Statement 1 is correct: Becauseitwasdiscoveredthatthecommonpeoplelackededucational
opportunities,muchemphasiswasplacedonincreasingthenumberofprimary,middle,andhigh
schools.Wood's Despatch advocated for the establishment of a grant-in-aid system in Indian
education.The Wood's Despatch emphasized the importance of teaching English while also
emphasizing the importance of teaching Indian languages.
● Statement 2 is correct: Following Charles Wood's Despatch, the following developments
occurred:
● In 1857, Bombay, Madras, and Calcutta universities were established.
● Education departments were established in all provinces.
● Bethune School (founded by J.E.D. Bethune) was established for women's education.
● An agriculture institute in Pusa (Bihar) and an engineering institute in Roorkee were
established.
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Q.35) Consider the following statements:
1. Tarak Nath Das
2. Bhupendranath Dutta
3. Virendranath Chattopadhyaya
Which of the above are associated with the Berlin Committee for Indian Independence ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Berlin Committee, later known as the Indian Independence Committee after 1915, was an
organization formed in Germany in 1914 during World War I by Indian students and political
activists residing in the country. The purpose of the committee was to promote the cause of
Indian Independence.
● Famous Indians associated with the Berlin Committee were: Virendranath Chattopadhyaya
(1880-1937), Abhinash Chandra Bhattacharya (1882-1962), Tarachand Roy (1890-1952), Mansur
Ahmed (1898-1979), Maulavi Barakatullah (1854-1927), TaraknathDas(1884-1958),Birendranath
Dasgupta, Bupendra Nath Dutta (1880-1961)etc.
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Q.36) Consider the following statements with reference to the Eka movement:
1. It excluded zamindars from its ranks.
2. The main grievance was related to the extraction of high rent.
3. The meetings under the movement were marked by religious ritual.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 isincorrect:Manysmallzamindarswhowerefrustratedwiththegovernmentover
itshighdemandforlandincomejoinedtheranksoftheEkaMovement.However,byMarch1922,
the Eka Movement had been put to an end by the authorities' harsh repression.
● Statement 2 is correct: The main grievances here related to the extraction of a rent that was
generally fifty percent higher than the recorded rent, the oppression of thekedarstowhomthe
work of rent- the collection was farmed out, and the practice of share-rents.
● Statement3iscorrect:TheEkameetingsweremarkedbyareligiousritualinwhichaholethat
representedtheriverGangeswasduginthegroundandfilledwithwater,apriestwasbroughtin
topresideandtheassembledpeasantsowedthattheywouldpayonlytherecordedrentbutpay
it on time.
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Q.37) The main objective of Paramhansa Mandali was :
(a) To spread the philosophy of the Ramakrishna Mission.
(b) To promote the ideas of Vedas and Upanishads.
(c) To eliminate the caste system.
(d) To maintain the status quo in religious matters of Hindu society.
Answer: C
Explanation:
● Dadoba Pandurang, Mehtaji Durgaram, and others established the Paramahansa Mandali in
Maharashtra in 1849. Its foundershadasingle-godbeliefandwereprimarilymotivatedbycaste
restrictions. Paramahansa Mandali's main Objective was to eliminate the caste system.
Members ate food prepared by members of low castes during its sessions.
● DadobaPandurangestablishedsomeguidelinesknownas“ParamhansikBrahmyadharma”when
he left and took over the Paramahansa Mandali, and they were as follows:
○ Worship should be limited to God alone.
○ Love and morality serve as the foundation of true religion.
○ Everyone should receive the proper education in an equal manner.
○ There is just one caste of humanity.
○ Reason should be the foundation of our words and deeds.
○ Thought freedom should be guaranteed to every person.
○ There is only one form of spirituality
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Q.38) With reference to the Ideological differences between GandhijiandAmbedkar,considerthe
following statements:
1. UnlikeAmbedkarwhobasedhisargumentsonreason,Gandhijisolelyusedreligiousliteratureto
advocate reforms in society.
2. While Ambedkar favoredIndustrialisationtoupliftsociallydowntrodden,Gandhijiwascriticalof
mechanized industries.
3. Unlike Ambedkar who wanted separation of Religion and Politics, Gandhiji was in favor of the
moral influence of religion on politics.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer:B
Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar emerged as a prominent figure during India's fight for
independence. However, they have unique ideologies and adopted different methods for the social,
economic and political development of India.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: While it is true that Ambedkar based his argument on reason and
humanism, the assertion that Mahatma Gandhi solely used religious literature to advocate for
socialreformsisnotcorrect.Forinstance,inhisentirecampaignoneradicationofUntouchability,
his arguments were based on the principlesofhumanismandreason.HesaidthattheShastras
(religiousliterature)donotsanctionuntouchability,andeveniftheydid,theyshouldbeignored
as it was against human dignity.
● Statement2iscorrect:Gandhiwascriticalofindustrialisationanditspotentialconsequencesfor
India. He believed in self-sufficiency of villageindustriestoupliftthemassesandhefearedthat
industrialisation may lead to exploitation of labour, degradation of the environment, and the
concentration of wealth in the hands of a few. On the other hand, Ambedkar believed that
industrialisation could createemploymentopportunitiesformarginalisedcommunitieswhichin
turn would elevate the social status of downtrodden. He believed that economic development
and social development as an interconnected concept.
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● Statement3iscorrect:WhileAmbedkarfavouredtheseparationofreligionandpolitics,Gandhiji
never approved a separation of politics and religion. Gandhiji believed inthemoralandethical
influence of religion on politics, and he intended to use spiritual principles of religion to guide
politics in the right direction.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
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Q.39) Consider the following statements about the Chistiya Silsila:
1. It is a Sufi order that originated in Chisht, a town near Herat in Afghanistan.
2. It is known for its emphasis on love, tolerance, and openness in its teachings.
3. It was the last of the four major Sufi orders to be established in the Indian subcontinent.
4. It was introduced in India by Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti, who settled in Delhi and became a
popular saint.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 & 2 are correct: Chistiya Silsila.Itisatariqa,ororderorschool,withinthemystic
SufitraditionofSunniIslam.ItoriginatedinChisht,atownnearHeratinAfghanistan,around930
AD. It is known for its emphasis on love, tolerance, and openness in its teachings.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: It was the first of the four major Sufi orders (Chishti, Qadiri,
Suharwardi, and Naqshbandi) to be established in the Indian subcontinent.
● Statement 4isincorrect:ItwasintroducedinIndiabyKhwajaMuinuddinChishti,whoarrivedin
India around 1192 and settled in Ajmer, where he became apopularsaintandattractedmany
followers.HewastheeighthinthelineofsuccessionfromthefounderoftheChistiyaSilsila,Abu
Ishaq Shami.
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Q.40) Consider the following statements:
1. The Yaksha cult originated in India with the rise of Buddhism.
2. Yaksha is associated with the nature spirits worshiped by the rural people.
3. Yaksha was the central character in Meghadoota of Kalidasa.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: B
Explanation:
● Yaksha Worship in Ancient India: Monumental images of Yaksha, Yakshini, andanimals,along
withpillarcolumns,datingbacktothethirdcenturyBCE,havebeendiscoveredinvariouspartsof
India.ThisreflectstheprevalenceofYakshaworshipanditsintegrationintotherepresentationof
figures in Buddhist and Jaina religious monuments.
● YakshaandYakshiniAcrossReligions:YakshaandYakshiniholdasignificantplaceinHinduism,
Jainism, and Buddhism. In Hindu mythology, these nature-spirits are considered semi-gods
residingundertheearthintheHimalayas,guardingtheearth'swealth.TheVedicperiodsawthe
co-existence of Yaksha worshipalongside priest-conductedsacrifices.
● Rural Folk Worship: In pre-Aryan times, rural folk worshipped Yakshas, seeking boons and
protection from evil. These guardian deities werebelievedtoresideformlesslyontreesandin
water bodies. Offerings were made to trees, rivers, or lakes associated with Yaksha worship.
● YakshasinBuddhistandJainArt:BuddhistandJainartoftendepictsYakshasasassociatesand
attendant deities of the Bodhisattvas and the Tirthankaras. These sculpturesreflectthediverse
nature of Yakshas, portraying them as super-humans, sub-humans, or extra-terrestrials.
● Distinctive Characteristics: Yakshas are commonly portrayed withdistinctivefeatures–alarge
belly, dwarfish limbs, and a big face with chubby cheeks. They are believed to be powerful
magicians capable of changing size, shape, disappearing, or flying at will.
● Cultural Depictions: Kalidasa, in his Sanskrit work Meghadoota, centrally features a Yaksha
character.Additionally,thetraditionaltheatreartofKarnataka,Yakshagana,literallytranslatesto
the song of a Yaksha, showcasing the cultural significance of these beings in various art forms.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
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Q.41) The terms ‘Ekakuta’, ‘Dvikuta’, and ‘Trikuta’ are related to:
(a) ancient land measurement units used during the Magadha empire.
(b) foreign policy strategies explained by Chanakya in his work ‘Arthashastra’.
(c) types of temples based on the number of shrines in the Hoysala architecture.
(d) designation given to the priests based on the mastery over shastras.
Answer: C
Explanation:
● TheHoysalaera(1026CE–1343CE)wasmarkedbyillustriousachievementsinart,architecture,
andculture.Thenucleusofthisactivitylayinthepresent-dayHassandistrictofKarnataka,India.
The most remarkable accomplishment of this era lies, undoubtedly, in the fieldofarchitecture.
The intention of surpassing the Western ChalukyanEmpire(973CE–1189CE)initsownsphere
provided further impetus for excelling in the field of architecture.
● Depending on the number of shrines (and hence number of towers), the temples classify as
ekakuta(one),dvikuta(two),trikuta(three),chatushkuta(four)andpanchakuta(five).Most
Hoysala temples belong to the ekakuta, dvikuta or trikuta classifications. Sometimes a trikuta
may have less than three towers as only the central shrine has a tower.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
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Q.42) Consider the following Pairs:
Statue Personality
A. Statue of Equality 1. Dr BR Ambedkar
B. Statue of Social Justice 2. Sri Ramanujacharya
C. The Statue of Prosperity 3. Nadaprabhu' KempeGowda
D. Statue of Peace(Kashmir) 4. Adi Shankaracharya
How many of the statements above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statue of Equality: Statue of Sri Ramanujacharya located in Telangana. Born in 1017 in
Sriperumbudur in Tamil Nadu, Ramanujacharya is revered as a Vedic philosopher and social
reformer. It is the second-tallest statue in the world.So Pair 1 is incorrect.
● Statue of Social Justice: 206 feet of Dr BR Ambedkar, the architect of the Indian Constitution
unveiled in Andhra Pradesh. It is the world's tallest statue of BR Ambedkar.So Pair 2 is incorrect.
● The Statue of Prosperity is the statue of the founder and architect of the city of Bangalore,
termed widely as 'Nadaprabhu'KempeGowda(1510-1569),constructedattheKempegowda
International Airport, in Devanahalli of Bengaluru.So Pair 3 is correct.
● Statue of Peace of Swami Ramanujacharya in Srinagar, located in a temple in the Sonwar
region. Saint Ramanujacharya, also known as Ramanuja, is considered to be a great thinker,
philosopher and social reformer.So Pair 4 is incorrect.
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Q.43)Porpanaikottai,asangamagesite,whichwasrecentlyseeninnewsisrelatedtowhichofthe
following states?
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Answer: C
Explanation:
● Porpanaikottai PorpanaikottaiissituatedatPudukottai,Tamilnadu. LightDetectionandRanging
(LIDAR), aremotesensingmethod,indicatedthataforthadexistedthere. Theageofthefortto
bearound13thcenturyto14thcentury. ThenamePorpanaikottaicouldhavebeenderivedfrom
the designative name of the Paana chieftain clan orbasedonthevillage’snamePorpanai. The
sitehadgravegoodsindicatingaburialsite,conchbangles,fragmentsofredandblackpots,
of pots engraved with Tamili, iron fragments, glass beads and weapons made of bones.
● Agoldennosestudorearringweighing0.2g,abonepointandafragmentofcarnelianbeadwas
found at this site. The fort area had temples for Muneeswaran and Karuppanonallfoursides,
ruins of a palace and there were signs of water bodiesinsidetoo. Aherostonementioningthe
name of one Kanangkumaran who hailed from Adhavanur wasfoundatthesite. SangamAge-
TheSangamAgeisaperiodthatisdatedfrom300BCEto300CE. TheexcavationsitesofSangam
Age include: 1. Keeladi 2. Sivagalai 3. Adichanallur 4. Kodumanal
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Q.44) Consider the following texts?
1. Ashokavadana
2. Uttaradhyayana Sutra
3. Parishishtaparvan
4. Nettipakarana
How many of the above are Buddhist texts ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All
Answer: B
Explanation:
● Early Buddhist literature is generally divided into canonical and non-canonical texts.
● Canonical textsarebooksthatlaydownthebasictenetsandprinciplesofareligionorsect.The
various Buddhist schools classify their canonical literature in different ways, some into 9 or 12
Angas, others into 3 Pitakas.
● Non-canonicalBuddhistliteratureinPaliincludestheMilindapanha(1stcenturyBCE–1stcentury
CE)whichconsistsofadialogueonvariousphilosophicalissuesbetweenkingMilinda—nodoubt
the Indo-Greek Menander —and the monk Nagasena.
● TheNettigandhaorNettipakarana(TheBookofGuidance)belongstothesameperiodandgives
aconnectedaccountoftheteachingoftheBuddha.CommentariesontheTipitakaincludea5th
century work by Buddhaghosha. The first connected life story of the Buddha occurs in the
Nidanakatha (1st century).
● The Pali or Sri Lankan chronicles—the Dipavamsa (4th–5th centuries) and the Mahavamsa (5th
century)—contain a historical-cum-mythical account of theBuddha’slife,theBuddhistcouncils,
the Maurya emperor Ashoka, the kings of Sri Lanka, and the arrival of Buddhism on that island.
● Ashokavadana is a Buddhist text. According toit,AshokadistributedportionsoftheBuddha's
relics to everyimportanttownandorderedtheconstructionofstupasoverthem.Bythesecond
century BCE a number of stupas, including those at Bharhut, Sanchi and Sarnath had been built.
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● The Parishishtaparvan (12th century) by Hemachandra gives ahistoryoftheearliestJaina
teachers and also mentions certain details of political history. A number of Prabandhas (12th
century onwards) from Gujarat offer semi-historical accountsofsaintsandhistoricalcharacters.
Jaina texts also include hymn literature and lyrical poetry.
● The Uttaradhyayana Sutra is one of the most important sacred books of the Shvetambar
Jains,who venerate its antiquity and authority.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
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Q.45)WithreferencetoartandarchaeologicalhistoryofIndia,whichoneamongthefollowingwas
made earliest?
(a) Rock-cut caves at Udaygiri
(b) Port-city of Lothal
(c) Stupa at Sanchi
(d) Shore temple at Mahabalipuram
Answer: B
Explanation
● Port-city of Lothal - Harappan times (approximately 3700 BCE).
● Stupa at Sanchi - Mauryan times (Construction started - 3rd century BCE).
● Rock-cut caves at Udaygiri - Post-mauryan times. (Early years of the fifth century CE).
● Shore temple at Mahabalipuram - Pallava period. ( 5th century AD)
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
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Q.46) Consider the following features regarding Buddha's sculpture:
1. Curly Hair
2. Elongated Ears
3. Protruding eyeballs
The above features describe which of the following schools of art ?
(a) Mathura school
(b) Amravati school
(c) Gandhara school
(d) Sarnath school
Answer: C
Explanation
● Gandhara school of art: hasGreco-Romanelementsinthetreatmentofsculpture.TheBuddha
headhastypicalHellenisticelementsthathavegrownoveraperiodoftime.Thecurlyhairofthe
Buddha,theforeheadplaneislargehavingprotrudingeyeballs,theeyesarehalf-closedandthe
face and cheeks are not round like the images found in other parts of India. There is a certain
amountofheavinessinthefigures.Theearsareelongatedespeciallytheearlobes.Thetreatment
of the form bears linearity and the outlines are sharp. Thesurfaceissmooth.HenceOptioncis
correct.
● Sarnath schoolofsculpture: thebodyisslenderandwell-proportionedbutslightlyelongated.
The outlines are delicate, very rhythmic. Folded legs are expanded in order to create a visual
balanceinthepicturespace.Draperyclingstothebodyandistransparenttocreatetheeffectof
integrated volume. The face is round, the eyes are half-closed, the lower lip is protruding.
● MathuraSchoolofart:Thereisboldnessincarvingthelargeimages,thevolumeoftheimagesis
projected out of the picture plane, the faces are round and smiling, heavinessinthesculptural
volumeisreducedtorelaxedflesh.Thegarmentsofthebodyareclearlyvisibleandtheycoverthe
left shoulder.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer
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Q.47) Which of the following is/are common characteristics of Ajanta and Ellora caves?
1. They both are rock cut caves.
2. They both have chaityas.
3. They both are dedicated to Buddhism only.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: B
Explanation:
● AjantaislocatedinAurangabadDistrictofMaharashtraState.IthastwentynineBuddhistrock-cut
caves.Ithaslargechaitya-viharasanditisdecoratedwithsculpturesandpaintings.Ajantaisthe
only surviving example of painting of the first century BCE and the fifth century CE.
● Ellora - It islocatedahundredkilometresfromAjantaandhasthirtytwoBuddhist,Brahmanical
and Jain rock-cut caves. It is a unique art historical site in the country as it has monastries
associated with the three religions dating from the fifth century CE onwards to the eleventh
century CE.IthasfamousChaityahallwithseatedBuddhasculpture.Hence,onlystatements1
and 2 are correct
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
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Q.48) Consider the following pairs:
Temple State
1. Kandriya Mahadeo Temple : Madhya Pradesh
2. Lingaraja Temple : Andhra Pradesh
3. Hoyasaleswara Temple : Maharashtra
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Kandariya Mahadev Temple - The largest and most ornate temple at Khajuraho (Madhya
Pradesh)istheKandariyaMahadeva,dedicatedtoSiva.ItwasprobablyconstructedbyChandela
King Vidyadhara between A.D. 1017 and A.D. 1029. This temple is considered one of the best
examples of temples preserved from the medieval period in India.
● LingarajaTempleisaHindutemplededicatedtoHarihara,aformofShivaandVishnuandisone
of the oldest temples in Bhubaneswar, the capital of the East Indian state ofOdisha.
● Hoysaleshvara temple (Lord of the Hoysalas) at Halebid in Karnataka was built in darkschist
stonebytheHoysalakingin1150.Hoysalatemplesaresometimescalledhybridorvesaraastheir
uniquestyleseemsneithercompletelydravidanornagara,butsomewhereinbetween.Theyare
easilydistinguishablefromothermedievaltemplesbytheirhighlyoriginalstar-likeground-plans
and a profusion of decorative carvings. Dedicated to Shiva as Nataraja.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
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Q.49) With reference to off-budget borrowings by the Indian government, consider the following
statements:
1. Theseloansarenottakenbythecenterdirectly,butbyanotherpublicinstitutionthatborrowson
the directions of the central government.
2. These loans are included in the national fiscal deficit.
3. These borrowings can be used to fund both capital and revenue expenditure.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: B
Explanation
● Off-budget borrowings are loansthataretakennotbytheCentredirectly,butbyanotherpublic
institutionthatborrowsonthedirectionsofthecentralgovernment.Suchborrowingsareusedto
fulfill the limits. Both the center and states are making suchborrowings.Hencestatement1is
correct.
● Off-budget borrowing figures did not include the loans that public sector undertakings were
supposed to take on their behalf or the deferred payments of bills and loans by the Center -
calculation.Hence statement 2 is not correct.
● The government can ask an implementing agency to raise the required funds from the market
throughloansorbyissuingbonds.Forexample,foodsubsidyisoneofthemajorexpendituresof
the Centre. In the Budget presentation for 2020-21, the government paid only half the amount
budgeted for the food subsidy bill to the Food Corporation of India.
● The shortfall was met through a loan from the National Small Savings Fund. This allowed the
Centre to halve its food subsidy bill from Rs 1,51,000 crore to Rs 77,892 crore in 2020-21. Such
borrowings are made bystate-ownedfirmstofundgovernmentschemesbutarenotpartofthe
official budgetcalculations.Otherpublicsectorundertakingshavealsobeenborrowedfromthe
government.Forinstance,publicsectoroilmarketingcompanieswereaskedtopayforsubsidized
gascylindersforPradhanMantriUjjwalaYojanabeneficiariesinthepast.Publicsectorbanksare
alsousedtofundoff-budgetexpenses.Forexample,loansfromPSUbankswereusedtomakeup
for the shortfall in the release of fertilizer subsidies.Hence statement 3 is correct.
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Q.50) As a banker of banks, how does the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) assist banks?
1. By opening current accounts of individual banks in e-Kuber
2. By providing short term loans
3. By acting as a lender of last resort
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation
● Like individual consumers, businesses and organizations of all kinds, banks need their own
mechanism to transfer funds and settle inter-bank transactions-such as borrowing from and
lending to other banks-and customer transactions. As the banker to banks, the Reserve Bank
fulfills this role. RBI as a banker of banks:
● The current accounts of individual banks are being opened in e-Kuber (CBS of RBI)byBanking
DepartmentsoftheRegionalOffices.Thesecurrentaccountsarealsomaintainedforparticipation
in Centralised and decentralized Payment Systems and are used for settling inter-bank
obligations, such as clearing transactions or clearing money market transactions between two
banks, buying and selling securities and foreign currencies.Hence statement 1 is correct.
● The Reserve Bank stipulates minimum balances to be maintained by banks in these accounts.
● As Banker to banks, the Reserve Bank provides short-term loans and advancestoselectbanks,
when necessary, to facilitate lending to specific sectors and for specific purposes. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
● AsaBankertoBanks,theReserveBankalsoactsastheItcancometotherescueofabankthatis
solventbutfacestemporaryliquidityproblemsbysupplyingitwithmuchneededliquiditywhen
no one else is willing to extend credit to that bank.Hence statement 3 is correct.
● TheReserveBankextendsthisfacilitytoprotecttheinterestofthedepositorsofthebankandto
prevent possible failure of the bank, which in turn may also affect otherbanksandinstitutions
and can have an adverse impact on financial stability and thus on the economy.
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Q.51) Which of the following are the likely impacts of inflation on the Indian economy?
1. Increase in fiscal deficit
2. Recession in some sectors
3. Increase in current account deficit
4. Appreciation of Indian currency
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: C
Explanation
● Inflationimpactstheeconomyinmanyways,someofthemhavebeenlistedbelow:oRecession
in some of the sectors: Because of the increase in prices of certain goods, their demand goes
down and results in recession in some of the sectors of the economy. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
● Adversely impacts the wage earners: Inflation adversely impacts the wage earners as their
purchasing power goes down but wages remain constant. On the other hand, it helps the
businessmen, as their profits tend to go up because of the rise in prices.
● Creates distortions in production patterns: Because of inflation, capital resources get diverted
fromlongtermtoshorttermusesandproductionshiftsfromessentialtonon-essentialgoodsin
the economy.
● Impact growth and availability of credit for industry: More often than not,theinterestratesare
raisedtocurbtheinflationintheeconomy.Thisresultsinacreditcrunchfortheindustrythereby
impacting the growth of the economy. The recent spellofinflationinIndiainthelastfewyears
has witnessed this trend.
● Impacts exports: Inflation discourages exportsbecausetheforeignimportersfindmanufactured
goods costlier; and domestic sales are attractive for the manufactures.Allthisadverselyaffects
theBalanceofPayments.Forexample,recentlytheIndianeconomywitnessedoneofthehighest
Current Account Deficit, accompanied by high inflation.
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● Impactsimports:Inflationinthedomesticeconomyincreasesimportsastheimportedgoodsmay
be cheaper than the domestically produced. This has the potential to increase the Current
Account Deficit.Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● Discouragesavings:Becauseofdecreasingvalueofmoneyanduncertaintyinthelongrun,higher
inflation depletes the saving rate in an economy.
● Createsunequaldistributionofincomes:Inflationincreasesthenominal(face)valueofthewages
while their real value falls. That is why there isanegativeimpactofinflationonthepurchasing
power and living standard of the wage employees. Thus making the poor poorer. During
inflationary times, the speculators and the blackmarketersearnincomebyhoardingthestocks
etc. and because of the artificial scarcity, people have to pay more to get the goods and
consequently the distribution of income becomes imbalanced and the money goes to traders.
● AdverseeffectonForeignExchange:Withlowexportsandincreasedimportsduetoinflation,the
demand of foreign currency increases. This has the effect of depreciation of the domestic
economy. For example,IndianRupeesawthelargestdepreciationinrecenttimes,accompanied
by high inflation.Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
● Increased Fiscal Deficit: Inflation can also make borrowings by thegovernmentcostlierthereby
raising the fiscal deficit.Hence, statement 1 iscorrect.
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Q.52) Which of the following can be possible impacts of the monetization of the deficit from the
Reserve Bank of India?
1. Increase in aggregate demand
2. Downgrade ratings of Government bonds
3. Depreciation of the rupee
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation
● Before1997,Govt.ofIndiausedtofinanceitsdeficitdirectlyfromRBIbyissuingadhocTreasury
BillstoRBI.So,Govt.usedtoissuebondstoRBI,whichinreturnusedtoprintcurrencyandgiveit
toGovt.,whichusedtocreateadebtonGovt.ofIndia.Thisiscalled(direct)monetizationofthe
deficit from RBI and its a primary market transaction between government and RBI.
● The impact of monetization ofthedeficithelpsinincreasingaggregatedemandintheeconomy
thereby resulting in economic growth.Hence, statement1 is correct.
● ThisresultsinanincreaseindebtontheGovernmenttherebyimpactingoverallmacroeconomic
stability and may result in a rating downgrade.Hence,statement 2 is correct.
● Increases inflation due to increased money supply. Increased money supply may result in the
depreciationoftherupeewhichcanleadtoaflightofcapitalfromthecountry.Hence,statement
3 is correct.
● RBI can be seen as losing control over its monetary policyAssuchthereisnoissueifitisdone
once in exceptional circumstances but in India, the problem is once it is done, then it will lure
future governments of an easy route of financing their deficit.
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Q.53) Which of the following forms a part of the Revenue Expenditure of the Government of India?
1. Grants given to the state government for asset creation
2. Subsidies and pensions given to widows
3. Purchase of Rafale aircraft
4. Interest payment on debt incurred by the government.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: C
Explanation
● Under Article 112 of theConstitutionofIndia,theAnnualFinancialStatementhastodistinguish
the expenditure of the Government on revenue account from other expenditures. The
government Budget, therefore, comprises Revenue Budget and Capital Budget. The Revenue
BudgetconsistsoftherevenuereceiptsoftheGovernment(taxrevenuesandotherrevenueslike
interest and dividends on investments made by the Government, fees, and other receipts for
services rendered by the Government) and the expenditure met from these revenues.
● Revenue expenditure does not resultinthecreationofassetsfortheGovernmentofIndiawhile
Capital Expenditure is related to the creation of Assets, Capital expenditure also includes
investment by the government that yields profits or dividends in the future.
● Revenue Expenditure relates to those expenses incurred for the normal functioning of the
government departments and various services, interest payments on debt incurred by the
government, and grants giventostategovernmentsandotherparties(eventhoughsomeofthe
grants may be meant for the creation of assets). Pensions and Subsidies, Salaries, and interest
payments on market loans form a part of the revenue expenditure of the Government. Hence
options 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
● Effective Revenue Deficit isthedifferencebetweenrevenuedeficitandgrantsforthecreationof
capital assets. It signifies the amount of capital receipts that are being used for actual
consumption expenditure of the Government.
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● Purchase of new weapons and weapon systems such as missiles, tanks, fighter jets, and
submarines requires extensive capital investment. Nearly a third of the central government’s
capital expenditure goes into the defense sector, mostly for weapon purchases. Hence the
purchase of Rafale jets forms a part of Capital expenditure. Hence option 3 is not correct.
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Q.54) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the IMF's Special Drawing Rights
(SDR)?
(a) SDR is the official currency of the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
(b) Value of the SDR is based on a basket of four currencies.
(c) SDRs can be held by private entities or individuals.
(d) The value of the SDR is determined daily based on market exchange rates.
Answer: D
Explanation
● Special Drawing Rights (SDR) is an international reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969 to
supplement its member countries’ official reserves. To date, a total of SDR 660.7 billion
(equivalent to about US$943 billion) have been allocated.
● ThevalueoftheSDRisbasedonabasketoffivecurrencies-theU.S.dollar,theeuro,theChinese
renminbi, the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling. o Currencies included in the SDR
basket have to meet two criteria: the export criterion and the freely usable criterion.
● TheSDRservesastheunitofaccountoftheIMFandotherinternationalorganizations.TheSDRis
neither a currency nor a claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a potential claim on the freely usable
currencies of IMF members. SDRs can be exchanged for these currencies.
● The SDR value in terms of the U.S. dollar is determined dailybasedonthespotexchangerates
observed at around noon London time. Hence, option (d) is correct.
● The IMF has the authority to prescribe other holders of SDRs, nonmembers, membercountries
that are not SDR Department Participants. SDRs cannot be held by private entities or individuals.
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Q.55)WhichofthefollowingstatementsaboutthecalculationofGrossDomesticProduct(GDP),is
not correct?
(a) The GDP measures the aggregate production offinalgoodsandservicestakingplacewithinthe
domestic territory.
(b) It does not take into account the aggregate productionoffinalgoodsandservicesproducedby
foreign nationals within the domestic territory.
(c) In GDP calculation, negative externalities are not taken into account.
(d) In GDP calculation, the aggregate production of final goods produced by Indian citizens in the
foreign territory is not included.
Answer: B
Explanation
● The GDP measures the aggregate production offinalgoodsandservicestakingplacewithinthe
domesticeconomy.Itreferstothetotalmarketvalueofallthefinalgoodsandservicesproduced
in an economy in a given period of time. For India, this time period is from 1st April to 31st March.
● This means it measures the value of final goods and services produced within a geographic
boundary regardless of the nationality of the individual or firm. Therefore, goods and services
produced by a foreign national within the territory of India, are also calculated in GDP. Hence
statement (b) is the correct answer.
● In GDP, only the final output of such goods and services are included.
● The rule thatonlyfinishedorfinalgoodsmustbecountedisnecessarytoavoiddoubleortriple
counting of raw materials, intermediate products, and final products. Forexample,thevalueof
automobiles already includes the value of the steel, glass, rubber, and other components that
have been used to make them.
● AstheGDPtakesintoaccountonlythegoodsandservicesproducedwithinthedomesticterritory,
the goods and services produced by Indian citizens in foreign territory are not included
● GDPdoesnottakeintoaccountexternalitiessuchaspollutionfromcrudeoil.Externalitiesreferto
the benefits (or harms) a firm or individual causes to another for which they are not paid (or
penalized).
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Q.56) Consider the following mechanisms of accessing credit:
1. Issue of dated Government securities to the public
2. Issue of Treasury Bills to the public
3. Ways and Means Advance facility from RBI
4. Issue of dated Government Securities to RBI
In the context of the Government of India,throughhowmanyoftheabovemechanismsdoesthe
Government finance its fiscal deficit?
(a) Only One
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer:B
Explanation:
● Deficitfinancingmeansgeneratingfundstofinancethedeficitresultingfromexcessexpenditure
overrevenue.Thegapisbeingcoveredbyborrowingfromthepublicthroughthesaleofbondsor
by printing new money.
The below mechanisms do the Government finance its deficit:
● The Reserve Bank of India issues dated Government securities to the public on behalf of the
Government,whicharelong-termdebtinstrumentsthatmaturein5-40years.Thesesecuritiesare
typically used to finance the long-term requirements of the Government.
● The Government issues Treasury Bills to the public,whichareshort-termdebtinstrumentsthat
mature in less than one year. Thesebillsareusedtofinancetheshort-termrequirementsofthe
Government.So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● RBI provides temporary loan facility to the centre and state /UT governments as a banker to
government. The WMA scheme is designed to meet temporary mismatches in the receipts and
paymentsofthegovernment.Thisfacilitycanbeavailedbythegovernmentifitneedsimmediate
cash from the RBI. The WMA is a loan facility from the RBI for 90 days which implies that the
government has to vacate the facility after 90 days.
● Interest rate for WMA is currently charged at the repo rate. The limits for WMA are mutually
decided by the RBI and the Government of India. WMA is just a loan paperandisnon-tradable
(T-bills, DatedSecurities,SDLandCashManagementBillsaretradable).Whereas,WMAsarenot
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used to fund Fiscal deficit.So, Statement 3 is not correct.
● Dated Government securities arelong-termsecuritiesorgovernmentbondsthatcarryafixedor
floating coupon (interest rate). Securities are issued by the government (center or state) for
mobilizing funds. Financing the fiscal deficit is the most important purpose for issuing dated
securities.Onbehalfofthegovernment,onlytheRBIissuesthesecurities,paysinterestandgives
back money at the maturity period. The government does not issue them to the RBI.
● RBI’s public debt office manages all these activities. The RBI sells securities through auction
throughtheNegotiatedDealingSystem(NDS).Theyareboughtbyinstitutionsknownasprimary
dealers (Primarily dealers are mostly commercial banks, insurance companies etc.) So,
Statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
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Q.57) The term “Rule of Origin”, sometimes seen in the news is related to
(a) Environmental regulation established by the United Nations to regulate the flow of hazardous
wastes across nations.
(b) A set of criteria fixed by the World Trade Organisation for ascertaining the origin of tradable
commodities.
(c) A 'CITES' certification permitting the international exchange of animal products.
(d) A mechanism established by the European Union to determine the authenticity of historical
artefacts
Answer:B
Explanation:
● RecentlyIndiaandtheEuropeanUnionhavenotbeenabletomakeprogressonFTAnegotiations
due to differences over the Rules of Origin criteria. In today's global integrated supply chains,
products often havecomponentsfrommultiplecountries,likeamobilephonefromIndiawitha
motherboard from Taiwan.
● TodetermineifaproductcangetdutyfreeorreduceddutystatusinaFreeTradeAgreement(FTA),
establishing its origin is vital. In this context, Rules of Origin are essential to avoid such confusion.
● Option biscorrect:RulesoforiginarethecriteriadevelopedbytheWorldTradeOrganisation
(WTO)forascertainingtheorigin(nationalsource)ofaproduct.Theirimportanceisderivedfrom
the fact that duties and restrictions in several cases depend upon the source of imports.
● Rulesoforiginareused1)toimplementmeasuresandinstrumentsofcommercialpolicysuchas
anti-dumpingduties2)assafeguardmeasures;3)todeterminewhetherimportedproductsshall
receive most-favoured-nation(MFN)4)treatmentorpreferentialtreatment;5)forthepurposeof
trade statistics; 6) for the application of labelling and marking requirements; and 7) for
government procurement.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
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Q.58) Consider the following statements about the Sovereign Green Bonds (SGBs):
1. The proceeds of these Bonds are used only for environmentally conscious, climate-resilient
projects.
2. The interest rates are higher than other bonds in market.
3. There is no cap on foreign investments in the Sovereign Green Bonds.
How many of the above statements are correct:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
Answer:B
Explanation:
● The Green Bonds, popularly known as the ClimateBonds,arefixedinterest-bearingfinancial
instrumentsissuedbyanysovereignentity,inter-governmentalorganization,orcorporation.The
proceeds of these Bonds are used exclusively for environmentally conscious,
climate-resilient projects.
● The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently auctioned its maiden Sovereign Green Bonds, worth
₹8,000 crores, under its Sovereign Green Bond Framework. InvestorsintheBondsissuedunder
this Framework do not bear any project-related risks.
● Sovereign Green Bonds interest rates Greenium refers to the slightly lower interest rate
investors are willing to accept becauseofthenoblecausegreenbondsareissuedfor.Issuers
takeadvantageofthisandofferlowerinterestratesthantheywouldforcomparable'non-green'
bonds.
● There is no cap on foreign investments in these Bonds because these instruments are
considered as specified securities under the'FullyAccessible Route'.
● ThestockswillbeeligibleforRepurchaseTransactions(Repo)aspertheconditionsmentionedin
the Repurchase Transactions (Repo) (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2018.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
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Q.59) Which of the following results in a decrease in the multiplication of money in an economy?
(a) Increase in deposits in the banking system
(b) Decrease in Cash Reserve Ratio
(c) Increase in the use of cash in the economy
(d) Increase in borrowings in the economy
Answer:C
Explanation:
● The multiplier effect is an economic term referring to the proportional increase or decrease in
final income resulting from an injection or withdrawal of capital. Multiplier effectsmeasurethe
impact a change in an economic activity like investment or spending will have on the total
economic output of something. Money Multiplier = Change in income / Change in spending.
● Supposethereisanincreaseindepositsinthebankingsystem.Inthatcase,bankswillhavemore
money to lend, which increases the multiplication of money in an economy.
● Underthecashreserveratio(CRR),commercialbankshavetoholdacertainminimumamountof
depositsasreserveswiththecentralbank.Thepercentageofcashrequiredtobekeptinreserves
as against the bank's total deposits, is called the Cash ReserveRatio.Thecashreserveiseither
stored in the bank's vault or sent to the RBI. Banks can't lend CRR money to corporates or
individualborrowers,andbankscan'tusethatmoneyforinvestmentpurposes.Thus,adecrease
in Cash Reserve Ratio increases the multiplication of money in the economy.
● Conversely, if there is an increase in the usage of cash in the economy, banks do not have
money to lend, which leads to a decrease in the multiplication of money in an economy.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer
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Q.60) Under ‘local content requirement’, certain components should be domestically
manufactured. It falls under which of the following agreements of the World Trade Organisation?
(a) Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS)
(b) General Agreement on Trade-In Services (GATS)
(c) Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
(d) Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT)
Answer:A
Explanation:
● About World Trade Organisation (WTO):
○ TheWorldTradeOrganizationistheonlyinternationalorganizationthatdealswiththe
rules of trade between countries.
○ Founded in 1995, the WTO is run by its 164 members, and all decisions are taken
through consensus and any member can exercise a veto.
○ It is the successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), a group
founded in 1948 whose rules created the modern multilateral trading system.
● The Trade-Related InvestmentMeasures(TRIMs)Agreementappliesonlytomeasuresthat
affect trade in goods.
○ It recognizes that certain measures can restrict and distort trade, and states that no
member shall apply any measure that discriminates against foreigners or foreign
products (i.e. violates “national treatment” principles in GATT).
○ It also outlaws investment measures that lead to restrictions in quantities (violating
another principle in GATT).
○ An illustrative list of TRIMs agreed to be inconsistent with these GATT articles is
appended to the agreement.
○ The list includes measures that require particular levels of local procurement by an
enterprise (“local content requirements”). It also discourages measures that limit a
company’s imports or set targets for the company to export (“trade balancing
requirements”). Hence option (a) isthe correct answer.
● The General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS) isthefirstandonlysetofmultilateral
rules governing international trade in services.
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○ Negotiated in theUruguayRound,itwasdevelopedinresponsetothehugegrowthof
the services economy over the past 30 years. The General Agreement on Trade in
Services has three elements:
○ the main text containing general obligations and
disciplines;
○ annexes dealing with rules for specific sectors; and
○ individualcountries’specificcommitmentstoprovideaccesstotheirmarkets,including
indications of wherecountriesaretemporarilynotapplyingthe“most-favored-nation”
principle of non-discrimination.
● The WTO’s Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS),
negotiated in the 1986–94 Uruguay Round, introduced intellectual property rules into the
multilateral trading system for the first time.
○ Creatorscanbegiventherighttopreventothersfromusingtheirinventions,designsor
other creations and to use that right to negotiate payment in return forothersusing
them. These are “intellectual property rights”.
○ They take a number of forms. For example books, paintings and films come under
copyright; inventions can be patented; brandnames and product logos can be
registered as trademarks; and so on.
○ Governments and parliaments have given creators these rights as an incentive to
produce ideas that will benefit society as a whole.
○ The agreement covers five broad issues:
○ howbasicprinciplesofthetradingsystemandotherinternationalintellectualproperty
agreements should be applied
○ how to give adequate protection to intellectual property rights
○ how countries should enforce those rights adequately in their own territories
○ how to settle disputes on intellectual property between members of the WTOspecial
transitional arrangements during the period when the new system is being introduced.
● TheTechnicalBarrierstoTradeAgreement(TBT)triestoensurethatregulations,standards,
testing and certification procedures do not create unnecessary obstacles.
○ Italsorecognizescountries’rightstoadoptthestandardstheyconsiderappropriatefor
example, for human, animal or plant life or health, for the protection of the
environment or to meet other consumer interests. Moreover, members are not
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prevented from taking measures necessary to ensure their standards are met.
○ The agreement also sets out a code of good practice for both governments and non-
governmental or industry bodies to prepare, adopt and apply voluntary standards.
○ The agreement says the procedures used to decide whetheraproductconformswith
relevantstandardshavetobefairandequitable.Itdiscouragesanymethodsthatwould
givedomesticallyproducedgoodsanunfairadvantage.Theagreementalsoencourages
countries to recognize each other’s procedures for assessing whether a product
conforms. Without recognition, products might have to be tested twice, first by the
exporting country and then by the importing country.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer
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Q.61) In the context of International Economics, the concept of Triffin's Dilemma represents the
dilemma between the:
(a) Interest of a Nations’ monetary stability and economic growth.
(b) Conflict of interests between national economic objectives and global economic stability.
(c) Interest of a Nation maintaining a fixed exchange rate regime and economic growth
(d) Interest of appreciation and depreciation of a Nation’s currency.
Answer:B
Explanation:
● TheconceptoftheTriffinDilemmahasappearedinthenewsinthecontextoftheUSA'sdecision
toimposesanctionsonRussiaandmanycountriesarenowlookingtoreducedependenceonthe
USD to insulate their economies.
● The Triffin Dilemma, named after theBelgian-AmericaneconomistRobertTriffin,isaconceptin
international economics and monetary theory. It refers totheinherenttensionandpotential
conflict of interests between national economicobjectivesandtheglobalneedforastable
international monetary system. It occurs often when the currency (US dollar) of a dominant
economic power (US), serves as the world's primary reserve currency.
● The dilemma arises from the fact that the country whose currency servesastheglobalreserve
currency (e.g. USD)mustprovideenoughofitscurrencytomeetglobaldemand,particularlyfor
international trade and foreign exchange reserves. This often requires running persistent trade
deficits, as the rest of the world accumulates the reserve currency.
● For example the US had a Current Account Surplus only once (in 1991) since 1981. However,
running large and persistent trade deficits can create economic challenges for the issuerofthe
reserve currency (e.g, the US). These challenges include potential currency devaluation,
inflationary pressures, and the risk of losing confidence in the currency's stability
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
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Q.62) Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the inversion of
temperature?
1. Dense fogs in winter mornings are caused due to temperature inversion.
2. It is a feature of plains and is not observed on hilly terrains.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: Surface inversion promotes stability in the lower layers of the
atmosphere. Smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread
horizontally to fill the lower strata of the atmosphere. Dense fogs inthemorningsarecommon
occurrences, especially during the winter season.Thisinversioncommonlylastsforafewhours
until the sun comes up and begins to warm the earth.
● Statement2isnotcorrect:Theinversiontakesplaceinhillsandmountainsduetoairdrainage.
Cold air at the hills and mountains,producedduringnight,flowsundertheinfluenceofgravity.
Being heavy and dense,thecoldairactsalmostlikewaterandmovesdowntheslopetopileup
deeplyinpocketsandvalleybottomswithwarmairabove.Thisiscalledairdrainage.Itprotects
plants from frost damages.
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Q.63) The movement of ocean currents is influenced by:
1. Movement of winds
2. Salinity of the ocean
3. Coriolis force
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation
● Oceancurrentsarelikeriverflowinoceans.Theyrepresentaregularvolumeofwaterinadefinite
pathanddirection.Oceancurrentsareinfluencedbytwotypesofforcesnamelyoprimaryforces
that initiate the movement of water o secondaryforcesthatinfluencethecurrentstoflow. The
primary forces that influence the currents are:
○ heating by solar energy;
○ wind;
○ gravity;
○ coriolis force
● Heating by solar energy causes the water to expand.
● That is why, near the equator the ocean water is about 8 cm higher in levelthaninthemiddle
latitudes. This causes a very slight gradient and water tends to flow down the slope.
● Wind blowing on the surface oftheoceanpushesthewatertomove.Frictionbetweenthewind
and the water surface affects the movement of the water body in its course.
● Gravity tends to pull the water down to pile and create gradient variation.
● The Coriolis force intervenes and causes the water to move to the right in the northern
hemisphere and totheleftinthesouthernhemisphere.Theselargeaccumulationsofwaterand
the flow around them are called Gyres. These produce large circular currents in all the ocean
basins.
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● Differences in water density affect verticalmobilityofoceancurrents.Waterwithhighsalinityis
denser than water with low salinity andinthesamewaycoldwaterisdenserthanwarmwater.
Denser water tends to sink, while relatively lighter water tends to rise.
● Cold-water ocean currents occur when the cold water at the poles sinks and slowly moves
towardstheequator.Warm-watercurrentstraveloutfromtheequatoralongthesurface,flowing
towards the poles toreplacethesinkingcoldwater. Thetopographyandshapeofoceanbasins
and nearby land masses also influence ocean currents.
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Q.64) Consider the following statements about the Lakshadweep group of islands:
1. They are made up of coral deposits.
2. They are located off the coast of Tamil Nadu.
3. These islands are divided by the 10- degree channel.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: A
Explanation
● India has two major island groups: Andaman and Nicobar, and Lakshadweep. Lakshadweep
(and Minicoy) islands are situated in the Arabian Sea off the Malabar coast. They are scattered
between8°N-12°Nlatitudeand71°E-74°Elongitude.Theentiregroupofislandsismadeofcoral
deposits.
● TheentiregroupofislandsisdividedbytheEleventh-degreechannel.Henceonlystatement1is
correct and statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
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Q.65) Which of the following statements is not correct with reference to the Western Disturbances?
(a) Their arrival in India is characterized by a sudden drop in the prevailing night temperature.
(b) It is highly beneficial for rabi crops in Northern India.
(c) They are shallow cyclonic depressions originating over the eastern Mediterranean Sea.
(d) They are steered in India by Westerly Jet Streams
Answer: A
Explanation
● Western Disturbances are shallow cyclonic depressions (weak temperate cyclones) originating
over the eastern Mediterranean Sea and traveling eastwards across WestAsia,Iran,Afghanistan
and Pakistan before they reach the northwestern parts of India.Hence option (c) is correct.
● They are steered in India by Westerly Jet Streams.Hence option (d) is correct.
● On their way, the moisture content gets augmented from the Caspian Sea in thenorthandthe
Persian Gulf in the south.Althoughtheamountofrainfallcausedbythemismeagre,itishighly
beneficial for rabi crops.Hence option (b) is correct.
● ItsustainstheflowofwaterintheHimalayanriversduringthesummermonths.oAnincreasein
the prevailing night temperature generally indicates an advance in the arrival of these cyclone
disturbances.Hence option (a) is not correct.
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Q.66) Which of the following is/are correct about El-Nino?
1. Itismerelyanextensionofthewarmequatorialcurrentwhichgetsreplacedtemporarilybycold
Peruvian current.
2. El-Nino event has led to delay in the onset of southwest monsoon over the Indian-subcontinent.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation
● The word El-Nino means 'Child Christ', because this current appears around Christmas in
December. December is a summer month in Peru (Southern Hemisphere) and in almost every
three to seven years, this sets in warm currents off the coast of Peru in the eastern Pacificand
affects the weather in many places including India. El-Ninoismerelyanextensionofthewarm
equatorialcurrentwhichgetsreplacedtemporarilybycoldPeruviancurrentorHumboltcurrent.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
● ThiscurrentincreasesthetemperatureofwateronthePeruviancoastby10degreeCelsius.This
results in
○ the distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation.
○ irregularities in the evaporation of seawater.
○ reduction in the amount of planktons which further reduces the number of fish in the sea.
● El-Nino is used in India for forecasting long range monsoon rainfall.
● TheEl-Ninoeventhasledtodelayedortotalfailureofmonsoonovermostpartsofthecountryin
1990-91, 1998, 2006-07 and 2015-16. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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Q.67) Consider the following statements about Joha Rice:
1. It is grown extensively in the North western Part of India in states like Punjab and Haryana.
2. It is rich in several antioxidants, flavonoids,andphenolicsandalsoknownforcardio-protective
effects.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement1isincorrect:JohariceisanativearomaticricevarietyofAssam.Itisalsoknownas
winter rice, Jaha rice or mi Jaha. It is widely used for making pulao, payash and other ethnic
delicacies.
● Statement2iscorrect:TheresearchersfoundthatscentedJoharicehasamorebalancedratio
ofomega-6toomega-3incomparisontothewidelyconsumednon-scentedvariety.Theratioof
omega-6 to omega-3essentialfattyacids(EFA)ofrequiredbyhumanbeingsformaintainingthe
properdietisaroundone.TheyhaveusedthisJoharicetomakericebranoil,apatentedproduct
that they claim to be effective in diabetes management.
● Besides, Joha rice is also rich in several antioxidants, flavonoids, and phenolics. Some of the
reportedbioactivecompoundsareoryzanol,ferulicacid,tocotrienol,caffeicacid,catechuicacid,
gallicacid,tricin,andsoon,eachwithreportedantioxidant,hypoglycaemicandcardio-protective
effects.
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Q.68) Consider the following water bodies:
1. Ionian Sea
2. Aegean Sea
3. Mediterranean Sea
4. Sea of Crete
With how many of the above water bodies Greece shares border?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Greece,officiallytheHellenicRepublic,isacountryinSoutheastEurope,locatedonthesouthern
tip of the Balkan peninsula. Greece shares land borders with Albania to the northwest, North
MacedoniaandBulgariatothenorth,andTurkeytotheeast.TheAegeanSealiestotheeastofthe
mainland, the Ionian Sea to the west, and the Sea of Crete and the Mediterranean Sea to the
south.
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Q.69) Consider the following statements with reference to Chambal river :
1. It rises in Satpura ranges and flows northeast to join Yamuna.
2. Kali Sindh and Banas are its important tributaries.
3. India has a national sanctuary in its name which lies between 2 states.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement1iscorrect:TheperennialChambaloriginatesatJanapav,southofMhowtown,near
Manpur,Indore,onthesouthslopeoftheVindhyaRangeinMadhyaPradesh.About885km(550
miles) long, after rising in the old Vindhya Range it flows in northeastern direction. There, it
becomes the second biggest tributary oftheYamunaRiver,whichisthelargesttributaryofthe
Ganges.
● Statement2iscorrect:ThemaintributariesofChambalincludetheBanasandMejriversonthe
left and the Parbati,Kali Sindhand Shipra riverson the right.
● Statement3isincorrect:NationalChambalSanctuary,alsocalledtheNationalChambalGharial
WildlifeSanctuary,isa5,400sq.kmtri-stateprotectedriverinesanctuaryalong425kmlengthof
the Chambal River and ravines. It lies at thetri-junctionofthreestatesMadhyaPradesh,Uttar
Pradesh and Rajasthan.
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Q.70) Consider the following pairs:
Peak Mountains
Saltoro Kangri Peak Kumaon Himalaya
Hardeol Sikkim Himalaya
Chaukhamba Peak Garhwal Himalaya
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The Saltoro Kangri is the tallest mountain in the Saltoro
MountainRange,aKarakoramsubrange(thebiggestrangeofthegreaterHimalayanMountains).
The Siachen Glacier, one of the world’s longest glaciers, may be found in Saltoro.
● Pair2isnotcorrectlymatched:Oneofthemostwell-knownsummitsintheKumaonHimalaya
isHardeol,alsoknownastheTempleofGod.ItissituatedinthenorthernregionoftheKumaon
Sanctuary and borders the Nanda Devi.
● Pair 3 is correctly matched: Chaukamba Peak is the tallest peak in the Gangotri group and is
situated in Uttarakhand’s Garhwal Himalaya. There are four peaks that make up the Gangotri
Group, with Chaukhamba standing out as the highest.
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Q.71) Consider the following characteristics:
1. Rainfall on the southeastern coast.
2. Clear skies
3. Rise in temperature
4. Low pressure shift towards south
Which of the following can be best described by the above characteristics ?
(a) La Nina Year
(b) Retreating Monsoon
(c) Summer Season
(d) Early Monsoon
Answer: B
Explanation:
Features of Retreating Monsoon
● Starts with the beginning of the withdrawal of southwest monsoon [middle of September –
November] and lasts till early January.
● With the retreat of the monsoons, the clouds disappear and the sky becomes clear.
● The day temperature starts falling steeply.
● The diurnal range of temperature increases due to lack of cloud cover.
● As the monsoons retreat, the monsoon trough weakens and gradually shifts southward.
Consequently the pressure gradient is low.
● Unlike the south-west monsoon, the onset of the north monsoon is not clearly defined.
● MostsevereanddevastatingtropicalcyclonesoriginateintheIndianseasespeciallyintheBayof
Bengal.
● October-NovemberisthemainrainyseasoninTamilNaduandadjoiningareasofAndhraPradesh
to the south of the Krishna delta as well as a secondary rainy period for Kerala.
● The retreating monsoons absorb moisture while passing over the Bay of Bengal andcausethis
rainfall.
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Prelims - 2024
Q.72) Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:Coral polyps cease to exist in opaquewaters.
Statement-II:The cloudy water limits the passageof sunlight in the ocean waters.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(b) BothStatement-IandStatement-IIatecorrectandStatement-11isnotthecorrectexplanationfor
Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2arecorrect:Coralsneedtogrowinshallowwaterwheresunlightcanreachthem.
Corals depend on the zooxanthellae (algae) that grow inside of themforoxygenandotherthings,and
since these algae needsunlighttosurvive,coralsalsoneedsunlighttosurvive.Coralsrarelydevelopin
water deeper than 165 feet (50 meters).
● Corals are sensitive to pollution and sediments. Sediment can create cloudy water and be
deposited on corals, blocking out the sunandharmingthepolyps.Wastewaterdischargedinto
the ocean near the reef can contain too many nutrients that cause seaweeds to overgrow the reef.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 85
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Prelims - 2024
Q.73) Which of the following isincorrectwith referenceto rocks on the earth’s crust?
(a) Mineral grains in igneous rocks will be small if the material is cooled slowly.
(b) Igneous rocks are resistant to weathering and erosion.
(c) Sandstone and shale are examples of sedimentary rocks.
(d) Fragments of igneous rocks and metamorphic rocks can form sedimentary rocks.
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Igneous rocks are classified based ontexture.Texturedependsupon
sizeandarrangementofgrainsorotherphysicalconditionsofthematerials.Ifmoltenmaterialis
cooled slowly at great depths,mineralgrainsmaybeverylarge.Suddencooling(atthesurface)
results in small and smooth grains.
● Statement 2 is correct: Igneous rocks like basalt and granite are resistant to weathering and
erosion as compared to sedimentary rocks Therefore sculptures, statues, buildings, and
decorations will last longer if they were made from sedimentary rocks.
● Statement 3 is correct: Sedimentary rocks are formed by the process called Lithification i.e.
consolidationandcompactionofsediments.Becauseofthisreasontheyarelayeredorstratified
differing in their thickness. Example of sedimentary rocks: sandstone, shale etc.
● Statement 4 is correct: Sedimentary rocks are formed by deposition and consolidation of
sediments of igneous , metamorphic and pre existing older sedimentary rocks. Source
material/rocks may be earlier formed igneous or metamorphic or sedimentary rock or a
combination of the two or all three.
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Prelims - 2024
Q.74) Dolphins are naturally found in
1. River Ganga
2. River Brahmaputra
3. River Cauvery
How many of the above options are correct:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
Answer:B
Explanation:
● In the fresh waters of river
ganga andriverBrahmaputra,a
variety of dolphin locally called
susu (also called blind dolphin)
isfound.Dolphinsarenotfound
in river Cauvery.
● Their presence is an indication
of the health of the river. The
untreated industrial and urban
wastes with high amount of
chemicals are killing this
species.
● Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
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Prelims - 2024
Q.75) Consider the following conventions:
1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
2. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
3. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
4. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
5. Minamata Convention on Mercury
Global Environment Facility (GEF) provides a financial mechanism for how many of the above
conventions ?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All
Answer: D
Explanation:
● TheGlobalEnvironmentFacility(GEF)isamultilateralfunddedicatedtoconfrontingbiodiversity
loss, climate change, pollution, and strains on land and ocean health. Its grants, blended
financing, and policy support help developing countries address their biggest environmental
priorities and adhere to international environmental conventions.
● The World Bank established the Global Environment Facility (GEF) in1991incollaborationwith
the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP) to provide funding to protect the global environment.
● At the Rio Earth Summit in 1992, the GEF was restructured andseparatedfromtheWorldBank
system to become a permanent, separate institution. However, since 1994, the World Bankhas
served as a Trustee of the GEF Trust Fund and has provided administrative services. It is
headquartered in Washington, DC, USA. India is a GEF donor as well as a recipient.
● TheGEFprovidesfundingtoassistdevelopingcountriesinmeetingtheobjectivesofinternational
environmental conventions.
The GEF serves as a "financial mechanism" for five conventions:
● Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD),
● United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC),
● Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs),
● UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD),
● Minamata Convention on Mercury.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
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Prelims - 2024
Q.76) Arrange the following states in decreasing order of the number of national parks they have:
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. Gujarat
4. Tamil Nadu
5. Assam
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1-2-5-3-4
(b) 4-5-3-2-1
(c) 1-2-3-4-5
(d) 1-5-2-4-3
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Thereare106existingnationalparksinIndiacoveringanareaof44,372.42km2,whichis1.35%of
the geographical area of the country.
● WithRaimonaandDihingNationalparksbeingnotified,Assambecamethestatewiththesecond
highest number of national parks after Madhya Pradesh which has 11 National Parks.
● While Maharashtra has 6 National parks, Tamil Nadu has 5 and Gujarat State has 4 National Parks.
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Prelims - 2024
Q.77) Consider the following statements with reference to fuel cells:
1. A hydrogen fuel cell produces only water and heat as by-products.
2. Fuel cells do not need to recharge as long as there is a constant source of fuel and oxygen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
● Afuelcellusesthechemicalenergyofhydrogenoranotherfueltocleanlyandefficientlyproduce
electricity.Ifhydrogenisthefuel,electricity,water,andheataretheonlyproducts.Fuelcells
are unique in terms of the variety of their potential applications; they can provide power for
systemsaslargeasautilitypowerstationandassmallasalaptopcomputer.Hence,statement1
is correct.
● Fuelcellscanbeusedinawiderangeofapplications,includingtransportation,materialhandling,
stationary, portable, and emergency backup power applications.
● Because fuel cells can be grid independent, they’re also an attractive option for critical load
functions such as data centers, telecommunications towers, hospitals, emergency response
systems, and even military applications for national defense.
● Fuelcellshaveseveralbenefitsoverconventionalcombustion-basedtechnologiescurrentlyused
in many power plants and passenger vehicles.
● Fuel cells can operate at higher efficiencies than combustion engines, and can convert the
chemical energy in the fuel to electrical energy with efficiencies of up to 60%. Fuel cells have
lower emissions than combustion engines.
● Hydrogen fuel cells emit only water, so there are no carbon dioxide emissions and no air
pollutants that createsmogandcausehealthproblemsatthepointofoperation.Also,fuelcells
are quiet during operation as they have fewer moving parts.
● Fuelcellsaresimilartobatteriesinthattheyproduceelectricitywithoutcombustionoremissions.
Unlike batteries, fuel cells do not run down orneedtorecharge—aslongasthere’saconstant
source of fuel and oxygen. Hence, statement 2 iscorrect.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer
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Prelims - 2024
Q.78) Consider the following statements:
1. Lonar Lake in Manipur is unique with floating phumdis.
2. The Wular lake is a part of tectonic depression.
3. Vembanad Lake is the largest Ramsar site in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Lonar Lake, also known as Lonar Crater, is a remarkable natural
wonder located in theBuldhanadistrictofMaharashtra.ThewaterofLonarLakeispinkdueto
the presence of a type of bacteria called Haloarchaea.
○ The only floating National Park intheworld,theKeibulLamjaoNationalParklocatedon
theLoktakLake(floatingphumdis)isthelastnaturalhabitatofthe“Sangai”,thedancing
deer of Manipur.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Wular lake is integral to the hydrological system of the Kashmir
valley. India's largest freshwater lake,theWularlakewasformedasaresultoftectonicactivity
and is fed by the Jhelum river.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Vembanad Lake is also known as Vembanad Kayal, Vembanad Kol,
Punnamada Lake (in Kuttanad) and Kochi Lake (in Kochi). Thelakehasitssourceinfourrivers,
Meenachil, Achankovil, Pampa and Manimala It is separated from the Arabian Sea by a narrow
barrierislandandisapopularbackwaterstretchinKerala.Itisthesecond-largestRamsarsitein
India only after the Sundarbans in West Bengal.
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Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.79) Global Coal Plant Tracker recently in news is developed by:
(a) World Coal Association
(b) Global Energy Monitor
(c) United Nations Environment Programme
(d) Global Environment Facility
Answer: B
Explanation:
Recently,GlobalEnergyMonitor(GEM),anot-for-profitcatalogingcoalprojectsworldwide,hasreleased
its quarterly update of GEM’s Global Coal Plant Tracker, highlighting severalkeyfindingsregardingthe
status of coal power projects worldwide.
● More than 95% of coal plant capacity beginning construction in 2023 is in China, showcasinga
dominance in new coal projects.
Global Coal Plant Tracker:
It is an online databasethatidentifiesandmapseveryknowncoal-firedgeneratingunitandeverynew
unit proposed since 2010 (30 megawatts and larger).
● DevelopedbyGEMthetrackerusesfootnotedwikipagestodocumenteachplantandisupdated
biannually, around January and July.
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Q.80) Consider the following statements, with reference to fertilizers in India :
1. Organic fertilizers are outside the purview of regulation of the government.
2. The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers assesses the requirement of fertilizers each year.
3. Most urea used in the country is domestically produced.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, biofertilizers and organic fertilizers were brought under the
regulatory purview of the Fertilizer (Inorganic, Organic or Mixed) (Control) Order (FCO), 1985,
under the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare, in 2006.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare assesses the
requirement of fertilisers each year before the start of the cropping season and informs the
Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers to ensure the supply.
● Statement3iscorrect:Indiaisthe2ndlargestconsumerandthe3rdlargestproducerofureain
the world. India consumes around 33 million tonnes of urea annually, of which almost 70% is
domestically produced and the rest is imported from other countries.
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Prelims - 2024
Q.81) Which of the following is the bestexplanationof“SESHAtechnology“recentlyseeninthe
news?
(a) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces.
(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora.
(c) Decentralized processing of the biodegradable waste.
(d) Capturing the carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas.
Answer: C
Explanation:
About:
● SHESHAisanovel,compacthelical-shapedwasteconverteraimedtomanagethebiodegradable
wastegeneratedinsmallhousingsocieties,restaurants,etc.in-situ,thusallowingdecentralized
processing of the biodegradable waste.
● The system has tremendous potential to process the waste as well as the generation of good
quality fuel and manure required for soil applications.
● The name Shesha has been given on the basis of the serpentine shape of the digester (its
resemblance to the snake Shesha) as well as the Sanskrit name of waste.
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Q.82) Recently, the National Conference on Promotion of Seaweed Cultivation was held in
Koteshwar, Gujarat. Which of the following are the advantages of sea weeds ?
1. Bioplastics
2. Cancer therapy
3. Carbon Capture
4. Source of vitamins
Choose the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Seaweedsaremacroscopic,multicellular,marinealgae.Theycomeinavarietyofcolors,including
red, green, and brown. They are referred to as the 'Medical Food of the 21st Century’.
Significance:
● Bio-indicator: They act as bio-indicator by absorbing excess nutrients and signaling marine
chemicaldamagecausedbywastefromagriculture,industries,andhouseholds,oftenleadingto
algal blooming.
● Food Source:Seaweed is a nutritional powerhouse,rich invitamins, minerals, and dietary fiber.
● Bioproducts: Seaweed extracts are used in a wide range of products, including cosmetics,
pharmaceuticals, andbioplastics. They offer sustainablealternatives to conventional options.
● CarbonCapture:Seaweedabsorbscarbondioxidefromtheatmosphereasitgrows,makingita
potential tool in the fight against climate change.
● Other Benefits: Seaweeds areutilizedforvariouspurposes,includinglaxatives,pharmaceutical
capsules, goiter treatment,cancer therapy,bone replacement,and cardiovascular surgeries.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 95
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Q.83) Which of the following is/are the advantages of forest fires?
1. Increase in soil fertility
2. Survival of some plant species.
3. Getting rid of invasive species
Choose the correct code:
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pair
(c) Only three pair
(d) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Advantages of forest fires:
● Some plant species depend on fire for survival. They dependontheforestfirestomultiplyand
grow. For example: sandplain gerardia and the wood lily
● Several plants actually require fire to move along their life cycles.
● Fires can help rid an ecosystem of invasive species that have not adapted to regular wildland fires
● They can kill insects and diseases that harm trees.
● It can cleanupdebrisandunderbrushontheforestfloor,addnutrientstothesoil,andopenup
space to let sunlight through to the ground.
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Prelims - 2024
Q.84) Consider the following statements, with reference to Indian Wolf:
1. Their highest concentration is found in Rajasthan followed by Madhya Pradesh.
2. Hunting by the Maldhari community is one of the reasons for the declining population of wolves.
3. It is listed as a species of “endangered” in the IUCN red list.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The highest concentration of wolves is currentlyinMadhyaPradesh
(772), followed by Rajasthan (532), Gujarat (494), Maharashtra (396) and Chhattisgarh (320).
● Statement 2 is correct: ThewolvesfeedonNeelgaicalvesandboarpigletsaswellasoncattle,
goats, sheep and other prey. TheMaldhari communitywould kill wolves to protect their animals.
○ The habitat of the Indian grey wolf is becoming isolated. Thisisduetotheexpansionof
human settlements, deforestation and cropland expansion. As aresult,numerousissues
arise as a result of this, including interbreeding with stray dogs. Furthermore, habitat
fragementation by linear infrastructure increases the risk of roadkill.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The IUCN Redlist considering the wide distribution range of the
subspecies has listed it as a species ofleast concern.
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Prelims - 2024
Q.85)Whichofthefollowingcorrectlydescribesthemeaningof‘BlueOceanEvent’,sometimesseen
in news?
(a) A phenomenon in which the ocean waters turn completely blue due to the absence of algae
blooms.
(b) A phenomenon in which the ocean takes on an unusually blue appearance as a result of the
influence of moonlight
(c) The hypothetical occurrence whentheArcticOceanbecomesice-freeduringthesummerdueto
climate change.
(d) AphenomenoninwhichoceanwaterturnsblueduetoanincreaseintheconcentrationofCarbon
dioxide.
Answer:C
Explanation:
Recently a study has predicted that the Arctic Ocean could be free of ice in summers by 2030.
● ManyclimatescientistsexpressedtheirconcernsovertherapiddeclineoficesheetsintheArctic
as the effect of Climate change and global warming.
● Option c is correct: Theterm"BlueOceanEvent"referstothehypotheticalscenarioinwhich
the ArcticOceanexperiencesacompleteabsenceofseaiceduringthesummermonthsdue
to the effects of climate change. This event isofsignificantconcernbecausethelossofArctic
seaicehasfar-reachingimplicationsforclimatesystemsandecosystemsintheArcticregionand
beyond.
● Theicewhichremainsattheendofsummeriscalledmultiyearseaiceandisconsiderablythicker
than seasonal ice. Over the past 40 years, the multiyear sea ice in the Arctic has shrunk from
around 7 million sq. km to 4 million (loss of ice cover roughly equal to the size of India).
● BlueOceanEventreferstothesituationoftheArcticOceanbecomingice-freeduringthesummer,
with the sea ice area dropping below 1 million square kms.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer
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Prelims - 2024
Q.86) Consider the following statements with respect to polio:
1. It can only infect Children under the age of 5 years.
2. Humans are the only known natural hosts of the poliovirus.
3. It cannot be cured but only prevented through immunization.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
Answer: B
Explanation:
About Polio:
● Polio,infullpoliomyelitis,alsocalledinfantileparalysis,isanacuteviralinfectiousdiseaseofthe
nervous system that usually begins with general symptoms such as fever, headache, nausea,
fatigue, and muscle pains.
● The polio virus is a picornavirus (family Picornaviridae), a member of a group known as
enteroviruses that inhabit the human digestive tract.
● Humans are the only known natural hosts of the poliovirus. The virus entersthebodymost
often by the so-called fecal-oral route—that is, from fecal matter taken into themouththrough
contaminated food or fingers.Hence, statement 2 iscorrect.
● It can also enter by ingestion of droplets expelled from the throat of an infected person.
● Polio mainly affects children under 5 years of age. However, anyone of any age who is
unvaccinated can contract the disease. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
● There is no cure for polio, it can only be prevented.Hence, statement 3 is correct.
● Polio vaccine, given multiple times, can protect a child for life.
● There are two vaccines available: oral polio vaccine and inactivated polio vaccine. Both are
effective and safe, and both are used in different combinations worldwide, depending on local
epidemiological and programmatic circumstances, to ensure the best possible protection to
populations can be provided.
● India rolled out the Pulse PolioImmunizationProgrammeon2October1994,whenthecountry
accountedforaround60%oftheglobalpoliocases.Withintwodecades,Indiareceived‘Polio-free
certification’fromtheWorldHealthOrganizationon27March2014,withthelastpoliocasebeing
reported in Howrah in West Bengal on 13 January 2011.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
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Prelims - 2024
Q.87) Which of the following phenomena involve the principle of total internal reflection?
1. Optical fiber cable
2. Mirage in a desert
3. Sparkling of the diamond
4. The blue color of the sky
5. Sun looks reddish at the time of sunrise and sunset
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 3, 4 and 5 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
● Total internal reflection(TIR)istheopticalphenomenoninwhichwavesarrivingattheinterface
(boundary)fromonemediumtoanother(e.g.,fromwatertoair)arenotrefractedintothesecond
("external") medium, but completely reflected back into the first ("internal") medium.
● Itoccurswhenthesecondmediumhasahigherwavespeed(i.e.,lowerrefractiveindex)thanthe
first, and the waves are incident at a sufficiently oblique angle on the interface. TIR occursnot
onlywithelectromagneticwavessuchaslightandmicrowavebutalsowithothertypesofwaves,
including sound and water waves.
● Therefractiveindexofthematerialofthecoreishigherthanthatofthecladding.Whenasignal
(light) is directed at oneendofthefiberatasuitableangle,itundergoesrepeatedtotalinternal
reflections along the length of the fiber and emerges at the other end.Hence option 1 is correct.
● A mirage is an optical illusion that deceives travelers moving in the desert during hot summer
days.Inahotdesert,thelayerofairclosesttothegroundishotandthereforerare,beingindirect
contact with the hot sands.Successiveupperlayersarecooleranddenser.Arayoflightmoving
downtowardstheearthkeepsbendingawayfromthenormalasittravelsintolowerhotterlayers.
At a large enough angle of incidence (i<c) the ray will undergo total internal reflection. The
reflected ray will now keep bending towards the normal as it travels upwards into ever denser
layers of air. This is why light is observed to have a curved path as the refractive index keeps
increasing as you move up from the surface.Henceoption 2 is correct.
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● Atthetimeofdiamondpolishing,specificcutsaremadeonthediamondsurfacestoensurelight
rays strike the inner surface at angles greater than the critical angle as much aspossible.Thus
light rays entering a diamond undergo multiple total internal reflections before coming out,
thereby giving it a sparkling effect.Hence option3 is correct.
● Scatteringoflight:Scatteringhappenswhenlightmovesfromonemediumtoanother,suchasair
or aglassofwater,andaportionofthelightisabsorbedbythemedium’sparticles,followedby
subsequentradiationinaspecificdirection.Theintensityofscatteredlightdependsonthesizeof
the particles and the wavelength of the light. It occurs when it travels through a medium
containing some obstacles suspended.
● For example, when sunlight travels through the earth’s atmosphere before reaching theearth’s
surfaceandgetsscatteredbytheobstacleslikeatoms,molecules,dustparticles,waterdroplets,
etc., present in the atmosphere.
● The blue color of the sky can be explained by the Rayleigh scattering of sunlight. As the
wavelengthofbluecolorisroughlyhalfthewavelengthofred,therefore,theintensityofscattered
bluelightisabout2^4timesmorethanthatofredlight.Duetothis,thebluecolordominates,and
theskyappearsblue.Also,Blueisscatteredmorethanothercolorsbecauseittravelsasshorter,
smaller waves. This is why we see a blue sky most of the time.Hence option 4 is notcorrect.
● Duringsunriseandsunset,thesunisnearthehorizon.Theraysfromthesunmusttravelalarger
distance through the dense part of the atmosphere to reachtheobserver.Duringthiscourseof
thejourneyofthelightrays,mostofthebluelightgetsscatteredaway.Theredcolor,whichhas
thehighestwavelengthamongthecolorsinthevisiblespectrum,getsscatteredtheleast.Dueto
this,thelightfromthesunduringsunriseandsunsetenteringtheobserver’seyeconsistsmainly
of light of higher wavelengths like red. Thus, the sun looks reddish at the time of sunrise and
sunset.Hence option 5 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
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Prelims - 2024
Q.88) With reference to OneWeb Constellation, consider the following statements :
1. It uses a constellation of satellites placed in geostationary orbit.
2. It is a collaborative project between NASA and ISRO.
Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
● India’s most powerful rocket has recently launched satellites for OneWeb’s first-generation
internet constellation through Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3) rocket from India’s SatishDhawan
Space Centre.
● OneWeb Constellation is a satellite-based network thataimstoprovidehigh-speed,low-latency
internet connectivity worldwide.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: OneWeb Constellation consists of a network of 588 active satellites
placed in 12 rings of 49 satellites each. The satellites are placed in low Earth orbit (LEO) and
complete a full trip around the Earth in 109 minutes.
● Statement2isincorrect:ItisacollaborativeprojectbetweentheUK-basedOneWebGroupand
the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), in partnership with NewSpace India Ltd(NSIL).
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Q.89) With reference to Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies (iCET) consider the
following statements :
1. The aim is to expand strategic technology partnerships between India and the USA.
2. It will be led by the Department of Science from both the countries.
Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement1iscorrect:TheiCETinitiativewaslaunchedbyIndiaandtheUSinMay2022.Under
iCET, the both countries have identified six areas of cooperation which would include
co-development and co-production, that would gradually be expanded toQUAD,thentoNATO,
followed by Europe and the rest of the world.
○ The six areas for cooperation are scientific research and development; quantum and
artificial intelligence, defense innovation, space, advanced telecom whichwouldinclude
things like 6G and semiconductors.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: It will be spearheaded by the National Security Councils of both
countries.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 103
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.90) Doppler effect is used in which of the following applications?
1. Aerospace navigation
2. Medical imaging
3. Police radar for checking speed of vehicles.
4. Measuring motion of stars and galaxies
Choose the correct code:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
TheDopplereffect(alsoDopplershift)isthechangeinthefrequencyofawaveinrelationtoanobserver
who is moving relative to the source of the wave.
The Doppler effect has several practical applications in various fields, including:
● Aerospace navigation: Since radars are used in aerospace navigation, Doppler Effect helps
calculate the speed of flying equipment, including drones, plane jets, and any other object
frequently used for aerospace missions.
● Radar: Doppler radar is used to measure the velocity of movingobjects,suchasaircraft,ships,
and weather patterns.
● Medicalimaging:Dopplerultrasoundisusedtomeasurebloodflowinthebody,whichcanhelp
diagnose and monitor conditions such as heart disease and blood clots.
● Astronomy:TheDopplereffectisusedtomeasurethemotionofstarsandgalaxies,whichcan
provide insight into the structure and evolution of the universe.
● Acoustics: The Doppler effect is used in acoustic engineering todesignspeakers,microphones,
and other audio equipment.
● Speedguns:LawenforcementagenciesuseDopplerradargunstomeasurethespeedofmoving
vehicles.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 104
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.91) Consider the following statements with reference to dark matter and dark energy:
1. Dark matter is the reason for the expansion of the universe.
2. Dark Matter does not interact with electromagnetic radiation.
3. More than 50% of the universe is composed of dark matter.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Ever since Big-Bang, the universe is expanding at an ever-increasing
rate.ThereasonbehindthiscontinuousexpansionoftheuniverseisaforcenamedDarkEnergy.
On the contrary, the role played by Dark Matter is to bind our universe together.
● Statement 2 is correct: Dark Matter refers to a form of matter that does not emit, absorb, or
interact with electromagnetic radiation (light) like ordinary matter does. It cannot be observed
directly through telescopes. Dark matter only interacts by way of gravity and the weak atomic
force. Darkmatterdoesnotinteractviaeitherthestrongatomicforceorelectromagnetismhence
dark matter cannot be seen and is hard to detect.
● Statement3isincorrect:Roughly68%oftheuniverseisdarkenergyanddarkmattermakesup
about27%.TherestofeverythingonEarth,everythingeverobservedwithallofourinstruments,
all normal matter adds up to less than 5% of the universe.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 105
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.92) Which of the following are the potential applications of Brain-Computer Interface?
1. Mindwriting for paralyzed patients
2. Curing blindness
3. Control of drones
4. Mental Health Monitoring
Choose the correct code:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Recently,ElonMuskmadearecentannouncementconcerningthesuccessfulimplantationofaNeuralink
device in a human subject. The device is roughly the size of a large coin, specifically designed for
implantation in the skull for brain-computer interface.
● ABrain-ComputerInterface(BCI)isatechnologythatenablesdirectcommunicationbetweenthe
brain and external devices, such as computers or prosthetics, without using traditional
neuromuscular pathways like nerves and muscles.
Potential Applications of Brain-Computer Interface:
● Restoration of Mobility and Motor Functions
● Treatment of Neurological Disorders
● Curing Blindness
● ‘Mindwriting’ for Non-Verbal Individuals
● Internal Security Management
● Stroke Rehabilitation
● Telepathically controlling swarms of unmanned aerial vehicles
● Mental Health Monitoring
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 106
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.93) In vitro fertilization can be possible in which of the following species?
1. Humans
2. Animals
3. Plants
Choose the correct code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Humans: IVF is a complex process that involves retrieving eggs from ovaries and manually
combiningthemwithsperminalabforfertilization.Severaldaysafterfertilization,thefertilized
egg (now called an embryo) is placed inside a uterus. Pregnancy occurs when this embryo
implants itself into the uterine wall.
● Animals: IVF can be used to produce offspring from elite animals that are non-productive in
traditional methods. Government encourages IVF of buffaloes to improve cattle wealth in the
country and India’s First Banni Buffalo IVF CalfBornin 2021.
● Plants:Methodshavebeendevelopedtoisolategametesofhigherplantsandtofertilizethemin
vitro.Zygotes,embryos,fertileplantsandendospermcannowbeobtainedfrominvitrofusionof
pairs of sperm and egg cells and of pairs of sperm and central cells, respectively.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 107
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.94) With reference to ‘CAR-T cell therapy’, frequently in the news, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. It uses a patient's own immune system to fight cancer.
2. It has been approved for leukaemia only.
3. In this therapy , T cells are extracted from a donor.
4. It is an expensive therapy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: CAR-T cell therapy, also known as chimeric antigen receptor T-cell
therapy, is a type of immunotherapy that uses apatient'sown immune systemto fight cancer.
● Statement2isincorrect:CART-celltherapyhasbeenapprovedforleukaemias(cancersarising
from the cells that produce white blood cells) and lymphomas (arising from the lymphatic
system). CAR-T cell therapies, often referred to as 'living drugs’.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: T cells, a type of white blood cell that helps fight infection, are
extractedfromthepatient'sbloodthroughaprocessknownasApheresis.Inthelaboratory,the
T cells are genetically modified to express a special protein called a chimeric antigen receptor
(CAR) on their surface.
● Statement 4 is correct: Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cells are a cellular immunotherapy
with remarkable efficacy in treating multiple hematologic malignanciesbuttheyareassociated
withextremely high pricesthat are, for many countries,prohibitively expensive.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 108
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.95) Consider the following statements with reference to stem cells :
1. Stem cells can be derived from menstrual blood.
2. Stem cells can be used to treat type 1 diabetes.
3. Stem cells are found in plants and animals both.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Stemcellsarespecialhumancellswiththeabilitytodevelopintovariouscelltypes,suchasmusclecells
or brain cells.
Statement 1 is correct: Recently, researchers have unveiled theregenerativepotentialofstemcellsin
menstrual blood, stemming from studies conducted roughly two decades ago.
● Menstrualblood-derivedstemcells(MenSCs),knownasendometrialstromalmesenchymalstem
cells, possess multipotent properties, meaning they can differentiate into various tissue types
such as fat cells, bone cells, and smooth muscle cells.
● Statement2iscorrect:Potentialfutureapplicationsincludetreatingchronicheartdisease,type
1 diabetes, spinal cord injuries, and Alzheimer's disease.
● Statement2iscorrect:Animalsandplantsmaintainsmallpoolsofstemcellsthatcontinuously
provide the precursors of more-specialized cells to sustain growth or to replace tissues.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 109
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.96)Whichoneofthefollowinggeneticdisordersaffectthestructureandfunctionofhaemoglobin
that is responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body?
(a) Sickle cell Anaemia
(b) Cystic Fibrosis
(c) Leukemia
(d) Muscular Dystrophy
Answer:A
Explanation:
RecentlytheGovernmentofIndiahaslaunchedtheNationalSickleCellEliminationMission.Themission
isbeingimplementedaspartoftheNationalHealthMission(NHM).Themissionaimstoeliminatesickle
cell disease as a public health problem by 2047.
● Option a is correct: Sickle Cell Anaemia is a genetic disorder that affects the structure and
functionofhaemoglobinthatisresponsibleforcarryingoxygenthroughoutthebody.RedBlood
Cellcontainingthehaemoglobinisusuallyroundandflexible,sotheymoveeasilythroughblood
vessels. But the sickle shaped haemoglobin becomes rigid and sticky, which can slow or block
blood flow. This can lead to various health problems, including anaemia and organ damage.
● Option b is incorrect: Cystic Fibrosis is a genetic disorder, but it does not primarily affect
haemoglobin. Instead, it primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems by causing the
productionofthickandstickymucus.Thismucuscanblockairwaysinthelungsanddisruptthe
normal functioning of the pancreas. Mucus is a normal, slippery, and stringy fluid substance
produced by many lining tissues in the body.
● Optioncisincorrect:Leukemia,isatypeofcancerfoundinbloodandbonemarrow.Itiscaused
bytherapidproductionofabnormalwhitebloodcells.Thehighnumberofabnormalwhiteblood
cellsarenotabletofightinfection,andtheyimpairtheabilityofthebonemarrowtoproducered
blood cells and platelets.
● Option d is incorrect: Muscular Dystrophy is a group of genetic disorders that primarily affect
musclefunction.Itdoesnotdirectlyimpacthaemoglobinoritsroleincarryingoxygen.Muscular
Dystrophy results in the progressive weakening and degeneration of muscles over time.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 110
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.97) With reference to Chandrayaan-3 Mission, consider the following statements:
1. It is designed to include an orbiter, a lander, and a rover.
2. ItisacollaborativeeffortbetweenISRO(IndianSpaceResearchOrganisation)and NASA(National
Aeronautics and Space Administration).
3. Its primary objective is to establish a lunar base with human presence for upcoming missions.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer:D
Explanation:
ChandrayaanmissionsareindependentmissionsconductedbytheIndianSpaceResearchOrganisation
(ISRO) to explore and study the Moon, advance lunar science, and demonstrate India’s technological
capabilities in lunar exploration. Chandrayaan 3 is the third lunar mission of ISRO in this direction.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: UnlikeChandrayaan-2(lander,rover,andorbiter),Chandrayaan-3has
only a lander and a rover. Existing orbiter from Chandrayaan-2 will be usedforcommunication
and terrain mapping purposes. Therefore, the statement that Chandrayaan 3 is designed to
include lander, rover and orbiter is incorrect.
● Statement2isincorrect:Chandrayaan3missionisnotajointmissionbetweenISROandNASA.
It is an independent mission conducted solely by ISRO.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: One of thekeyobjectivesofChandrayaan-3istodemonstrateIndia's
capability to perform a soft landing ontheMoon'ssurface.Alsothemissionaimstoexplorethe
Moon'ssurfaceandanalyselunarsoilsamples.Themissiondoesnotaimtoestablishalunarbase
with human presence for upcoming missions.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 111
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.98) With reference to 4D printing technology, consider the following statements:
1. It is an innovative fabrication approach combining 3D printing and stimuli-responsive material.
2. Materials made from it can respond to changes in heat, water, light, wind or electricity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:C
Explanation:
● 4Dprintingisanadditivemanufacturingtechniqueandisanextensionof3Dprinting.4Dprinting
is aninnovativefabricationapproachcombining3Dprintingandsmartmaterials,alsoknownas
stimuli-responsive materials.
● 4D printing is using smart, stimuli-responsive materials to fabricate implants by applying 3D
printing and bio-printing technologies. Smart materials are classified into shape-memory
materials (SMMs) and shape-changing materials (SCMs). SMMs recover their original shape in
responsetothestimulus.Incontrast,SCMsrespondtostimulibyshowingatemporaryshapeand
return to their original shape after stimuli removal.So, Statement 1 is correct.
● In 4D printing projects, 3D-printed renderings are basically made to be time-dependent. Once
fully fabricated, these renderings can morph in response to the environmental stimuli they
interactwiththeshape-shifting,smartmaterialsthatmakeup4D-printeditemsreacttoacatalyst
—suchasheat,water,light,windorelectricity—basedonasetofinstructionswrittenintotheir
geometric coding. Once activated, they may elongate, bend, wrinkle, fold, twist, or even
disintegrate.So, Statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 112
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.99) Consider the following statements about Viruses and choose theincorrectstatement:
(a) Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy
(b) Viruses cannot be cultured in any synthetic medium
(c) Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only
(d) Viruses can either have DNA or RNA genome
Answer:C
Explanation:
● Virusesaregenerallyconsideredasnon-livingandtheylackmanyofthebasiccellularmachinery
that living organisms possess, such as the ability to generate energy by themselves. Instead,
viruses rely on the host cell's machinery to replicate and produce new virus particles.
● Unlikebacteriaandothermicroorganismswhichcanbegrowninartificialmedia,virusescannot
begrownonartificialmedia.Virusaretotallydependentonahostcellforreplication(i.e.,theyare
strictintracellularparasites.).Sinceviruseslackmetabolicmachineryoftheirownandaretotally
dependent on their host cell for replication, they cannot be grown in synthetic culture media.
● Whilesomevirusesaretransmittedthroughbiologicalvectorssuchasmosquitoesorticks,many
otherscanbetransmittedthroughnon-biologicalmeanssuchasfomites(inanimateobjectsthat
can carry viruses), contaminated food or water, or through the air.
● Virusesaresmallerandsimplerinconstructionthanunicellularmicroorganisms,andtheycontain
only one type of nucleic acid either DNA or RNA never both. Compared to DNA virus genomes,
which can encode up to hundreds of viral proteins, RNA viruses have smaller genomes that
usuallyencodeonlyafewproteins.Somevirusesalsohaveanouterlipidenvelope.Theydonot
have organelles, ribosomes, orthemachineryforproteinsynthesis,makingthemdependenton
the host cell for their survival and replication.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 113
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Q.100) Consider the following statements:
1. Web1.0isthefirstversionoftheinternet,consistingofaread-onlytypeofwebcontent,butitwas
not possible to interact with.
2. Web 2.0 is all about reading, writing, creating, and interacting with the end user, which the
community focussed on.
3. Web3.0istheread-write-executewebutilizationandinteraction,whichincludescoreconceptsof
decentralization, openness, and greater user utility.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer:C
Explanation:
The Internet has evolved from Web 1.0 and Web 2.0 to Web 3.0, which refers to a group of new
technologies.
● Web1.0referstotheInternetthroughthe1990sandintotheearly2000s,whereinformationwas
presented as static web pages without any form of interaction (i.e., unidirectional
communication) or content generation by the user.
● Web 2.0 is all about reading, writing, creating, andinteractingwiththeenduser.IfWeb1.0was
called “the read-only Web,” Web 2.0 is knownas“theparticipativesocialWeb.”However,Web
2.0,whilebringingbillionsonline,hasbroughtalongmassivecentralizationofdata,control,and
infrastructure in the hands of a few giants like Google, Meta,Microsoft,Amazon,etc.Web2.0is
community focused.
● Web 3.0 is the"read,write,andexecuteWeb."Decentralizationofthewebliesatthecoreofthe
Web 3.0 revolution. It will essentially transform the web into a database–itwillalsoshiftfrom
data ownership(acontentioustopictoday)todatasharing.Web3.0isindividualfocused.World
WideWebinventorTimBerners-LeeinitiallycalledWeb3.0theSemanticWebandenvisionedan
intelligent, autonomous, and open Internet that used Artificial Intelligence and Machine
Learning to act as a "global brain" and process content conceptually and contextually.
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 114
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
Its features and characteristics will include:
● Ubiquity – Ubiquity essentially refers to making something universally available. In this
case, users can use Web 3.0 everywhere through any internet-enabled device.
● Connectivity – User experience will advance into a higher level of communication that
involves utilizing all available data.
● Semantic Web – This will process information and data based on the meaning ofwords
rather than search terms.
● Artificial Intelligence (AI) – AI will enable computers to process information as humans do.
● Graphics in 3D – Graphics will be designed in 3D for better visualappealandtosupport
content interaction.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 115
Full Length Test
Prelims - 2024
©EdSarrthi 9569093856 www.edsarrthi.com 116
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